## OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year-2018

MENTAL APTITUDE

Directions for questions 1 – 10 :

In the problem Figures, the first two figures bear a definite relationship with each other, and the third figure bears the same relation with one of the four figures given as Answer Figures, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Indicate the correct answer.

Questions:

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

8.

9.

10.

11. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A) −12

(B) −20/3

(C) 12

(D) 20/3

Direction for questions 12 – 14 :

In each of the following questions, four groups of letters are given; three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the ODD one.

Questions:

12.

(A) FIL

(B) RUX

(C) ILO

(D) LOQ

13.

(A) AZBY

(B) PTQS

(C) CWDW

(D) PTQS

14.

(A) NEXFL

(B) LANCP

(C) FRGSP

(D) ZGPKU

15. In a row of 60, A is standing at 10th from the right end, how many places should A move left ward to become 23rd from the left end?

(A) 25

(B) 26

(C) 27

(D) 28

Directions for questions 16 – 19 :

Each question is followed by two statements (A) and (B)

Indicate

(1) If statement (A) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (B) alone is not sufficient.

(2) If statement (B) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (A) alone is not sufficient.

(3) If BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

(4) If statements (A) and (B) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Questions:

16. If  is x < 0 ?

(A) x < y

(B) z < 0

17. If p is the perimeter of rectangle Q, what is the value of p?

(A) Each diagonal of rectangle Q has length 10.

(B) The area of rectangle Q is 48.

18. In a school, 300 students study Hindi or Urdu or both. If 100 of these students do not study Hindi, how many of these students study both Hindi and Urdu?

(A) Of the 300 students, 200 study Hindi or both languages.

(B) A total of 240 of the students study Urdu.

19. If m is an integar, is m odd?

(A) m/2 is NOT an even integer.

(B) m – 3 is an even integer.

20. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law”. How is the woman’s husband related to the man in the photograph?

(A) Grandson

(B) Son

(C) Son-in-law

(D) Nephew

Direction for questions 21 – 24 :

In each of the following questions, a pair of words is given. You are to study the relation existing between them and then find out from the given alternatives, the pair of words that bears the same relation between them and indicate that on the answer sheet.

Questions :

21. Fatigue : Resting

(A) Overweight : Dieting

(B) Ward : Comfortable

(D) Elevated : Exalted

(A) Cube : Trifold

(B) Square : Rectangle

(C) Trident : Trapezium

(D) Pentagon : Hexagon

23. Numismatist : Coins

(A) Philatelist : Stamps

(B) Jeweller : Jewels

(C) Cartographer : Maps

(D) Geneticist : Chromosomes

24. Textile : Mill

(A) Eggs : Hen

(B) Coal : Mine

(C) Food : Agriculture

(D) Brick : Kiln

25. Rahim moves 20 metres in East direction and then turns to his left and then moves 15 metres and then he turns to his right and moves 25 metres. After this he turns to his right and moves 15 metres. Now how far is he from his starting point?

(A) 0 metre

(B) 40 metres

(C) 45 metres

(D) 50 metres

Directions for questions 26 – 28:

The numbers in each series proceed according to a certain rule. Your task is to find out the rule according to which the numbers are arranged and find out the number which can fill in the LAST blank with the ‘?’ mark from among the suggested answers.

Questions :

26. 301 291   282  274   ?

(A) 265

(B) 268

(C) 270

(D) 267

27. 3 2  9  4  81  16  6561  ?

(A) 64

(B) 243

(C) 256

(D) None of these

28. 4 6  10  18  34  66  ?

(A) 100

(B) 130

(C) 88

(D) 99

29. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which will be the last day of that year?

(A) Monday

(B) Friday

(C) Saturday

(D) Sunday

Direction for questions 30 – 39:

In each of the following questions there are figures. Three of them are similar in some respect while one is different. Select the figure which is DIFFERENT.

Questions :

30.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

37.

38.

39.

40. If ‘man’ is called ‘girl’, ‘girl’ is called ‘boy’, ‘boy’ is called ‘lady’, ‘lady’ is called ‘butler’ and ‘butler’ is called ‘player’, who will serve in restaurant?

(A) Player

(B) Butler

(C) Boy

Direction for questions 41 – 43 :

All the 30 students of a class took a test on Mathematics and a test on English. The following table shows the result :

Two students failed both in Mathematics and English.

41. How many students failed in only one subject?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 9

42. How many students passed in at least one subject?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 9

43. How many students passed in both the subjects?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 19

44. If in a certain language, TIGER is coded as RIGET, how is ‘CROWN’ coded in that code ?

(A) NROWC

(B) NOWRC

(C) RRWCO

(D) NOWCR

Directions for questions 45 – 49 :

(i) There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.

(ii) One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist, one is a industrialist and one is an advocate.

(iii) Three of them – A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them – B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.

(iv) The industrialist and D and A are friend of one another but two of these prefer coffee to tea.

Questions :

45. Who is a horticulturist ?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

46. Who is an industrialist?

(A) E

(B) C

(C) B

(D) D

47. Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?

(A) ACE

(B) DE

(C) BD

(D) BCD

48. Who is physicist?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) D

(D) E

49. Which of the statements above is superfluous in order to answer the above questions ?

(A) Nil

(B) (iii)

(C) (ii)

(D) (v)

50. If BAT = 40, AT = 20 then CAT will be equal to ?

(A) 70

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 30

PHYSICS

51. The rate of change of current of 10 A s1 in a coil produces an emf of 5 V. Then the self-inductance of the coil in henry is :

(A) 0.5

(B) 0.25

(C) 1.0

(D) 1.25

52. The phase difference between the alternating current and emf is π/2. Which of the following CANNOT be the constituent of the circuit?

(A) L, C

(B) L alone

(C) C alone

(D) R, L

53. An electric motor operating on 15 V supply draws a current of 5 A and yields mechanical powers of 60 W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :

(A) 0.54

(B) 5.4

(C) 54

(D) 540

54. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to:

(A) the speed of light in vacuum

(B) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

(C) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

(D) unity

55. The ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of its real image of magnification m in the case of a convex mirror is :

(A) −1/m2

(B) m2

(C) −m

(D) 1/m

56. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a :

(A) concave lens

(B) convex lens

(C) neither concave nor convex

(D) None of these

57. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens combination will be :

(A) +1.5 D

(B) −1.5 D

(C) +6.67

(D) −6/67

58. Two monochromatic light waves of amplitudes A and 2A interfering at a point have a phase difference of 600. The intensity at that point will be proportional to :

(A) 3 A2

(B) 5 A2

(C) 7 A2

(D) 9 A2

59. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum :

(A) power

(B) wavelength

(C) intensity

(D) frequency

60. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

(A) 1/√2

(B) √2

(C) 1/2

(D) 2

61. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (1 1 0 1 0. 1 0 1)2 is :

(A) 9.625

(B) 25.265

(C) 26.625

(D) 26.265

62. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction :

(A) widens the depletion zone

(B) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(C) increases the number of donors on the n-side

(D) increases the electric field in the depletion zone

63. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :

(A) FV1T1

(B) FVT1

(C) FV1T

(D) FVT2

64. If the error in measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be :

(A) 2%

(B) 4%

(C) 6%

(D) 8%

65. A particle is travelling along a straight line OX. The distance x(in meters) of the particle from O at a time t is given by x = 37 + 27t – t3, where t is in seconds. The distance of the particle from O when it comes to rest is :

(A) 81 m

(B) 91 m

(C) 101 m

(D) 111 m

66. Value of ratio between cross product and dot product of two vectors is 1/3. The angle between two vectors is:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 120°

67. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is :

(A) MV

(B) 1.5 MV

(C) 2 MV

(D) Zero

68. For an object sliding on a plane, the force of friction is less if the plane is inclined, instead of being horizontal

(A) because, effective mass decreases

(B) because, normal force decreases

(C) because, co-efficient of friction decreases

(D) for an angle of inclination θ, friction is inversely proportional to tan θ

69. If a body travels along a circular path with uniform speed then its acceleration

(A) is zero

(B) acts along its circumference

(C) acts along its tangent

70. A force is acting on a mass of 6 kg. Displacement x of the mass is related with time t as x = t2/4 meter. Work done by the force in 2 sec. is :

(A) 3 J

(B) 6 J

(C) 9 J

(D) 12 J

71. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be :

(A) F/√2

(B) E/2

(C) E/4

(D) E/8

72. Power required to raise a mass of 120 kg vertically upwards at a velocity of 4.5 m.s1 is :

(A) 5 kW

(B) 5.3 kW

(C) 8 kW

(D) 11.2 kW

73. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The centre of mass of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally towards

(A) lighter piece

(B) heavier piece

(C) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking

(D) does not shift horizontally

74. Angular momentum of a moving body remains constant if

(A)a pressure acts on the body

(B) an external force acts on the body

(C) an external torque acts on the body

(D) no external torque acts on the body

75. Moment of inertia of circular wire of mass m and radius r about its diameter is

(A) 1/2mr2

(B) 1/4 mr2

(C) mr2

(D) 2mr2

76. If the diurnal motion of the earth ceases al on a sudden, then the value of the acceleration due to gravity of a body at the equator will

(A) remains same

(B) be zero

(C) increase

(D) decrease

77. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case

(A) v1 = v2

(B) v1 < v2

(C) v1 > v2

(D) v1/r­1 = v2/r2

78. A wire of initial length L and area of cross-section A has Young’s modulus Y of its material. The wire is stretched by a stress S within its elastic limit. The stored energy density in the wire will be

(A) S/2Y

(B) 2Y/S2

(C) S2/2Y

(D) S2/Y

79. Which of the following works on Pascal’s law?

(A) Sprayer

(B) Hydraulic lift

(C) Barometer

(D) Venturimeter

80. Surface energy of a water drop of radius r will be directly proportional to

(A) r

(B) r2

(C) r3

(D) 1/r

81. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then

(A) F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v

(B) F ∝ η and F ∝ v

(C) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ 1/v

(D) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ v

82. Apparent weight of a body immersed in water at 20°C is W1. When temperature is increased to 40°C, the apparent weight becomes W2. In this case

(A) for different solids W2 may be greater than or less than W1

(B) W2 is always equal to W1

(C) W2 is always less than W1

(D) W2 is always greater than W1

83. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is

(A) 1/T

(B) 2/T

(C) 3/T

(D) 4/T

84. During boiling water at 100°C, what will be its specific heat?

(A) zero

(B) 0.5

(C) 1

(D) infinite

85. If the temperature of a black body raises from T to 2T, how many times will its rate of radiation be ?

(A) 16

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 2

86. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas

(A) the temperature will decrease

(B) the volume will increase

(C) the pressure will remain constant

(D) the temperature will increase

87. Even Carnot engine CANNOT give 100% efficiency, because we CANNOT

(A) eliminate friction

(C) reach absolute zero temperature

(D) find ideal sources

88. 3 mol of a monatomic gas (υ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 mol of a diatomic gas (υ = 7/3). The value of υ for the mixture will be

(A) 9/11

(B) 11/7

(C) 12/7

(D) 15/7

89. Time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is T1 and at a height R above the surface of the earth is T2, here R is the radius of the earth. The ratio T1/T2 :

(A) 1

(B) √2

(C) 4

(D) 2

90. When a force F1 acts on a particle, frequency is 6 Hz and when a force F2 acts, frequency is 8 Hz. Now if both the forces act simultaneously in same direction, then its frequency becomes

(A) 20 Hz

(B) 14 Hz

(C) 10 Hz

(D) 2 Hz

91. When a fundamental tone is produced from pipe of length l, open at both ends, the wavelength of the stationary wave is

(A) l

(B) 2l

(C) l/2

(D) 4l

92. A source of sound with frequency 256 Hz is moving with a velocity υ towards a wall and an observer is stationary between the source and wall. When the observer is between the source and the wall, he will

(A) hear beats

(B) hear no beats

(C) not get any sound

(D) get the sound of same frequency

93. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(A) Q/2

(B) −Q/2

(C) −Q/4

(D) Q/4

94. If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric field of strength E, then the polarization P is

(A) independent of E

(B) inversely proportional to E

(C) directly proportional to √E

(D) directly proportional to E

95. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 ohm and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 ohm is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

(A) 2Ω

(B) 3Ω

(C) 6Ω

(D) 1Ω

96. A heater coil is a cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be

(A) one fourth

(B) halved

(C) doubled

(D) four times

97. An electric bulb marked as 50 W-200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is

(A) 37.5 W

(B) 25 W

(C) 12.5 W

(D) 10 W

98. A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a magnetic field B0 at its centre. The coil is now rewound so as to have 3 turns and the same current is passed through it. The new magnetic field at the centre is

(A) B0/9

(B) 9B0

(C) B0/3

(D) 3B0

99. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10 A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T making an angle of 45° with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be

(A) 1.5 N

(B) 3√2 N

(C) 3 N

(D) 3/√2

100. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

(A) anti-ferromagnetism

(B) paramagnetism

(C) diamagnetism

(D) no magnetic property

CHEMISTRY

101. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is

(A) H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+

(B) K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+

(C) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+

(D) Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+

102. The activation energy of a reaction depends on

(A) temperature

(B) initial concentration of the reactant

(C) effective collisions among the reactant molecules

(D) nature of the reactants

103. The bottle of liquor ammonia is cooled before opening the cork because it

(A) is a mild explosive

(B) is a corrosive liquid

(C) is harmful to lung

(D) exerts high vapour pressure

104. Which of the following substances form a colloidal solution in water?

(A) Glucose

(B) Urea

(C) BaSO4

(D) Starch

105. Adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is an exothermic process, because

(A) change in free energy of the system increases

(B) enthalpy of the system increases

(C) entropy of the system increases

(D) enthalpy of the system decreases

106. In the manufacture of steel, the process in which O2 is used instead of air is

(A) Open-hearth process

(B) Acidic Bessemer’s process

(C) Alkaline Bessemer’s process

(D) LD process

107. The ore that does NOT contain aluminium is

(A) fluorspar

(B) Feldspar

(C) Cryolite

(D) Mica

108. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic ?

(A) Nitrogen trioxide

(B) Nitrogen pentoxide

(C) Dinitrogen tetroxide

(D) Nitric oxide

109. Which one of the following is used as the photosensitive substance in Xerox machines

(A) Hg

(B) Black P

(C) Se

(D) Te

110. Fe2+ can be differentiated from Fe3+ with the help of

(A) BaCl2

(B) AgNO3

(C) NH4SCN

(D) None of these

111. The salt of the d-block element that is used as a catalyst in the dissociation of the bleaching powder is

(A) Ni

(B) CO

(C) V

(D) Cr

112. The reagent used for identifying Nickel ion is

(A) Potassium ferrocyanide

(B) Phenolphthalein

(C) Dimethylglyoxime

(D) EDTA

113. When 800g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 100 g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is

(A) 20.0%

(B) 25.0%

(C) 31.4%

(D) 50.0%

114. A sample of Na2CO3. H2O weighing 0.62 g is added to 100 ml of 0.1 NH2SO4. The resulting solution will be

(A) Basic

(B) Neutral

(C) Acidic

(D) Amphoteric

115. An anion X3 has 36 electrons and 45 neutrons. What is the mass number of the element X?

(A) 81

(B) 84

(C) 78

(D) 88

116. If two particles are associated with same kinetic energy, then the de-Broglie’s wavelength (λ) of these particles is

(A) directly proportional to the velocity

(B) inversely proportional to the velocity

(C) independent of mass and velocity

(D) cannot be predicted

117. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P S and F is

(A) F < S < P < B

(B) P < S < B < F

(C) B < P < S < F

(D) B < S < P < F

118. In the relation, Electronegativity = , r is

119. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding is

(A) NH3

(B) PH3

(C) CH3+

(D) SbH3

120. The molecule with the highest dipole moment is

(A) CH2Cl2

(B) CH3Cl

(C) CHCl3

(D) CCl4

121. The dimension of coefficient of viscosity

(A) MLT

(B) ML1T1

(C) MLT1

(D) MLT2

122. At STP, O2 gas present in a flask was replaced by SO2 under similar conditions. The mass of SO2 present in the flask will be

(A) half that of O2

(B) equal to that of O2

(C) twice that of O2

(D) one-third of O2

123. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 & ∆S2 respectively, then

(A) ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(B) ∆S1 + ∆S2 < 0

(C) ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0

(D) ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0

124. The volume of a gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat will

(A) double

(B) remain constant

(C) reduce to half

(D) increase four times

125. The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g) was studied using an initial concentration of B which was 1.5 times that of A. The equilibrium concentration of A and C were found to be equal. SO, Kc for the equilibrium is

(A) 0.32

(B) 2.73

(C) 4.0

(D) 8.17

126. A mixture containing N2 and H2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure at equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is

(A) P/2

(B) P/3

(C) P/5

(D) P/9

127. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid is

(A) +1

(B) +3

(C) +4

(D) +5

128. The amount of H2O2 required for decolourising 1mol of KMnO4 in an acid solution is

(A) 1.5 mol

(B) 2.0 mol

(C) 2.5 mol

(D) 3.0 mol

129. The process by which hydrogen is prepared by the reaction of silicon, iron alloy and NaOH, is

(A) Haber’s process

(B) Silicon process

(C) Wood process

(D) Bosch process

130. Which of the followings does NOT get reduced by H2 in its aqueous solution?

(A) Cu2+

(B) Fe3+

(C) Zn2+

(D) Ag+

131. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is

(A) CCl4

(B) Sand

(C) Water

(D) Kerosene

132. The compound whose aqueous solution is called ‘baryta water’ is

(A) BaSO4

(B) BaO

(C) BaCO3

(D) Ba(OH)2

133. The optically active alkane of lowest molecular mass which is also chiral is

(A) 3-methylhexane

(B) 2,3-dimethylpentane

(C) 2-methylhexane

(D) 2, 5-dimethylhexane

134. Bond lengths C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C follow the sequence

(A) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

(B) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

(C) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H

(D) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

135. Nitrobenzene is prepared from benzene by using conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an

(A) Base

(B) Acid

(C) Reducing agent

(D) Catalyst

136. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-aminophenol exists in (X) and (Y) forms respectively

Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at

(A) a, c

(B) a, d

(C) b, c

(D) b, d

137. Incomplete combustion of gasoline produces

(A) CO2

(B) CO

(C) SO2

(D) NO2

138. Cause of byssinosis diseases

(A) fly-ash

(B) cement particles

(C) cotton fibre

139. Which one is NOT favourable for SN1 reaction

(A) Polar solvent

(B) Strong nucleophile

(C) Low concentration

(D) 3° alkyl halide

140. Consider the following reaction :

The product Z is

(A) Benzaldehyde

(B) Benzene

(C) Benzoic acid

(D) Toluene

141. Which converts carboxylic acids directly into alcohols?

(A) LiAlH4

(B) Na + C2H5OH

(C) NaBH4

(D) All of these

142. In the reaction of acetaldehyde with aniline, the product formed is

(A) Schiff’s base

(B) Carbylamine

(C) Imine

(D) None of these

143. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose yields

(A) D-fructose

(B) D-ribose

(C) D-glucose

(D) L-glucose

144. Monomers of Buna-S are

(D) Vinyl chloride and Sulphur

145. Chemical name of aspirin is

(A) Methyl Benzoate

(B) Ethyl Salicylate

(C) Acetylsalicyclic acid

(D) Hydroxybenzoic acid

146. Which of the following crystal systems does NOT have body-centered lattice?

(A) Orthorhombic

(B) Tetragonal

(C) Monoclinic

(D) Cubic

147. NaCl has face-centered unit cell. In its crystal, the number of Clions present in contact with a Na+ ion is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

148. Which of the following concentration units does NOT depend on temperature?

(A) Molarity

(B) Normality

(C) Mole fraction

(D) Formality

149. At a given temperature, which one of the following solutions would have the highest vapour pressure?

(A) 0.1 m glucose solution

(B) 0.1 m NaCl solution

(C) 0.1 m CaCl2 solution

(D) 0.1 m Al2 (SO4)3 solution

150. Which one of the following does NOT give precipitate on reaction with lead acetate?

(A) HI

(B) HBr

(C) HCl

(D) HF

MATHEMATICS

151. The largest interval for which x12 – x9 + x4 – x + 1 > 0 is

(A) −4 < x ≤ 0

(B) 0 < x < 1

(C) −100 < x < 100

(D) 0 < x < ∝

152. The smallest positive integer n for which  holds is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

153. The number of integral solutions of x2 + y2 = x2y2 is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) infinite

(D) None of these

154. How many ways are there to arrange the letters in the word GARDEN with the vowels in alphabetical order ?

(A) 120

(B) 240

(C) 360

(D) 480

155. The sum of the series  upto ∞ is equal to

(A) 2 loge2

(B) loge2 – 1

(C) loge2

(D) loge (4/e)

156. Let a1, a2, a3 ……. cannot be terms of an A.P. If

(A) 7/2

(B) 2/7

(C) 11/41

(D) 41/11

157. If the slope of the line joining the points A(x, 2) and B(6, −8) is −5/4, then x = ?

(A) −2

(B) 2

(C) −3

(D) 3

158. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is

(A) x + 2y – 6 = 0

(B) x – 2y – 6 = 0

(C) x + 2y + 6 = 0

(D) x – 2y + 6 = 0

159. If A(−1, 3) and B(α, β) be the extremities of the diameter of the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 5y – 7 = 0, then

(A) α = −7, β = 8

(B) α = 7, β = −8

(C) α = −6, β = 7

(D) α = 6, β = −7

160. If the parabola y2 = 4ax passes through the point P(3, 2), then the length of its latus rectum is

(A) 1/3

(B) 2/3

(C) 4/3

(D) 4

161. One focus of hyperbola is at(0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) None of these

162. The foci of an ellipse are (0, ±6) and the length of its minor axis is 16. The equation of the ellipse is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

163. State which of the following is total number of relations from set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} to set B = {d, e} is –

(A) 24

(B) 26

(C) 28

(D) 215

164. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(c) = b and f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f1 (b) ?

(A) {a}

(B) {b}

(C) {c)

(D) {d}

165. If the binary operation on Z is defined by a*b = a2 – b2 + ab + 4, then the value of (2*3)*4 is

(A) 233

(B) 33

(C) 55

(D) −55

166. If sin1 x − cos1 x = π/6, state which of the following is the value of x ?

(A) 1

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/√2

(D) √3/2

167. Given the LPP, min. Z = 3x – y, subject to the constraints

2x + 3y ≥ 1 and x, y ≥ 0

The optimum solution of the LPP is

(A) x = 0, y = 1/2

(B) x = 0, y = 1/3

(C) x = 1/3, y = 0

(D) x = 1/2, y = 0

168. In a linear programming problem, the equation 2x + 3y = 12 in two unknowns has number of solutions equal to

(A) maximum value of an minimum value of

(B) a particular value of and

(C) infinite

(D) None of these

169. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA|

(A) K |A|

(B) K2 |A|

(C) K3 |A|

(D) 3K |A|

170. The system of equations

αx + y + z = α −1

x + αy + z = α −1

x + y + αz = α −1

has no solution, if α is

(A) 1

(B) not −2

(C) either −2 or 1

(D) −2

171. Matrix  is invetible for

(A) k = 1

(B) k = −1

(C) all real k

(D) None of these

172. If matrix  then k is

(A) 7

(B) −7

(C) 1/7

(D) 11

173. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is

(A) 37/256

(B) 219/256

(C) 128/256

(D) 28/256

174. If P(A ∪ B) = 0.8 and P (A ∩ B) = 03, then P(Aʹ) + P(Bʹ) equals to

(A) 0.9

(B) 0.7

(C) 0.5

(D) 0.3

175. The value of f at x = 0 so that function  is continuous at x = 0, is

(A) 0

(B) log 2

(C) log 4

(D) e4

176. The rate of change of the function y = f(x) w.r.t x at the point x is

(A)

(B) 2f ‘(x)

(C)

(D) None of these

177. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse  at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

178. A function f(x) is defined in a < x < b and a ≤ x1 ≤ x2 < b; then f(x) is strictly monotonic decreasing in a ≤ x ≤ b when

(A) f(x2) > f(x1) when x2 > x1

(B) f(x2) < f(x1) when x2 > x1

(C) f(x2) > f(x1) when x2 < x1

(D) f(x2) < f(x1) when x2 < x1

179. If 0 ≤x ≤ 2π, the function f(x) = sin x is minimum at

(A) x = 3π/2

(B) x = π

(C) 3π/4

(D) x = 2π

180. The value of ∫(cosec 2x cot 2x) is

(A)

(B) 2 cot 2x + c

(C) −2 cosec 2x + c

(D)

181. If  then A is equal to

(A) 0

(B) π

(C) π/4

(D) 2π

182. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(A) 1, 2/3

(B) 3, 1

(C) 3, 3

(D) 1, 2

183. The solution of the differential equation y dx + (x + x2y) dy = 0 is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D) log y = cx

184. If  then the value of m is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

185. If the position vectors of the points P and Q are  respectively, then vector  is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

186. If a line whose direction ratios are proportional to 0, 1, −1 then the inclination of the line with z-axis is

(A) π/2

(B) π

(C) 3π/2

(D) 3π/4

187. If the line  is parallel to z-axis then

(A) a= c = 0 and b ≠ 0

(B) a = b = c and c ≠ 0

(C) b = c = 0 and a ≠ 0

(D) a = b = c = 0

188. The lines  are

(A) coincident

(B) skew

(C) intersecting

(D) parallel

189. The intercept made by the plane  on the x-axis is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

190. Value of λ such that the line  is perpendicular to normal t the plane  is

(A) −13/4

(B) −17/4

(C) 4

(D) −11/4

191. In the expansion of (1 + x)n, the binomial co-efficients of three consecutive terms are respectively 220, 495 and 792. The value of n is

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

192. The function of  is

(A) an even function

(B) an odd function

(C) a periodic function

(D) neither an even nor an odd function

193. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is

(A) 16

(B) 15

(C) 4

(D) None of these

194. If f : R → R satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) for all x, y, ∈ R and f(1) = 7, then  is

(A) 7n/2

(B)

(C) 7n(n + 1)

(D)

195. If |Z2 – 1| = |Z2| + 1 then Z lies on

(A) the real axis

(B) the imaginary axis

(C) a circle

(D) an ellipse

196. The value of  is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

197. The value of  is

(A) 1

(B) −1

(C) −i

(D) i

198. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 2

199. If (1 – p) is a root of quadratic equation x2 + px + (1 – p) = , then the roots are

(A) 0, 1

(B) −1, 1

(C) 0, −1

(D) −1, 2

200. Solution of the inequation 4x+0.5 – 7.2x < 4, x ∈ R is

(A) (−2, ∝)

(B) (2, ∝)

(C) (2, 7/2)

(D) None of these

BIOLOGY

151. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through

(A) mutations with natural selection

(B) continuous variations with natural selection

(C) hybridisation

(D)mutations

152. Genetic drift operates in ………….. population

(A) small

(B) large

(C) island

(D) Mendelian

153. Which of the following is quartan in periodicity?

(A) P. ovale

(B) P. vivax

(C) P. falciparum

(D) P. malariae

154. B.C.G is vaccine against?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) German measles

(D) Chicken pox

155. In tissue culture variations appeared are

(A) Somatic variation

(B) Clonal variation

(C) Somaclonal variation

(D) Tissue culture variation

156. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is

(A) Bacillus

(B) Trichoderma

(C) Baculovirus

(D) Glomus

157. The technique for breakage of DNA fragment and inserting it into another DNA molecule, is related to

(A) Gene cloning

(B) Gene typing

(C) Gene splicing

(D) DNA fingerprinting

158. Which type of restriction enzymes are used in recombinant DNA technology?

(A) Type – I

(B) Type – II

(C) Type – III

(D) All of these

159. Which of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants/best genetic vector used in plants?

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis

(B) Xanthomonas citri

(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(D) E. coli

160. Animals with built in thermostat are

(A) poikilothermic

(B) oligothermic

(C) homeothermic

(D) biothermic

161. The lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is

(A) class

(B) kingdom

(C) species

(D) phylum

162. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present is

(A) Rhynia

(B) Psilotum

(C) Lycopodium

(D) Selaginella

163. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having

(A) seeds

(B) large leaves

(C) tap roots

(D) covered seeds

164. Green glands are the excretory organs of

(A) Insecta

(B) Myriapoda

(C) Arachnida

(D) Crustaceans

165. Which tissue give mechanical strength to plant organs ?

(A) Accessory cells

(B) Collenchyma

(C) Parenchyma

(D) Stomata

166. In which flower epipetalous stamen is found ?

(A) Calotropis

(B) Sesbania

(C) Datura

(D) Acalypha

167. Which of the following is uperficial of calf muscle?

(A) Trapezius

(B) Latissimus

(C) Gluteus

(D) Gastrocnemius

168. During inspiration in cockroach the respiratory passage is

(A) Stigmata

(B) Air chamber

(C) Spiracle and trachea

(D) Longitudinal respiratory tube

169. The function of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to

(A) store eggs

(B) store sperms

(C) keep vagina moist

(D) secretate the egg case

170. Golgi apparatus takes part in

(A) Carbohydrate synthesis

(B) Lipid synthesis

(C) Protein synthesis

(D) Oxydative photophosphorylation

171. The longest living cells amongst the following are

(A) T-cells

(B) B-cells

(C) Memory cells

(D) RB

172. Mitochondria increases in the cells of

(A) dry seed

(B) dormant seed

(C) germinating seed

(D) Ripening fruits

173. What holds the ribosomes together in a polyribosome?

(A) mRNA

(B) rRNA

(C) tRNA

(D) mRNA, rRNA, & tRNA

174. Some inorganic ions are required for enzyme activity. These inorganic substance are

(A) enzyme

(B) co-factor

(C) prosthetic group

(D) activator

175. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

176. Potassium ion exchange hypothesis of opening and closing of stomata was proposed by

(A) Sayre

(B) Stewart

(C) Levitt

(D) Bose

177. If a cell ‘X’ has op = 6 and TP = 5 and is surrounded by the cell with op = 4 and TP = 2, then what will be the direction of water movement?

(A) From other cell to cell ‘X’

(B) From cell ‘X’ to other cell

(C) Water absorption is not affected by temperature

(D) Water will move freely

178. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place through

(A) xylem

(B) phloem

(C) parenchyma

(D) cambium

179. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(A) Oxaloacetate

(B) Glucose-1-6 diphosphate

(C) Pyruvic acid

(D) Acetyl Co-A

180. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 22 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FASH2 in

(A) Respiratory chain

(B) Kreb’s cycle

(C) Oxidative decarboxylation

(D) EMP

181. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(A) exponential phase

(B) lag phase

(C) stationary phase

(D) senescent phase

182. Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seed is triggered by

(A) Auxin

(B) Cytokinin

(C) Gibberellin

(D) Ethylene

183. Digestive enzymes are released by pancreas and bile is released by liver in response to the hormone

(A) Zymogen

(B) Cholecystokinin

(C) Insulin

(D) Secretin

184. After O2 diffusion into pulmonary capillaries, it diffused into ……….. and binds with ……….

(A) RBC, haemoglobin

(B) RBC, CO2

(C) Interstitial fluid, CO2

(D) Interstitial fluid, RBC

185. If vagus/parasympathetic nerve to heart is cut, the heart beat will

(A) stop

(B) remain normal

(C) increase

(D) decrease

186. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O ?

(A) LH

(B) FSH

(C) TSH

(D) Aldosterone

187. Which of the following animals having longitudinal binary fission?

(A) Hydra

(B) Plasmodium

(C) Paramoecim

(D) Euglena

188. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

(A) Offset

(B) Runner

(C) Sucker

(D) Rhizome

189. Formation of an organism from a single, male gamete without fusion with egg is an example of

(A) Apogamy

(B) Parthenogenesis

(C) Parthenocarpy

(D) Apospory

190. Decrease in levels of which of the following causes menstrual flow ?

(A) Progesterone

(B) Vasopressin

(C) FSH

(D) Oxytocin

191. Spermatozoa are nourished during development by

(A) Leydig cell

(B) Sertoli cell

(C) Germinal epithelium

(D) Mitochondria

192. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by

(A) Trichomonas vaginalis

(B) Treponema pallidum

(C) Human papilloma virus

(D) Chlamydia trachomatis

193. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females

(A) who cannot retain foetus inside uterus

(B) who cannot produce ovum

(C) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilization

(D) whose cervical canal is too narrow, to allow passage for sperms

194. A method of birth control is

(A) IUDs

(B) HJF

(C) IVF-ET

195. The linked characters would always inherit together till they are

(A) mutated

(C) separated due to crossing over

196. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of

(A) Nullisomy

(B) Monosomy

(C) Gene mutation

(D) Trisomy

197. Leading strand during DNA replication is formed

(A) is short segment

(B) continuously

(C) first

198. An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It is called

(A) Gene therapy

(B) Cloning

(C) Mutation

(D) None of these

199. Geographic limit within which a population exists is called

(A) Biome

(B) Habitat

(C) Niche

(D) Ecosystem

200.

(A) Natality

(B) Growth rate

(C) Mortality

(D) All of these

## OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year-2017

Physics

1. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a the earth, the gain in potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the earth’s surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is

(a)  mgR/4

(b)  mgR/2

(c)  mgR

(d)  2 mgR

2. A body floats in water with 40% of its volume outside water. When the same body floats in an oil, 60% of its volume remains outside oil. The relative density of oil is

(a)  0.9

(b)  1.0

(c)  1.2

(d)  1.5

3. If the Earth were to suddenly contract to 1/nth of its present radius without any change in its mass, the duration of the new day will be nearly

(a)  24 n hr.

(b)  24 hr.

(c)  24/n2 mgR

(d)  24 n2 hr.

4. Two temperature scales A and B are related by  At which temperature two scales have the same reading ?

(a)  −42°

(b)  42°

(c)  12°

(d)  −40°

5. The resistances across A and B in the figure below will be

(a)  3R

(b)  R

(c)  R/3

(d)  None of these

6. Air inside a closed container is saturated with water vapour. The air pressure is p and the saturated vapour pressure of water is  If the mixture is compressed to one half of its volume by maintaining temperature constant, the pressure becomes

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

7. What happens when the prongs of a vibrating tuning fork are immersed in water ?

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the waves propagating outwards?

(a)  The velocity decreases.

(b)  The amplitude increases.

(c)  The frequency decreases.

(d)  The wavelength increases.

8. Steel has Young’s modulus 21 × 1011 dyne/cm2 and density 7.8 gm/cc. The velocity of sound through steel is

(a)  350 m/s

(b)  700 m/s

(c)  5000 m/s

(d)  5189 m/s

9. The coefficient of cubical expansion of sulphur is 0.000223 per ° A piece of sulphur is found to displace 48 cc of water at 0°C. It will displace the volume of water at 35°C

(a)  48.374 cc

(b)  48.743 cc

(c)  49.374 cc

(d)  49.743 cc

10. The equation of displacement of two waves are given as  and  then what is the ratio of their amplitude?

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 : 1

(d)  1 : 4

11. An iron rod of length 100 cm and 10 cm2 cross-section is heated from 0°C to 100° If it is not allowed to bend or expand, what force is developed in it ? Given that Y – 1012 dyne/cm2 and α = 105/°C

(a)  108 dyne

(b)  109 dyne

(c)  1010 dyne

(d)  1011 dyne

12. A thin glass bulb is sealed at 27°C, the internal pressure being 1 atmosphere. The maximum internal pressure the blub can withstand is 95 cm of mercury. At the temperature at which the bulb will burst,

(a)  101°C

(b)  102°C

(c)  374°C

(d)  375°C

13. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced, the required length of string is

(a)  37.5 cm

(b)  40 cm

(c)  50 cm

(d)  62.5 cm

14. An ideal mono-atomic gas of given mass is heated at constant pressure. In this process, the fraction of supplied that energy used for the increase of t he internal energy of the gas is

(a)  3/8

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/4

(d)  2/5

15. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

16. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold [density = 19.5 g/cm3] is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid [density = 1.5 g/cm3], find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver [density = 10.5 g/cm3] of the same size in the same liquid.

(a)  0.133 m/s

(b)  0.1 m/s

(c)  0.2 m/s

(d)  0.4 m/s

17. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

18. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance 5 cm and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in the equilibrium condition, ratio of the magnitude of electric fields at the surfaces of sphere A and B is

(a)  1 ; 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 :4

(d)  4 : 1

19. Five equal resistances, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in figure below. A battery of V volt is connected between A and B. The current flowing in FC will be

(a)  3V/R

(b)  V/R

(c)  V/2R

(d)  2V/R

20. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current I is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

21. An electric dipole is placed at an angle 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience a

(a)  translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

(b)  torque as well as a translational force

(c)  torque only

(d)  translational force only in the direction of the field

22. An electric bulb marked as 50 W – 200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is

(a)  37.5 W

(b)  25 W

(c)  12.5 W

(d)  10 W

23. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μ The effective capacitance between A and B is

(a)

(b)  −3 μF

(c)  6 μF

(d)  5 μF

24. The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is x. When both the current and radius I s doubled the ratio will be

(a)  x/8

(b)  x/4

(c)  x/2

(d)  2x

25. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (11010.101)2 is

(a)  9.625

(b)  25.262

(c)  26.525

(d)  26.265

26. In a common emitter configuration, a transistor has β = 50 and input resistance 1 kΩ. If the peak value of ac. input is 0.01 V then the peak value of collector current is

(a)  0.01 μA

(b)  0.25 μA

(c)  100 μA

(d)  500 μA

27. 3 moles of a mono-atomic gas (γ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 mole of a diatomic gas (γ = 7/3). The value of γ for the mixture will be

(a)  9/11

(b)  11/7

(c)  12/7

(d)  15/7

28. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

29. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(a)  All reversible cycles have same efficiency.

(b)  Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one.

(c)  Carnot cycle is a reversible one.

(d)  Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles.

30. In which of the process, internal energy of system remains constant?

(b)  Isochoric

(c)  Isobaric

(d)  Isothermal

31. In Young’s double slit experiment, an interference pattern is obtained on a screen by a light of wavelength 6000 Å coming from the coherent sources S1 and S2. At certain point P on the screen third fringe is formed. Then the path difference S1P – S2P is microns is

(a)  0.75

(b)  1.5

(c)  3.0

(d)  4.0

32. In compound microscope the intermediate image is

(a)  virtual, inverted and magnified

(b)  real, inverted and diminished

(c)  virtual, erect and magnified

(d)  real, inverted and magnified

33. In the following circuit the output Y becomes zero for the inputs

(a)  A =1, B = 0, C = 0

(b)  A = 0, B= 0, C = 0

(c)  A = 1, B = 1, C = 1

(d)  A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

34. In n – p – n transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then

(a)  emitter current is 9 mA

(b)  emitter current is 11.1 mA

(c)  base current is 0.1 mA

(d)  base current is 0.01 mA

35. The r.m.s. value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is

(a)  6.37 × 109 J/m3

(b)  81.35 × 1012 J/m3

(c)  3.3 × 103 J/m3

(d)  4.58 × 106 J/m3

36. A bar magnet of magnetic moment pm is divided into two equal parts by cutting parallel to its length. The magnetic moment of either piece will be

(a)  pm/4

(b)  pm/2

(c)  pm

(d)  2pm

37. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n1 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 1, the emitted radiation has a wavelength given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

38. In frequency modulation

(a)  the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency of carrier wave

(b)  the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude of the modulating wave

(c)  the amplitude of modulated wave varies as amplitude of carrier

(d)  the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency of modulating wave

39. Audio signal CANNOT be transmitted because

(a)  the signal has more noise

(b)  the signal cannot be amplified for distance communication

(c)  the transmitting antenna length is very small to design

(d)  the transmitting antenna length is very large and impracticable

40. Which of the following is NOT electromagnetic in nature?

(a)  X-rays

(b)  Gamma rays

(c)  Cathode rays

(d)  Microwaves

41. A ray of light enters from a denser medium into the rarer medium. The speed of light in the rarer medium is twice that in denser medium. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection to take place ?

(a)  30°

(b)  45°

(c)  60°

(d)  75°

42. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be

(a)  10 cm

(b)  2.5 cm

(c)  5 cm

(d)  7.5 cm

43. The least distance of vision of a longsighted person is 60 cm. By using a spectacle lens, this distance is reduced to 12 cm. The power of the lens is

(a)  +5.0 D

(b)  +(20/3)D

(c)  −(10/3)D

(d)  +2.0 D

44. A thin prism (μ = 1.5) in the position of minimum deviation deviates the monochromatic light ray by 10°, the refracting angle of prism is

(a)  10°

(b)  20°

(c)  30°

(d)  45°

45. If the work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, the cut off wave length is

(a)  8000 Å

(b)  7000 Å

(c)  1472 Å

(d)  2950 Å

46. A nucleus raptures into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius) ?

(a)  21/3 : 1

(b)  1 : 21/3

(c)  31/2 : 1

(d)  1 : 31/2

47. What is de Broglie wavelength of the alpha particle accelerated through a potential difference V ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

48. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

(a)  atoms are ionized at high temperature

(b)  molecules break up at high temperature

(c)  nuclei break up at the high temperature

(d)  kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei

49. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is

(a)  2.5

(b)  5

(c)  10

(d)  20

50. Given that M is the mass suspended from a spring of force constant k. The dimensional formula for  is same for that of

(a)  frequency

(b)  time period

(c)  velocity

(d)  wave length

51. The side of a cubical block when measured with a vernier caliper is 2.50 cm. The vernier constant is 0.01 cm. The maximum possible error in the area of the side of the block is

(a)  ±0.01 cm2

(b)  ±0.02 cm2

(c)  ±0.05 cm2

(d)  ±0.10 cm2

52. The time (t) and displacement (x) are related as t = ax2 + bx. What is the acceleration of the particle at the origin of the coordinate axes ?

(a)  −2ab3

(b)  −2ab

(c)  −2a/b3

(d)  −2a/b

53. Consider three vectors  and  A vector  of the from  (where and are numbers) is perpendicular to  . The ratio of α and β is

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  −1 : 1

(d)  3 : 1

54. A particle located at x = 0 at a time t = 0, starts moving along the positive X-direction with a velocity v that varies as v = α√x. The displacement of the particle varies with time as

(a)  t

(b)  t1/2

(c)  t3

(d)  t2

55. In the stable equilibrium position, a body has

(a)  maximum potential energy

(b)  minimum potential energy

(c)  minimum kinetic energy

(d)  neither maximum nor minimum potential energy

56. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be

(a)  L

(b)  4L

(c)  3L/4

(d)  12L

57. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is

(a)  2.4

(b)  1.2

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.2

58. The range of projection is maximum. If the range is R. what is the maximum h height?

(a)  2R

(b)  R

(c)  R/2

(d)  R/4

59. The instantaneous height y and the horizontal distance x covered by a particle are as follows y = bt2 and x = ct2. What is the speed of the particle one second after the firing ?

(a)  2(b + c)

(b)  2(b – c)

(c)  2(b2 + c2)1/2

(d)  2(b2 − c2)1/2

60. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

61. A long spring when stretched by x cm has a potential energy U. On increasing the stretching to ‘nx’ the potential energy stored in the spring will be

(a)  n2U

(b)  U/n2

(c)  U/n

(d)  nU

62. A body initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to each other with a velocity of 30 ms1. What is the velocity of the heavier fragment?

(a)  10√2 ms1

(b)  10.5 ms1

(c)  11.4 ms1

(d)  10.95 ms1

63. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 103, then the percentage change in volume is

(a)  0.6

(b)  0.4

(c)  0.2

(d)  zero

64. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then

(a)  the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(b)  the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(c)  the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged

(d)  the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved

65. A ring and a disc of different masses are rotating with the same kinetic energy. If we apply a retarding torque τ on the ring it stops after making n revolution. After how many revolution will the disc stop if the retarding torque on it is also τ ?

(a)  n/2

(b)  n

(c)  2n

(d)  4n

66. The ratio of radii of two spheres of the same mass, having the same moment of inertia about their diameters, one hollow and other solid is

(a)  9 : 25

(b)  25 : 9

(c)  √5 : √3

(d)  √3 : √5

Chemistry

67. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MGl followed by hydrolysis gives

(a)  n-Propyl alcohol

(b)  Ethanal

(c)  Propanal

(d)  Isoproppylalcohol

68. The reaction of an ester ROOR’ with an alcohol R’’OH is presence of an acid gives

(a)  R’COOR’’

(b)  R’COOH

(c)  RCOOR’’

(d)  R’’COOR

69. In the diazotization of aniline with the sodium nitrate and hydrochloric acid, the excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to

(a)  suppress the concentration of free aniline

(b)  suppress the hydrolysis of phenol

(c)  ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid

(d)  neutralize the base liberated

70. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basis medium gives

(a)  diphenyl ether

(b)  p-Hydroxyazobenzene

(c)  Chlorobenzene

(d)  Benzene

71. Which is correct statement ?

(a)  Starch is polymer of α-glucose.

(b)  Amylose is a component of cellulose.

(c)  Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid.

(d)  In cyclic structure of furanose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom.

72. The number of chiral carbons in β-D(+)- glucose is

(a)  three

(b)  four

(c)  five

(d)  six

73. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of

(a)  electrostatic attraction

(b)  hydrogen bonding

(c)  Van der Waal’s forces

(d)  dipole-dipole interaction

74. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be

(a)  6.02 × 1022

(b)  12.04× 1022

(c)  1.806 × 1023

(d)  31.80 × 1028

75. If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction?

(a)  10 ml of H2

(b)  5 ml of H2

(c)  10 ml of O2

(d)  5 ml of O2

76. 2. 76 of silver carbonate (At. Mass = 108) on being heated strongly yields at residue weighing

(a)  2.16 g

(b)  2.48 g

(c)  2.32 g

(d)  2.64 g

77. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 of silver chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is TRUE?

(a)  7.15 g

(b)  17.0 g

(c)  3.3 g

(d)  4.88 g

78. Which of the following polymers is used for making switch board, heater handle ?

(a)  Polythene

(b)  Rubber

(c)  PET

(d)  Bakelite

79. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers ?

(a)  Dacron

(b)  Natural rubber

(c)  Bakelite

(d)  Polyvinyl chloride

80. Indium doped Silicon is an _______ semiconductor.

(a)  p-type

(b)  n-type

(c)  p-n-type

(d)  None of these

81. Schottky defect is due to missing of

(a)  anion form lattice

(b)  catin from lattice

(c)  cation and anion both form lattice

(d)  None of these

82. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment ?

(a)  1, 1-Dichloroethylene

(b)  cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(c)  trans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(d)  None of these compounds

83. 1-Chlorobutance on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

(a)  1-Butene

(b)  1-Butanol

(c)  2-Butene

(d)  2-Butanol

84. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is

(a)  HC ≡ CH

(b)  C6H6

(c)  C2H6

(d)  CH­3OH

85. Identify the correct statement below concerning the structure of CH3 = C = CH2.

(a)  The molecular is planar.

(b)  One of the three carbon atoms is in an sp3 hybridized state.

(c)  The molecule is non-planar with the two CH2 groups being in planar perpendicular to each other.

(d)  All the carbon atoms are sp-hybridized.

86. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-effect of the substituents ?

(a)  −NR2 < − OR < − F

(b)  −NR2 > − OR < − F

(c)  −NR2 < − OR > − F

(d)  −NR2 > − OR > − F

87. Which of the following is NOT a Ca ore?

(a)  Gypsum

(b)  Magnesite

(c)  Dolomite

(d)  Carnallite

88. Among KO2, AlO2, BaO2 and NO2, unpaired electron is present in

(a)  NO2 + and BaO3

(b)  KO2 and AlO2

(c)  KO2 only

(d)  BaO2 only

89. pH of water is 7. When a substance Y is dissolved in water, the pH becomes 13. the substance Y is a salt of

(a)  weak acid and weak base

(b)  strong acid and strong base

(c)  strong acid and weak base

(d)  weak acid and strong base

90. Which of the following sulphides has the lowest solubility product ?

(a)  FeS

(b)  MnS

(c)  PbS

(d)  ZnS

91. In a mixture of a weak acid and salt, the ratio of the concentration of acid to salt is increased ten-fold. The pH of the solution

(a)  decreases by one

(b)  decreases by one tenth

(c)  increases by one

(d)  increases by ten-fold

92. The solubility of CaCO3 in water is 3.05 × 104 moles/litre. Its solubility product will be

(a)  6.1 × 104

(b)  9.3

(c)  3.05 × 104

(d)  9.3 × 108

93. Which of the following solution will have pH close to 1.0 ?

(a)  100 ml of (M/10) HCl + 100 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(b)  55 ml of (M/10)HCl + 45 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(c)  10 ml of (M/10) HCl + 90 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(d)  75 ml of (M/5) HCl + 25 ml of (M/5) NaOH

94. One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmospheric pressure. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is

(a)  1.2 atm

(b)  2.4 atm

(c)  2.0 atm

(d)  1.0 atm

95. A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ The initial concentration of A is equal to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal KC = ?

(a)  0.08

(b)  0.8

(c)  8

(d)  80

96. For a weak acid with α as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by (C is concentration of acid in mole per litre)

(a)  Ka = Cα

(b)  Ka = Cα2

(c)  Ka = C2α

(d)  Ka = C2α2

97. A litre of solution containing 0.1 mole of CH3COOH and 0.1 mole of CH3COONa provide a buffer of pH 4.74. Calculate the pH of the solution after the addition of 0.02 mole of NaOH. Ka = 1.8 × 105

(a)  4.92

(b)  4.03

(c)  8.56

(d)  5.32

98. Calculate the pH of 0.625 M solution of CH3COONa (K­a value of CH3COOH is 1.754 × 105).

(a)  8.25

(b)  9.28

(c)  10.2

(d)  11.26

99. The dissociation constant Kb, the hydrolysis constant Kh and ionic product Kw are related to each other by the relation

(a)  Kw/Kb = Kh

(b)  Kw/Kh = Kb

(c)  Kw = Kh × Kh

(d)  All of these

100. In Hittorf method of determination of transport numbers we make use of a(n)

(a)  H-tube

(b)  V-tube

(c)  U-tube

(d)  L-tube

101. The mass in grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of Cu2+ by a current of 2.50 A in 2 hours, is

(a)  23.7

(b)  0.187

(c)  1.65

(d)  5.93

102. Which of the following sets contains only isoelectronic ions ?

(a)  Na+ , Ca2+, Ga3+, Al3+

(b)  K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl

(c)  P3, Sc3+, Cl, K+

(d)  Na+, Al3+, Mg2, Cl

103. The value of Van der Waals constant a for the glass N2, O2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.39, 1.36, 4 and 2.25 dm6 atm mol2 The most easily liquefiable gas is

(a)  N2

(b)  O2

(c)  NH3

(d)  CH­4

104. A gas would show maximum deviation from ideal behavior at

(a)  150°C, 2 atm

(b)  10°C, 1 atm

(c)  75°C, 0.5 atm

(d)  −100°C, 5 atm

105. Of the following pairs, each of 0.1 m solution, the isotonic solution at the same temperature will be

(a)  glucose and KCI

(b)  MgCl2 and NaCl

(c)  urea and ZnSO4

(d)  Na2SO4 and Ca(NO3)2

106. A gaseous mixture contains 56g N2, 44g CO2 and 16g CH4. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure of CH4.

(a)  160 mm

(b)  394 mm

(c)  180 mm

(d)  225 mm

107. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atoms was made by

(a)  Heisenberg

(b)  Bohr

(c)  Plank

(d)  Einstein

108. Which of the following complexes is non-conducting ?

(a)  CoCl3 . 3NH3

(b)  CoCl3 . 6NH3

(c)  CoCl3 . 4NH3

(d)  CoCl3 . 5NH3

109. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is

(a)  sodium pentacyanonitrate

(b)  sodium pentacyanonitrosylferous (II)

(c)  sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(d)  disodium pentacyanonitrosyferrate (II)

110. A catalyst increase the rate of reaction because it

(a)  increases the activation energy

(b)  lowers the energy barrier for reaction

(c)  decreases the collision diameter

(d)  increases the temperature coefficient

111. Inert pair effect is exhibited by

(a)  Pb

(b)  B

(c)  Si

(d)  Al

112. The isotope used for dating archaeological finding is

(a)  1H3

(b)  6C14

(c)  8O18

(d)  92U235

113. Isomers which can be interconverted through rotation around a single bond are

(a)  conformers

(b)  diastereomers

(c)  enantiomers

(d)  positional isomers

114. The reagent used for separation of acetaldehyde and acetophenone is

(a)  NaHSO3

(b)  C6H5NHNH2

(c)  NH2OH

(d)  NaOH-I2

115. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  16

(d)  17

116. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally to ten times its original volume. The change in entropy is

(a)  0.1 R

(b)  2.303 R

(c)  10.0 R

(d)  100.0 R

117. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(a)  Work is a state function.

(b)  Temperature is a state function

(c)  Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified.

(d)  Work appears at the boundary of the system.

118. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date

H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O(l), ∆H = −285.77 kJ/mol

H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O (g) ∆H = −241.84 kJ/mol

(a)  +43.93 kJ/mol

(b)  −43.93 kJ/mol

(c)  +527.61 kJ/mol

(d)  −527.61 kJ/mol

119. An aqueous solution of 6.3g oxalic acid dehydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is

(a)  10 ml

(b)  20 ml

(c)  40 ml

(d)  4 ml

120. Equimolar solutions in the same solvents have

(a)  same boiling point but different freezing point

(b)  same freezing point but different boiling point

(c)  same boiling point but same freezing point

(d)  different boiling point and different freezing point

121. The freezing point of equimolar aqueous solution will be highest for

(a)  C6H5NH3Cl

(b)  Ca(NO3)2

(c)  La(NO3)2

(d)  C6H12O6

122. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+| Fe and Sn2+| Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14V respectively for the cell reaction :

Fe2+ + Sn → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is

(a)  +0.30 V

(b)  −0.58 V

(c)  +0.58 V

(d)  −0.30 V

123. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5­COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 ohm1 cm2 The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is :

(a)  201.28 ohm1 cm2

(b)  390.71 ohm1 cm2

(c)  698.28 ohm1 cm2

(d)  540.48 ohm1 cm2

124. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt bridge’ because

(a)  velocity of K is greater than that of NO3

(b)  velocity of of K is less than that of NO3

(c)  velocity of both K and NO3 are nearly the same

(d)  KNO3 is highly soluble in water

125. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl. The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E

(a)  Zn2 concentration should be increased

(b)  Zn2 concentration should be decreased

(c)  Cl concentration should be increased

(d)  partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased

126. Alums purify muddy water by

(a)  dialysis

(c)  coagulation

(d)  forming a true solution

127. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(a)  Emulsion-Card

(b)  Foam-Mist

(c)  Aerosol-Smoke

(d)  Solid sol-Cake

128. The coagulating power of an electrolyte for arsenious sulphide sol decreases in the order

(a)  Na > Al > Ba2−

(b)  Al3 > Ba2+ > Na2−

(c)  Na > Al > Ba2−

(d)  Na > Ba2− > PO43−

129. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At. No. 64) is

(a)  [Xe]4f85d06s2

(b)  [Xe]4f75d16s2

(c)  [Xe]4f35d56s2

(d)  [Xe]4f65d26s2

130. Which of the following does NOT react with AgCl ?

(a)  Na2SO3

(b)  NH4OH

(c)  NaNO3

(d)  Na2CO3

131. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite in an acidic solution is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  4/5

(d)  1

132. Which of the following is NOT an actinide?

(a)  Curium

(b)  Californium

(c)  Uranium

(d)  Terbium

Mathematics

133. Find the values of x for which the functions f(x) = 3x2 – 1 and g(x) = 3 + x are equal.

(a)  1, 4/3

(b)  1, −4/3

(c)  −1, −4/3

(d)  −1, 4/3

134. Which of the following is correct?

(a)  sin 1° > sin 1

(b)  sin 1° < sin 1

(c)  sin 1° = sin 1

(d)

135. For specifying a straight line, how many geometrical parameters should be known ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  3

136. Which of the following functions are strictly increasing on R ?

(a)  x3 – 6x2 + 12x – 9, x ∈ R

(b)  x3 – 6x2 – 9, x ∈ R

(c)  x3 – 6x2 + 12, x ∈ R

(d)  −x3 – 6x2 – 12x – 9, x ∈ R

137. The area enclosed between the curves y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y is

(a)  16/3

(b)  8

(c)  22/3

(d)  16

138. The area of triangle formed by the tips of vectors  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

139. Consider the matrices X4 × 3, Y4 × 3, and P2 × 3. The order of [P(XTY)−1PT]T will be

(a)  (2 × 2)

(b)  (3 × 3)

(c)  (4 × 3)

(d)  (3 × 4)

140. The sets A and B are having elements 10 and 8. n(A ∩ B) = 2, then n(A ∪ B) is

(a)  16

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  20

141. Range of cosec1 (x) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

142. If tan A = 1/2, tan B = 1/3 then tan(2A + B) is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

143. Equations of diagonals of the square formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0, x = 1 and y = 1 are

(a)  y = x, y + x = 1

(b)  y = x, y + x = 2

(c)  y = 2x, y + 2x = 1

(d)  2y = x, y + x = 1/3

144. Find the absolute maximum value of

(a)  4/3

(b)  3/4

(c)  1/2

(d)  None of these

145. If tan y dx + sec2 y tan x dy = 0, then

(a)

(b)  (sin x) (tan y) = c

(c)  cos x = c

(d)

146. Distance of the point (α, β, γ) from x-axis is

(a)  |β|

(b)  |α|

(c)

(d)  None of these

147. For what values of α and β, the following simultaneous equations have infinite number of solutions ?

x + y + z = 5, x + 3y + 3z = 9, x + 2y + αz = β

(a)  2, 7

(b)  3, 8

(c)  8, 3

(d)  7, 2

148. Which of the following is correct ?

(a)  If A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C then A ⊄ C

(b)  If A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C then A ⊂ C

(c)  If A ⊄ B and B ⊄ C then A ⊄ C

(d)  If X ∈ A and A ⊄ B then x ∈ B

149. Range of

(a)  [1/5, 1]

(b)  [1/5, 1/3]

(c)  [1/3, 1]

(d)  [1/5. 1/3]

150. cos 2ϕ cos 2θ + sin2(θ – ϕ) – sin2(θ + ϕ) is equal to

(a)  sin 2(θ + ϕ)

(b)  sin 2((θ − ϕ)

(c)  cos 2(θ + ϕ)

(d)  cos 2(θ − ϕ)

151. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  0

152. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)  x – cy + 5 = 0

(b)

(c)

(d)  None of these

153. The plane 2x – 3y + 6x = 11 makes angle sin1 α with x-axis. The value of α is

(a)  √3/4

(b)  √2/2

(c)  12/7

(d)  None of these

154. In how many ways can the word MANAGEMENT be rearranged ?

(a)  226800

(b)  453600

(c)  113400

(d)  None of these

155. If i2 = −1 then sum of I + i2 + i3 + i4 + ….. to 1000 terms is

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  −1

(d)  +1

156.

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  ∞

(d)  −∞

157. Mean of first n natural number is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

158. Equation of the circle with center on the y-axis and passing through the origin and the point (2, 3) is

(a)  x2 + y2 + 13y = 0

(b)  3x2 + 3y2 + 13x + 3 = 0

(c)  6x2 + 6y2 – 13x = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 13x + 3 = 0

159. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(a)  4, 2

(b)  1, 4

(c)  2, 4

(d)  1, 2

160. The feasible region is

(a)  a convex set

(b)  the optimal solution

(c)  always unbounded for minimization problem

(d)  None of these

161. Out of 4 officers and 10 clerks in a business firm, a committee consisting of 2 officers and 3 clerks is to be formed. In how many ways can this be done if one particular clerk must be on the committee ?

(a)  216

(b)  416

(c)  36

(d)  None of these

162. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where √−1, n ≥ 1)

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

163. then the value of n is

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  5

164. The variance for the following date : 6, 7, 10, 12, 13, 4, 8, 12 is

(a)  9.25

(b)  9.15

(c)  8.25

(d)  None of these

165. The area of the circle centered at (1, 2) and passing through (4, 6) is

(a)  5π

(b)  10π

(c)  25π

(d)  None of these

166. Without repetition of the numbers, four digit numbers are formed with the numbers 0, 2, 3, 5. The probability of such a number divisible by 5 is

(a)  1/5

(b)  4/5

(c)  1/30

(d)  5/9

167. If ω is cube root of unity then  is

(a)  1

(b)  ω2

(c)  ω

(d)  None of these

168. If

(a)  sin x

(b)

(c)  cos x

(d)

(a)  14895

(b)  14880

(c)  15150

(d)  15151

170. If e is the eccentricity of the ellipse  then

(a)  b2 = a2 (1 – e2)

(b)  a2 = b2 (1 – e2)

(c)  a2 = b2(e2 – 1)

(d)  d2 = a2(e2 – 1)

171. 6 boy and 6 girls sit in a row t random. The probability that all the girls sit together is

(a)  1/432

(b)  12/431

(c)  1/132

(d)  None of these

172. Principal argument of (−2 −2i) is

(a)  −3π/4

(b)  3π/4

(c)  π/4

(d)  None of these

173. If n < 1 then  exists when

(a)  x = −1

(b)  x = 1

(c)  x = 0

(d)  x ≠ 0

174. Which of the following is unary operation ?

(b)  Multiplication

(c)  Square root

(d)  None of these

175. The distance between the foci of a hyperbola is 16 and its eccentricity is √2 Its equation is

(a)  x2 – y2 = 32

(b)  x2 – y2 = 23

(c)  2x2 – y2 = 32

(d)  None of these

176. α, β be two roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  −2

(c)  2

(d)  1

177. If ex – y = xy, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  None of these

178. When 1100010 is divided by 0101 what will be the decimal remainder ?

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

179. The length of the latus rectum of the ellipse 3x2 + y2 = 12 is

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  8

(d)  4/√3

180. If b3 + a2c + ac2 = 3 abc, then the relation between two roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is

(a)  α = β2 or β = α2

(b)  α = 2β or β = 2α

(c)  α2 – β2 = 0

(d)  None of these

181.

(a)  |x|

(b)  x2

(c)

(d)  1

182. a ≠ b but a2 = 5a – 3 and b2 = 5b – 3, then find a equation whose roots are a/b and b/a.

(a)  3x2 – 19x + 3 = 0

(b)  x2 – 19x + 1 = 0

(c)  3x2 – 19x + 2 = 0

(d)  x2 + 19x + 1 = 0

183. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by

(a)  5, 4, 2

(b)  2, 3, 6

(c)  3, 4, 5

(d)  5, 3, 2

184. If x is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a

(a)  Tautology

(c)  Well-formed formula

(d)  None of these

185. Which of the following is ODD function ?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4xy + 3 = 0

186. Principal value of cot1 (−1) = ?

(a)  3π/4

(b)  π/4

(c)  −π/4

(d)  None of these

187. Which of the following curves are symmetrical about x-axis only ?

(a)  5x2 + 7y – 6 = 0

(b)  y2 = x + 9

(c)  xy = 1

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4xy + 3 = 0

188. The sides of an equilateral triangle are increasing at rate of 2 cm/sec. The rate at which the area increases, when side is 10 cm, is

(a)  10 cm2/s

(b)  √3 cm2/s

(c)  10√3 cm2/s

(d)

189.

(a)  x5 + c

(b)

(c)  6x6 + c

(d)  x6 + c

190. If the position vector  of the point (5, n) is such that  then what is the value of n ?

(a)  ±12

(b)  0

(c)  ±1

(d)  4

191. How many solutions does the following system of linear equations have ?

−x + 5y = −1, x – y = 2, x + 3y = 3

(a)  Infinitely many

(b)  Two distinct solutions

(c)  Unique solution

(d)  No solution

192. Consider the following propositional statements :

P1 : (((A ∧ B) → C)) ≡ ((A → C) ∧ (B → C))

P2 : (((A ∨ B) → C)) ≡ ((A → C) ∨ (B → C))

Which one of the following is TRUE?

(a)  P1 is the tautology, but not P­2

(b)  P2 is a tautology, but not P1

(c)  P1 and P2 are are both tautologies

(d)  Both P1 and P2 are not tautologies

193. If

Determine [f(x), where [ ] represents the greatest integer function.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)  None of these

194. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?

(a)  2√3

(b)  2 + √3

(c)  2 – √3

(d)  1

195. Identify the curve x2 + y2 + 6x – 2y + 10 = 0.

(a)  Parabola

(b)  Ellipse

(c)  Pair of straight lines

(d)  A unique point

196. What is the value of

(a)  0

(b)  1/6

(c)  1/3

(d)  1

197.

(a)  log 2 + 1

(b)  2 log 2 + 1

(c)  log (2e)

(d)  log (4/e)

198. Find a vector of magnitude 9, which is perpendicular to both the vectors

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

199. Let A, B, C, D be n × n matrices, each with non-zero determinant. If ABCD = I, then B1 = ?

(a)  D1C1A1

(b)  CDA

(d)  None of these

200. Which of the following is NOT correct?

(a)  A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)

(b)  A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)

(c)  A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

(d)  None of these

Biology

133. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is

(a)  extensive mixed cropping

(b)  introduction of high yielding varieties

(c)  extensive use of fertilizers

(d)  extensive use of insecticides and pesticides

134. Structural lipids of cell membrane are

(a)  simple lipids

(b)  chromolipids

(c)  steroid

(d)  phospholipids

135. Longest phase of meiosis is

(a)  Prophase I

(b)  Prophase II

(c)  Anaphase I

(d)  Metaphase II

136. Insulin is a polymer of

(a)  glucose

(b)  galactose

(c)  fructose

(d)  arabinose

137. Kupffer’s cells are

(a)  Phagocytic

(b)  Actin

(c)  Myosin

(d)  Fibrin

138. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed?

(a)  Leptotene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Pachytene

(d)  Diplotene

139. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm CANNOT

(a)  get energy

(b)  penetrate the egg

(c)  swim

(d)  get food

140. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called

(a)  colinearity

(b)  commaless

(c)  degeneracy

(d)  non-ambiguity

141. In C4 pathway, the CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells is carried out by the enzyme

(a)  Rubisco

(b)  PEP carboxylase

(c)  Pyruvate decarboxylase

(d)  Pyruvate dehydrogenase

142. In a tissue culture media, the resource of the phytohormone is

(a)  agar agar

(b)  glucose

(c)  micronutrients

(d)  coconut milk

143. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the

(a)  proximal tubule

(b)  distal tubule

(c)  collecting duct

(d)  loop of Henle

144. Fertilization occurs in

(a)  uterus

(b)  ureter

(c)  vagina

(d)  fallopian tube

145. An animals which has both exoskeletal and endoskeletal structures is

(a)  tortoise

(b)  frog

(c)  jelly fish

(d)  fresh water mussel

146. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel?

(a)  7

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  9

147. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of

(a)  Hibiscus

(b)  Nephrolepis

(c)  Cycas

(d)  Funaria

148. Gastrula has a pore which is known as

(a)  Gonophore

(b)  Blastopore

(c)  Oospore

(d)  Zoospore

149. In the absence of the enterokinase, the digestion of _______ would be affected in our intestine.

(a)  amino acid

(b)  albumin

(c)  starch

(d)  maltose

150. Mitotic stages are NOT observed in

(a)  Cosmarium

(b)  E. coil

(c)  Saccharomyces

(d)  Chlorella

151. Which stage of material parasite is infective to man ?

(a)  Gametocyte

(b)  Merozoite

(c)  Cryptomerozoite

(d)  Sporozoite

152. Which one of the following reaction is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(a)  Conversion of succinate to fumerate

(b)  Conversion of fumerate to malate

(c)  Conversion of private to acetyl CoA

(d)  Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

153. Spindle fibre is made up of

(a)  Humulin

(b)  Intermediate filament

(c)  Flagellin

(d)  Tubulin

154. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

(a)  single stranded RNA

(b)  double stranded DNA

(c)  single stranded DNA

(d)  double stranded RNA

155. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the

(a)  nature of the substrate

(b)  amount of carbon dioxide released

(c)  amount of oxygen utilized

(d)  nature of enzymes involved

156. The name of Smt. Thimmakka is associated with the

(a)  planting and conservation of avenue trees

(b)  agitations against hydroelectric project

(c)  ‘Appiko’ movement

(d)  conservation of fauna and flora of the western ghats

157. When a fresh water profozoan is placed in marine water

(a)  the contractile vacuole disappears

(b)  the contractile vacuole increases in size

(c)  a number of contractile vacuoles appear

(d)  the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

158. Which of the following is a mineralocorticold?

(a)  Testosterone

(b)  Progesterone

(d)  Aldosterone

159. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?

(a)  Glycogen

(b)  Sucrose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Maltose

160. Which one of the following is an example of chlorophyllous thallophyte ?

(a)  Volvarialla

(b)  Spirogyra

(c)  Nephrolepis

(d)  Gnetum

161. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by

(a)  Kohler and Milstein

(b)  Robert Koch

(c)  ‘D’ Herelle

(d)  Land Steiner

162. Approximately what percentage of human genome encodes protein ?

(a)  2%

(b)  25%

(c)  90%

(d)  99%

163. Cycas belongs to the class

(a)  Gentopsida

(c)  Coniferopsida

(d)  Sphenopsida

164. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?

(a)  Nilgiri-pipit, Rofous, babbler, Lesser-Florican

(b)  Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet

(c)  Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofoous babbler

(d)  Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit

165. Species diversity is responsible for which phenomena?

(a)  Process of Evolution

(b)  Speciation

(c)  For alternative types (allele) of gene

(d)  For stability and normal function of ecosystem

166. Flax fibre is obtained from

(a)  Cannabis sativa

(b)  Crotalaria juncea

(c)  Cocs nucifera

(d)  Linum usitatissimum

167. An embryo may sometimes develop from cell of an embryo sac other than egg is called

(a)  apospory

(b)  parthenogenesis

(c)  parthenocarpy

(d)  apogamy

168. The roots which develop from any portion of the plant EXCEPT the radical are known as

(a)  tap roots

(b)  stilt roots

(c)  fibrous roots

169. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms

(a)  being ever green

(b)  being smaller size

(c)  having compounds leaves

(d)  having ovules enclosed in ovary

170. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of

(a)  infants due to protein energy malnutrition

(b)  adults due to protein energy malnutrition

(c)  adults due to vitamin D deficiency

(d)  infants due to vitamin K deficiency

171. The function of vitamin K is in

(a)  regulation of C and P metabolism

(b)  carbohydrate metabolism

(c)  blood clotting

(d)  respiration

172. Liver is characterized b presence of

(a)  Glisson’s capsule

(b)  Kupffer’s cells

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

173. Vertebral column is derived from

(a)  Dorsal nerve cord

(b)  Ventral nerve cord

(c)  Notochord

(d)  Outgrowth

174. Cosmoplites stordidus is the pest of

(a)  sugarcane

(b)  jowar

(c)  banana

(d)  cotton

175. The sterile male technique comes under _______ control.

(a)  chemical

(b)  mechanical

(c)  biological

(d)  autocidal

176. _______ is the resinous material collected from trees.

(a)  Royal jelly

(b)  Honey

(c)  Propolis

(d)  Venom

177. When colony is in danger worker bee performs

(a)  circular dance

(b)  wriggle dance

(c)  DVAV

(d)  alarm dance

178. Number of flower visited per minute is called as

(a)  Foraging rate

(b)  Foraging speed

(c)  Foraging flow

(d)  Foraging

179. Mammary glands are modified

(a)  Sebaceous glands

(b)  Sudorfic glands/ Sweat

(c)  Cultaneous glands

(d)  Scant glands

180. Hair, nails, hoofs and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as

(a)  Keratin

(b)  Globulin

(c)  Chitin

(d)  Histone

181. The poison glands of poisonous snake are modified

(a)  Buccal glands

(b)  Palantine glands

(c)  Salivery glands

(d)  Lacrymal glands

(a)  present in a particular sex

(b)  controlling secondary sexual characters

(c)  controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters

(d)  present on sex chromosomes

183. Clover-leaf model of tRNA was proposed

(a)  Khorana

(b)  Lederberg

(c)  Nirenberg

(d)  Holley

184. Spirulina belongs to

(a)  Xanthophyceae

(b)  Cyanophaceae

(c)  Rhodophyceae

(d)  Pheophyceae

185. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that

(a)  the strongest of all species survives

(b)  the most intelligent of the species survives

(c)  the cleverest of the species survives

(d)  the most adaptable of the species to changes survives

186. BT brinjal is an example of transgenic crops. In this, BT refers to

(a)  Bacillus tuberculosis

(b)  Biotechnology

(c)  Betacarotene

(d)Bacillus thuringiensis

187. Which one of the following is related to humoral immunity?

(a)  Platyhelminthes

(b)  Annelida

(c)  Mollusca

(d)  Echinodermata

188. Which one of t he following animal phyla does NOT possess a coelom?

(a)  Platyhelminthes

(b)  Annelida

(c)  Mollusca

(d)  Echinodermata

189. Which of the following would be in insignificant amount in xylem sap ?

(a)  Nitrates

(b)  Phosphates

(c)  Water

(d)  Sugar

190. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)  TSH and ACTH

(b)  Oestrogen and Progesterone

(c)  FSH and LH

(d)  Vassopressin and oxytocin

191. Which of the following in the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?

(a)  SA node-AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers

(b)  AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers

(c)  SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His

(d)  Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His

192. When DNA replication starts

(a)  the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break

(b)  the phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotide break

(c)  the bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break

(d)  the leading strand produces okiazaki fragments

193. What is a genophore ?

(a)  DNA in prokaryotes

(b)  DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

(c)  DNA and protein in prokaryotes

(d)  RNA in prokaryotes

194. Transpiration facilitates

(a)  opening of stomata

(b)  absorption of water by roots

(c)  excretion of minerals

(d)  electrolyte balance

195. The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are

(a)  100 S

(b)  80 S

(c)  60 S

(d)  70 S

196. The space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall of a plasmolyzed cell surrounded by a hypertonic solution is occupied by the

(a)  hypotonic solution

(b)  isotonic solution

(c)  hypertonic solution

(d)  water

197. The single horned Rhinoceros is protected at

(a)  Kaziranga National Park

(b)  Kanha National Park

(c)  Rajiv Gandhi National Park

(d)  Anashi National Park

198. The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and thirs is located is

(a)  Cerebrum

(b)  Hypothalamus

(c)  Cerebellum

(d)  Medulla Oblongata

199. The rosette habit of cabbage can be changed by application of

(a)  IAA

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  Ethaphon

200. The presence of corollary corona, sagittate anthers and dumb-bell shaped stigma are the characteristic features of

(a)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(d)  Catheranthus roseus

# OUAT Entrance Test Pattern

The Entrance Examination will be of multiple choice question (MCQ) for 200 marks of two hours duration and the medium of Examination will be English. The Entrance Examination will be held on 04.06.2017(10.30 A.M. to 12.30 P.M.). Candidates are to answer Physics, Chemistry and either Mathematics or Biology. There is no negative marks for wrong answer. The subjects of examination and marks distribution are indicated below.

 Subjects Marks Physics 66 Chemistry 66 Mathematics/Biology 68 Total 200

## Weightage to Academic Career and Entrance Examination:

Weighted score of candidates will be calculated on the basis of his/her academic
career and Entrance Examination as given below:

 a) H.S.C. / equivalent 25% b) +2 Sc. /equivalent 25% c) Entrance Examination 50% Total 100% Note: 1/4th of the total mark secured in the Entrance Examination

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*i.e.