OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2022

PHYSICS

Questions : 66

1. If a heating device is able to melt 2000 gm of ice at −5°C in 10 min, then its power expressed in horse power will be-

(Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g1 °C1, latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal/g).

(A)  368 hp

(B)  0.368 hp

(C)  1.55 hp

(D)  1155 hp

Answer: (C)

2. The body of mass ‘m’ is rotating about a fixed axis with the radius of the path ‘r’ and linear velocity ‘v’. Its angular momentum is :

(A)  mr/v

(B)  mvr2

(C)  mvr

(D)  mv/r

Answer: (C)

3. The number of significant figures in the following : 5.700 m and 0.006400 kg are, respectively, _____.

(A)  4, 2

(B)  4, 4

(C)  2, 2

(D)  2, 4

Answer: (B)

4. If both the charge and electric field on the capacitor is doubled, then its capacitance :

(A)  becomes double

(B)  remains the same

(C)  becomes four times

(D)  becomes half

Answer: (B)

5. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p → ii, q → iii and r → i

(B)  p → iii, q → i and r → ii

(C)  p → i, q → iii and r → i

(D)  p → ii, q → i and r → iii

Answer: (A)

6. A free neutron, unlike a free proton, is unstable. It decays into :

(A)  an electron and an antineutrino

(B)  a proton and antineutrino

(C)  a proton, an electron and an antineutrino

(D)  a proton and an electron

Answer: (C)

7. If a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in space has an electric field of amplitude 2.7 × 105 V/m, then the amplitude of the magnetic field is :

(A)  3 × 104 T

(B)  3 × 105 T

(C)  9 × 105 T

(D)  9 × 104 T

Answer: (D)

8. Inertial Mass is _____ and Gravitational Mass is _____.

(A)  The measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion, the measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation.

(B)  The measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation, the measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion.

(C)  The measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion; the measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation.

(D)  The measure of inertia and it follows from Newton’s law of Gravitation; the measure of gravitational pull and it follows from Newton’s second law of motion.

Answer: (A)

9. For unit magnification, the distance of an object from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm will be :

(A)  −20 cm

(B)  20 cm

(C)  −10 cm

(D)  10 cm

Answer: (A)

10. According to the third law of thermodynamics:

(A)  it is possible to reach 0 K with an ideal refrigerator

(B)  it is possible to reach 0°C in any physical process.

(C)  it is impossible to reach 0°C with an ideal refrigerator

(D)  it is impossible to reach 0 K in any physical process.

Answer: (D)

11. Ohm’s law is NOT applicable in the case of which of the following electrical equipment?

(A)  Filament of a light bulb

(B)  Fan motor

(C)  All ohmic conductors

(D)  Resistors

Answer: (A)

12. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p-ii, ,q-iv,, r-i and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, ,q-iv,, r-i and s-ii

(C)  p-iii, ,q-i,, r-iv and s-ii

(D)  p-ii, ,q-i,, r-iv and s-iii

Answer: (D)

13. The dimension of the product of surface tension and length is :

(A)  [M L1 T1]

(B)  [M L T2]

(C)  [M L T1]

(D)  [M L0 T2]

Answer: (B)

14. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are 200 V m1 and 0.426 A m1. The maximum energy flow is :

(A)  185.2 W/m2

(B)  45.2 W/m2

(C)  850.2 W/m2

(D)  85.2 W/m2

Answer: (D)

15. A 0.5 kg block is pushed against a wall with a horizontal force of 10 N. If the coefficient of static and kinetic friction between the wall and the block are 0.5 and 0.3, respectively, then :

(Take g = 10 m/sec2.)

(A)  the frictional force on the block is 4.0 N

(B)  the block moves down with an acceleration.

(C)  the frictional force on the block is 5.0 N

(D)  the normal force on the block is 5.0 N

Answer: (C)

16. In instrinsic semiconductor, the number of free electrons, ne and number of holes, nh are related as :

(A)  ne < nh

(B)  ne = nh

(C)  ne > nh

(D)  ne = nh = 0

Answer: (B)

17. The slope of stress vs. strain graph for a wire subjected to increasing load, upto proportionality limit gives :

(A)  Poisson’s ratio of the wire

(B)  Rigidity modulus of the wire

(C)  Young’s modulus of the wire

(D)  Bulk modulus of the wire

Answer: (C)

18. If the cabin of an ideal refrigerator is at −4°C, then for its coefficient of performance to be 5, the outside temperature should be nearly _____ °C (Choose the closest value)

(A)  −20

(B)  323

(C)  52

(D)  27

Answer: (C)

19. Consider a tightly wounded 40 turn coil of radius 8 cm, carrying a current of 1 A. The magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil will be :

(A)  1.57 G

(B)  3.14 G

(C)  12.56 G

(D)  6.28 G

Answer: (B)

20. In which of the following cases the force acting on an object is one newton?

(a)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant velocity of 1 m/sec.

(b)   Object of 1 g moving with a constant acceleration 1 m/sec2.

(c)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant acceleration 1 cm/sec2.

(d)   Object of 1 kg moving with a constant

(A)  (a)

(B)  (b)

(C)  (c)

(D)  (d)

Answer: (B)

21. In an arrangement of two rods A and B joined in series, rod A is the upper rod and is of length 2l and radius of cross section r. Rod B is the lower rod and is of length l and radius of cross section 2r. If the upper end of rod A is fixed to a rigid roof and the lower end of rod B is given a twist of θ°, the angle of twist at the joint of the two rods A and B is _____.

Answer: (A)

22. A particle starts from (0m, 0m) at t = 0 s with a velocity of  and moves in x-y plane with a constant acceleration of  Here symbols have their usual  At what time is the x coordinate of the particle 27 m ?

(A)  2.0 s

(B)  4.0 s

(C)  3.0 s

(D)  1.0 s

Answer: (C)

23. In an enclosure two gases A and B, with densities in the ratio 18 units and 44 units are mixed. The volume of gas A is one part and gas B is three part of the total volume of the enclosure. Assuming that they do not react chemically, the speed of sound in gas A and B is the speed of sound in this mixture is 340 m/sec will be___.

(A)  314 m/sec and 419 m/sec

(B)  419 m/sec and 314 m/sec

(C)  708 m/sec and 289 m/sec

(D)  289 m/sec and 708 m/sec

Answer: (B)

24. Match Column A with Column B

(O is Optical Centre, F is first Principal Focus)

(A)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i, and s-ii

(C)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

Answer: (D)

25. If the force is acting along-X direction on a body moving along +X direction, then work done here :

(A)  does not depends on direction

(B)  is zero

(C)  is negative

(D)  is positive

Answer: (C)

26. The linear velocity of the tip of the second hand in a given all clock is : (Length of the second had is 10 cm.)

(A)  0.001 m/sec

(B)  0.1 m/sec

(C)  10 m/sec

(D)  0.01 m/sec

Answer: (D)

27. Infinitely large number of point charges, each equal to q are placed at positions x = 1, 2, 4, 8….. Calculate the electrostatic potential at the origin.

(A)  πε0/q

(B)  q/2πε0

(C)  2q/πε0

(D)  q/3πε0

Answer: (B)

28. Two wires X and Y are placed parallel to each other at a distance of d carrying the same current in the same direction. At what distance between them, the magnetic field will be zero?

(A)  d/4

(B)  1/d

(C)  d

(D)  d/2

Answer: (D)

29. There are two clocks. The first one works on the basis of oscillations of simple pendulum and the other works on the oscillation of a spring mass system on Earth. If these two are now taken to Pluto, then :

(A)  the pendulum clock beats the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system does not beat same time as on Earth.

(B)  The pendulum clock does not beat the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system does not beat the same time as on Earth.

(C)  The pendulum clock beats the same time as on Earth and the spring mass system beats the same time as on Earth.

(D)  The pendulum clock does not beat the same time as on Earth and spring mass system beats the same time as on Earth.

Answer: (D)

30. A coil having 450Ω resistance is placed in a magnetic field that varies with time t (sec) as ϕ = 45t2 + 2t. The current in the coil at t = 2 sec is :

(A)  0.404 A

(B)  0.54 A

(C)  0.5 A

(D)  0.32 A

Answer: (A)

31. SI unit and dimensions of activity of a radio-active sample is :

(A)  S1, [T1]

(B)  H2, [T1]

(C)  S, [T]

(D)  Bq, [T1]

Answer: (D)

32. For a body executing SHM the distance between the positive and negative extreme is 0.5 m and if it oscillates with a frequency of 40 hertz, the equation for its displacement (y) is ______.

(A)  y = 0.25 sin (40t)

(B)  y = 0.5 sin (40t)

(C)  y = 0.25 sin (80πt)

(D)  y = 0.5 sin (80 πt)

Answer: (C)

33. If the battery and galvanometer positions get interchanged in a Wheatstone bridge, the deflection in the galvanometer will :

(A)  change to lower value

(B)  change to higher value

(C)  not change

(D)  move in either direction

Answer: (C)

34. In an isothermal process, if the volume of 2 moles of a monoatomic gas (Y = 1.4) is explanded from V to 10V at a temperature 1°C, the amount of work done is ____.

(A)  4.6 RT loge10

(B)  4.6 RT

(C)  2.3 RT loge10

(D)  2.3 RT

Answer: (B)

35. On what following factors does Young’s Modulus of a given wire depend on ?

(i) Length

(ii) Area of cross-section

(iii) Tension in the wire

(iv) Material of the wire

(A)  Only (ii) and (iii)

(B)  Only (ii) and (iv)

(C)  Only (iv)

(D)  Only (i) and (iv)

Answer: (C)

36. Lorentz force is the :

(A)  force of attraction or repulsion between two like and unlike charges, respectively.

(B)  force on a point charge moving in presence of both the electric field and the magnetic field.

(C)  force on a point charge at rest in the presence of both the electric field and the magnetic field.

(D)  force that acts between the protons and neutrons of atoms.

Answer: (B)

37. Select the INCORRECT statement regarding electromagnetic waves.

(A)  In free space they travel at the speed of light.

(B)  They are transverse in nature.

(C)  Their speed is same in all mediums.

(D)  They are produced by accelerating charges.

Answer: (C)

38. The position of a particle is given by

Where r is in meters and t in seconds, i, j and k are unit vectors along x-axis, y-axis and z-axis, respectively. The magnitude of the velocity of the particle at t = 0.5 s is :

(A)  6.0 m/sec

(B)  3.0 m/sec

(C)  4.0 m/sec

(D)  5.0 m/sec

Answer: (D)

39. The eddy current magnitude does not depend upon the :

(A)  magnetic flux

(B)  magnetic field

(C)  electric field

(D)  resistance of conductor

Answer: (C)

40. The charge of two-point charges halved and the distance between them made four times, the force between them :

(A)  remains the same

(B)  gets double

(C)  gets four times

(D)  gets 1/64 times

Answer: (C)

41. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on the

(A)  potential of conductors

(B)  shape of conductors

(C)  charge of conductors

(D)  charge of densities

Answer: (B)

42. Change in kinetic energy of a body of mass 1kg moving along a circular path with the constant speed 10 m/s is :

(A)  10 J

(B)  0 J

(C)  1 J

(D)  5 J

Answer: (B)

43. Materials A, B and C have energy band gap (E­­g­) of zero, < 3eV and > 3eV, respectively. Materials A, B and C can be classified as :

(A)  Semiconductor, insulator and metal

(B)  Metal, conductors and insulator

(C)  Insulator, metal and semiconductor

(D)  Metal, semiconductor and insulator

Answer: (D)

44. If an organ pipe closed at one end is suddenly opened, the fundamental frequency in the open pipe formed is found to be increased by 50 Hz. Then the 3rd overtone frequency of the closed pipe is _____.

(A)  350 Hz

(B)  250 Hz

(C)  150 Hz

(D)  50 Hz

Answer: (A)

45. An object 10m away from a concave mirror of focal length 1m, starts moving at a speed of 5m/sec towards the mirror. The average speed of the image is approximately :

(A)  1/7 m/sec

(B)  5 m/sec

(C)  1/5 m/sec

(D)  7 m/sec

Answer: (A)

46. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about errors in measurements?

(a) Imperfections in experimental procedures cause random errors.

(b) Unpredictable fluctuations in temperature cause systematic errors.

(A)  Both (a) and (b)

(B)  Only (a)

(C)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(D)  Only (b)

Answer: (C)

47. If a planet sweeps 2 lakh km2 are in the month of February 2022, then the area swept by it in one week of any month in any year will be ______.

(A)  5 × 106km2

(B)  8 × 1010km2

(C)  5 × 1010km2

(D)  8 × 106km2

Answer: (C)

48. Two circular metal plates with identical dimensions are rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the body and passing through the centre. If mass of the first plate is double the mass of the second plate, then their moments of inertia are in the ratio :

(A)  4 : 1

(B)  1 : 2

(C)  1 : 1

(D)  2 : 1

Answer: (D)

49. The difference between the reciprocals of focal length and image distance is equal to the ______ in a spherical mirror.

(A)  radius of curvature

(B)  object distance

(C)  Inverse of object distance

(D)  Inverse of radius of curvature

Answer: (C)

50. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon :

(I) the relative position and orientation of the two coils

(II) the cross-section area of the wires of the coils.

(III) the current changing rates of both the coils.

Which of the above statement is/are true?

(A)  I and II

(B)  II and III

(C)  Only III

(D)  Only I

Answer: (D)

51. In two different places on earth, A and B, simple pendulum experiment was conducted with the same pendulum. It is found that in place A, 20 oscillations take 97.8 sec and at place B, 20 oscillations take 100 sec. The ratio of accelerations due to gravity of place B to place A is nearly____.

(A)  0.95

(B)  0.97

(C)  1.02

(D)  1.46

Answer: (A)

52. If 3 moles of diatomic gas are made to dissociate into a monotomic gas at room temperature, then the change in its degrees of freedom will be _____.

(A)  1.8 × 1024

(B)  1.2 × 1024

(C)  0.6 × 1024

(D)  2.4 × 1024

Answer: (A)

53. Consider the velocity (v) and acceleration (a) of a ball thrown vertically upward. During its motion upwards (downward direction taken to be negative) :

(A)  v is positive and a is negative

(B)  both v and are positive

(C)  v is negative and a is positive

(D)  both v and a are negative

Answer: (A)

54. Match Column A with Column B.

(A)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i and s-ii

(B)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(C)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

Answer: (B)

55. Magnetic flux is defined as :

(A)  the total number of magnetic filed lines passing through a given area and perpendicular to it.

(B)  the total current through a plane

(C)  the total charge per unit volume

(D)  the total EMF in a closed loop

Answer: (A)

56. For same increase in volume if WP, WT, WQ are works done in Isobaric, Isothermal and Adiabatic process, ascending order of these works done is _____.

(A)  WQ < WP < WT

(B)  WQ < WT < WP

(C)  WT < WP < WQ

(D)  WP < WT < WQ

Answer: (B)

57. Among the following thermodynamic quantities, the point functions are (i) __ and path functions are (ii) ___.

(a) external work (b) internal energy

(c) heat supplied  (d) entropy

(A)  (i) (a), (b) (ii) (c), (d)

(B)  (i) (a), (d) (ii) (b), (d)

(C)  (i) (b), (d) (ii) (a), (c)

(D)  (i) (a), (c) (ii) (b), (d)

Answer: (C)

58. A fruit falling from the tree is under the action of gravitational force. Here force is :

(A)  viscous force

(B)  non-conservative force

(C)  Elastic force

(D)  Conservative force

Answer: (D)

59. Match Column A with Column B

(A)  p-ii, q-i, r-iv and s-iii

(B)  p-iii, q-iv, r-i and s-ii

(C)  p-ii, q-iv, r-i and s-iii

(D)  p-iii, q-i, r-iv and s-ii

Answer: (B)

60. A particle is in equilibrium under the action of three concurrent forces F1, F2 and F3 are given by :

F2 = (2.0 N)i + (3.0 N)j + (4.0 N)k

F3 = (3.0 N)i – (4.0 N)j – (5.0 N)k

Then F1 is :

(A)  (1.0N)i – (7.0 N)j – (9.0N)k

(B)  −(5.0N)i + (1.0 N)j + (3.0N)k

(C)  −(2.0N)i + (7.0N)j + (9.0N)k

(D)  (5.0N)i – (1.0N)j – (1.0N)k

Answer: (B)

61. A circular disc is rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the body and passing through the centre with angular velocity ‘ω1’. If the angular velocity of the disc is increased to ‘ω’, then moment of inertia of the disc :

(A)  decreases

(B)  increases

(C)  remains same

(D)  varies as a function of time

Answer: (C)

62. A small smooth spherical particle is placed on a smooth concave surface of radius R = 19.6 m. If it is displaced from the mean position, it executes SHM. The time period of oscillation will be _____.

(A)  2π

(B)  2√2π

(C)  π

(D)  √2π

Answer: (B)

63. If a wire is made ‘n’ times shorter than its original length (l), the effect on its elongation will be (a) ____ and the maximum load it can bear will be (b) _____.

(A)  (a) no change (b) 1/n times the initial value.

(B)  (a) 1/n times the initial value (b) no change

(C)  (a) 1/n times (b) n times

(D)  (a) n times (b) 1/n times

Answer: (B)

64. The V-I curve for a conductor is plotted at two different temperatures T1 and T2. If T1 > T2 then the slope of the V-I curve will be more at which temperature?

(A)  Same of both temperatures

(B)  T1

(C)  Does not depend on temperature

(D)  T2

Answer: (B)

65. A box of mass 5.0 kg is lying on a horizontal smooth surface. It is pulled by applying a force of 10.0 N at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. The magnitude of the acceleration of the box is about :

(A)  1.7 m/sec2

(B)  1.0 m/sec2

(C)  2.0 m/sec2

(D)  3.4 m/sec2

Answer: (A)

66. In 50 years, tritium undergoing beta decay reduced to one-sixteenth of its initial amount. The half-life of tritium is :

(A)  6.25 years

(B)  12.5 years

(C)  50 years

(D)  0.25 years

Answer: (B)

CHEMISTRY

Questions : 66

67. Which of the following elements or compounds does NOT dissolve in water ?

(A)  Cane sugar

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Urea

(D)  Glucose

Answer: (B)

68. Which of the following molecule has bond order two?

(A)  He2

(B)  O21

(C)  C2

(D)  N2

Answer: (C)

69. What will be the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment of M3+ ion in aqueous solution for an element having Z = 26 ?

(A)  3.87 BM

(B)  5.92 BM

(C)  2.82 BM

(D)  4.89 BM

Answer: (B)

70. Which of the following devices is used for determining the resistance of a material?

(A)  Wheatstone bridge

(B)  Salt bridge

(C)  Galvanometer

(D)  Daniell cell

Answer: (A)

71. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R)

Assertion (A) : Hoffmann’s ammonolysis of alkyl halides gives a mixture of primary, secondary, tertiary mines along with some quaternary ammonium halide.

Reason (R) : Primary amine with its lone pair of electron acts as a nucleophile.

(A)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C)  A is false and R is true

(D)  A is true but R is false

Answer: (A)

72. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an amorphous solid?

(A)  They are isotropic

(B)  They are anisotropic

(C)  They do not have a pattern of arrangements

(D)  They do not have a sharp melting point.

Answer: (B)

73. Select the correct statement from the following options.

(A)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in electrical behavior of particles

(B)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in solubility of the particles

(C)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in nature of the particles.

(D)  Colloids differ from crystalloids in size of the particles.

Answer: (D)

74. The functional group, which is NOT present in aspartame is :

(A)  aldehydic group

(B)  amino group

(C)  ester group

(D)  carboxylic group

Answer: (A)

75. What are the main components of phosphate rocks?

(A)  Ca2(PO4)6CaF2

(B)  Ca3(PO4)6CaF2

(C)  Ca2(PO4)8CaF2

(D)  Ca9(PO4)6CaF2

Answer: (D)

76. The ion having the largest size is :

(A)  I

(B)  Br

(C)  Cl

(D)  F

Answer: (A)

77. Which of the following statement is correct for oxides of halogens?

(A)  I2O5 is a good oxidizing agent

(B)  ClO2 is used as washing soda.

(C)  BrO3 exist only at higher temperature

(D)  Bromine oxides are less powerful oxidizing agent.

Answer: (A)

78. The oxidation of p-nitrotoluene with chromic trioxide in acetic anhydride followed by hydrolysis in aqueous acid gives :

(A)  benzoic acid

(B)  benzaldehyde

(C)  p-nitrobenzaldehyde

(D)  p-nitrobenzoic acid

Answer: (C)

79. Which of the following lanthanoids has an abnormally low value of third ionization enthalpy?

(A)  Ytterbium

(B)  Cerium

(C)  Europium

(D)  Lutetium

Answer: (D)

80. What temperature is required in the preparation of low-density polyethylene?

(A)  350-570 K

(B)  150-570 K

(C)  650-970 K

(D)  950-1270 K

Answer: (A)

81. Which of the following polymers is resistant to the action of petrol and lubrication oil?

(A)  Melamine

(B)  Nylon-6, 6

(C)  Buna-N

(D)  Butadiene-styrene polymer

Answer: (C)

82. What will be the hybrid state of BeCl2 in vapour state?

(A)  sp3d

(B)  sp

(C)  sp3

(D)  sp2

Answer: (B)

83. Which of the following crystals is an example of covalent crystal?

(A)  Water

(B)  Potassium Nitrate

(C)  Carborundum

(D)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (C)

84. The composition of German silver is :

(A)  Cobalt, zinc and silver

(B)  Copper, zinc and tin

(C)  Copper, zinc and silver

(D)  Copper, zinc and nickel

Answer: (D)

85. Which of the following is the correct increasing order with respect to melting points?

(A)  PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < NH3

(B)  SbH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < NH3

(C)  AsH3 < SbH3 < PH3 < NH3

(D)  NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3

Answer: (A)

86. Complete the balanced reaction.

Ca3P2 + 6H2O→

(A)  3CaO + 2PH3

(B)  Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

(C)  6CaO + 2PH3

(D)  3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3

Answer: (D)

87. Which of the following coordination entities would have a square planar geometry?

(A)  [Ni(H2O)4]2+

(B)  [Ni(CO)4]

(C)  [Ni(Cl)4]2

(D)  [Ni(CN)4]2

Answer: (D)

88. Match the Column I (Structure) with Column II (IUPAC name) and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iii)

(B)  a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)

(C)  a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)

(D)  a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)

Answer: (A)

89. Toulene on oxidation with alkaline potassium permanganate followed by hydrolysis gives compound X. X on reaction with ethanol in presence of conc.

H2SO4 gives Y. Compound X and Y respectively are :

(A)  Benzoic acid; Ethyl-2-methyl benzoate

(B)  2-Methyl Benzoic acid; Ethyl benzoate

(C)  2-Methyl Benzoic acid; Ethyl-2-methyl benzoate

(D)  Benzoic acid; Ethyl benzoate

Answer: (D)

90. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  (a)-I, (b)-II, (c)-III

(B)  (a)-II, (b)-I, (c)-III

(C)  (a)-I, (b)-III, (c)-II

(D)  (a)-III, (b)-II, (c)-I

Answer: (D)

91. Match the Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A)  A-(II), B-(I), C-(III)

(B)  A-(I), B-(III), C-(III)

(C)  A-(III), B-(II), C-(I)

(D)  A-(I), B-(II), C-(III)

Answer: (C)

92. What is the rate constant for the 1st order reaction?

(A)  moll1

(B)  S1

(C)  mol L1s1

(D)  mol1LS

Answer: (B)

93. Which of the following dehydrating agents CANNOT convert ethanol into ethene?

(A)  HCl

(B)  H3PO4

(C)  Conc. H2SO4

(D)  D.Al2O3

Answer: (A)

94. Which of the following a consequence of Lanthanoid contraction?

(A)  Atomic radius of Zn is larger than Ni and Cu.

(B)  ∆a H increases from left to right in first transition series

(C)  Zr and Hf have almost the same atomic radii

(D)  Atomic radius decreases from left to right in second transition series.

Answer: (C)

95. Which of the following compounds has the lowest melting point?

(A)  BaCl2

(B)  NaF

(C)  CaF2

(D)  BeCl2

Answer: (D)

96. How many isomers are possible of dihalogen derivatives of propane?

(A)  Four

(B)  Three

(C)  Five

(D)  Two

Answer: (A)

97. Select the correct statement regarding Li.

(A)  1st ionization energy of Li is equal to Be.

(B)  1st ionization energy of Li is equal to F.

(C)  1st ionization energy of Li is lesser than Be.

(D)  1st ionization energy of Li is greater than to Be.

Answer: (C)

98. Which of the following polymers is NOT an example of synthetic polymer?

(A)  Rayon

(B)  Buna-S

(C)  Polythene

(D)  Nylon-6, 6

Answer: (A)

99. Which of the following is true about galvanic cell?

(A)  It converts electrical energy into chemical energy

(B)  It converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

(C)  It converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

(D)  It converts electrical energy into mechanical energy.

Answer: (B)

100. How many O-O bonds present in the ozone molecule are identical?

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

101. Chloroform is NOT used as anaesthetic due to the formation of:

(A)  chlorine gas

(B)  carbon-dikoxide gas

(C)  oxygen gas

(D)  phosgene gas

Answer: (D)

102. What will be the change in entropy for the following process?

CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)

(A)  Entropy increases

(B)  Entropy decreases

(C)  Entropy becomes zero

(D)  Entropy remains unchanged

Answer: (A)

103. Which of the following is correct?

(A)  Neutrons = Atomic mass – Atomic number

(B)  Neutrons = Atomic number – Atomic mass

(C)  Protons = Atomic mass – Atomic number

(D)  Electrons = Atomic mass/ atomic number

Answer: (A)

104. In a bomb calorimeter, energy change occurring in a reaction is measured under which of the following conditions?

(A)  At constant temperature

(B)  At constant pressure

(C)  At constant pressure and volume

(D)  At constant volume

Answer: (D)

105. Phenol on treatment with conc. H2SO4 at 373 K given compound A, which on treatment with excess of bromine water gives compound B. Compound A and B are respectively

(A)  4-phenolsulphonic acid; 4-Bromophenol

(B)  2-Phenolsulphoni acid; 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

(C)  2-Phenolsulphonic acid, 2-Bromophenol

(D)  4-Phenolsulphonic acid; 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

Answer: (D)

106. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding the carbonyl group?

(A)  The carbonyl carbon acts as nucleophile

(B)  The carbonyl oxygen acts as a nucleophile

(C)  The carbonyl carbon is sp2 hybridised

(D)  It is polar in nature.

Answer: (A)

107. Which is the following statements is INCORRECT?

(A)  Inductive effect is temporary effect while electrometric effect is permanent effect.

(B)  Inductive effect involves the partial displacement of sigma electrons while in electrometric effect, complete transference of pi-electrons takes place.

(C)  In inductive effect partial charges are developed on atoms and no ions are formed, while in electrometric effect complete transference of electrons takes place

(D)  In this effect the displaced electron pair does not leave its orbitals but in electrometric effect it leaves its orbital.

(A)  C

(B)  B

(C)  A

(D)  D

Answer: (C)

108. What is the numerical value of Avogadro’s number?

(A)  6.022 × 1026

(B)  6.022 × 1023

(C)  6.022 × 1025

(D)  60.22 × 102

Answer: (B)

109. How many number of zero oxidation states of sulphur atoms are present in tetrathionate ion?

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  1

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

110. The slope of plot between ln [R] vs t give ____.

(A)  Concentration of the products

(B)  Molecularity of the reaction

(C)  Rate of the reaction

(D)  Rate constant

Answer: (D)

111. The compound BeCl2 is ____.

(A)  Polymeric

(B)  Ionic

(C)  Co-ordinate

(D)  Covalent

Answer: (D)

112. How many double bonds are present in butane?

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (B)

113. The packing fraction of a simple cubic system is :

(A)  0.524

(B)  0.480

(C)  0.680

(D)  0.740

Answer: (A)

114. Choose the correct differential rate equation for the following reaction:

A + 3B → 2C + D

(A)  r = −d[A]/dt = −1/3[B]dt = 1/2d[C]dt = d[D]/dt

(B)  r = −d[A]/dt = 1/3d [B]/dt = 1/2d[C]/dt = d[D]/dt

(C)  r = −d[A]/dt = 1/3d[B]/dt = −1/2d[C]dt = d[D]/dt

(D)  r = −d[A]/dt = −3d[B]/dt = 1/2d[C]/dt = d[D]/dt

Answer: (A)

115. Which of the following correctly represents Gay Lussac’s law?

(A)  V/T = K

(B)  VT = K

(C)  PT = K

(D)  P/T = K

Answer: (D)

116. The number of primary –OH and secondary –OH group present in ethylene glycol is :

(A)  One primary –OH and one secondary –OH group

(B)  Only two secondary –OH groups

(C)  Only two primary –OH groups

(D)  Two primary –OH and one secondary –OH group

Answer: (C)

117. Which of the following statements is correct about bonding in metal carbonyls?

(A)  The M-C sigma bond is formed by the donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into a vacant bonding orbital of a CO molecule.

(B)  The M-C pi bond is formed by donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into vacant π* antibonding orbital of CO molecule.

(C)  The M-C pi bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons of carbonyl carbon into a vacant metal d-orbital

(D)  The M-C sigma bond is formed by donation of electron pair from a metal d-orbital into vacant π* antibonding orbital of Co molecule.

Answer: (B)

118. Which of the following is NOT an antacid?

(A)  Aluminium hydroxide

(B)  Lansoprezole

(C)  Ranitidine

(D)  Chlorpheniramine

Answer: (D)

119. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A)  a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

(B)  a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv

(C)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D)  a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (A)

120. Select the elements can form d π – d π bond with transition metals.

(A)  Arsenic, nitrogen and phosphorus

(B)  Phosphorus and nitrogen

(C)  Phosphorus and arsenic

(D)  Arsenic and nitrogen

Answer: (C)

121. If the partial pressures of four non interacting gases are p1, p2, p3 and p4, then the pressure of mixture of these gases, P is _____.

(A)  p1 + p2 + p3 + p4

(B)  (p1 + p2) (p3 + p4)

(C)  p1 × p2 × p3 × p4

(D)  

Answer: (A)

122. Which of the following reagent is used in the preparation of K­3[Fe(CN)6] from K4[Fe(CN)6]?

(A)  O3

(B)  MnO2

(C)  H2O2

(D)  AlH3

Answer: (C)

123. Which of the following is the increasing order of a s-block elements with respect to wavelength?

(A)  Li < Na < K < Rb

(B)  Na < Li < K < Rb

(C)  Rb < K < Na < Li

(D)  Na < K < Li < Rb

Answer: (B)

124. What is the nature of hexaflourides?

(A)  Solid

(B)  Gaseous

(C)  Liquid

(D)  Solid and liquid

Answer: (B)

125. Which of the following molecule will produce 2 moles of AgCl precipitate with an excess of AgNO3 solution?

(A)  [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(B)  [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]

(C)  [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Br

(D)  [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3

Answer: (A)

126. The shape and bond angle of 3° amine is :

(A)  Pyramidal, 108°

(B)  Tetrahedral, 108°

(C)  Pyramidal, 107°

(D)  Tetrahedral, 109.28°

Answer: (A)

127. The common name of (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 is :

(A)  isopropyl ketone

(B)  di-isopropyl ketone

(C)  acrolein

(D)  mesityl oxide

Answer: (D)

128. Under which of the following conditions will a process be spontaneous at all temperature?

(A)  ∆H = +ve, ∆S = +ve

(B)  ∆H = −ve, ∆S = +ve

(C)  ∆H = −ve, ∆S = −ve

(D)  ∆H = +ve, ∆S = −ve

Answer: (B)

129. Select the correct pairs of isobars from the following.

Answer: (A)

130. Select the option that is true regarding the following two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Tertiary alcohols are less acidic than secondary and primary alcohols.

Reason (R) : An electron releasing group increases the polarity of O-H bond by increasing the electron density on oxygen atom.

(A)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B)  A is false and R is true

(C)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(D)  A is true but R is false

Answer: (D)

131. Which of the following is lyophobic in nature?

(A)  Gelatin

(B)  Sulphur

(C)  Starch

(D)  Protein

Answer: (B)

132. Which of the following is used as Tranquillizers?

(A)  Iburofen

(B)  Dichlorofenic sodium

(C)  Veronal

(D)  Naproxen

Answer: (C)

MATHEMATICS

Questions : 68

133. Which of the following is a statement?

(A)  Oh ! we have drawn the match

(B)  May God bless you !

(C)  Jupiter is a planet

(D)  I may live long !

Answer: (C)

134. The value of the integral  is :

(A)  −1

(B)  ∞

(C)  1

(D)  0

Answer: (D)

135. Match the column A with column B

(A)  1 → P; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(B)  1 → R; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(C)  1 → Q; 2 → P; 3 → S; 4 → R

(D)  1 → Q; 2 → P; 3 → P; 4 → R

Answer: (C)

136. The value of 

Answer: (B)

137. 

(A)  n – 1 + 2n

(B)  n – 1 – 2n

(C)  n + 1 – 2n

(D)  n + 1 + 2n

Answer: (C)

138. In how many ways can 16 examination papers be arranged, so that the best and the worst papers never come together?

(A)  14 – 15!

(B)  15 – 14!

(C)  15 – 16!

(D)  16 – 15!

Answer: (A)

139. The value of 

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  −2

(D)  1

Answer: (B)

140. The number of elements in a set {x : x ϵ a all alphabets} is :

(A)  12

(B)  5

(C)  26

(D)  30

Answer: (C)

141. If f : R → A defined by f(x) = {x – 2} – 3 is a surjection then A is ____.

(A)  (−∞, 1] ∪ [2, ∞)

(B)  [−3, ∞)

(C)  [1, 2]

(D)  (1, ∞)

Answer: (B)

142. If ω is non-real cube root of unity, x = a + b, y = aω2 + bω and z = bω2 + aω, then x2 + y2 + z2.

(A)  12a2b2

(B)  12ab

(C)  6ab

(D)  6a2b2

Answer: (C)

143. For n ϵ N, 2.3n+1 + 3n + 36 is divisible by :

(A)  2

(B)  8

(C)  6

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

144. The polar form of −√7 + i√21 is :

Answer: (B)

145. Let  then the value of tan(x/2) is :

(A)  15/29

(B)  14/29

(C)  13/25

(D)  −15/29

Answer: (A)

146. The angle between the lines

x + y – 5 = 0, 7x + 5y – 8 = 0 is :

Answer: (D)

147. The product of the slopes of the tangents to the parabola y2 = x drawn from the point (1, −2) is :

(A)  −1/4

(B)  1/4

(C)  −2/4

(D)  2/4

Answer: (B)

148. The product of all the nth roots of unity is :

(A)  1

(B)  0

(C)  −1

(D)  (−1)n1

Answer: (D)

149. The number an = 6n – 5n for n = 1, 2, 3,…. When divided by 25 leaves the remainder

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  3

(D)  1

Answer: (D)

150. The 11th term of sequence 3, 2, 4/3, 8/9….is :

(A)  210/69

(B)  910/39

(C)  210/39

(D)  210/310

Answer: (C)

151. The equation of a plane bisecting the angle between the planes 4x – 2y + 4z + 6 = 0 and 6x – 4y + 12z + 16 = 0 is :

(A)  23x + 13y + 32z – 45 = 0

(B)  5x – y – 4z – 3 = 0

(C)  23x – 13y + 32z + 5 = 0

(D)  5x – y – 4z – 45 = 0

Answer: (B)

152. If E is an impossible event, then P(E) is :

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  0.1

Answer: (C)

153. The equation of line through (1, 3) with slope 2 is :

(A)  y = x + 2

(B)  y = x – 2

(C)  y = 2x – 1

(D)  y = 2x + 1

Answer: (D)

154. Find the number of 2000th roots of unity which are 2020th roots of unity.

(A)  2

(B)  0

(C)  5

(D)  20

Answer: (D)

155. If 26Pr+6 : 25Pr+3 = 11050 : 1 then r is equal to :

(A)  16

(B)  4

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (B)

156. Let S be the set of people living in India, then the relation R in S defined by ‘aRb if a and b have same father’ is :

(A)  reflexive

(B)  equivalence

(C)  symmetric

(D)  transitive

Answer: (B)

157. If  and  then the value of ∝ for which A2 = B is :

(A)  2

(B)  −1

(C)  1

(D)  0

Answer: (B)

158. Match the columns

(A)  1 → Q, 2 → Q, 3 → R, 4 → P

(B)  1 → S, 2 → Q, 3 → R, 4 → P

(C)  1 → S, 2 → Q, 3 → P, 4 → P

(D)  1 → S, 2 → R, 3 → R, 4 → P

Answer: (B)

159. The solution of the differential equation  is :

Answer: (A)

160. If  & B = adj A & C = 5A, then the value of  is _____.

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  −1

Answer: (A)

161. The exponent of 6 in 100! is :

(A)  45

(B)  48

(C)  13

(D)  22

Answer: (B)

162. In a city 15% are suffering from fever and 10% are suffering from cold and 5% are suffering from both. The probability that they are suffering from either cold or fever is :

(A)  50%

(B)  30%

(C)  20%

(D)  40%

Answer: (C)

163. If A = {−3, 1}, B = {x ∈ R : x2 + 2x – 3 = 0}, and C = {1, 2, 3} and D = {x ∈ R : x2 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 = 0}, then the equal sets are :

(A)  A, B and C

(B)  A and B

(C)  A and C

(D)  A, C and D

Answer: (B)

164. If  such that |A – KI| = 0, then the sum of all the possible values of K is ____.

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  6

(D)  4

Answer: (C)

165. If nA = m and nB = 2, then the number of possible surjective mappings from A to B is :

(A)  m!

(B)  2m

(C)  2m – 1

(D)  2m – 2

Answer: (D)

166. A line segment has length 1089 and direction ratios are 6, −2, 9. If the line makes an obtuse angle with x-axis, the components of the line vector are :

(A)  −594, 198, 891

(B)  27, −18, 54

(C)  −27, 18, −54

(D)  18, −6, 27

Answer: (A)

167. The set {x : x is a positive interger less than 5 and 5x – 1 is an even number} in roster form is :

(A)  {2, 4, 6}

(B)  {1, 3, 5}

(C)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

(D)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

Answer: (D)

168. The solution of the differential equation x(x + y) dy – y2dx = 0 is

(A)  y = −x log cy

(B)  y = x log cxy

(C)  y = x log cy

(D)  y = −x log cxy

Answer: (A)

169. The contrapositive of the statement, ‘IF I am not happy, then I will go to the picture’ is :

(A)  I I am happy, then I will not go to the picture

(B)  If I will go to the picture, then I am happy

(C)  If I will go to the picture, then I am not happy

(D)  I I will not go to the picture, then I am happy

Answer: (D)

170. What is the probability of getting a sum as 7 or 8 with two dice ?

(A)  1/36

(B)  1/12

(C)  5/36

(D)  11/36

Answer: (D)

171. If the 4th and 9th term of a GP be 54 and 13122, respectively, then its second term is :

(A)  10

(B)  12

(C)  6

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

172. If f(x) = ex, g(x) = tan1 x and k(x) = f(g(x)) then 

(A)  1 – x2

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  1 + x2

Answer: (C)

173. If x = sin1 t, y = log(1 – t2), then  is _____.

(A)  −√3/2

(B)  −2/√3

(C)  2/√3

(D)  √3/2

Answer: (B)

174. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola is √3 then the eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola is :

(A)  1/2

(B)  

(C)  

(D)  3/2

Answer: (B)

175. The eccentricity and length of latus rectum of hyperbola

X2 – 2y2 – 6x + 8y = 36 is :

(A)  √3 and √14

(B)  √13 and √37

(C)  

(D)  2 and √3

Answer: (C)

176. If A and B are matrices of order 3 × 3 and if |A| − 2, |B| = 3, then |4A2B3| is ____.

(A)  7062

(B)  7612

(C)  6912

(D)  6072

Answer: (C)

177. The solution of the differential equation  is :

Answer: (D)

178. Find the equation of the line through the intersection of x + y – 1 = 0, 2x – y – 2 = 0 and perpendicular to 2x – 3y + 2 = 0 is :

(A)  3x + 2y – 3 = 0

(B)  3x + 2y + 3 = 0

(C)  3x – 2y – 3 = 0

(D)  3x + 2y – 2 = 0

Answer: (A)

179. If R is relation on the set A = {1, 2, 3}, then R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} is a :

(A)  Transitive

(B)  Reflexive

(C)  All the given options

(D)  Symmetric

Answer: (C)

180. The value of 

(A)  100√2

(B)  50 π

(C)  100 π

(D)  50√2

Answer: (D)

181. Let m = tan2(sec12) + cot2(cosec12), then the value of m3 – m is :

(A)  121

(B)  210

(C)  144

(D)  81

Answer: (B)

182. Match the following :

(A)  A-i, B—ii, C-iii, D-iv

(B)  A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(C)  A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(D)  A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

Note : For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. Full marks is being awarded to all candidates.

Answer: (*)

183. 

Answer: (B)

184. If PA. = 0.25 PB. = 0.5, P(A ∪ B) = 0.59, then is :

(A)  1

(B)  0.09

(C)  0.9

(D)  0.2

Answer: (B)

185. The derivative of y = x3x sin(x) is :

(A)  x3xsin(x)(3 + 3 ln(x) + cot (x))

(B)  xx sin(x)

(C)  x3x sin(x) cot (x)

(D)  3 + 3ln (x) + cot (x)

Answer: (A)

186. The value of   is :

(A) 

(B)  

(C)  loge 2

(D)  0

Answer: (B)

187. If then 

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  −1

Answer: (C)

188. If y = (loge x)x, then 

Answer: (B)

189. There are 200 students in a class. In the examination, 100 of them failed in Mathematics, 90 failed in Physics, 80 failed in Biology and 64 failed in exactly two of the three subjects. Only two students passed in all the subjects. Then, the number of students failing in all the three subjects is :

(A)  2

(B)  6

(C)  4

(D)  8

Answer: (C)

190. Consider the following statements :

P : Pranav is skilled

Q : Pranav is poor

R : Pranav is honest

The negation of the “Pranav is Skilled and dishonest if and only if Pranav is poor” can be expressed as :

(A)  ~(P ^ ~R) ↔ Q

(B)  ~ (Q ↔ (P ^ ~ R))

(C)  ~ p ^ (Q ↔ ~ R)

(D)  ~ Q ↔ ~ P ^ R

Answer: (B)

191. The remainder obtained when

(n2 + 5n + 4) . (n2 + 5n + 6) + 31 is divided by 24 is :

(A)  9

(B)  7

(C)  25

(D)  32

Answer: (B)

192. If the function f : R → R defined by  find f(x) + (1 – x)

(A)  0

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  22

Answer: (C)

193. The centre and radius of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 4y – 1 = 0 is :

(A)  (1, 1) and 3

(B)  (1, −2) and 3

(C)  (2, −2) and 2

(D)  (2, 2) and 3

Answer: (D)

194. If the first three terms in AP are 3, 7, 11 then the sum of the first 10 terms is :

(A)  222

(B)  211

(C)  223

(D)  210

Answer: (D)

195. The sequence of numbers  are in :

(A)  GP

(B)  None of these

(C)  HP

(D)  AP

Answer: (C)

196. Match the column A with column B based on permutation and combination

Column A Column B
1. There are 6 candidates for 3 posts. In how many ways can the posts be filled. P. 180 Ways
2. From among the 36 teachers in a school one principal and one vice-principal and one vice-principal are to be appointed. In how many ways can this be done. Q. 1260 ways
3. There are 15 buses running between Delhi and Mumbai. In how many ways can a man go to Mumbai and return by a different bus R. 120 ways
4. A teacher of a class wants to set on question from each of the two exercise in a book. If there are 15 and 12 questions in the two exercises respectively, then in how many ways can the two questions be selected. S. 210 ways

(A)  1 → Q; 2 → R; 3 → S; 4 → P

(B)  1 → R; 2 → Q; 3 → S; 4 → P

(C)  1 → R; 2 → R; 3 → S; 4 → P

(D)  1 → R; 2 → Q; 3 → P; 4 → P

Answer: (B)

197. In a college tournament, in which the participants were to play one game with another, two class players did not participate, after having played 2 games each. If the total number of games played is 82, then the number of participants at the beginning, was :

(A)  15

(B)  22

(C)  25

(D)  10

Answer: (A)

198. The equation of line which makes the intercepts 1 and 2 on x and y axis is :

(A)  3x – y – 2 = 0

(B)  3x + y – 2 = 0

(C)  2x – y – 2 = 0

(D)  2x + y – 2 = 0

Answer: (D)

199. Let f be the subset of R × R defined by f = {(x, y) + x2 + y2 = 9}. Here, f is :

(A)  one-one

(B)  onto

(C)  none of these

(D)  bijective

Answer: (C)

200. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are

R = 5i + 3j – 6k + λ)(2i + j + 2k) and

r = 7i – 6k + μ(i + 2j + 8k);

(λ, μ being parameters,) is :

(A)  23/3√69

(B)  23/√69

(C)  20/3√69

(D)  20/√69

Answer: (C)

BIOLOGY

Question : 68

133. Animals in which sexes are separate, that is, males and females are distinct are known as :

(A)  dioecious

(B)  hermaphrodite

(C)  transgender

(D)  monoecious

Answer: (A)

134. Identify the INCORRECT statement.

(A)  For bacteria to take up plasmid, the cells must be rendered DNA – competent.

(B)  Microparticles of platinum are utilized in gene gun.

(C)  Biolistics allows for the direct injection of recombinant DNA.

(D)  Disarmed pathogen vectors deliver recombinant DNA to hosts.

Answer: (B)

135. Which RNA acts as genetic material?

(A)  rRNA

(B)  mRNA

(C)  tRNA

(D)  TMV RNA

Answer: (D)

136. Match the items given in column I with their functions in column II.

(A)  a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

(B)  a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv

(C)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(D)  a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (D)

137. Which chlorophyll type is a primary, universal photosynthetic pigment and acts as reaction centre?

(A)  Chlorophyll d

(B)  Chlorophyll c

(C)  Chlorophyll b

(D)  Chlorophyll a

Answer: (D)

138. Arrange the following events of an action potential in the proper sequence.

(a) Repolarisation            (b) Influx of Na+

(c) Efflux of Na+             (d) Depolarisation

(A)  c, d, b, a

(B)  b, a, c, d

(C)  b, d, c, a

(D)  b, c, d, a

Answer: (C)

139. Which genetic disorder is sex-linked (X chromosome) and shows effect in the defective form of blood clotting factor VIII/IX ?

(A)  Sikle-cell anaemia

(B)  Haemophilia A/B

(C)  Phenylketonuria

(D)  Huntington’s disease

Answer: (B)

140. Rod-like structure, called notochord, is not present in animals belonging to Porifera to Echinodermata, they are called :

(A)  chordates

(B)  non-chordates

(C)  fishes

(D)  vertebrates

Answer: (B)

141. How many ATP are required for the synthesis of one glucose molecule in C3 pathway?

(A)  12 ATP

(B)  38 ATP

(C)  12 ATP

(D)  30 ATP

Answer: (A)

142. The matrix of mitochondria has :

(A)  Single circular DNA

(B)  Double stranded straight DNA

(C)  Double stranded circular DNA

(D)  Single straight DNA

Answer: (A)

143. What is the shape of a simple stirred-tank bioreactor?

(A)  A rectangular tank

(B)  Round bottom flask

(C)  Cylindrical tank

(D)  Volumetric flask

Answer: (C)

144. In prokaryotic cells mesosomes do not help in :

(A)  Hormone formation

(B)  Respiration

(C)  Cell wall formation

(D)  DNA replication

Answer: (A)

145. Which of the following symptoms is true about elephantiasis?

(A)  Obstructed intestinal passage

(B)  Respiratory problems

(C)  Genital organs are also frequently affected

(D)  Various parts of the body are covered in scaly lesions

Answer: (C)

146. Eggs and sperms are produced by the same individual are called :

(A)  heterosexual

(B)  intersex

(C)  dioecious

(D)  hermaphrodite

Answer: (D)

147. Mitochondria divides by:

(A)  fusion

(B)  budding

(C)  fission

(D)  vegetative propagation

Answer: (C)

148. In which of the following organisms – blood pumped by the heart is always circulated through a closed network of blood vessels?

(A)  Periplanata and Balanoglossus

(B)  Ascaris and Taenia

(C)  Pheretima and Rana

(D)  Rana and Balanoglossus

Answer: (C)

149. Sponges have a water canal system, in which water enters through ostia and goes out through :

(A)  coelom

(B)  pseudocoelom

(C)  osculum

(D)  coelenteron

Answer: (C)

150. The property of contact inhibition of cells is lost in ______ patients.

(A)  HIV

(B)  allergy

(C)  cancer

(D)  diabetes

Answer: (C)

151. Select the correctly matched set from the following options.

(A)  Birth canal : Uterus, cervical canal, vagina

(B)  Tertiary follicle : Antrun, theca layers, secondary oocyte

(C)  Female accessory ducts : Ovulation, fertilization, implanation.

(D)  Female external genitalia : Vagina, mons pubis, hymen, clitoris

Answer: (B)

152. Which syndrome arises due to translocation of the major portion of chromosome 21 to chromosome 14?

(A)  Klinefelter syndrome

(B)  Turner syndrome

(C)  Down’s syndrome

(D)  Phenylketonuria

Answer: (C)

153. The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths of a myelinated nerve fibre is called :

(A)  chemical synapse

(B)  synaptic cleft

(C)  nodes of Ranvier

(D)  electrical synapse

Answer: (C)

154. Select the INCORRECT combination.

(A)  Free nuclear endosperm – Ground nut

(B)  Cellular endosperm – Datura

(C)  Non endospermic seed – Bean

(D)  Endospermic seed – Castor

Answer: (A)

155. The prokaryotic cells are NOT represented by :

(A)  mycoplasma

(B)  blue-green algae

(C)  amoeba

(D)  bacteria

Answer: (C)

156. During reflex action, signal from a sensory organ transmits the impulse via a _____ into the spinal cord (CNS).

(A)  ventral nerve root

(B)  inter neuron

(C)  efferent pathway

(D)  dorsal nerve root

Answer: (D)

157. Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes are classes in which fins are present for locomotion. They belong to the group :

(A)  Reptilia

(B)  Tetrapoda

(C)  Amphibia

(D)  Pisces

Answer: (D)

158. Which of the following statements regarding human reproduction are INCORRECT ?

(a)   The placenta develops within the ovarian cavity.

(b)   The placenta is present between the umbilical cord and the embryo.

(c)   Relaxin is an exclusive secretion of the placenta

(d)   Placenta is formed due to inter digitation of chorionic villi and myometrial tissue.

(A)  a, b and c

(B) a, b, c and d

(C)  b and d

(D)  b, c and d

Answer: (B)

159. Identify the invertebrate

(A)  Fishes

(B)  Insects

(C)  Amphibians

(D)  Reptiles

Answer: (B)

160. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(A)  Lysine – basic amino acid

(B)  Uridylic acid – nucleotides

(C)  Valine – neutral amino acid

(D)  Glycerol – disaccharide

Answer: (D)

161. Osmolality of the glomerular filtrate can be 1200m Osmoi L1 in which of the following part

(A)  DCT in cortex

(B)  Bowman’s capsule in outer medulla

(C)  Hair pin bend of Henle’s loop in inner medulla

(D)  PCT in contex

Answer: (C)

162. Which part of the pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus?

(A)  Pars distalis

(B)  Pars intermedia

(C)  Neurophypophysis

(D)  Adenohypophysis

Answer: (C)

163. Electron hole is formed in which chlorophyll reaction centre of photosynthesis?

(A)  Chlorophyll a675

(B)  Chlorophyll a683 (P680)

(C)  Chlorophyll a673

(D)  Chlorophyll a703(P700)

Answer: (D)

164. In leucoplasts of plant cells, elaioplasts store :

(A)  Carbohydrates

(B)  Oils and fats

(C)  Starch

(D)  Proteins

Answer: (B)

165. In which of the following places can antigens bind?

(A)  Place : 1 and 2

(B)  Place : 1, 2 and 3

(C)  Place : 1 and 3

(D)  Place : 2 and 3

Answer: (D)

166. Organisms having dorso-ventrally flattened body and known as ‘flatworms’ are classified under the phylum:

(A)  Annelida

(B)  Mollusca

(C)  Platyhelminthes

(D)  Porifera

Answer: (C)

167. Match the terms in column I with their descriptions in column II.

(A)  a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii

(B)  a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

(C)  a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

(D)  a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv

Answer: (D)

168. Mendel proposed four postulates, where postulate 4 is referred to as the :

(A)  purity of gametes

(B)  principal of independent assortment of factors

(C)  dominant unit factor

(D)  principal of segregation

Answer: (B)

169. Which of the following bacteria is capable of producing DNA polymerase?

(A)  Thermus aquaticus

(B)  Escherichia coli

(C)  Bacillus thurengensis

(D)  Agrobacterium tumifaciens

Answer: (A)

170. Sella turcica is the depression in the sphenoid bond which lodges:

(A)  pituitary gland

(B)  thyroid

(C)  pineal gland

(D)  thymus

Answer: (A)

171. Second messengers generates response to all EXCEPT :

(A)  Cortisol

(B)  Thyrocalcitonin

(C)  Parathyroid hormone

(D)  Erythropoietin

Answer: (A)

172. Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya is an example of ______.

(A)  biosphere reserves

(B)  wildlife safari parks

(C)  zoological parks

(D)  sacred groves

Answer: (D)

173. What is the major RBC producing organ in our body ?

(A)  Tonsils

(B)  Bone marrow

(C)  Thymus

(D)  Spleen

Answer: (B)

174. Which genetic disorder results in mental retardation and is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?

(A)  Phenylketonuria

(B)  Sickle-cell anaemia

(C)  Klinefelter syndrome

(D)  Down’s syndrome

Answer: (A)

175. The primary acceptor molecule Ribulose1, 5-biphosphate (RuBP) of Co2 fixation cycle was found by which scientist?

(A)  Basham

(B)  CR Slack

(C)  Dicker

(D)  MD Hatch

Answer: (A)

176. In conditions of low intensity of light and increases in temperature, the rate of photosynthesis will :

(A)  remain constant

(B)  decrease

(C)  rapidly increase

(D)  increase

Answer: (B)

177. Lysosomal vesicles do NOT contain :

(A)  Proteases

(B)  insulin

(C)  carbohydrates

(D)  lipases

Answer: (B)

178. In which place in 1856, Mendel started his experiments on controlled hybridization in garden peas?

(A)  Monstery garden at Heinzen Dorf

(B)  Monsastery garden of Bruno

(C)  Monastery garden at Hopkins University

(D)  Monastery garden at Vienna

Answer: (B)

179. When breathing causes wheezing it is a symptom of which of the following disease?

(A)  Emphysema

(B)  Gout

(C)  Jaundice

(D)  Asthma

Answer: (D)

180. In the context of reproductive health, ART refers to :

(A)  artificial method and techniques to prevent pregnancy.

(B)  intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term.

(C)  special techniques which assist infertile couples to have children

(D)  methods for the prevention and treatment of STIs.

Answer: (C)

181. Which of the following hormonal disorders is associated with the formation of harmful compounds known as ketone bodies?

(A)  Diabetes insipidus

(B)  Cretinism

(C)  Diabetes mellitus

(D)  Dwarfism

Answer: (C)

182. Which cell organelle is ABSENT in almost all plant cells ?

(A)  Centrioles

(B)  Ribosomes

(C)  Plastids

(D)  Mitochondria

Answer: (A)

183. The ultimate goal of practically all recombinant technologies is to generate a desirable_____.

(A)  DNA

(B)  bacteria

(C)  vectors

(D)  protein

Answer: (D)

184. Then +1 gamete is formed by the failure of paired homologus to separate at anaphase, process known as non-disjunction, appeared in :

(A)  Phenylketonuria

(B)  Down’s syndrome

(C)  Sickle-cells anaemia

(D)  Turner syndrome

Answer: (B)

185. Identify the INCORRECT statement about adaptation :

(A)  Many adaptations are genetically predetermined.

(B)  Some desert plants, such as Opuntia, do not have leaves.

(C)  Leaf surfaces of many desert plants are covered in a thick layer of cuticle.

(D)  Penguin may concentrate their urine to require less water to excrete

Answer: (D)

186. ______ are areas allocated for wildlife where they can freely utilize their habitats and natural resources.

(A)  Wildlife Sanctuaries

(B)  National parks

(C)  Protected forests

(D)  Biosphere Reserves

Answer: (B)

187. Chitinase can be found in which organism?

(A)  Bacteria

(B)  Virus

(C)  Fungi

(D)  Protozoa

Answer: (C)

188. During photosynthesis, assimilatory power ATP only synthesizes in which process of photosynthesis?

(A)  cyclic photophosphorylation

(B)  Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

(C)  Photolysis

(D)  Photosystem-II

Answer: (A)

189. Identify the true statement related to immunity.

(A)  There are eight peptide chains in each antibody molecule

(B)  A non-specific form of defence is acquired immunity

(C)  Interferons are proteins secreted by virus-infected cells.

(D)  T-lymphocytes are responsible for the production of antibodies.

Answer: (C)

190. Which of the following is NOT a part of innate immunity?

(A)  Cellular barriers

(B)  Blood-brain barriers

(C)  Physical barriers

(D)  Cytokine barriers

Answer: (B)

191. GIFT is an assisted reproductive technology indicated for a woman :

(A)  Who wants to get rid of unwanted pregnancy

(B)  Who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization

(C)  Whose uterus does not support implantation

(D)  Who cannot produce an ovum

Answer: (D)

192. Which of the following is NOT an altitude sickness symptom ?

(A)  Heart palpitations

(B)  Nausea

(C)  Fatigue

(D)  Anaemia

Answer: (D)

193. In an aquatic plant like water lily pollination is brought about by :

(A)  Water

(B)  Insects only

(C)  Wind or insects

(D)  Wind only

Answer: (C)

194. The characteristic feature of some animals, in which body is divided externally and internally into segments with serial repetition of some organs, is called :

(A)  coelenteron

(B)  spongocoel

(C)  mesoderm

(D)  metamerism

Answer: (D)

195. In which phase of the uterine cycle does implantation occurs ?

(A)  Menstrual phase

(B)  Proliferative phase

(C)  Ovulatory phase

(D)  Secretory phase

Answer: (D)

196. Which plants can tolerate high temperature and have greater productivity of biomass?

(A)  C3 plants

(B)  CAM plants

(C)  C2 plants

(D)  C4 plants

Answer: (D)

197. Which cycle plants are adapted to overcome photorespiration and deliver Co2 directly to the enzyme RuBisCo ?

(A)  CAM cycle plants

(B)  C2 cycle plants

(C)  C4 cycle plants

(D)  C3 cycle plants

Answer: (C)

198. How many hormones given below are increased several fold in the maternal blood during pregnancy?

(a) Thyroxine       (b) Progesterone

(c) Cortisol           (d) Oestrogens

(e) Prolactin

(A)  5

(B)  3

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (A)

199. Which genetic disorder is inherited as a dominant trait?

(A)  Cystic fibrosis

(B)  Colour blindness

(C)  Huntington’s disease

(D)  Phenylketonuria

Answer: (C)

  1. The structure similar to notochord that is present in the collar region of Balanoglossus is called :

(A)  cartilage

(B)  vertebrae

(C)  stomochord

(D)  nerve chord

Answer: (C)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2021

PHYSICS

1. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and constants power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

Answer: (b)

2. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be

(a)   L

(b)   4L

(c)   3L/4

(d)   12L

Answer: (c)

3. The resultant force on the current loop. PQRS due to along current carrying conductor will be

(a)   104N

(b)   3.5 × 104N

(c)   1.8 × 104N

(d)   5 × 104N

Answer: (d)

4. A capacitor with plate separation ‘d’ is charged to ‘V’ volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across its terminals becomes

(a)   V

(b)   2V

(c)   4V/2

(d)   3V/4

Answer: (d)

5. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below is

(a)   2 mJ

(b)   4 mJ

(c)   8 mJ

(d)   16 mJ

Answer: (c)

6. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 107 The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringes on the same side of central maxima is

(a)   0.65 mm

(b)   1.62 mm

(c)   3.25 mm

(d)   4.88 mm

Answer: (b)

7. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then

(a)   F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v

(b)   F ∝ η and F ∝ v

(c)   F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ 1/v

(d)   F ∝ 1/η and F ∝ v

Answer: (b)

8. Determine the r.m.s value of a semicircular current wave which has a maximum value of a

Answer: (a)

9. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are:

(a)   FV1T1

(b)   FVT1

(c)   FV1T

(d)   FVT2

Answer: (c)

10. During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is

Answer: (d)

11. A force of 0.5 N is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper for a displacement 3m of the upper block is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)   1 joule

(b)   −1 joule

(c)   2 joule

(d)   −2 joule

Answer: (a)

12. A photon of wavelength 900 nm behaves like a particle of mass

(a)   5.53 × 1036 kg

(b)   0 kg

(c)   2.46 × 1036 kg

(d)   1.84 × 1044 kg

Answer: (c)

13. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin rectangular sheet (1.2m ×0m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point.

(a)   (0.8, 0.6)m

(b)   (0.6, 0.8)m

(c)   (0.4, 0.4)m

(d)   (0.5, 0.6)m

Answer: (c)

14. The resistance across A and B in the figure below will be

(a)   3R

(b)   R

(c)   R/3

(d)   None

Answer: (d)

15. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15T making an angle of 45 with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be

(a)   1.5N

(b)   3√2N

(c)   3N

(d)   3/√2

Answer: (d)

16. An electron is placed on X-axis where the electric potential depends on x as shown in the figure (the potential does not depend on y and z). What is the electric force on the electron?

(a)   4.0 × 1018 N

(b)   8.0× 1018 N

(c)   3.0 × 1016 N

(d)   4.0 × 1016 N

Answer: (d)

17. A carrier was is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2, μ3 … The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is

(a)   μ1 + μ2 + μ3 . + …

Answer: (b)

18. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is

(a)   1 : 2

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   √6 : 3

(d)   √3 : 1

Answer: (c)

19. An automobile engine of mass M accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

Answer: (b)

20. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

Answer: (a)

21. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be:

(a)   E/√2

(b)   E/2

(c)   E/4

(d)   E/8

Answer: (c)

22. Refer to the figure, Potential difference between A and B is

(a)   zero

(b)   5 V

(c)   10 V

(d)   15 V

Answer: (d)

23. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of

Answer: (d)

24. In an LCR series a-c circuit, the voltage across LC combination is

(a)   50 V

(b)   50√2 V

(c)   100 V

(d)   zero

Answer: (d)

25. A block of mass ‘m’ as shown the figure is pulled by a force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is

(a)   10 N

(b)   20 N

(c)   25 N

(d)   30 N

Answer: (b)

26. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a)   rT/J

(b)   3T/Jr

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

27. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a:

(a)   concave lens

(b)   convex lens

(c)   neither concave nor convex

(d)   none of these

Answer: (a)

28. A ray of light travelling in glass (μ = 3/2) is incident on a horizo glass-air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water (μ = 4/3) is poured on the glass-air surface. The angle at which the ray emerges into air at the water-air surface is

(a)   0

(b)   π/4

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/2

Answer: (d)

29. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for a given photon?

Answer: (a)

30. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is

(a)   2.5 × 108 C

(b)   10 to 5C

(c)   103C

(d)   4 × 103C

Answer: (c)

31. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 are the angels of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then

(a)   cot2 ϕ = cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2

(b)   tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2

(c)   cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2

(d)   tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2

Answer: (b)

32. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half-life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is

(a)   2.5

(b)   5

(c)   10

(d)   20

Answer: (c)

33. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(a)   Q/2

(b)   −Q/2

(c)   −Q/4

(d)   Q/4

Answer: (c)

34. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distanced as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be

(a)   points

(b)   straight lines

(c)   semi-circle

(d)   concentric circles

Answer: (d)

35. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is

(a)   45

(b)   46

(c)   47

(d)   48

Answer: (c)

36. If power dissipated in 9Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2Ω resistor is

(a)   2 volt

(b)   4 volt

(c)   8 volt

(d)   10 volt

Answer: (d)

37. The position time graphs of two cars ‘A’ and ‘B’ are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of ‘A’ and ‘B’ is

(a)   1 : √2

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   √3 : 1

(d)   3 : 1

Answer: (b)

38. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is ν. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]

Answer: (a)

39. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

(a)   1/√2

(b)   √2

(c)   1/2

(d)   2

Answer: (a)

40. A composite slab made up of two different material having thickness 2x and 8x, thermal conductivity 2K and 4K respectively and temperatures T2 and T1 (T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is  with f equals to

(a)   1

(b)   1/2

(c)   2/3

(d)   1/3

Answer: (d)

41. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance when the keys is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is

(a)   40 × 103 J

(b)   50 × 103 J

(c)   60 × 103 J

(d)   30 × 103 J

Answer: (c)

42. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitance are in μF)

(a)   21 μF

(b)   23 μF

(c)  

(d) 

Answer: (d)

43. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is ‘l’ and ‘θ’ is the angle of strings with vertical. The time period of revolution is

Answer: (b)

44. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current is

Answer: (a)

45. An electric motor operating on 15V supply draws a current of 5A and yields mechanical powers of 60W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :

(a)   0.54

(b)   5.4

(c)   54

(d)   540

Answer: (c)

46. Four persons are initially at the four corners of a square whose side is equal to d. Each person now moves with a uniform speed V in such a way that the first move directly towards the second, the second directly towards the third, the third directly towards the fourth and the fourth directly towards the first. The four persons meet after a time equals to

(a)   d/V

(b)   2d/3V

(c)   2d/√3V

(d)   d/√3V

Answer: (a)

47. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:

(a)   the curve A is isothermal

(b)   the curve B is isothermal

(c)   the curve A is adiabatic

(d)   Both (b) and (c) are correct

Answer: (d)

48. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?

VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V

VC = 100 V, E1 = 50 Hz

(a)   200 V

(b)   140 V

(c)   100 V

(d)   20 V

Answer: (c)

49. In semiconductors which of the following relations is correct at thermal equilibrium?

(a)   n = ne = nh

(b)   n12 = nenh

(c)   n1 = ne/nh

(d)   n1 = ne + nh

Answer: (b)

50. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then

(a)   the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(b)   the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(c)   the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged

(d)   the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved

Answer: (c)

51. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:

(a)   MV

(b)   1.5 MV

(c)   2 Mv

(d)   Zero

Answer: (c)

52. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given respectively (β is current gain IB, IC, IE are respectively base, collector and emitter currents).

Answer: (d)

53. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

(a)   less than W

(b)   equal to W

(c)   equal to 2W

(d)   infinitely large

Answer: (d)

54. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is

(a)   8 km/s

(b)   8.1 km/s

(c)   7.9 km/s

(d)   8 m/s

Answer: (c)

55. By increasing temperature of a gas by 6°C its pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then initial temperature of gas is

(a)   1000 K

(b)   1500 K

(c)   2000 K

(d)   750 K

Answer: (b)

56. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas

(a)   the temperature will decrease

(b)   the volume will increase

(c)   the pressure will remain constant

(d)   the temperature will increase

Answer: (a)

57. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit shown is

(a)   0.5 μC

(b)   1 μC

(c)   2 μC

(d)   4 μC

Answer: (b)

58. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is

(a)   q/4πε0a2

(b)   Zero

(c)   q/2πε0a2

(d)   None

Answer: (d)

59. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be

(a)   1.25

(b)   0.18

(c)   5

(d)   10

Answer: (b)

60. A square frame of side ‘l’ carries a current ‘t’. The magnetic fields at its centre is B. The same current is passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coil is Bʹ. The ratio of B and Bʹ is

(a)   8√2/π2

(b)   8√2/π3

(c)   8√2/π

(d)   4√2/π

Answer: (a)

61. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μF. The effective capacitance between A and B is

(a)   

(b)   −3μF

(c)   6μF

(d)   5μF

Answer: (c)

62. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2(r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case

(a)   v1 = v2

(b)   v1 < v2

(c)   v1 > v2

(d)   v1/r1 = v2/r2

Answer: (c)

63. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation  will be

Answer: (d)

64. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semiconductor?

Answer: (c)

65. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be

(a)   one fourth

(b)   halved

(c)   doubled

(d)   four times

Answer: (b)

66. Springs of spring constant K, 3K, 9K, 2K, … ∞ are connected in series. Equivalent spring constant of the combination is

(a)   3K/2

(b)   K/2

(c)   2K/3

(d)   ∞

Answer: (c)

CHEMISTRY

67. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

H2N−CH2−CH2−OH+CH3Na (one mole)→

(a)   CH3−NH−CH2−OH

(b)   H2N−CH2−CH2−O−CH3

(c)   CH4−NaNH−CH2−CH2−OH

(d)   CH4+H2N−CH2−CH2−ONa

Answer: (d)

68. The no. of H+ in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is :

(a)   1013

(b)   6.023 × 108

(c)   6.023 × 1010

(d)   6.023 × 1013

Answer: (b)

69. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date.

(a)   +43.93 kJ/mol

(b)   −43.93 kJ/mol

(c)   +527.61 kJ/mol

(d)   −527.61 kJ/mol

Answer: (c)

70. In the relation, Electronegativity  r is

(a)   Metallic radius

(b)   Ionic radius

(c)   van der Walls radius

(d)   Covalent radius

Answer: (d)

71. The equivalent conductance of an aqueous solution of 1.0283 × 103 g equivalent acetic acid per litre is 48.15Ω1 cm2 equiv1 at 25°C and at infinite dilution value is 390.7Ω1 cm2 equiv1. Calculate the degree of ionization and ionization constant of acetic acid.

(a)   0.1232, 1.78×105

(b)   0.223, 10.2×105

(c)   0.229, 1.78×105

(d)   0.531, 2.85×105

Answer: (a)

72. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(a)   15 L of H2 gas at STP

(b)   5L of N2 gas at STP

(c)   0.5g of H2 gas

(d)   10g of O2 gas

Answer: (a)

73. IUPAC name for the following compound is

(a)   1, 3-pentamethyl propane

(b)   1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane

(c)   2, 4, 4, 5-trimethyl pentane

(d)   2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane

Answer: (d)

74. Biodegradable detergent should have

(a)   Phynyl side chain

(b)   Aromatic side chain

(c)   Normal unbranched side chain

(d)   Branched side chain

Answer: (c)

75. Which of the following is correct regarding the I-effect of the substituents?

(a)   −NR2 < −OR < −F

(b)   −NR2 > −OR < −F

(c)   −NR2 < −OR > −F

(d)   −NR2 > −OR > −F

Answer: (a)

76. Consider the following reaction:

The product Z is

(a)   Benzaldehyde

(b)   Benzene

(c)   Benzoic acid

(d)   Toluene

Answer: (c)

77. The total number of π-bond electrons in the following structure is

(a)   4

(b)   8

(c)   12

(d)   16

Answer: (b)

78. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

Answer: (a)

79. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is

(a)   CH3CH = CHCH3

(b)   CH3CH3C = CCHCH3

(c)   CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3

(d)   CH3CH3C = CH

Answer: (d)

80. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

(a)   Molarity of solution is independent of temperature

(b)   Molality of solution is independent of temperature

(c)   Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature

(d)   The unit of molality is mol dm3

Answer: (b)

81. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is

(a)   sodium pentacyanonitrate

(b)   sodium pentacyanonitrosy lferous(II)

(c)   sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(d)   disodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

Answer: (c)

82. Bond lengths of C−H, C−O, C−C and C=C follow the sequence

(a)   C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

(b)   C – H < C = C < C – O < C − C

(c)   C – C < C = C < C – O < C − H

(d)   C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

Answer: (b)

83. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A+B→C + D the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.

The rate law for the formation of C is

Answer: (d)

84. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?

(a)   ‘a’ and ‘b’

(b)   a’ and ‘c’

(c)   ‘b’ and ‘c’

(d)   ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’

Answer: (b)

85. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability of the gas?

(a)   H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2

(b)   H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2

(c)   CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2

(d)   CO2 < CH­4 < H2 < N2

Answer: (b)

86. The reaction of an ester ROORʹ with an alcohol RʹʹOH is presence of an acid gives.

(a)   RʹCOOR

(b)   RʹCOOH

(c)   RCOORʹʹ

(d)   RʹʹCOOR

Answer: (b)

87. Which of the following substance form a colloidal solution in water?

(a)   Glucose

(b)   Urea

(c)   BaSO4

(d)   Starch

Answer: (d)

88. Copper crystallises in FCC lattice with a u nit cell edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is

(a)   181 pm

(b)   108 pm

(c)   128 pm

(d)   157 pm

Answer: (c)

89. In the extraction of cooper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with

(a)   FeS

(b)   CO

(c)   Cu2S

(d)   SO2

Answer: (c)

90. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?

(a)   +3

(b)   +1

(c)   −2

(d)   −3

Answer: (b)

91. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because

(a)   aluminium is electron rich

(b)   aluminium is having lone pair of electron

(c)   aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete its octet

(d)   aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge

Answer: (a)

92. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+|Fe and Sn2+|Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14 V respectively for the cell reaction:

Fe2+ + 2n → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is

(a)   +0.30 V

(b)   −0.58 V

(c)   +0.58 V

(d)   −0.30 V

Answer: (d)

93. When 800 g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 10g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is

(a)   20.0%

(b)   25.0%

(c)   31.4%

(d)   50.0%

Answer: (c)

94. For the gas phase reaction,

C2H4 + H2 – C2H6; (∆H = −32.7 Kcal) carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by

(a)   decreasing the pressure

(b)   increasing the temperature

(c)   removing some C2H6

(d)   adding some H2

Answer: (a)

95. On which factors interface depends?

(a)   Size of the molecules in the bulk phase

(b)   Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase

(c)   Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase

(d)   Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase

Answer: (a)

96. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500°C is as follows:

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500°C is at latest

(a)   5V

(b)   4.5V

(c)   3V

(d)   2.5V

Answer: (d)

97. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be digested by human body?

(a)   Starch

(b)   Cellulose

(c)   Glycogen

(d)   All of these

Answer: (b)

98. For a weak acid with α, as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by

[C is concentration of acid in mole per litre).

(a)   Ka = Cα

(b)   Ka = Cα2

(c)   Ka = C2α

(d)   Ka = C2α2

Answer: (b)

99. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic?

(a)   Nitrogen trioxide

(b)   Nitrogen pentoxide

(c)   Dinitrogen tetroxide

(d)   Nitric oxide

Answer: (b)

100. 1 M solution each of Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2 and Mg(NO3)2 is electrolyzed using Pt-electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts are Ag+/ASg = +0.08V, Cu2+/Cu = +0.34 V, Hg22+/Hg = +0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = −37V. The sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be

(a)   Mg > Ag > Cu

(b)   Mg > Cu > Ag

(c)   Ag > Hg > Cu

(d)   Cu > Hg > Ag

Answer: (c)

101. Which bond is the smallest?

Answer: (b)

102. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?

(a)   (CH3)2C = CH2

(b)   CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

(c)   CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2

(d)   CH3 – CH = CH2

Answer: (a)

103. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene?

(a)   CO2

(b)   CCl4

(c)   CH2 = CH−Cl

(d)   Cl−CH=CH−Cl

Answer: (b)

104. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl, The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E

(a)   Zn2+ concentration should be increased

(b)   Zn2+ concentration should be decreased

(c)   Cl concentration should be increased

(d)   partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased

Answer: (a)

105. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 and ∆S2 respectively then

(a)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(b)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(c)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0

(d)   ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0

Answer: (a)

106. Which of the following statements is NOT true for hydrolysis of XeF6?

(a)   XeOF4 is formed

(b)   XeO2F2 is formed

(c)   It is a redox reaction

(d)   XeO3 is formed

Answer: (c)

107. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of the equilibrium constant of a reaction?

(a)   Change in the concentration of the reactants

(b)   Change in temperature

(c)   Addition of catalyst

(d)   All of these

Answer: (b)

108. The IUPAC name of

is

(a)   2-methyl-3-bromohexanal

(b)   2-methyl-3-bromobutanal

(c)   3-bromo-2-methylbutanal

(d)   3-bromo-2-methylpentanal

Answer: (d)

109. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reactions as,

A2+ + 2e → A       E° = 0.34 V

X → X2 + 2e        E° = 2.37 V

The cell voltage will be

(a)   2.71 V

(b)   2.03 V

(c)   −2.71 V

(d)   −2.03 V

Answer: (b)

110. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At No. 64) is

(a)   [Xe]4f85d06s2

(b)   [Xe]4f75d16s2

(c)   [Xe]4f35d56s2

(d)   [Xe]4f65d26s2

Answer: (b)

111. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is

(a)   CCl4

(b)   Sand

(c)   Water

(d)   Kerosene

Answer: (a)

112. In the following reaction

The product ‘P’ is :

(a)   RCHO

(b)   R2CHOEt

(c)   R3CH

(d)   RCH(OEt)2

Answer: (a)

113. A crystal lattice with alternate +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.524. Its co-ordination number is

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   6

(d)   12

Answer: (c)

114. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax­?

Answer: (d)

115. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure?

(a)   569 ml

(b)   365 ml

(c)   265 ml

(d)   621 ml

Answer: (b)

116. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be

(a)   6.02 × 1022

(b)   12.04 × 1022

(c)   1.806 × 1023

(d)   31.80 × 1028

Answer: (c)

117. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-amonophenol exists in (X) an d(Y) forms respectively

Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at

(a)   a, c

(b)   a, d

(c)   b, c

(d)   b, d

Answer: (a)

118. When glycerol is heated with KHSO4 it gives

(a)   CH2 = CH – CH3

(b)   CH2 = CH – CH2OH

(c)   CH2 = CH – CHO

(d)   CH2 = C = CH2

Answer: (c)

119. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by

Answer: (b)

120. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucleophile in SN2 reaction?

(a)   NH3

(b)   NC

(c)   H2O

(d)   HO

Answer: (a)

121. Exothermic reaction among the following is

(a)   combustion of N2 from NO

(b)   decomposition of H2O

(c)   conversion of diamond to graphite

(d)   dehydrogenation of ethane to ethane

Answer: (c)

122. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers?

(a)   Dacron

(b)   Natural rubber

(c)   Bakelite

(d)   Polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (c)

123. A mixture containing N2 and H­2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure a equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is

(a)   P/2

(b)   P/3

(c)   P/5

(d)   P/9

Answer: (b)

124. Two aromatic compounds having formula C7H8O which easily identifiable by FeCl3 solution test (violet coloration) are

(a)   0-cresol and benzyl alcohol

(b)   m-cresol and p-cresol

(c)   o-cresol and p-cersol

(d)   methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol

Answer: (a)

125. Which graph will show equilibrium condition ?

Answer: (c)

126. Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Zn+2(aq) + Cu(s)

(a)   −217 KJ/mole

(b)   +217 KJ/mole

(c)   −88 KJ/mole

(d)   +88 KJ/mole

Answer: (a)

127. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCL will yield.

(a)   2-chloro-1-propanol

(b)   3-chloro-2-propanol

(c)   1-chloro-2-propanol

(d)   1-chloro-1-propanol

Answer: (c)

128. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment?

(a)   1, 1-Dichloroethylene

(b)   cis-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(c)   tans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(d)   None of these compounds

Answer: (c)

129. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is

(a)   H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+

(b)   K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+

(c)   Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+

(d)   Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+

Answer: (a)

130. Which one of the following is an example of homogeneous catalysis?

(a)   Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process

(b)   Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process

(c)   Hydrogenation of oil

(d)   Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid

Answer: (d)

131. When one coulomb’ of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to

(a)   equivalent weight

(b)   molecular weight

(c)   electrochemical equivalent

(d)   one gram

Answer: (c)

132. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?

(a)   [Cu(NH3)4]2+

(b)   [ZnCl4]2

(c)   [Cr(C2O4)2]3

(d)   None

Answer: (c)

MATHEMATICS

133. The sum of the series  is

Answer: (d)

134. The equation (cop-1) x2 + (cos p) x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots the p lies in

(a)   (0, 2π)

(b)   (−π, 0)

(c)   (−π/2, π/2)

(d)   (0, π)

Answer: (c)

135. What is the value of 

(a)   0

(b)   1/6

(c)   1/3

(d)   1

Answer: (a)

136. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f(b)?

(a)   {a}

(b)   {b}

(c)   {c}

(d)   {d}

Answer: (c)

137. If  then

(a)   Re(z) = 0

(b)   lm(z) = 0

(c)   Re(z) > 0, lm(z) < 0

(d)   Re(z) < 0, lm(z) > 0

Answer: (c)

138. The value of  is

(a)   π

(b)   π/6

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/4

Answer: (b)

139. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribed in an ellipse  is

(a)   2ba

(b)   ab

(c)   √ab

(d)   a/b

Answer: (a)

140. If the three points (3q, 0), (0, 3p) and (1, 1) are collinear, then which one is TURE?

Answer: (c)

141. If the position vector  of the point (5, n) is such that  then what is the value of n?

(a)   ±12

(b)   0

(c)   ±1

(d)   4

Answer: (a)

142. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA| is equal to

(a)   K|A|

(b)   K2|A|

(c)   K3|A|

(d)   3K|A|

Answer: (c)

143. If the coefficients of x7 and x8 in  are equal, then value of n is

(a)   56

(b)   55

(c)   47

(d)   19

Answer: (b)

144. Let  satisfied A2 + aA + bI = 0, then a, b are respectively equal to

(a)   −4, 2

(b)   −3, 3

(c)   −4, 1

(d)   −3, 1

Answer: (c)

145. If the angle θ between the line  and the plane 2x – y + √λx + 4 = 0, is such that θ = 1/3, then the value of λ is

(a)   5/3

(b)   −3/5

(c)   3/4

(d)   −4/3

Answer: (a)

146. The derivative of  is

(a)   1/8

(b)   1/4

(c)   1/2

(d)   1

Answer: (b)

147. Which of the following is ODD function?

Answer: (b)

148. The smallest positive integer n for which  holds is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   4

Answer: (b)

149. If  then f(x) is equal to

Answer: (d)

150. The equations of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and equation of the line BC is

(a)   23x + 14y – 40 = 0

(b)   23x + 14y + 40 = 0

(c)   14x + 23y – 40 = 0

(d)   14x + 23y + 40 = 0

Answer: (c)

151. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is

(a)   defined for all real x

(b)   continuous at x = 0

(c)   such that  for x < 0

(d)   All of these

Answer: (d)

152. Value of  is

Answer: (b)

153. Consider the matrices X4×3, y4×3 and P2×3. The order of [P(XTY)1PT]T will be

(a)   (2 × 2)

(b)   (3 × 3)

(c)   (4 × 3)

(d)   (3 × 4)

Answer: (a)

154. The sum of the series  is equal to

(a)   2 loge2

(b)   loge2 – 1

(c)   loge2

(d)   loge(4/e)

Answer: (d)

155. Three positive numbers form an increasing GP. If the middle term in this GP, is tripled, the new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of GP, is

(a)   3 + 2√2

(b)   2√2 – 3

(c)   2 + 2√3

(d)   2√2 + √3

Answer: (a)

156. The least value of n so that y n = yn+1 where y = x2 + ex is

(a)   4

(b)   3

(c)   5

(d)   2

Answer: (b)

157. If  lies on

(a)   an ellipse

(b)   a circle

(c)   a straight line

(d)   a parabola

Answer: (c)

158. If the function f(x) satisfy  is

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   3

(d)   π

Answer: (d)

159. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?

(a)   2√3

(b)   2 + √3

(c)   2 – √3

(d)   1

Answer: (a)

160. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is

(a)   x + 2y – 6 = 0

(b)   x – 2y – 6 = 0

(c)   x + 2y + 6 = 0

(d)   x – 2y + 6 = 0

Answer: (d)

161. If x = k(t – sin t), y = k( 1 – cos t) (k ≠ 0) then  is equal to

(a)   −1/k

(b)   1/2k

(c)   1/k2

(d)   2k

Answer: (a)

162. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector 5i + 2j + 6k and is coplanar with the vectors 2i + j + k and i – j + k is

Answer: (c)

163. The value of  is

(a)   0

(b)   π

(c)   π/2

(d)   π/4

Answer: (d)

164. ∫cos3 xelog(sin x) dx =

Answer: (b)

165. Which of the following is NOT correct?

(a)   A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)

(b)   A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)

(c)   A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

166. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse  at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is

Answer: (d)

167. Two flag staffs stand on a horizontal plane. A and B are two points on the line joining their feet and between them. The angles of elevation of the tops of the flag staffs a seen from A are 30° and 60° and as seen from B are 60° and 45°. If AB is 30 m, the distance between the flag staffs in meters is

(a)   30 + 15√3

(b)   45 + 15√3

(c)   60 – 15√3

(d)   60 + 15√3

Answer: (d)

168. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and z is a complex number satisfying the equation zn = (z + 1)n, then

(a)   lm(z) < 0

(b)   Im(z) > 0

(c)   lm(z) = 0

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

169. The domain of definition of the function y(x) as given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is

(a)   0 < x ≤ 1

(b)   0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(c)   −∝ < x ≤ 1

(d)   −∝ < x < 1

Answer: (d)

170. is

(a)   π

(b)   −2π

(c)   −π

(d)   2π

Answer: (c)

171. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is

Answer: (b)

172. One focus of hyperbola is at (0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is

Answer: (b)

173. The integral  is equal to

Answer: (a)

174. equals

(a)   1 + √5

(b)   −1 + √5

(c)   −1 + √2

(d)   1 + √2

Answer: (b)

175. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then  is equal to

Answer: (c)

176. If tan pθ + cos qθ = 0, then the general value of θ is

Answer: (d)

177. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)   x – cy + 5 = 0

(b)  

(c) 

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

178. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is

(a)   37/256

(b)   219/256

(c)   128/256

(d)   28/256

Answer: (d)

179. A ray of light passing through the point (3, 7) reflects on the X-axis at a point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (2, 5), the coordinates of A are

(a)   (29/10, 0)

(b)   (1/2, 0)

(c)   (−1/2, 0)

(d)   (−29/10, 0)

Answer: (a)

180. Let 

Then the real roots of the equation x2 – f(x) = 0 are

(a)   ±1

(b)   ±1/√2

(c)   ±1/2

(d)   0 and 1

Answer: (a)

181. The complex number sin x + icos 2x and cos x – isin 2x are conjugate to each other for

(a)   x = πn

(b)   x = 0

(c)  

(d)   no value of x

Answer: (d)

182. The range of the function  is

(a)   [1/5, 1]

(b)   [1/3, 1/3]

(c)   [1/3, 1]

(d)   [1/5, 1/3]

Answer: (d)

183. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where i = √−1, n ≥ 1) is

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)   0

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

184. The lines  and 

(a)   coincident

(b)   skew

(c)   intersecting

(d)   parallel

Answer: (d)

185. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equations are

r = 3i + 2j – 4k + λ(i + 2j + 2k) and

r = 5i – 2k + μ(3i + 2j + 6k) : λ, μ being parameters, is

(a)   −1/3√29

(b)   3/7√29

(c)   23/29

(d)   29/21

Answer: (b)

186. The value of  is ([x] is the greatest integer function)

Answer: (c)

187. If A = sin2θ + cos4θ, then for all real value at θ.

Answer: (b)

188. The value of (tan 70° − tan 50° + tan 10°) is

(a)   2

(b)   √3

(c)   1

(d)   √3/2

Answer: (c)

189. If X is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a

(a)   Tautology

(b)   Contradiction

(c)   Well-formed formula

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

190. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is

(a)   0

(b)   1

(c)   3

(d)   2

Answer: (c)

191. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) (n + 2) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by:

(a)   5, 4, 2

(b)   2, 3, 6

(c)   3, 4, 5

(d)   5, 3, 2

Answer: (b)

192. If  then at x = 0

(a)   f(x) has no limit

(b)   f(x) is discontinuous

(c)   f(x) is continuous but not differentiable

(d)   f(x) is  differentiable

Answer: (d)

193. For real value of x, the function  will assume all real values provided

(a)   a > b > c

(b)   b > a > c

(c)   a > c > b

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

194. If S1, S2 and S3 denote the sum of first n1, n2, n3 terms of an A.P. respectively, then the value of  is

(a)   S1 + S2 + S3

(b)   2(S1 + S2 + S3)

(c)   (n1 + n2 + n3) (S1 + S2 + S3)

(d)   0

Answer: (d)

195. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(a)   4, 2

(b)   1, 4

(c)   2, 4

(d)   1, 2

Answer: (c)

196. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is

(a)   16

(b)   15

(c)   4

(d)   None

Answer: (a)

197. If y = cosec(cot1 x) then  at x = 1 is equal to

(a)   1/√2

(b)   1

(c)   −√2

(d)   −1/√2

Answer: (d)

198. The solution of the equation (2x + y + 1)dx + (4x + 2y – 1) dy = 0 is

(a)   log|2x + y – 1| = C + x + y

(b)   log(4x + 2y – 1) = C + 2x + y

(c)   log(2x + y + 1) + x + 2y = C

(d)   log|2x + y + 1| + x + 2y = C

Answer: (d)

199. The value of 

(a)   zero

(b)   1/4

(c)   1/5

(d)   1/30

Answer: (a)

200. The sin θ of the angle between the straight line  and the plane 2x – 2y + z = 5 is

(a)   2√3/5

(b)   √2/10

(c)   4/5√2

(d)   10/6√5

Answer: (b)

BIOLOGY

133. Hb value for a healthy adult male is

(a)   100 g/100 ml

(b)   11 g/100 ml

(c)   12 g/100 ml

(d)   14-15 g/100 ml

Answer: (d)

134. Which of the following relations is correct

(a)   Ψw = Ψs – Ψp

(b)   Ψw = Ψm + Ψs

(c)   Ψw = Ψs + Ψp

(d)   Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp

Answer: (c)

135. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is

(a)   extensive mixed cropping

(b)   introduction of high  yielding varieties

(c)   extensive use of fertilizers

(d)   extensive use of insecticides and pesticides

Answer: (b)

136. The functions of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to

(a)   store eggs

(b)   store sperms

(c)   keep vagina moist

(d)   secretate the egg case

Answer: (d)

137. Find the sequence of binding of the following amine acyl t = RNa complexes during translation to a m-RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence ‘3TACATGGGTCCG5’. Choose the answer showing the correct order of numerals.

(i) AUG               (ii) UAC

(iii) CCG              (iv) GGU

(a)   (ii), (i), iv), (iii)

(b)   (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(c)   (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(d)   (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (a)

138. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(a)   effector organs to CNS

(b)   receptors to CNS

(c)   CNS to receptors

(d)   CNS to muscles

Answer: (b)

139. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)   TSH and ACTH

(b)   Ostrogen and Progesterone

(c)   FSH and LH

(d)   Vasopressin

Answer: (c)

140. Assertion : A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

Reason : “Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELIZS negative cases.

(a)   Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

(b)   Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

(c)   Assertion is true but reason is false

(d)   Both assertion and reason are false

Answer: (b)

141. Hair, nails, hoots and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as

(a)   Keratin

(b)   Globulin

(c)   Chitin

(d)   Histone

Answer: (a)

142. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O?

(a)   LH

(b)   FSH

(c)   TSH

(d)   Aldosterone

Answer: (d)

143. Column-I is the part of human brain and Column-II is its function. Match the two columns.

(a)   (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (p), (d) – (q)

(b)   (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

(c)   (a) – (s), (b) – (t), (c) – (q), (d) – (p)

(d)   (a) – (t), (b) – (s), (c) – (p), (d) – (r)

Answer: (a)

144. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilizer?

(a)   Mycorrhiza

(b)   Azollapinnata

(c)   Cyanobacteria

(d)   Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis

Answer: (b)

145. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

(a)   1/2 Vmax

(b)   2 Vmax

(c)   1/4 Vmax

(d)   4 Vmax

Answer: (b)

146. Which of the following combination represents the vector of cloniq capacity of DNA from smaller to bigger?

(a)   BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid

(b)   Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid

(c)   YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid

(d)   Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC

Answer: (d)

147. When a fresh water protozoan is placed in marine water

(a)   the contractile vacuole disappears

(b)   the contractile vacuole increases in size

(c)   a number of contractile vacuoles appear

(d)   the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

Answer: (a)

148. represents

(a)   Natality

(b)   Growth rate

(c)   Mortality

(d)   All of these

Answer: (b)

149. Antibiotics inhibit the growth of or destroy

(a)   bacteria and fungi

(b)   bacteria and viruses

(c)   bacteria, algae and viruses

(d)   bacteria, fungi and viruses

Answer: (b)

150. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is

(a)   14

(b)   30

(c)   24

(d)   21

Answer: (d)

151. Name of the following having oxygen storage capacity.

(a)   Myoglobin

(b)   Prophase II

(c)   Anaphase I

(d)   Metaphase II

Answer: (a)

152. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(a)   Complex QRS-one complete pulse

(b)   Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration

(c)   Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic blood pressure

(d)   Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only

Answer: (c)

153. Which of the following is the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse?

(a)   SA node – AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers

(b)   AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers

(c)   SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His

(d)   Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His

Answer: (a)

154. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?

(a)   2

(b)   4

(c)   8

(d)   16

Answer: (b)

155. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made of

(a)   Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic

(b)   Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by a α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

(c)   Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 4-glycosidic bond

(d)   Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic bond in straight chain and α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

Answer: (a)

156. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

(a)   Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and Hallucinations

(b)   Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Hallucinations

(c)   Morphine leads to delusions and disturbed

(d)   barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria

Answer: (a)

157. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?

(a)   Snails

(b)   Birds

(c)   Insects

(d)   Air

Answer: (b)

158. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, B, C, D and E.

Choose the correct option identifying the lebels.

(a)   A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis

(b)   A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(c)   A-Incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(d)   A-Coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

Answer: (a)

159. Which one of the following reactions is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(a)   Conversion of succinate to fumerate

(b)   Conversion of fumerate to malate

(c)   Conversion of private to acetyl CoA

(d)   Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

Answer: (c)

160. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present in

(a)   Rhynia

(b)   Psilotum

(c)   Lycopidium

(d)   Selaginella

Answer: (b)

161. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from one of the following mixtures in an experiment.

(a)   H2, O2, N2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

(b)   H2, O2, N2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(c)   CH4, NH2, H2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(d)   CH4, NH3, H2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

Answer: (c)

162. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana fruits?

(a)   Auxin

(b)   Cumarin

(c)   Ethylene

(d)   Cytokinin

Answer: (c)

163. Balbiani rings occur in

(a)   Autosome

(b)   Hetersome

(c)   Lampbrush chromosome

(d)   Polytene chromosome

Answer: (d)

164. In haemoglobin, which amino acids acts as a blood buffer?

(a)   Histidine

(b)   Glutamine

(c)   Aspartic acid

(d)   Lysine

Answer: (c)

165. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that

(a)   the strongest of all species survives

(b)   the most intelligent of the species survives

(c)   the cleverest of the species survives

(d)   the most adaptable of the species to changes survives

Answer: (d)

166. Genetic drift operates in …. population

(a)   small

(b)   large

(c)   island

(d)   mendelian

Answer: (a)

167. What is TRUE about haemoglobin?

(a)   It is a dipeptide and present in red blood corpuscles in  blood worm

(b)   It is present in the dissolved state in blood plasma in earth worm

(c)   It is a dipeptide in mammals and localized in RBC

(d)   It is present in dissolved state in blood plasma in Scorpion

Answer: (b)

168. Iris is part of

(a)   sclerotic

(b)   choroid/uvula

(c)   choroid and retina

(d)   sclerotic and choroid

Answer: (d)

169. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?

(a)   Abcaris

(b)   Bacteria

(c)   Suinea worm

(d)   Ring worm

Answer: (d)

170. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is

(a)   0%

(b)   25%

(c)   50%

(d)   75%

Answer: (b)

171. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms

(a)   being ever green

(b)   being smaller size

(c)   having compounds leaves

(d)   having ovules enclosed in ovary

Answer: (d)

172. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is

(a)   Bacillus

(b)   Trichoderma

(c)   baculovirus

(d)   Glomus

Answer: (a)

173. A person suffering from a disease caused by plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

(a)   the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen

(b)   the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

(c)   the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs

(d)   The microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

Answer: (c)

174. One of the following is the correct sequence to make a Transgenic animals.

(a)   Transomics – Transfection Micro infection Electro portion -Retroviral vectors

(b)   Micro injection Transfection Electro portion

(c)   Retroviral vectors Transomics Transfection – Micro injection – Transomics Electroportion – Retroviral vectors

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

175. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and metosis?

(a)   Plasma membrane

(b)   Nucleolus and nuclear envelope

(c)   Plastids

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

176. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?

(a)   First carbohydrates, next fats and lastly proteins

(b)   First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins

(c)   First carbohydrates, next proteins and lastly carbohydrates

(d)   First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates

Answer: (a)

177. Cosmopolites stordidus is the pest of

(a)   sugarcane

(b)   jowar

(c)   banana

(d)   cotton

Answer: (c)

178. The correct sequence of arrangement of segments in the leg of cockroach is

(a)   Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia, Tarsus

(b)   Coxa, Trochanter, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

(c)   Trochanter, Coxas, Tibia, Femur, Tarsus

(d)   Trochanter, Coxas, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

Answer: (b)

179. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism by utilizing some features of its biology or physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as

(a)   Competition

(b)   Predation

(c)   Biological control

(d)   Physiological control

Answer: (b)

180. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?

(a)   Anabaena

(b)   Nostoe

(c)   Rhizobium

(d)   Phycomyces

Answer: (c)

181. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATP ase activity is

(a)   troponin

(b)   tropomyosin

(c)   myosin

(d)   a-actinin

Answer: (c)

182. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called

(a)   Colinearity

(b)   commaless

(c)   degeneracy

(d)   non-ambiguity

Answer: (c)

183. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of

(a)   Nullisomy

(b)   Monosomy

(c)   Gene mutation

(d)   Trisomy

Answer: (d)

184. C4 plants have higher net photosynthetic rate because

(a)   they have no photorespiration

(b)   they can photosynthesize in low light intensity

(c)   they have PEP as CO2 acceptor

(d)   they have Kranz type of anatomy

Answer: (a)

185. In general, in the developmental history of a mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two-chambered fish like heart, three-chambered frog like hear and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statement by approximated?

(a)   Hardy-Weinberg law

(b)   Lamarck’s principle

(c)   Biogenetic law

(d)   Mendelian principles

Answer: (c)

186. The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during

(a)   Leptotene

(b)   Diakinesis

(c)   Diplotene

(d)   Pachytene

Answer: (d)

187. Proton gradient is very important across the membrane because

(a)   building up of protein gradient release energy

(b)   building up of proton gradient increase the pH towards human side of thylakoid membrane

(c)   breakdown of proton gradient release CO2

(d)   breakdown of proton gradient release energy

Answer: (b)

188. What is a genophore?

(a)   DNA in prokaryotes

(b)   DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

(c)   DNA and protein in prokaryotes

(d)   RNA in prokaryotes

Answer: (a)

189. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(a)   Oxaloacetate

(b)   Glucose-1-6 diphosphate

(c)   Pyruvic acid

(d)   Acetyl Co-A

Answer: (d)

190. How many ova and sperms will be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in man?

(a)   50 ova, 100 sperms

(b)   100 ova, 100 sperms

(c)   200 ova 200 sperms

(d)   100 ova, 200 sperms

Answer: (d)

191. Removal of apical bud results in

(a)   formation of new apical bud

(b)   elongation of main stem

(c)   death of plant

(d)   formation of lateral branching

Answer: (d)

192. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?

(a)   15-30 MHz

(b)   30-45 MHz

(c)   45-70 MHz

(d)   1-15 MHz

Answer: (d)

193. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-functional, this will adversely affect

(a)   production of somatostatin

(b)   secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

(c)   maturation of sperms

(d)   stop movement of foods down the intestine

Answer: (d)

194. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?

(a)   Nilgiri pipit, Rofous babler, Lesser-Florican

(b)   Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet

(c)   Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofous babbler

(d)   Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit

Answer: (c)

195. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by

(a)   Trichomonas vaginalis

(b)   Treponema pallidum

(c)   Human papiloma virus

(d)   Chamydia treachomatis

Answer: (c)

196. Match the following

I-Helophytes, II-Psammophytes

III-Oxylophytes, IV-Chasmophytes

A-Saline soil, B-Sandy soil,

C-Rockcrevices, D-Acidic soil

(a)   I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

(b)   I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-C

(c)   I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

(d)   I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Answer: (a)

197. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in Favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of

(a)   Biogeography

(b)   Anatomy

(c)   Embryology

(d)   Paleontology

Answer: (a)

198. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include

(a)   competition for water

(b)   competition for shelter

(c)   co-operation to help find food

(d)   All of these

Answer: (d)

199. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

(a)   squamous epithelium

(b)   columnar epithelium

(c)   ciliated epithelium

(d)   cubical epithelium

Answer: (b)

200. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of

(a)   Hibiscus

(b)   Nephrolepis

(c)   Cycas

(d)   Funaria

Answer: (d)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2020 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2020

PHYSICS

(Questions 1-66)

1. A particle is moving on a straight line path with constant acceleration directed along the directions of instantaneous velocity. Which of the following statements are FALSE about the motion of particle?

(A)  Particle may reverse the direction of motion.

(B)  Distance covered is not equal magnitude of displacement.

(C)  The magnitude of average velocity is less than average speed.

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

2. In photoelectric effect, work function of material is 3.5 eV. By applying −2 V potential, photoelectric current becomes zero, so

(A)  Energy of incident photon is 4.74 eV.

(B)  Energy of incident photon is 2.3 eV.

(C)  If photon having higher frequency is used, photoelectric current is produced.

(D)  When energy of photon is 2.3 eV, photoelectric current becomes maximum.

Answer: (A)

3. A conducting ring is placed around the core of an electromagnet as shown in figure. When ket K is pressed, the ring

(A)  remains stationary

(B)  is attracted towards the electromagnet

(C)  jumps out the core

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

4. The height of the building is 50 ft. The same in millimeter is

(A)  560 mm

(B)  285 mm

(C)  1786.8 mm

(D)  15240 mm

Answer: (D)

5. In the following diagrams, all the charges have equal magnitude. Electric field is zero at the centre of

Answer: (D)

6. If 20 V battery is connected to primary coil of a transformer, then output voltage is

(A)  zero

(B)  20V

(C)  10 V

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

7. Mean kinetic energy per gm. Molecule of a gas is given by

(A) 

(B)  kT

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

8. A hollow sphere is filled with water. There is a hole at the bottom of this sphere. This sphere is suspended with a string from a rigid support and given an oscillation. During oscillation, the hole is opened up and the periodic time of this oscillating system is measured. The periodic time of the system.

(A)  will remain constant.

(B)  will increase upto a certain time.

(C)  increases initially and then decreases to attain its initial periodic time.

(D)  initially decreases and then will attain the initial periodic time value.

Answer: (C)

9. The amount of heat generated in 500 Ω resistance, when the key is thrown over from constant 1 to 2, as shown in figure is

(A)  40 × 103 J

(B)  50 × 103 J

(C)  60 × 103 J

(D)  30 × 103 J

Answer: (C)

10. In the given figure, the convex lens is cut into two pieces and displace along the axes for small distance. The shape of fringe formed on the screen is

(A)  elliptical

(B)  hyperbolic

(C)  circular

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

11. Two point charges A and B of same charge having magnitude of momenta p1 and p2 respectively and having same charge are moving in a plane containing uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane. Then (Trajectories as shown in figure).

(A)  p1 = p2

(B)  p1 > p2

(C)  p1 < p2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

12. carrier wave is modulated by n number of sine wave with modulation indices μ1, μ2 , μ3 ……. The total modulation index (μ) of the wave is

(A)  μ1 + μ2 + μ3 +……

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

13. Which of the following quantities is NOT dimensionless?

(A)  Reynold’s number

(B)  Strain

(C)  Angle

(D)  Radius of gyration

Answer: (D)

14. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the energy levels in the p-type semi-conductor?

Answer: (C)

15. A wire of cross-section 4 mm2 is stretched by 0.1 mm by a certain weight. How far (length) will be wire of same material and length but of area 8 mm2 stretched under the action of same force.

(A)  0.05 mm

(B)  0.10 mm

(C)  0.15 mm

(D)  0.20 mm

Answer: (A)

16. An iron rod is subjected to cycles of magnetization at the rate of 50 Hz. Given the density of the rod is 8 × 103 kg/m3 and specific heat is 0.11 × 103 cal/Kg° The rise in temperature per minute, if the area inclosed by the B-H loop corresponds to energy of 10−2 J, is [Assume there is not radiation losses]

(A)  78°C

(B)  88°C

(C)  8.1°C

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

17. Which one of the following is the correct graph between energy and wavelength for given photon?

Answer: (A)

18. A coil of wire of radius R has 200 turns and a self-inductance of 108 mH. The self-inductance of a similar coil of 500 turns will be

(A)  375 mH

(B)  527 mH

(C)  675 mH

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

19. de-Broglie wavelength of atom at T k absolute temperature will be

(A)  h/mkT

(B)  h/√3mkT

(C)  √2mkT/h

(D)  √2mkT

Answer: (B)

20. A glass ball is dropped from height 10m. If there is 20% loss of energy due to impact, then after one impact, the ball will go upto

(A)  2 m

(B)  4 m

(C)  6 m

(D)  8 m

Answer: (D)

21. The breaking stress of wire of length 1 and radius is 5 kgwtm2. The length and radius of wire are doubled, the breaking stress in kgwtm2 is

(A)  5

(B)  10

(C)  20

(D)  80

Answer: (B)

22. Mark correct option:

(A)  The root mean square speeds of the molecules of different ideal gases, maintained at the same temperature are the same.

(B)  Electrons in a conductor have no motion in the absence of a potential difference across it.

(C)  One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas is mixed with one mole of a diatomic ideal gas. The molar specific heat of the mixture at constant volume is 2R.

(D)  The pressure exerted by an enclosed ideal gas depends on the shape of t he container.

Answer: (C)

23. The current is resistance R at resonance is

(A)  zero

(B)  minimum but finite

(C)  maximum but finite

(D)  infinite

Answer: (C)

24. In Young’s double slits experiment, the length of band is 1 mm. The fringe width is 0.021 mm. The number of fringes is

(A)  45

(B)  46

(C)  47

(D)  48

Answer: (C)

25. A block is released from top of a smooth inclined plane. It reaches the bottom of the plane is 6 sec. The time taken by the body to cover the first half of the inclined plane is

(A)  3 sec

(B)  4 sec

(C)  3√2 sec

(D)  5 sec

Answer: (C)

26. Hailstone at 0°C falls from a height of 1 km on an insulating surface converting whole of its kinetic energy into heat. What part of it will melt ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(A)  1/33

(B)  1/8

(C)  1/33 × 104

(D)  All of it will melt

Answer: (A)

27. Deuterium atoms in the ground state are radiated by photons of energy 12.8 eV. What will be the energy of induced radiation of longest wavelength? Ionisation energy of deuterium is 14.4 eV.

(A)  12.8 eV

(B)  10.8 eV

(C)  1.6 eV

(D)  2.0 eV

Answer: (D)

28. If both the length of an antenna and the wave length of the signal to be transmitted are doubled, the power radiated by the antenna

(A)  is doubled

(B)  is halved

(C)  increases 16 times

(D)  remains constant

Answer: (D)

29. A particle of mass 100g tied to a string is rotated along a circle of radius 0.5 m. The breaking rension of string is 10 N. The maximum speed with which particle can be rotated without breaking the string is

(A)  10 m/s

(B)  9.8 m/s

(C)  7.7 m/s

(D)  7.07 m/s

Answer: (D)

30. A particular nucleus in a large population of identical radioactive nuclei survives 10 half lives of that isotope. The probability that this surviving nucleus will survive the next half-life is

(A)  1/10

(B)  2/5

(C)  1/2

(D)  1/210

Answer: (C)

30. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 amp, the energy stored in joule is

(A)  1

(B)  0.05

(C)  0.1

(D)  0.5

Answer: (C)

32. A gas expands under constant pressure P from volume V1 to V2, the work done by the gas is

(A)  P(V1 – V2)

(B)  Zero

(C)  P(V1 + V2)

(D)

Answer: (A)

33. One 10V, 60W bulb is to be connected to 100V line. The required self-inductance of inductance coil will be (f = 50 Hz)

(A)  0.052 H

(B)  2.42 H

(C)  16.2 H

(D)  16.2 mH

Answer: (A)

34. As shown in figure, a body having mass m is attached with two springs having spring constants k1 and k2. The frequency of oscillation is f. Now, if the springs constants of both the springs are increased 4 times, then the frequency of oscillation will be equal to

(A)  2f

(B)  f/2

(C)  f/4

(D)  4f

Answer: (A)

35. An isolated solid metallic sphere is given +Q charge. The charge will be distributed on the sphere

(A)  uniformly but only on surface.

(B)  only on surface but non-uniformly

(C)  uniformly inside the volume.

(D)  non-uniformly inside the volume

Answer: (A)

36. At constant volume temperature is increased then

(A)  collision walls will be less

(B)  collision frequency will increase

(C)  collision will be in straight line

(D)  collision will not change

Answer: (B)

37. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first obrbit in hydrogen atom is

(A)  13.6 V

(B)  3.4 V

(C)  10.2 V

(D)  3.6 V

Answer: (C)

38. A battery of emf 1.2 V and internal resistance 0.5Ω is connected to resistance of 0.5 Ω the P.D. across the resistor is

(A)  1.2 volt

(B)  1.1 volt

(C)  1.05 volt

(D)  1 volt

Answer: (A)

39. As shown in figure, two masses of 3.0 k.g and 1.0 kg are attached at the two ends of a spring having force constant 300 Nm1. The natural frequency of oscillation for the system will be ______ hz. (Ignore friction)

(A)  1/4

(B)  1/3

(C)  4

(D)  3

Answer: (D)

40. A gas is taken in a sealed container at 300 K. It is heated at constant volume to a temperature 600 K. The mean K. E. of its molecules is

(A)  halved

(B)  doubled

(C)  tripled

(upled.0

Answer: (B)

41. A wire of diameter 1 mm breaks under a tension of 100N. Another wire of same materials as that of the first one, but of diameter 2 mm breaks under a tension of

(A)  500 N

(B)  1000 N

(C)  10,000 N

(D)  4000 N

Answer: (D)

42. If the total magnetic field due to the earth is 28 Am1 then the total magnetic induction due to the earth is

(A)  3.52 × 107 T

(B)  3.52 × 105 T

(C)  3.52 × 102 T

(D)  3.52 × 104 T

Answer: (B)

43. Kinetic energy of emitted ray is dependent on

(A)  voltage only

(B)  work function only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  It does not depend upon physical quantity

Answer: (C)

44. How many photons are emitted by a laser source of 5 × 103 W operating at 632.2 nm in 2 second ? (ft = 6.63 × 1034 Js)

(A)  3.2 × 1016

(B)  1.6 × 1016

(C)  4. × 1016

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

45. In a tangent galvanometer, a current of 01 A produces a deflection of 30°. The current required to produce a deflection of 60°, is

(A)  0.2 A

(B)  0.3 A

(C)  0.4 A

(D)  0.5 A

Answer: (B)

46. When a rubber cord is stretched, the change in volume with respect to change in its linear dimension is negligible, the Poisson’s ratio for rubber is

(A)  1

(B)  0.25

(C)  0.5

(D)  0.75

Answer: (C)

47. Choose the correct order of the root mean square velocity (υrms), the average velocity (υav) and the most probable velocity (υmp).

(A)  υmp > υav > υrms

(B)  υrms > υav > υmp

(C)  υav > υmp > υrms

(D)  υmp > υrms > υav

Answer: (B)

48. A block of mass 100g slides on a rough horizontal surface. If the speed of the block decreases from 10 m/s to 5 m/s, the thermal energy developed in the process is

(A)  3.75 J

(B)  37.5 J

(C)  0.375 J

(D)  0.75 J

Answer: (A)

49. In order to obtain time constant of 10 second in an R-C circuit containing a resistance of 103 Ω, the capacity of the condenser should be

(A)  10 μF

(B)  100 μF

(C)  1000 μF

(D)  10000 μF

Answer: (D)

50. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries constant current i. It is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0 such that B0 is magnitude of magnetic field to a plane of the loop, the magnetic force acting on the loop is

(A)  irB0

(B)  2πirB0

(C)  πirB0

(D)  Zero

Answer: (D)

51. In the figure three identical springs are shown. From spring A, a mass of 4 kg is hung and spring shows elongation of 1 cm. But when a weight of 6 kg is hung on B, the Hook’s descends

(A)  1 cm

(B)  2 cm

(C)  3 cm

(D)  4 cm

Answer: (C)

52. A planet is moving in an elliptical orbit. If T, V, E and L are respectively the kinetic energy, potential energy, total energy and the magnitude of the angular momentum of the planet then the TRUE statement out of the following is

(A)  T is conserved

(B)  V is always positive

(C)  E is always negative

(D)  L is conserved but the direction vectr L continuously changes

Answer: (C)

53. In the given graph, adiabatic and isothermal curves are shown:

(A)  the curve A is isothermal

(B)  the curve B is isothermal

(C)  the curve A is adiabatic

(D)  Both (B) and (C) are correct

Answer: (D)

54. Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d and distance between screen and slit is D. Then width of maxima and width of slit will be equal, if D is

(A)  d2/ λ

(B)  2d/ λ

(C)  2d2/ λ

(D)  d2/ 2λ

Answer: (D)

55. The gravitational potential difference between the surface of a planet and a point 20 m above it is 16 J/kg. Then the work done in moving a 2kg mass by 8m on

(A)  11.1 J

(B)  5.55 J

(C)  16 J

(D)  27.7 J

Answer: (A)

56. A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a string of length l while the other end is fixed to point h above the horizontal table, the particle is made to revolve in a circle on the table, so as to make P revolutions per second. The maximum value of P if the particle is to be in contact with the table will be

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

57. The alpha and beta particles cause ionization because of

(A)  photoelectric emission

(B)  Compton collision

(C)  pair production

(D)  the electrostatic force

Answer: (D)

58. force of 0.5 is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper block for displacement 3m of the upper block is

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(A)  1 joule

(B)  −1 joule

(C)  2 joule

(D)  −2 joule

Answer: (A)

59. Figure shown a block of mass m kept on inclined plane with inclination θ. The tension in the string is

(A)  8 N

(B)  10 N

(C)  0.8 N

(D)  Zero

Answer: (D)

60. A train starts from station with an acceleration 1 m/s2. A boy who is 48 m behind the train with a constant velocity 10 m/s, the minimum time after which the boy will catch the train is

(A)  4.8 sec

(B)  8 sec

(C)  10 sec

(D)  12 sec

Answer: (B)

61. In an elastic string whose natural length is equal to that of a uniform rod by attached to the rod at both ends and suspended by the middle point

(A)  the rod will sink until the total work done is non-zero.

(B)  the rod will sink until the total work done is zero.

(C)  sinking of rod is not determined or the basis of work done.

(D)  sinking of rod is not possible.

Answer: (B)

62. A weight W is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In order to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

(A)  less than W

(B)  equal to W

(C)  equal to 2W

(D)  infinitely large

Answer: (D)

63. The current gain of transistor is 100, if the base current changes by 10 μ What is the change in collector current?

(A)  0.2 mA

(B)  2 mA

(C)  1 mA

(D)  0.5 mA

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following physical quantities has Neither dimensions Nor unit?

(A)  Angle

(B)  Luminous intensity

(C)  Coefficient of friction

(D)  Currents

Answer: (C)

65. Which of the following mode of propagation is used to send radio-waves from one place to another?

(A)  Space wave propagation

(B)  Sky wave propagation

(C)  Ground wave propagation

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

66. Six point charges are arranged at the vertices of a regular hexagon of side length a (shown in figure). The magnitude of electric field at the centre of regular hexagon is

(A) 

(B)  Zero

(C) 

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

CHEMISTRY

(Questions-67-132)

67. The half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 minutes. The time required for the concentration of the reactant to change from 0.08 M to 0.02 M is

(A)  10 min.

(B)  20 min.

(C)  30 min.

(D)  40 min.

Answer: (B)

68. Which bond is the smallest?

Answer: (B)

69. The distance between two electrodes of a cell is 2.5 cm and area of each electrode is 5 cm2. The cell constant is

(A)  2

(B)  12.5

(C)  7.5

(D)  0.5

Answer: (D)

70. The conversion of PbO into Pb(NO3)2 involves

(A)  oxidation

(B)  reduction

(C)  neither (A) nor (B)

(D)  both (A) and (B)

Answer: (C)

71. A 0.6% urea solution would be isotonic with

(A)  0.1 M glucose solution

(B)  0.1 MKCI solution

(C)  0.6% glucose solution

(D)  0.6% NaCl solution

Answer: (A)

72. The direct change from solid to gaseous state is referred to as

(A)  dissociation

(B)  decomposition

(C)  sublimation

(D)  deliquescence

Answer: (C)

73. The maximum number of molecules present in

(A)  15 bL of H2 gas at STP

(B)  5L of N2 gas at STP

(C)  0.5 g of H2 gas

(D)  10g of O2 gas

Answer: (A)

74. Which of the following statements is (are) WRONG?

(A)  If the value of 1 = 0, the electron distribution is spherical.

(B)  The shape of the orbital is given by magnetic quantum no.

(C)  Angular moment of 1s, 2s, 3s electrons are equal

(D)  In an atom, all electrons travel with the same velocity.

Answer: (B)

75. Chloroform

(A)  if exposed to air and light forms poisonous compound.

(B)  if inhaled for long time effects central nervous system.

(C)  is used to prepare chlorofluoromethane a Freon refrigerant.

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

76. Aspirin is a(n)

(A)  narcotic

(B)  antipyretic

(C)  tranquillizer

(D)  anaesthetic

Answer: (B)

77. Which of the following is (are) NOT true?

(A)  The most radioactive element present in pitchblende is uranium.

(B)  32P is used for the treatment of leukaemia.

(C)  CO2 present in the air contains 12C only.

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

78. On which factors interface depends?

(A)  Size of the molecules in the bulk phase.

(B)  Weight of the molecules in the bulk phase.

(C)  Numbers of molecules in the bulk phase.

(D)  Physical state of molecules in the bulk phase.

Answer: (A)

79. According to kinetic theory of gases

(A)  the pressure exerted by gas is proportional to mean square velocity of the molecules.

(B)  the pressure exerted by the gas is proportional t the root mean square velocity of the molecules.

(C)  the mean translational KE of the molecule is directly proportional to the absolute temperature

(D)  Both (B) and (C).

Answer: (C)

80. When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains

(A)  sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II)

(B)  sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III)

(C)  sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II)

(D)  sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III)

Answer: (A)

81. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?

Answer: (A)

82. Which statement about aspirin is NOR true?

(A)  Aspirin belongs to narcotic analgesics.

(B)  It is effective in relieving pain.

(C)  It has antiblood clotting action.

(D)  It is a neurologically active drug.

Answer: (A)

83. In a first order reaction A→B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is 0.5 M then half-life is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

84. Which of the following will NOT affect the value of equilibrium constant of a reaction?

(A)  Change in the concentration of the reactants

(B)  Change in temperature

(C)  Addition of catalyst

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

85. Glucose reacts with excess of phenylhydrazine and forms

(A)  sorbitol

(B)  glucose phenylbyrazone

(C)  glucosaszone

(D)  glucose oxime

Answer: (C)

86. The entropy of a crystalline substance at absolute zero on t he basis of third law of thermodynamics should be taken as

(A)  100

(B)  50

(C)  zero

(D)  different of different substances

Answer: (C)

87. Which of the following would undergo Hofniann’s reaction to give a primary amine?

(A)  RCONH2

(B)  RCONHCH3

(C)  RCOCI

(D)  RCOOR

Answer: (A)

88. Propene reacts with carbon monoxide and hydrogen in presence of cobalt carbonyl catalyst at high temperature and pressure, to form

(A)  propanal

(B)  butanal

(C)  butanone

(D)  butanoic acid

Answer: (B)

89. The hybrid state of central oxygen atom in diethylether is

(A)  sp2

(B)  sp3

(C)  sp

(D)  sp3d

Answer: (B)

90. The general molecular formula, which represents the homologous series of alkanol is

(A)  CnH2nO

(B)  CnH2n – 1O

(C)  CnH2n – 2O

(D)  CnH2nO2

Answer: (C)

91. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by

Answer: (B)

92. The compound used in enrichment of uranium for nuclear power plant is

(A)  U3O8

(B)  UF6

(C)  UO2(NO3)2

(D)  UCl4

Answer: (A)

93. The sweetest of all sugars is

(A)  glucose

(B)  lactose

(C)  sucrose

(D)  fructose

Answer: (D)

94. In which case, the carbon-carbon bond length is same?

(A)  2-butene

(B)  benzene

(C)  I-butene

(D)  I-propyne

Answer: (B)

95. Which is a correct relationship?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  All of these

Answer: (*)

96. A crystal lattice with alternative +ve and –ve ions has radius ratio 0.52, its coordination number is

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  6

(D)  12

Answer: (C)

97. ______bond is the most polar

(A)  C – O

(B)  C – Br

(C)  C – S

(D)  C – F

Answer: (D)

98. Blood cells do NOT shrink in blood because blood is

(A)  hypertonic

(B)  isotonic

(C)  equimolar

(D)  hypotonic

Answer: (B)

99. Which of the following is known as Freon which is used as a refrigerant?

(A)  CCl2F

(B)  CHCl3

(C)  CH2F2

(D)  CF4

Answer: (A)

100. The credit for the discovery of transuranic elements goes to

(A)  Hahn

(B)  Rutherford

(C)  Seaborg

(D)  Curie

Answer: (C)

101. What is used to prevante electronic instruments clamaged by the moisture?

(A)  Silica gel

(B)  Zeolite

(C)  Chromatographic plate

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

102. dz2 orbital has

(A)  a lobe along z-axis and a ring along xy-plane

(B)  a lobe along z-axis and a along xy-place.

(C)  a lobe along z-axis and a ring along yz-plane

(D)  a lobe and ring along z-axis

Answer: (A)

103. In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with

(A)  FeS

(B)  CO

(C)  Cu2S

(D)  SO2

Answer: (C)

104. Select the WRONG statement.

(A)  One curie = 3.7 × 1010 dis/minute

(B)  Actinium series starts with U238

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

105. Compound which is added to soap to impart antiseptic properties is

(A)  sodium laurylsulphate

(B)  sodium dodecylebenzenesulphonate

(C)  rosin

(D)  bithional

Answer: (D)

106. In the following statements,

(a)   Ideal gases are liquefied only at very low temperatures

(b)   Ideal gases cannot be liquefied.

(c)   Ideal gas behavior is observed by real gases at low pressures.

(d)   Ideal gases do not exist.

the correct statements are

(A)  a, b, c and d

(B)  a, b and c

(C) b, c and D

(D)  c and d

Answer: (C)

107. Decron is an example of

(A)  polyamide

(B)  polypropylene

(C)  polyurethane

(D)  polyester

Answer: (D)

108. In the evaporation of water, the entropy

(A)  decreases

(B)  increases

(C)  does not change

(D)  sometimes increases, sometimes decreases

Answer: (B)

109. A compound is formed by elements A and B. This crystallizes in the cubic structure when atoms A are at the corners of the cube and atoms B are at the centre of the body. The simplest formula of the compound is

(A)  AB

(B)  AB2

(C)  A2B

(D)  AB4

Answer: (A)

110. Dead burnt plaster is

(A)  CaSO4

(B) 

(C)  CaSO4H2O

(D)  CaSO42H2O

Answer: (A)

111. Semipenneable membrane is that which pennits the passage of

(A)  Solute molecules only

(B)  Solvent molecules only

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer: (B)

112. Which is non-aromatic compound?

Answer: (*)

113. When one coulomb’ of electricity is passed through an electrolytic solution, the mass deposited on the electrode is equal to

(A)  equivalent weight

(B)  molecular weight

(C)  electrochemical equivalent

(D)  one gram

Answer: (C)

114. Among the following compounds, which one is NOT responsible for depletion of ozone layer?

(A)  CH4

(B)  CFCl3

(C)  NO

(D)  Cl2

Answer: (A)

115. The plot between concentration versus time for a zero order reaction is represented by

Answer: (D)

116. In a chemical reaction, two reactants take part. The rate of reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of one of them and inversely proportional to the concentration of the other. The order of the reaction is

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  2

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

117. Which of the following could act as propellant for rockets?

(A)  Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon

(B)  Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

(C)  Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen

(D)  Liquid hydrogen + Liquid nitrogen

Answer: (C)

118. Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give

(A)  Cu + SO2

(B)  Cu + SO3

(C)  CuO + CuS

(D)  CU2SO3

Answer: (A)

119. p-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol are separated by

(A)  cystallisation

(B)  fractional distillation

(C)  distillation

(D)  steam distillation

Answer: (D)

120. Which of the following has magnesium ?

(A)  Carbonic anhydrase

(B)  Vitamin B12

(C)  Chlorophyll

(D)  Haemocyanine

Answer: (C)

121. Primary amine + aldehyde → X, what is X?

(A)  Nitro

(B)  Nitroso

(C)  Amino

(D)  Imino

Answer: (D)

122. Which graph will show equilibrium condition?

Answer: (C)

123. Propyne on hydroboration-oxidation gives mainly

(A)  propanone

(B)  propanoic acid

(C)  propanal

(D)  propane

Answer: (C)

124. The oxidation numbers of C in CH4, CH3HI CH2Cl, CHCI3 and CCl4 are respectively

(A)  +4, +2, 0, −2, −

(B)  +2, +4, 0, −4, −2

(C)  −4, −2, 0, +2, +4

(D)  −2, −4, 0, +4, +2

Answer: (C)

125. The reagent used for the preparation of higher ethers from halogenated ethers is

(A)  conc. H2SO4

(B)  sodium alkoxide

(C)  dry silveroxide

(D)  Grignard reagent

Answer: (D)

126. Heavy water is used in atomic reactors as

(A)  coolant

(B)  moderator

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  Neither (A) Nor (B)

Answer: (C)

127. CH3OH and C2H5OH may be distinguished chemically

(A)  by the action of HCl

(B)  by the action of I2 + NaCO3

(C)  by the action of NH3

(D)  solubility in water

Answer: (B)

128. Flurosis, a bone disease, is caused by the presence of

(A)  pesticides in water

(B)  fluorides in water

(C)  carbon monoxide in air

(D)  sulphur dioxide in air

Answer: (B)

129. Which one of the following cyano complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behavior?

(A)  [Cr(CN)6]3

(B)  [Co(CN)6] 3

(C)  [Fe(CN)6] 3

(D)  BaCO3

Answer: (B)

130. Metal carbonates decompose on heating to give metal oxide and carbon dioxide. Which of the metal carbonates is most stable thermally?

(A)  MgCO3

(B)  CaCO3

(C)  SrCO3

(D)  BaCO3

Answer: (D)

131. Which of the following is NOT an actinide ?

(A)  Curium

(B)  Califomium

(C)  Uranium

(D)  Terbium

Answer: (D)

132. The major product formed by monobromination of methy chyclopentane is

Answer: (D)

MATHEMATICS

Questions – 133-200

133. Four natural numbers are selected at random and are multiplied. The probability that the product is divisible by 5 or 10 is

(A)  49/625

(B)  369/625

(C)  64/625

(D)  256/625

Answer: (B)

134. Let  satisfied A2 + aA + bI = 0, then a, b are respectively equal to

(A)  −4, 2

(B)  −3, 3

(C)  −4, 1

(D)  −3, 1

Answer: (C)

135. The mean of 5 observations is 4.4 and the variance is 8.24. If three of the five observations are 1, 2 and 6, the two values are

(A)  4 and 9

(B)  3 and 5

(C)  2 and 6

(D)  4 and 6

Answer: (A)

136. Three numbers are chosen at random without replacement from {1, 2, 3 ……., 10}. The probability that minimum of the chosen number is 3 or their maximum is 7, is

(A)  11/30

(B)  11/40

(C)  1/7

(D)  1/8

Answer: (B)

137. The equations of perpendicular bisectors of the sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are x – y + 5 = 0 and equation of the line BC is

(A)  23x + 14y – 40 = 0

(B)  23x + 14y + 40 = 0

(C)  14x + 23y – 40 = 0

(D)  14x + 23y + 40 = 0

Answer: (C)

138. If  then  is

(A)  2

(B)  1

(C)  0

(D)  x

Answer: (C)

139. Consider the proposition : “If we control population growth, we prosper”. Negative of this proposition is

(A)  If we do not control population growth, we prosper.

(B)  If we control population, we do not prosper.

(C)  We control population but we do not prosper.

(D)  We do not control population but we prosper.

Answer: (C)

140. If the tangent at (1, 1) on y2 = x(2 – x)2 meets the curve gain at P, then P is

(A)  (4, 4)

(B)  (−1, 2)

(C)  (9/4, 3/8)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

141. The value of the sum of the series 3nC0 – 8nC1 + 13nC2 – 18nC3 + …. upon (n + 1) terms, is

(A)  0

(B)  3n

(C)  5n

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

142. The value of  is

(A)  π

(B)  π/6

(C)  π/3

(D)  π/4

Answer: (B)

143. If the letters of the word MOTHER are written in all possible orders and these words are written out as in a dictionary, then the rank of the word MOTHER is

(A)  240

(B)  261

(C)  308

(D)  309

Answer: (D)

144. An equation of the curve in which subnormal varies as the square of the ordinate is (k is constant of proportionality)

(A)  y = Aekx

(B)  y = ekx

(C) 

(D)  y2 + kx2  = A

Answer: (A)

145. The sum of the series (1 + 2) + (1 + 2 + 22) + (1 + 2 + 22 + 23)+ …. upto n terms is

(A)  2n+2 – n – 4

(B)  2(2n – 1)

(C)  2n+1 – n

(D)  2n+1 – 1

Answer: (A)

146. Let there be two points A, B on the curve y = x2 in the plane OXY satisafying OA I = 1 and OB I = −2 then the length of the vector 2OA – 3OB is

(A)  √14

(B)  2√51

(C)  3√41

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

147. If n is a positive integer greater than unity and z is a complex number satisfying the equation zn = (z + 1)n, then

(A)  Im (z) < 0

(B)  Im (z) > 0

(C)  Im (z) = 0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

148. Let [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. If f(x) = sin1x, g(x) [x2] and 

(A)  fogohh(x) = π/2

(B)  fogpoh(x) = π

(C)  hofog = hogof

(D)  hofog ≠ hogof

Answer: (C)

149. Let f : N → N be defined by f(x) = x2 + x + 1, then f is

(A)  one-one onto

(B)  many one onto

(C)  one-one but not into

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

150.  equals

(A)  1 + √5

(B)  −1 + √5

(C)  −1 + √2

(D)  1 + √2

Answer: (B)

151. Let R be a relation on the set N be defined by {(x, y) |x, y ∈ N, 2x + y = 41}. Then R is

(A)  reflexive

(B)  symmetric

(C)  transitive

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

152. Let = {1, 2, 3}, B = {3 4}, C = {4, 5, 6}. Then A ⋃ (B⋂C) is

(A)  {3}

(B)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

(C)  {1, 2, 5, 6)

(D)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

Answer: (B)

153. If  decreases for all x, then

(A)  ab – bc < 0

(B)  ad –  bc < 0

(C)  ab – cd > 0

(D)  ab – cd < 0

Answer: (A)

154. If  then at x = 0

(A)  f(x) has no limit

(B)  f(x) is discontinuous

(C)  f(x) is continuous but not differentiable

(D)  f(x) is differentiable

Answer: (D)

155. 

(A)  √2

(B)  Does not exist

(C)  1

(D)  −√2

Answer: (B)

156. An unbiased cubical die is thrown 5 times. The probability that the maximum number appearing on the die is 4 is

(A)  7/65

(B)  1023/65

(C)  3871/65

(D)  1781/65

Answer: (B)

157. The distance between the lines 5x – 12y + 65 = 0 and 5x – 12y – 39 = 0, is

(A)  4

(B)  16

(C)  2

(D)  8

Answer: (D)

158. If ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity and  then value of x is

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  −1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

159. If p and q are two propositions, then ~ (p ↔ q) is

(A)  ~ p ^ ~ q

(B)  ~p ⋁ (~ p ^ q)

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

160. The distance between the line r = 2is – 2j + 3k + λ (i – j + 4k) and the plane r.(i + 5j + k) = 5 is

(A)  3/10

(B)  10/3

(C)  10/9

(D)  10/3√3

Answer: (D)

161. Common roots of the equation z3 + 2z2 + 2z + 1 = 0 and z1985 + z100 + 1 = 0 are bijection?

(A)  w, w2

(B)  1, w, w2

(C)  −1, w, w2

(D)  −w, w2

Answer: (A)

162. Which of the following functions from Z to itself are bijection?

(A)  f(x) = x3

(B)  f(x) = x + 2

(C)  f(x) = 2x + 1

(D)  f(x) = x2 + x

Answer: (B)

163. Let  Then the real roots of the equation x2 – f′(x) = 0 are

(A)  ±1

(B)  ±1/√2

(C)  ±1/2

(D)  0 and 1

Answer: (A)

164. Let A = (p, q, r) Which of the following is NOT an equivalence relation on A?

(A)  R1 = {(p, q), (q, r), (p, r), (p, p)}

(B)  R2 = {(r, q), (r,p), (r, r), (p, q)}

(C)  R3 = {(p, p), (q, q), (r, r), (p, q)}

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

165. A particular solution of  is

(A)  e3x + 3e4y

(B)  4e3x – e4y = 3

(C)  3e3x + 4e4y = 7

(D)  4e3x + 3e4y = 7

Answer: (D)

166. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = x2 + 2, y = x, x = 0 and x= 3, in square units is

(A)  21/4

(B)  21/2

(C)  39/2

(D)  39/4

Answer: (A)

167. If sets A and B are defined as

A = {(x, y) : y = ex, x ∈ R}

B = {(x, y) : y = x, x ∈ R}, then

(A)  B ⊂ A

(B)  A ⊂ B

(C)  A ⋂ B = ϕ

(D)  A ⋃ B = A

Answer: (C)

168. If the line  lies in the plane x + 3y – az + β = 0. Then (α, β) = ?

(A)  (5, −15)

(B)  (−5, 5)

(C)  (6, −17)

(D)  (−6, 7)

Answer: (D)

169. If R is a relation from a set A to a set B and S is relation from a set B to a set C, then the relation SoR

(A)  is from A to C

(B)  is from C to A

(C)  does not exist

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

170. The non-zero vectors a, b and c are related by a = 8b and c = −7b. Then the angle between a and c is

(A)  0

(B)  π/4

(C)  π/2

(D)  π

Answer: (D)

171. Let F : A → B and g : B → A be two functions such that gof = IA. Then

(A)  f is an injection and g is a surjection

(B)  f is a surjection and g is an injection

(C)  f and g both are injections

(D)  f and g both are surjections

Answer: (*)

172. The solution of the equation (2x + y + 1)dx + (4x + 2y – 1) dy =0 is

(A)  log |2x + y – 1| = C + x + y

(B)  log (4x + 2y – 1) = C + 2x + y

(C)  log(2x + y + 1) + x + 2y = C

(D)  log|2x + y – 1| + x + 2y = C

Answer: (D)

173. If z1 = a + ib and z2 = c + id are complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = 1 and, then  , then the pair of w2 = b + id satisfy

(A)  |w1| = 1

(B)  |w2| = 1

(C) 

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

174. The value of  is ([x] is the greatest integer function)

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  1000(e – 1)

(D) 

Answer: (C)

175. If the interior angles of a polygon are in A.P. with common difference 5° and smallest angle is 120°, then the number of sides of the polygon is

(A)  9 or 16

(B)  9

(C)  16

(D)  13

Answer: (B)

176. If  then x is any term of the following.

(A)  3, 6, 9, 12, ……

(B)  9, 18, 27, 36, …

(C)  6, 12, 18, 24, ….

(D)  6/5, 12/5, 18/5, ….

Answer: (C)

177. Let f(x) = sgn(sgn(sgn x))

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

178. If  then 4x2 – 4xycosα + y 2 is equal to

(A)  4 sin2 α

(B)  −4 sin2 α

(C)  −2 sin2 α

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

179. The statement ~ (p ↔ ~ q) is

(A)  equilvalent to ~ p ↔ q

(B)  a tautology

(C)  a fallacy

(D)  equivalent to p ↔ q

Answer: (*)

180. Suppose a, b, c, > 0 and a, b, c are the pth, qth, rth terms of a GP. Let

Then numerical value of ∆ is

(A)  −1

(B)  2

(C)  0

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

181. The total number of proper divisors or 38808 is

(A)  72

(B)  70

(C)  69

(D)  71

Answer: (A)

182. If letter of the word “ASSASSIN” are written down at random in a row, the probability that no two S’s occur together is

(A)  1/7

(B)  1/14

(C)  1/28

(D)  1/35

Answer: (B)

183. Let A, B, C be three square matrices of the same order, such that whenever AB = AC then B = C, if A is

(A)  singular

(B)  non-singular

(C)  symmetric

(D)  skew-symmetric

Answer: (*)

184. If  and  then the standard deviation of x­1, x2, ….., x18 is

(A)  4/9

(B)  9/4

(C)  3/2

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

185. The least number of times a fair coin must be tossed so that the probability of getting at least one head is 0.95 is

(A)  5

(B)  6

(C)  7

(D)  12

Answer: (C)

186. The equation of one side of a rectangle is 3x – 4y – 10 = 0 and the co-ordinates of two of its vertices are (−2, 1) and (2, 4). Then the area of the rectangle is

(A)  20 sq. units

(B)  40 sq. units

(C)  10 sq. units

(D)  30 sq. units

Answer: (A)

187. The slope of the tangent of the curve

x = t2 + 3t – 8

y = 2r2 – 2t – 5

at the point (2, −1) is

(A)  2/3

(B)  6/7

(C)  4/5

(D)  3/2

Answer: (B)

188. The least value of n so that yn = yn + 1 where y = x2 + ex is

(A)  4

(B)  3

(C)  5

(D)  2

Answer: (B)

189. The interval in which x must lie so that the numerically greatest term in the expansion of (1 – x)2 has the numerically greatest coefficient, if

(A)  [5/6, 6/5]

(B)  (5/6, 6/5)

(C)  (4/5, 5/4)

(D)  [4/5, 5/4)

Answer: (A)

190. 

(A)  1/2

(B)  3/2

(C)  5/2

(D)  7/2

Answer: (C)

191. Logical equivalent proposition to the proposition ~(p ⋁ q) is

(A)  ~p ⋀ ~q

(B)  ~p ⋁ ~q

(C)  ~p → ~q

(D)  ~p ↔ ~q

Answer: (*)

192. The nearest point on the line 3x – 4y = 25 from the origin is

(A)  (−4, 5)

(B)  (3, −4)

(C)  (3, 4)

(D)  (3, 5)

Answer: (B)

193. The distance of the point (1, −5, 9) from the plane x – y + z = 5 measured along a straight line x = y = z is

(A)  10√3

(B)  5√3

(C)  3√10

(D)  3√5

Answer: (*)

194. The unit vector which is orthogonal to the vector 5i + 2j + 6k and is coplanar with the vectors 2i + j + k and i – j + k is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

195. If A is a finite set having n elements, then P(A) has _______ elements.

(A)  2n

(B)  2n

(C)  n

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

196. A function out of the following whose period is NOT π is

(A)  sin2x

(B)  cos2x

(C)  tan(2x + 3)

(D)  y = |sin x|

Answer: (C)

197. 

(A)  2√a log a

(B)  √a log a

(C)  log a

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

198. If 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and θ = sin1 x + cos1 x − tan1 x, then

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

199. Which of the following is NOT a statement?

(A)  17 is a prime number.

(B)  22 is an odd number.

(C)  What a beautiful flower !

(D)  New Delhi is Capital of India

Answer: (C)

200. If a = ω ≠ 1 is cube root of unity, b = −785, c = 2008i, and 

 then ∆ equals

(A)  −i

(B)  i

(C)  1

(D)  1 – ωi

Answer: (C)

BIOLOGY

(Questions – 133-200)

133. Which is a part of pectoral girdle?

(A)  Glenoid cavity

(B)  Sternum

(C)  Illium

(D)  Acetabulum

Answer: (A)

134. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980 the evolution was termed as RNS world?

(A)  mRNA, tRNA, TRNA synthesize proteins.

(B)  In some virus RNA is genetic material.

(C)  RNA have enzymatic property.

(D)  RNA is not found in all cells.

Answer: (C)

135. Iris is part of

(A)  sclerotic

(B)  choroid/uvula

(C)  choroid and retina

(D)  sclerotic and choroid

Answer: (D)

136. Desert plants are generally

(A)  viviparous

(B)  succulent

(C)  herbaceous

(D)  heterophyllus

Answer: (B)

137. A condition of failure of kidney to form urine is called

(A)  deamination

(B)  entropy

(C)  anuria

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

138. In RNA, thymine is replaced by

(A)  adenine

(B)  guanine

(C)  Cytosine

(D)  Uracil

Answer: (D)

139. A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of might blindness in developing countries is

(A)  Flavr savr tomatoes

(B)  Starling maize

(C)  Bt soybean

(D)  Golden rice

Answer: (D)

140. Escherichia coli is used extensively in biological research as it is

(A)  easily cultured

(B)  easily available

(C)  easy to handle

(D)  easily multiplied in host

Answer: (A)

141. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice By using which of the following biofertilizer?

(A)  Mycorrhiza

(B)  Azollapinnata

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis

Answer: (B)

142. The part of life cycle of malarial parasite plasmodium vivax, that is passed in female Anopheles is

(A)  Sexual cycle

(B)  Pre-erythrocytic schizogony

(C)  Exo-erythrocytic schizogony

(D)  Post-erythrocytic schizogony

Answer: (A)

143. The bacteria associated with plant genetic engineering are

(A)  Salmonella and Pseudomonas

(B)  Salmonella typhimurium and Agrobacterium

(C)  Bacillus thuringiensis and Pseudomonas Fluorescens

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (D)

144. In plants inulin and pectin are

(A)  reserved food material

(B)  wastes

(C)  secretory material

(D)  insect attaching material

Answer: (A)

145. Middle piece of mammalian sperm possesses

(A)  mitochondria and centriole

(B)  mitochondria only

(C)  centriole only

(D)  nucleus and mitochondria

Answer: (A)

146. Photoreceptors of earthworm occur on

(A)  clitellum

(B)  many eyes

(C)  dorsal surface

(D)  lateral sides

Answer: (C)

147. Most diverse macromolecules, found in the cell both Physically and chemically are

(A)  proteins

(B)  carbohydrates

(C)  nucleic acids

(D)  lipids

Answer: (A)

148. The population of an insect species shows an explosive Increase in numbers during rainy season followed by its disappearance at the end of t he season. What does This show?

(A)  S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect.

(B)  The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.

(C)  Its population growth curve is of J-type

(D)  The population of its predacors increases enormously.

Answer: (C)

149. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banna fruits?

(A)  Auxin

(B)  Cumarin

(C)  Ethylene

(D)  Cytokinin

Answer: (C)

150. Home sapiens evolved during

(A)  Pleistocene

(B)  Oligocene

(C)  Pliocene

(D)  Miocene

Answer: (A)

151. In which one of the following do the two names rafer to one and the same thing?

(A)  Tricarboxylic acid cycle and Urea cycle

(B)  Krebs cycle and Calvin cycle

(C)  Tricarboxylic acid cycle and Citric acid cycle

(D)  Cirric acid cycle and Calvin cycle

Answer: (C)

152. Which of the following is a reducing sugar?

(A)  Galactose

(B)  Gluconic acid

(C)  B-methyl galactoside

(D)  Sucrose

Answer: (A)

153. In plant cells, peroxisomes are associated with

(A)  photorespiration

(B)  phototropism

(C)  photoperiodism

(D)  photosynthesis

Answer: (A)

154. Which of the following plant species you would select for the production of bioethanol?

(A)  Brassica

(B)  Zea mays

(C)  Pongamia

(D)  Jatropha

Answer: (D)

155. Afferent nerve fibres carry impulses from

(A)  effector organs to CNS

(B)  receptors to CNS

(C)  CNS to receptors

(D)  CNS to muscles

Answer: (B)

156. Bio augmentation is

(A)  the addition of commercially prepared bacterial Strain

(B)  production of fertilizers by using bacteria

(C)  the metals are deposited as insoluble oxides and sulphides by activities of bacteria

(D)  removal of pests

Answer: (A)

157. Glycogen is a polymer of

(A)  galactose

(B)  glucose

(C)  fructose

(D)  sucrose

Answer: (B)

158. If the mean and the median pertaining to a certain Character of a population are of the same value, the following is most likely to occur.

(A)  Normal distribution

(B)  Bio-modal distribution

(C)  T-shaped curve

(D)  Skewed curve

Answer: (A)

159. Choose the correct match:

Bladderwort, Sundew, Venusfly trap

(A)  Nepenthes, Diorea, Drosera

(B)  Nepenthes, Utricularia, Vanda

(C)  Utricularia, Drosera, Diorea

(D)  Diorea, Trapa, Vanda

Answer: (C)

160. One of the following is the correct sequence to make a Transgenic animals.

(A)  Transomics-Transfection Micro infection Electro portion – Retroviralvectors

(B)  Micro injection Transfection Electro portion-

(C)  Retroviral vectors Transomics Transfection – Micro injection – Transomics Electro portion – Retroviral vectors

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

161. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place

(A)  only in the cytoplasm

(B)  in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm

(C)  in cytoplasm as well as it mitochondria

(D)  Only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear Envelope

Answer: (C)

162. Flowering dependent on cold treatment in

(A)  cryotherapy

(B)  cryogenics

(C)  cryoscopy

(D)  vernalization

Answer: (D)

163. Transgenic plants are produced by using Ti Plasmids From the

(A)  Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(B)  E. coli

(C)  Bacteriophage

(D)  Agrobacterium varians

Answer: (A)

164. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but Lacks vascular tissues and seeds is

(A)  Pteridophyta

(B)  Rhodophyta

(C)  Bryophyta

(D)  Phaeophyta

Answer: (C)

165. Removal of apical bud results in

(A)  formation of new apical buid

(B)  elongation of main stem

(C)  death of plant

(D)  Formation of lateral branching

Answer: (D)

166. In pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes then its Endosperm will have the chromosome

(A)  12

(B)  18 n 8

(C)  6

(D)  24

Answer: (C)

167. The foods made from genetically modified crops required to Pass human testing because

(A)  they may cause allergies

(B)  they may alter genes

(C)  they may cause mutations and release toxins

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

168. Aquatic reptiles are

(A)  ammonotelic

(B)  ureotelic

(C)  ureotelic in water

(D)  ureotelic over land

Answer: (B)

169. Function of iris is to

(A)  move lens forward and backward

(B)  refract light rays

(C)  bring about movements of eye lids

(D)  alter the size of pupil

Answer: (D)

170. The aquatic fem, which is an excellent biofertilizer, is

(A)  Azolla

(B)  pteridium

(C)  Salvinia

(D)  Marselia

Answer: (A)

171. In a standard ECG, which one of the following Alphabets is the correct representation of the respective Activity of the human heart?

(A)  R-repolarisation of ventricles

(B)  S-start of systole

(C)  T-end of diastole

(D)  P-depolarisation of the atria

Answer: (D)

172. Total number of bones in the hind limb of man is

(A)  14

(B)  30

(C)  24

(D)  21

Answer: (D)

173. The most environmental hazards were created by Accidents in nuclear power plant and MIC gas tragedy Respectively in

(A)  Russia in 1990 and Bhopal in 1986

(B)  Ukrain in 1988 and USA in 1984

(C)  Bhopal in 1984 and Russia in 1990

(D)  Ukrain in 1986 and Bhopal 1984

Answer: (D)

174. Meiosis-II performs

(A)  separation of sex chromosomes

(B)  synthesis of DNA and centromeres

(C)  separation of homologous chromosomes

(D)  separation of chromatids

Answer: (D)

175. Sequence of which of the following is used to know the Phylogeny?

(A)  mRNA

(B)  rRNA

(C)  tRNA

(D)  DNA

Answer: (B)

176. During which stage, in the complete oxidation of Glucose are the greatest number of ATP molecules Formed from ADP?

(A)  glycolysis

(B)  krebs cycle

(C)  conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A

(D)  electron transport chain

Answer: (D)

177. Darwin’s finches provide an excellent evidence in Favour of evolution. This evidence comes from the field of

(A)  Biogeography

(B)  Anatomy

(C)  Embryology

(D)  Palaeontology

Answer: (A)

178. Movement of auxins is

(A)  Centripetal

(B)  basipetal

(C)  Acropetal

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (D)

179. Agene pair hides the effect of another. The phenomenon is

(A)  epistasis

(B)  dominance

(C)  mutation

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

180. Radioactive thymidine when added to the medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets incorporated into the newly synthesized DNA. Which of the following types of chromatin is expected to become Radioactive if cells are exposed radioactive radioactive thymidine As soon as they enter the S-shape?

(A)  Heterochromatin

(B)  Euchromatin

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  Neither heterochromatin nor euchromatin but only the nucleolus

Answer: (B)

181. Which one of the following is the correct statement regarding the particular psychotropic drug specified?

(A)  Hashish causes alter thought perceptions and Hallueinations.

(B)  Opium stimulates nervous system and causes Hallucinations.

(C)  Morphine leads to delusions and distributed Comolions.

(D)  Barbiturates cause relaxation and temporary Euphoria.

Answer: (A)

182. Flight muscles of bird are attached to

(A)  clavicle

(B)  keel of sternum

(C)  scapul

(D)  coracoid

Answer: (B)

183. During cleavage, what is TRUE about cells?

(A)  Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains unchaged.

(B)  Size does not increase.

(C)  There is less consumption of oxygen.

(D)  The division is like meiosis.

Answer: (B)

184. Pyrenoids are the centres for formation of

(A)  prophyra

(B)  enzymes

(C)  fat

(D)  starch

Answer: (D)

185. Who discovered plasmodium in RBC of human beings?

(A)  Ronald Ross

(B)  Mendel

(C)  Laveran

(D)  Stephen

Answer: (C)

186. Modifications by germ line gene therapy are heritable as the Functional gene is incorporated into

(A)  their genome

(B)  one of the gene

(C)  Somatic cells

(D)  All of these

Answer: (A)

187. In soil, water available for roots (to plants) is

(A)  capillary water

(B)  hygroscopic water

(C)  gravitational water

(D)  chemically bound water

Answer: (A)

188. Suppression of reproduction of one type of organism of utilizing some features of its biology or Physiology to destroy it or by use of another organism is known as

(A)  Competition

(B)  Predation

(C)  Biological control

(D)  Physiological control

Answer: (B)

189. Which one of the following proved effective for biological control of nematodal diseases plants?

(A)  Pisoighusrinctorius

(B)  Pseudomonas cepacia

(C)  Glioclodiumvircns

(D)  Paccilomyceslilacinus

Answer: (D)

190. Which one belongs to Monera?

(A)  Amoeba

(B)  Escherichia

(C)  Gelidium

(D)  Spirogyra

Answer: (B)

191. The Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of

(A)  Oxygen

(B)  Hydrogen

(C)  Chlorine

(D)  Sulphur dioxide

Answer: (D)

192. Study of fossils is

(A)  Palaeoncology

(B)  Herpetology

(C)  Saurology

(D)  Organic evolution

Answer: (A)

193. A patient suffering from cholera is given saline drip because

(A)  Cl-ions are important component of blood plasma

(B)  Nations help to retain water in the body

(C)  Na+ ions are important in transport of substances across membrane

(D)  Cl-ions help in the formation of HCl in stomach For digestion

Answer: (B)

194. Gonads develop from embryonic

(A)  ecodermn

(B)  endoderm

(C)  mesoderm

(D)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (C)

195. Which of the following cranial nerves can regulate Heart beat?

(A)  X

(B)  IX

(C)  VIII

(D)  VII

Answer: (A)

196. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from

(A)  constant low mutation rate

(B)  large population size

(C)  highly genetically variable individuals

(D)  interbreeding within this population

Answer: (D)

197. A deltoid ridge occurs in

(A)  radius

(B)  ulna

(C)  femur

(D)  humerus

Answer: (D)

198. The contrasting pairs of factors in Mendelian crosses are called

(A)  multiple alleles

(B)  allelomorphs

(C)  aliolori

(D)  paramorphs

Answer: (B)

199. Golgi apparacus is absent in

(A)  higher plans

(B)  Yeast

(C)  bacteria and orange-green algae

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

200. In general, in the developmental history of a of Mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through A two-chambered fish like heart, three-chambered a Frog like heart and finally to four-chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this above cited statements by approximated?

(A)  Hardy-Weinberg law

(B)  Lamarkc’s principle

(C)  Biogenetic law

(D)  Mendelian principles

Answer: (C)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Previous Question Paper-2019

MENTAL APTITUDE

Directions for question 1-10:

   In each of these questions, there are two separate figures. The figures on the left are Problems Figures (four figures and one question-marked space) and those on the right are Answer Figures indicated by letters A, B, C and D. A series is established if one of the four Answer Figures is placed at the “question-marked space”. Figures form a series if they change from left to right according to same rule. The letter of the Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the answer. All the five figures, i.e., four Problem Figures and one Answer Figure placed in the question-marked space should be considered as forming the series.

1. 

Answer: (D)

2.

Answer: (B)

3.

Answer: (D)

4. 

Answer: (C)

5. 

Answer: (D)

6. 

Answer: (A)

7. 

Answer: (B)

8. 

Answer: (D)

9. 

Answer: (C)

10. 

Answer: (A)

11. Vivek starts from his home and goes 2 km straight. Then, he turned right and goes 1 km. Again he turns right and covers 1km. If he is north-west from h is house, then in which direction did he go in the beginning?

(A)  North

(B)  South

(C)  East

(D)  West

Answer: (D)

Direction for questions 12-14

   In each of the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

12. _a b b _ _bb _ a _ b b a b _ b a

(A)  bababa

(B)  bbabbb

(C)  ababaa

(D)  aaaabb

Answer: (D)

13. b _ a c _ c c _ c b _ a b _ a c

(A)  ababa

(B)  bbaac

(C)  abbbc

(D)  aabba

Answer: (B)

14. _ c _ b d _ c b c d a _ a _ d b _ a

(A)  adabcd

(B)  cdbbca

(C)  daabbc

(D)  bdbcba

Answer: (B)

15. If Bangle is called Cassette, Cassette is called Table, Table is called Game, Game is called Cupboard and Cupboard is called Bangle, then which is played in the tape recorder?

(A)  Table

(B)  Bangle

(C)  Cupboard

(D)  Cassette

Answer: (B)

Direction for question 16-20

   Each question is followed by two statements (1) and (2).

Indicate

(A) If statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (2) alone is not sufficient.

(B) If statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

(C) If EACH statement ALONE is sufficient

(D) If Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

16. IS X > y?

(1) x = y  + 2

(2) 

Answer: (C)

17. Last year the average (arithmetic mean) salary of the 10 employees of Company X was Rs. 42800/-. What is the average salary of the same 10 employees this year?

(1)   For 8 of the 10 employees, this year’s salary is 15 percent greater than last year’s salary.

(2)   For 2 of the 10 employees, this year’s salary is the same as last year’s salary.

Answer: (B)

18. In a certain classroom, there are 80 books, of which 24 are fiction and 23 are written in English. How many of the fiction books are written in English?

(1)   Of the fiction books, there are 6 more that are not written in English than are written in English.

(2)   Of the books written in English, there are 5 more nonfiction books than fiction books.

Answer: (B)

19. If n is an integer, is n + 1 odd?]

(1)   n + 2 is an even integer.

(2)   n – 1 is an odd integer.

Answer: (C)

20. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 10 cm. What is the perimeter, in centimeters, of the triangle?

(1)   The area of the triangle is 25 sq.cm.

(2)   The 2 legs of the triangle are of equal length

Answer: (C)

21. In a certain code ALMIRAH is written as BNPMWGO, which word would be written as DNRWLUA?

(A)  COSGOLT

(B)  TOGSOLC

(C)  TOGCLOS

(D)  CLOSGOT

Answer: (D)

Direction for question 22-31

   In each of the questions, a related pair of figures (unnumbered) is followed by four numbered pairs of figures. out of these four, three have relationship similar to that in the original pair. Only one pair of figures does not have similar relationship. Select the pair of figures which does NOT have a similar relationship to that in the unnumbered pair. Letter of that figures is your answer.

22. 

Answer: (C)

23. 

Answer: (D)

24. 

Answer: (B)

25. 

Answer: (C)

26. 

Answer: (B)

27. 

Answer: (A)

28. 

Answer: (B)

29. 

Answer: (C)

30. 

Answer: (D)

31. vertical-align: middle; margin-bottom: 1px;

Answer: (C)

32. Pointing to a person a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter of your father”. How was the woman related to the person?

(A)  Aunt

(B)  Mother

(C)  Wife

(D)  Daughter

Answer: (B)

Direction for question 33-37

   Read the following information to answer the given question.

(i) A, B, C, D E and F are six family members.

(ii) There is one doctor, onel lawyer, one engineer, two students and one house wilfe.

(iii) There are two married couples in the family.

(iv) F, who is a doctor, is father of E.

(v) A is a student, and her husband is not a lawyer.

(vi) B is the grandmother of D and is a housewife.

(vii) C is the father-in-law of A and is an engineer.

(viii) D is the sister of E.

33. How is E relate to B?

(A)  Grand-daughter or grand-son

(B)  Daughter or son

(C)  Daughter-in-law or son-in-law

(D)  Sister or brother

Answer: (A)

34. Which of the followings is one of the pairs of married couples?

(A)  FB

(B)  FA

(C)  CF

(D)  FD

Answer: (B)

35. How many female members are there in the family?

(A)  Three

(B)  Two

(C)  Three or four

(D)  Two or Three

Answer: (A)

36. Who is the doctor?

(A)  D

(B)  E

(C)  A’s husband

(D)  C’s wife

Answer: (C)

37. Which of the following statements is definitely TRUE?

(A)  C is the father of the student

(B)  B is the mother of the student.

(C)  D is the sister of the lawyer.

(D)  F is the father of the lawyer.

Answer: (A)

Direction for questions 38-41

   In each of the followings questions, one term in the number series if WRONG. Find out the wrong term.

38. 5, 27, 61, 122, 213, 340, 509

(A)  27

(B)  61

(C)  122

(D)  509

Answer: (C)

39. 46080, 3840, 384, 48, 24, 2, 1

(A)  384

(B)  48

(C)  24

(D)  2

Answer: (D)

40. 15, 16, 22, 29, 45, 70

(A)  16

(B)  22

(C)  45

(D)  70

Answer: (B)

41. 0, 2, 3, 5, 8, 10, 15, 18, 24, 26, 35

(A)  18

(B)  24

(C)  26

(D)  10

Answer: (C)

Direction for questions 42-44

   In each of the following questions, four groups of letters are given; three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the ODD one.

42.

(A)  EBD

(B)  IFH

(C)  QNO

(D)  YVX

Answer: (C)

43.

(A)  ABDG

(B)  IJLO

(C)  MNPS

(D)  RSUY

Answer: (D)

44.

(A)  WRONG

(B)  PRONE

(C)  WHITE

(D)  RIGHT

Answer: (B)

45. If 1st February 1996 is Wednesday, what day is 3rd March 1996?

(A)  Monday

(B)  Sunday

(C)  Saturday

(D)  Friday

Answer: (C)

Direction for questions 46-49

   In each of the following questions, a pair of words is given. You are to study the relation existing between them and then find out from the given alternatives, the pair of words that bears the same relation between them and indicate that on the answer sheet.

46. Heart : Cardiology

(A)  Brain : Psychology

(B)  History : Histology

(C)  Civics : Polity

(D)  Fossils : Paleontology

Answer: (D)

47. Horse : Mare

(A)  Duck : Geese

(B)  Dog : Puppy

(C)  Donkey : Pony

(D)  Fox : Vixen

Answer: (D)

48. Flag : Nation

(A)  Emblem : Prosperity

(B)  Insignia : Rank

(C)  Wealth : Prestige

(D)  Honour : Status

Answer: (B)

49. Ornaments : Body

(A)  Murals : Walls

(B)  Painting : Canvas

(C)  Light : Road

(D)  Cleanliness : Hospital

Answer: (C)

50. If + stands for ÷, × stands for +, − stands for and stands ÷ for −, then which of the following equations is correct?

(A)  36 × 6 + 7 ÷ 2 – 6 = 20

(B)  36 ÷ 6 + 3 × 5 – 3 = 45

(C)  36 + 6 – 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 24

(D)  36 – 6 + 3 × 5 ÷ 3 = 74

Answer: (D)

PHYSICS

51. In the circuit shown, current through 25V cell is

(A)  7.2 A

(B)  10A

(C)  12A

(D)  14.2A

Answer: (A)

52. In a meter bridge experiment resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The balancing length is 55 cm. Now an unknown resistance x is connected ins series with P and the new balancing length is found to be 75 cm. The value of x is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

53. Four persons are initially at the four corners of a square whose side is equal to d. Each person now moves with a uniform speed V in such a way that the first move directly towards the second, the second directly towards the third, the third directly towards the fourth and the fourth directly towards the first. The four persons meet after a time equals to

(A)  d/V

(B)  2d/3V

(C)  2d/√3V

(D)  d/√3V

Answer: (A)

54. In a stack of three polarizing sheets, the first and the third are crossed while the middle one has its axis at 45° to the axes of the other two. The fraction of intensity of an incident unpolarized beam of light that is transmitted by the stack is

(A)  1/2

(B)  1/3

(C)  1/4

(D)  1/8

Answer: (D)

55. When a beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0 W/m2 falls on a metallic surface of area 1 × 104 m2 and work function 5.6 eV, 0.53% of incident photons eject photoelectrons. The number of photoelectrons emitted per second is

(A)  1.18 × 1016

(B)  6.25 × 1011

(C)  6.25 × 1013

(D)  6.25 × 1015

Answer: (B)

56. A uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R carries uniform surface charge density of σ. It is made of two hemispherical shells, held together by pressing them with force F. F is proportional to

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

57. If mean life of a radioactive sample about___ of the substance disintegrates.

(A)  2/3

(B)  1/3

(C)  90%

(D)  50%

Answer: (C)

58. Refer to the figure, Potential difference between A and B is

(A)  Zero

(B)  5 V

(C)  10 V

(D)  15 V

Answer: (A)

59. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field, B = 0.025 T with its plane perpendicular to the loop. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate of 1 mm S1. The induced emf when the radius is 2 cm, is

(A)  2 π μ V

(B)  π μ V

(C) 

(D)  2μV

Answer: (B)

60. The charge on the capacitor in steady state in the circuit shown is

(A)  0.5 μ C

(B)  1 μ C

(C)  2 μ C

(D)  4 μ C

Answer: (A)

61. The relation between time t and distance x for a moving particle is t = αx2 + βx, where α and β are constants. If V is the velocity at distance x, then the retardation of the particle is

(A)  2 αV3

(B)  2 βV3

(C)  2 α βV3

(D)  2 β2V2

Answer: (A)

62. Consider an electric field,  where E0 is a constant. The flux through the shaded area (as shown in figure) due to this field is

(A)  2 E0a2

(B)  √2 E0a2

(C)  E0a2

(D)  E0a2/√2

Answer: (C)

63. An Alpha particle accelerated through V volts is fired towards a nucleus. Its distance of closest approach is r. If a proton accelerated through the same potential is fired towards the same nucleus, Its distance of closest approach will be

(A)  r

(B)  2r

(C)  r/2

(D)  r/4

Answer: (A)

64. Determine the r.m.s value of a semicircular current wave which has a maximum value of a.

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

65. For what value of R in the circuit as shown, current through 4Ω will be zero?

(A)  1Ω

(B)  2 Ω

(C)  3 Ω

(D)  4 Ω

Answer: (B)

66. A uniform chain of length L meters is lying over a table. If the coefficient of friction be μ, then the maximum length of the part of this chain which can be over hung the edge without sliding is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

67. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces up vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity V varies with height h above the ground, as

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

68. Two coherent sources S1 and S2 are separated by a small distance d as shown. The fringes obtained on the screen will be

(A)  Points

(B)  Straight lines

(C)  Semi-circle

(D)  Concentric circles

Answer: (D)

69. When only carrier is transmitted, antenna current observed is 8A. When it is modulated with 500 Hz sine wave antenna current becomes 9.6 A. The modulation is

(A)  80%

(B)  20%

(C)  94.26%

(D)  83.76%

Answer: (C)

70. An ideal gas is kept in a closed vessel having capacity 0.0083 m3 at a temperature of 300k and a pressure of 1.6 × 106m2. The specific heat of an ideal gas at constant pressure is   If 2.49 × 104 J amount of heat energy is supplied to the gas, then final pressure of the gas will be

(A)  1.6 × 106 N.m2

(B)  2 × 106 N.m2

(C)  2.5 × 106 N.m2

(D)  3.6 × 106 N.m2

Answer: (C)

71. A composite slab made up of two different materials having thickness 2x and 8x, thermal conductivity 2k and 4k respectively and temperatures T2 and T1(T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, In a steady state is  f with f equals to

(A)  1

(B)  1/2

(C)  2/3

(D)  1/3

Answer: (D)

72. A neutron inelastically collide with a single inoised helium atom at rest with kinetic energy = 65 eV, making a scattering angle 90° with respect to the original direction. The allowed values of the energy of the neutron after the collision are

(A)  6.36 eV and 0.312 eV

(B)  17.84 eV and 16.32 eV

(C)  1.8 eV  and 15.8 eV

(D)  16.328 eV and 6.36 eV

Answer: (C)

73. A ray of light is incident on a surface of glass slab at an angle 45°. If the lateral shift Produced per unit thickness is 1/√3 m, the angle of refraction produced is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

74. During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

75. A girl uses a simple pendulum of 1 m length to calculate the acceleration due to gravity g. She uses a stop watch with the least count of 1 sec for this and records 60 sec for 30 oscillations. For this observation, which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A)  Percentage error in g is 2.5%

(B)  Percentage error in g is 3%

(C)  Percentage error in g is 3.3%

(D)  Percentage error in g is 2%

Answer: (C)

76. The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation  will be

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

77. The wavelength of the first spectral line of the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is 5461 A. The wavelength of the second spectral line in the Balmer series of singly ionsied helium atom is

(A)  1215 A

(B)  1640 A

(C)  2430 A

(D)  1011.3 A

Answer: (A)

78. In electromagnetic waves travelling in vacuum ⇒

(1)   The electric field is always perpendicular to the magnetic field 

(2)    always gives the direction in which the waves travel

(3)   The fields and vary sinusoidally

(4)   There is a phase difference between and is π/2 The correct statement(s) is (are)

(A)  1, 3

(B)  1, 3, 4

(C)  1, 2, 3, 4

(D)  1, 2, 3

Answer: (A)

79. A potentiometer wire of length 100 cm has a resistance of 10Ω. It is connected in series with a resistance and a cell of emf 2 V and of negligible internal resistance. A source of emf 10 mV is balanced against a length of 40 cm of the potentiometer wire. The value of the external resistance is

(A)  790Ω

(B)  890Ω

(C)  990Ω

(D)  1090Ω

Answer: (A)

80. A ray of light travelling in glass  is incident on a horizontal glass-air surface at the critical angle. If a thin layer of water  is poured on the glass-air surface. The angle at which the ray emerges into air at the water-air surface is

(A)  0

(B)  π/4

(C)  π/3

(D)  π/2

Answer: (D)

81. In the circuit below A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.

The circuit represents

(A)  NOR gate

(B)  AND gate

(C)  NAND gate

(D)  OR gate

Answer: D

82. In a common emitter configuration with suitable bias, it is given that RL is the load resistance and RBE is small signal dynamic resistance (input side). Then voltage gain, current gain and power gain are given respectively (β is current gain IB, IC, IE are respectively base, collector and emitter currents)

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

83. A particle of charge per unit mass α is released from origin with a velocity  in a magnetic field.  The x coordinate of the particle at time  would be

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

84. A particle of mass m is moving with a constant velocity along a line parallel to the positive direction of X-axis. The magnitude of its angular momentum with respect to the origin.

(A)  is zero

(B)  goes on increasing as x increases

(C)  goes on decreasing as x increases

(D)  remains constant for all positions of the particle

Answer: (D)

85. The angle of prism and refractive index of the material of the prism are A and  The angle of minimum deviation of the prism is

(A) 

(B)  π – A

(C) 

(D)  π – 2A

Answer: (D)

86. In a certain mass spectrometer, an ion beam passes through a velocity filter consisting of mutually perpendicular fields  The beam then enters a region of another magnetic field  perpendicular to the beam. The radius of curvature of the resulting ion beam is proportional to

(A)  Eʹ/B

(B)  EB/Bʹ

(C)  BBʹ/E

(D)  E/BBʹ

Answer: (B)

87. In Young’s double slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is k units. The intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ/3, is

(A)  k/2

(B)  k/3

(C)  k/4

(D)  2k/3

Answer: (C)

88. Figure shows a thin rectangular copper plate with the centra of mass at origin O and side AB = 2BC = 2m. If a quarter part of the plate (shown as shaded) is removed, the centre of mass of the remaining plate would lie at

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

89. Two solid spheres of the same metal but of mass M and 8M fall simultaneously in a viscous fluid. If their terminal velocities are υ and nυ, then the value of n will be

(A)  16

(B)  8

(C)  4

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

90. A small satellite is in elliptical orbit around the earth as shown in the figure. L denotes the magnitude of its angular momentum and K denotes its kinetic energy. If 1 and 2 denotes two positions of the satellite, then

(A)  L2 = L1, K2 = K

(B)  L2 = L1, K2 > K1

(C)  L2 > L1, K2 < K­1

(D)  L2 = L1, K2 < K1

Answer: (A)

91. The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation F = A cos Bx + C sin Dt. The dimensional formula of D/B is

(A)  [M0L0T0]

(B)  [M0L0T1]

(C)  [M0L1T0]

(D)  [M0L1T1]

Answer: (B)

92. Springs of spring constant K, 3K, 9K, 27K,…… ∞ are connected in series. Equivalent spring constant of the combination is

(A)  3K/2

(B)  K/2

(C)  2K/3

(D)  ∞

Answer: (C)

93. Different curves in the figure show the behaviour of gases.

(1) The curve I represents ideal gas behaviour.

(2) Curves II, III and IV also represent ideal gas behaviour at different temperatures T2, T3 and T4

(3) Curves II, III and IV represent behaviour of a real gas at different temperatures T2, T3 and T­4

The correct statements are

(A)  1, 2, 4

(B)  2, 3, 4

(C)  1, 3, 4

(D)  1, 2, 3

Answer: (B)

94. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are attached with a string as shown in the figure below. The body of mass m ranging from a string of length I is executing oscillation of angular amplitude θ while the other body is at rest. The minimum coefficient of friction between the mass 4m and the horizontal surface should be

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

95. A rocket is moving at a speed of 200 ms1 towards a stationary target. While moving it emits a wave of frequency 1000 Hz. Some of the sound reaching the target gets reflected back to the rocket as an echo. The frequency of the echo as detected by the rocket is (velocity of sound = 330 ms1)

(A)  1000 Hz

(B)  1580 Hz

(C)  2504 Hz

(D)  4080 Hz

Answer: (D)

96. A convex lens has a focal length f. It is cut into two parts along the dotted line as shown in the figure. The focal length of each part will be

(A)  f/2

(B)  f

(C)  3f/2

(D)  2f

Answer: (D)

97. A steady current is set up in a cubic network composed of wires of equal resistance and length d as shown in the figure. What is the magnetic field at the centre P due to the cubic network?

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  0

(D) 

Answer: (C)

98. An electron is placed on X-axis where the electric potential depends on x as shown in the figure (the potential does not depend on y and z). What is the electric force on the electron?

(A)  4.0 × 1018N

(B)  8.0 × 1018N

(C)  3.2 × 1016N

(D)  4.0 × 1016N

Answer: (A)

99. The potential field depends on x and y-coordinates as V = x2 – y2. Corresponding electric field lines in X-Y plane are as

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

100. In the circuit shown in the figure, the switch S is closed at time t = 0  The current through the capacitor and inductor will be equal at a time t equals to

(A)  RC

(B)  RC In 2

(C)  

(D)  LR

Answer: (B)

CHEMISTRY

101. The coefficients of I, IO3 and H+ in the redox reaction, I + IO3 + H+ → I2 + H2O in the balanced, from respectively are

(A)  5, 1, 6

(B)  1, 5, 6

(C)  6, 1, 5

(D)  5, 6, 1

Answer: (A)

102. The solubility of alkali metal hydroxide is

(A)  LiOH < KOH < NaOH < RbOH < CsOH

(B)  LiOH < NaOH < KOH < RbOH < CsOH

(C)  CsOH < RbOH < KOH < NaOH < LiOH

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

103. The main reason that SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed as compared to CCI4 is that

(A)  Si-Si bond is weaker

(B)  SiCl4 can form hydrogen bonds

(C)  SiCl4

(D)  Si can extend its coordination number beyond four

Answer: (B)

104. The total number of π – bond electrons in the following structure is

(A)  4

(B)  8

(C)  12

(D)  16

Answer: (A)

105. Acid catalysed hydxation of alkene is an example for

(A)  free radical substitution

(B)  nucleophilic substitution

(C)  nucleophilic addition

(D)  electropilic addition

Answer: (B)

106. Assertion (A) : CH4 does not react with Cl2 in dark. Reason (R) : Chlorination of CH­4 takes place in sunlight.

(A)  Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A.

(B)  Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.

(C)  A is correct but R is incorrect.

(D)  Both A and R are incorrect.

Answer: (A)

107. Copper crystallizes in FCC lattice with a unit cell edge of 361 pm. The radius of copper atom is

(A)  181 pm

(B)  108 pm

(C)  128 pm

(D)  157 pm

Answer: (C)

108. Which of the following has the highest value of energy gap?

(A)  Aluminium

(B)  Silver

(C)  Germanium

(D)  Diamond

Answer: (D)

109. The molarity of H2SO4 solution, which has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight is

(A)  1.84 M

(B)  18.4 M

(C)  20.6 M

(D)  24.5 M

Answer: (B)

110. If the elevation in boiling point of a solution of non-volatile, non-electrolytic and non-associating solute in a solvent (Kb = x K kg mol1) is yK, then the depression in freezing point of solution of same concentration would be (K­f of the solvent = z K kg mol1)

(A)  2xz/y

(B)  yz/x

(C)  xz/y

(D)  yz/2x

Answer: (B)

111. The equivalent conductance of an aqueous solution of 1.0283 × 103 g equivalent acetic acid per litre is 48.5 Ω1 cm2 equiv1 at 25°C and at infinite dilution value is 390.7Ω1 cm2 equive1. Calculate the degree of ionization and ionization constant of acetic acid.

(A)  0.1232, 1.78 × 105

(B)  0.223, 10.2 × 105

(C)  0.229, 1.78 × 105

(D)  0.531, 2.85 × 105

Answer: (D)

112. At 25°C, the molar conductance of 0.007 M hydrofluoric acid is 150 mho cm2 mol1 and its Λ°m = 500 mho cm2 mol1. The value of the dissociation constant of the acid at the given concentration at 25°C is

(A)  7 × 105

(B)  7 × 105

(C)  9 × 103

(D)  9 × 104

Answer: (A)

113. In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge

(A)  does not participate chemically in the cell reaction

(B)  Stops the diffusion of ions from one electrode to another

(C)  is necessary for the occurrence of the cell reaction

(D)  ensures mixing of the two electrolytic solutions

Answer: (B)

114. 1 M solution each of Cu (NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2 (NO3)2 and Mg(NO3)2 is electrolysed using Pt-electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts are Ag+/Ag = +0.80 V, Cu2+/Cu = +0.34V, Hg22+/Hg = +0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = −37 V. The sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be

(A)  Mg > Ag > Cu

(B)  Mg > Cu > Ag

(C)  Ag > Hg > Cu

(D)  Cu > Hg > Ag

Answer: (B)

115. In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in the presence of large excess of water, RCI + H2O → ROH + HCI

(A)  Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2

(B)  Molecularity is 2 but order of reaction is 1

(C)  Molecularity is 1 but or reaction is 2

(D)Molecularity is 1 and order of reaction is also 1

Answer: (B)

116. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2A + B → C + D the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.

The rate law for the formation of C is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

117. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm3 of a substance becomes half in 40 seconds and 20 seconds through 1st order and zero order kinetics, respectively, ratio(k1/k0) of the rate constants for first order (k1) and zero order (k0) of the reaction is

(A)  0.5 mol dm3

(B)  1.0 mol dm3

(C)  1.5 mol dm3

(D)  2.0 mol dm3

Answer: (A)

118. Which one of the followings is an example of homogenous catalysis?

(A)  Manufacture of ammonia by Haber’s process.

(B)  Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process.

(C)  Hydrogenation of oil

(D)  Hydrolysis of sucrose in presence of dilute hydrochloric acid

Answer: (C)

119. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is called

(A)  roasting

(B)  smelting

(C)  dressing

(D)  calcination

Answer: (D)

120. Carbon reduction is NOT used to obtain Cr and Mn because

(A)  Process is not thermodynamically feasible

(B)  Process is not economically feasible

(C)  Interstitial compounds are formed by Cr and Mn with carbon at high temperature

(D)  Cr and Mr are high melting metals

Answer: (C)

121. A radioactive atom  emits two α-particles and one β-particle successively. The number of neutrons in the nucleus of the product will be

(A)  x – 4 – y

(B)  x – y – 5

(C)  x – y – 3

(D)  x – y – 6

Answer: (C)

122. Which among the following group 16 elements exists in more than two allotropic states?

(A)  Polonium

(B)  Tellurium

(C)  Selenium

(D)  Oxygen

Answer: (B)

123. Which of the following statements is NOT true for hydrolysis of XeF6?

(A)  XeOF6 is formed.

(B)  XeO2F2 is formed.

(C)  It is a redox reaction.

(D)  XeO3 is formed

Answer: (C)

124. What are constituents of ‘Mischmetal’?

(A)  La, Fe

(B)  La, Ce

(C)  Fe, Ce

(D)  Ce, Cu

Answer: (B)

125. Which of the ions is colourless inspite of the presence of unpaired electrons?

(A)  La3+

(B)  Eu3+

(C)  Gd3+

(D)  Lu3+

Answer: (A)

126. Among the following complexes, the one which shows zero crystal field stabilization energy (CFSE) is

(A)  [Mn(H2O)6]3+

(B)  [Fe(H2O)6]3+

(C)  [Co(H2O)6]2+

(D)  [Co(H2O)6]3+

Answer: (B)

127. The ligand N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is

(A)  tridentate

(B)  pentadentate

(C)  tetradentate

(D)  hexadentate

Answer: (A)

128. In the following reaction  The product ‘P’ is

(A)  RCHO

(B)  R2CHOEt

(C)  R3CH

(D)  RCH(OEt)2

Answer: (A)

129. When alkyl halide is heated with dry Ag2O, it produces

(A)  ester

(B)  ether

(C)  ketone

(D)  alcohol

Answer: (B)

130. Iodoform can be prepared from all EXCEPT

(A)  ethyl methyl ketone

(B)  isopropyl alcohol

(C)  3-methyl – 2 – butanone

(D)  isobutyl alcohol

Answer: (D)

131. A compound containing two-OH groups attached with one carbon atom is unstable but which one of the followings is stable?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  None of these

Answer: (D)

132. When glycerol is heated with KHSO4 it gives

(A)  CH2 = CH – CH3

(B)  CH2 = CH – CH2OH

(C)  CH2 = CH – CHO

(D)  CH2 = C = CH2

Answer: (C)

133. What are X and Y in the following reaction sequence, 

(A)  C2H5Cl, CH3CHO

(B)  CH3CHO, CH3COOH

(C)  CH3CHO, CCl3CHO

(D)  C2H5Cl, CCl3CHO

Answer: (C)

134. Two aromatic compounds having formula C7H8O which easily identifiable by FeCl3 solution test (violet coloration) are

(A)  o – cresol and benzyl alcohol

(B)  m – cresol and p – cresol

(C)  o – cresol and p – cresol

(D)  methyl phenyl ether and benzyl alcohol

Answer: (C)

135. Positive Tollen’s test is NOT observed for

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

136. An organic compound A upon reaction with NH3 gives B. On heating, B gives C. C in presence of KOH reacts with Br2 to give CH3CH2NH2. A is

(A)  (CH3)2 CH – COOH

(B)  CH3CH2COOH

(C)  CH3COOH

(D)  CH3CH2CH2COOH

Answer: (B)

137. The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is

(A)  4

(B)  5

(C)  2

(D)  3

Answer: (A)

138. In the Hoffmann bromide degradation reaction, the number of moles of NaOH and Br2 used per mole of amine produced are

(A)  for moles of NaOH and two moles of Br­2

(B)  two moles of NaOH and two moles of Br2

(C)  four moles of NaOH one mole of Br2

(D)  one mole of NaOH and one mole of Br2

Answer: (D)

139. Dissolving 120g of urea (mol. wt. = 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is

(A)  1.78 M

(B)  2.00 M

(C)  2.05 M

(D)  2.22 M

Answer: (C)

140. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon combustion, 0.72g of water and 3.08 g of CO2. The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is

(A)  C2H4

(B)  C3H4

(C)  C­6H5

(D)  C7H8

Answer: (D)

141. In the ground state of Cu+, the number of shells occupied, subshells occupied, filled orbitals and unpaired electrons respectively are

(A)  4,8,15,0

(B)  3,6,15,1

(C)  3,6,14,0

(D)  4,7,14,2

Answer: (C)

142. The energy absorbed each molecule (A2) of a substance is 4.4 × 1019 J and bond energy per molecule is 4.0 × 1019 The kinetic energy of the molecule per atom will be

(A)  2.0 × 1020 J

(B)  2.2 × 1019 J

(C)  2.0 × 1019 J

(D)  4.0 × 1019 J

Answer: (A)

143. Which one of the following orders represents the correct sequence of the increasing basic nature of the given oxides?

(A)  Al2O < MgO < Na2O > K2O

(B)  MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O

(C)  Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3

(D)  K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO

Answer: (A)

144. Among the followings, the number of elements showing only one non-zero oxidation state is O, Cl, F, N, P Sn, Tl, Na, Ti-

(A)  1

(B)  2

(C)  3

(D)  4

Answer: (A)

145. The root mean square speed of the molecules of diatomic gas is u. When the temperature is doubled, the molecules dissociate into two atoms. The new rms speed of the atom is

(A)  √2U

(B)  U

(C)  2U

(D)  4U

Answer: (C)

146. Standard enthalpy of Vaporization ∆vspH° for water at 100°C is 40.66 kJ mol1. The internal energy of vaporization of water at 100°C (in kJ mol1) is (assume waster vapour to behave like an ideal gas)

(A)  +37.56

(B)  −43.76

(C)  +43.76

(D)  +40.66

Answer: (A)

147. For a reaction, ∆H = +29 kJ mol1, ∆S = −35 kJ mol1. At what temperature the reaction will be spontaneous?

(A)  828.7°C

(B)  828.7K

(C)  Spontaneous at all temperature

(D)  Not possible

Answer: (D)

148. For the gas phase reaction,

C2H4 + H2 + C2H6; (∆H = −32.7 Kcal) carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2H4 can be increased by

(A)  decreasing the pressure

(B)  increasing the temperature

(C)  removing some C2H6

(D)  adding some H2

Answer: (A)

149. In which of the following equilibrium systems, is the rate of the backward reaction favoured by increase of pressure?

(A)  PCl5 + PCl + Cl2

(B)  2SO2 + O2 + 2SO3

(C)  N2 + 3H2 + 2NH3

(D)  N2 + O2 + 2NO

Answer: (A)

150. At 25°C, the dissociation constants of CH3COOH and NH4OH in aqueous solution are almost the same, i.e., 105. If pH of some acetic acid solution is 3, the pH of NH4OH solution of same concentration at the same temperature would be

(A)  3.0

(B)  4.0

(C)  10.0

(D)  11.0

Answer: (A)

MATHEMATICS

151. 5th term from the end in the expansion of  is

(A)  25x2

(B)  −70

(C)  70

(D)  −25x2

Answer: (D)

152. If the co-efficients of x7 and x8 in  are equal, then value of n is

(A)  56

(B)  55

(C)  47

(D)  19

Answer: (B)

153. If a is a real number and if the middle term of  is 1120, then value of a is

(A)  ±2

(B)  ±1

(C)  ±√3

(D)  ±√2

Answer: (A)

154. Suppose a1, a2……are in A.P. if a­8 : a5 = 3 : 2 then a17 : a23 is

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  3 : 4

(C)  4 : 11

(D)  8 : 11

Answer: (C)

155. Suppose a, b, c > 0 and p ∈ If(a2 + b2)p2 – 2 (ab + bc)p + (b2 + c2) = 0 then a, b, c are in

(A)  A.P

(B)  G.P

(C)  H.P

(D)  A.G.P

Answer: (C)

156. Three positive numbers form an increasing G.P. If the middle term in this G.P. is tripled, the new numbers are in A.P. Then the common ratio of G.P. is

(A)  3 + 2√2

(B)  2√2 – √3

(C)  2 + 2√3

(D)  2√2 + √3

Answer: (C)

157. 

(A)  1/6

(B)  −1/12

(C)  2/3

(D)  1/3

Answer: (A)

158. If  then the value of a is

(A)  −7

(B)  −1

(C)  7

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

159. The value of  Where α and β are the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 is

(A)  (a – b)2

(B) 

(C)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

160. If x = k(t – sin t), y = k(1 – cos t) (k ≠ 0) the  is equal to

(A)  −1/k

(B)  1/2k

(C)  1/k2

(D)  2k

Answer: (C)

161. If  and  then  is equal to

(A)  1/x3

(B)  2/x3

(C)  2√2/x3

(D)  2√2/x4

Answer: (D)

162. If function f(x) is differentiable at x = a then  is

(A)  −a2fʹ(a)

(B)  af(a) – a2fʹ(a)

(C)  2af(a) – a2fʹ(a)

(D)  2af(a) + a2fʹ(a)

Answer: (B)

163. If y = cosec (cot1 x) then dy/dx at x = 1 is equal to

(A)  1/√2

(B)  1

(C)  −√2

(D)  −1/√2

Answer: (D)

164. If  then its antiderivative F(x) is given

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

165. If  then f(x) is equal to

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

166. Let  and F(x) is this antiderivative, if F(π/4) = 6 then F(x) is equal to

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

167. The integral  is equal to

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

168. The value of  is

(A)  0

(B)  1

(C)  π/4

(D)  π/2

Answer: (C)

169. The solution of the equation  is given by

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

170. A particular solution of  is given by

(A)  5e4x + 4e5y = 9

(B)  5e4x + 4e5y = 9

(C)  4e4x + 5e4x = 20

(D)  4e4x + 5e4e = 9

Answer: (A)

171. The order and degree of the different equation  are (respectively)

(A)  2, 1

(B)  2, 3

(C)  2, 2

(D)  2, 6

Answer: (B)

172. If the lines 3x – y + 1 = 0 and x – 2y + 3 = 0 are equally inclined to the line y = mx, then the value of m is given by

(A)  2m2 – 7 – 7 = 0

(B)  7m2 – 7m – 2 = 0

(C)  7m2 – 7m – 2 = 0

(D)  2m2 – 7m – 2 = 0

Answer: (C)

173. A ray of light passing through the point (3, 7) reflects of the X-axis at a point A and the reflected ray passes through the point (2, 5), the coordinates of A are

(A)  (29/12, 0)

(B)  (1/2, 0)

(C)  (−1/2, 0)

(D)  (−29/12, 0)

Answer: (A)

174. If p is the length of the perpendicular from the origin on the line  and a2, p2, b2 are in A.P., then a4 – 2p2a2 + 2p4 = ?

(A)  −1

(B)  0

(C)  1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (C)

175. The locus of the point P(h, K), when the area of the triangle formed by the lines y = x, x + y = 2 and the line through P(h, k) and parallel to the X-axis is 4h2 is

(A)  x + 2y – 1 = 0

(B)  2x + y – 1 = 0

(C)  2x – y – 1 = 0

(D)  x – 2y + 1 = 0

Answer: (B)

176. If a circle passes through the point (3, 4) and cuts the circle x2 + y2 = a2 orthogonally, the equation of the locus of its centre is

(A)  3x + 4y – a2 = 0

(B)  6x + 8y = a2 + 25

(C)  6x + 8y + a2 + 25 = 0

(D)  3x + 4y = a2 + 25

Answer: (B)

177. If α, β are accentric angles of the extremities of a focal chord of the ellipse  then tan (α/2) tan(β/2) = ?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

178. The ratio in which the plane 2x – 1 = 0 divides the line joining (−2, 4, 7) and (3, −5, 8) is

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  4 : 5

(C)  7 : 8

(D)  1 : 1

Answer: (B)

179. Cosine of the angle between the lines whose vector equation are r = 3i + 2j – 4k + λ(i + 2j + 2k) and r = 5i – 2k + μ(3i + 2j + 6k) : λ, μ being parameters, is

(A)  −1/3√29

(B)  3/7√29

(C)  23/29

(D)  19/21

Answer: (B)

180. If a, b, c are non-coplanar unit vectors such that a  then the angle between a and b is

(A)  3π/4

(B)  π/4

(C)  π/2

(D)  π

Answer: (A)

181. The variance of first 20-natural number is

(A)  133/4

(B)  379/12

(C)  133/2

(D)  399/4

Answer: (A)

182. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variance are given to be 4 and 5, the corresponding means are given to be 2 and 4 respectively. The variance of the combined data set is

(A)  6

(B)  13/2

(C)  5/2

(D)  11/2

Answer: (D)

183. If 15 boys of different ages are distributed into 3 groups of 4, 5 and 6 boys randomly then the probability that three youngest boys are in different groups is

(A)  24/91

(B)  71/91

(C)  67/91

(D)  20/91

Answer: (A)

184. Let  is equal to

(A)  2 + √3

(B)  2 – √3

(C)  √3 + 1

(D)  √3 – 1

Answer: (B)

185. If  then  is equal to

(A) 

(B) 

(C)  1/k2

(D)  a/k

Answer: (C)

186. The value of  is equal to

(A)  3/4

(B)  5/4

(C)  5/2

(D)  4/5

Answer: (B)

187. if tan θ is equal to

(A)  −2

(B)  −1

(C)  2/3

(D)  2

Answer: (C)

188. Two flagstaffs stand on a horizontal plane. A and B are two points on the lie joining their feet and between them The angles of elevation of the tops of the flag staffs as seen from A are 30° and 60° and as seen from B are 60° and 45°. If AB is 30 m, the distance between the flagstaffs in meters is

(A)  30 + 15√3

(B)  45 + 15√3

(C)  60 – 15√3

(D)  60 + 15√3

Answer: (D)

189. The domain of  is

(A)  [−3/2, 5/2]

(B)  [−1, 1]

(C)  [0, 2]

(D)  [−1/2, 3/2]

Answer: (C)

190. Which of the following functions is an odd function?

(A)  y = x4 – 2x2

(B)  y = x – x2

(C)  y = cos x

(D) 

Answer: (A)

191. If ω(≠1) is a cube root of unity and (1 + ω2)11 = a + bω + cω2, then (a, b, c) equals

(A)  (1, 1, 0)

(B)  (0, 1, 1)

(C)  (1, 0, 1)

(D)  (1, 1, 1)

Answer: (C)

192. If  then

(A)  Re(z) = 0

(B)  1m(z) = 0

(C)  Re(z) > 0, 1m(z) < 0

(D)  Re(z) < 0, 1m (z) > 0

Answer: (C)

193. If  then |z| CANNOT exceed

(A)  3

(B)  8

(C)  16

(D)  18

Answer: (A)

194. Value of 

(A)  3

(B)  2

(C)  1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

195. Let x, y, z be positive and x, y, z ≠ 1, Let  then numerical value of ∆ is

(A)  −1

(B)  0

(C)  1

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

196. If  the matrix A equals

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

197. If  then A2 – 5A – 1 equals

(A)  0

(B)  I

(C)  2 I

(D)  None of these

Answer: (A)

198. The value of  is

(A)  1

(B)  36C17

(C)  2/19

(D)  36C18

Answer: (D)

199. If nCr : nCr+1 :nCr+2 = 1 : 2 : 3, then r is equal to

(A)  5

(B)  4

(C)  3

(D)  0

Answer: (B)

200. The value of  is

(A)  56C3

(B)  56C4

(C)  55C4

(D)  56C3

Answer: (B)

BIOLOGY

151. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation by radia labelled

(A)  Uracil

(B)  Adenine

(C)  Thymidine

(D)  Deoxyribose sugar

Answer: (C)

152. The enzyme reverse transcriptase is

(A)  RNA dependent RNA polymerase

(B)  RNA dependent DNA polymerase

(C)  DNA dependent DNA polymerase

(D)  DNA dependent RNA polymerase

Answer: (B)

153. Which of the following hydrolyeses internal phosphiodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?

(A)  Lipase

(B)  Ligase

(C)  Exonuclease

(D)  Endonuclease

Answer: (D)

154. Find the sequence of binding of the following amine acyl t-RNA complexes during translation to a m-RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base sequence ‘3TACATGGGTCCG5’. Choose the answer showing the correct order of numerals.

(i) AUG (ii) UAC (iii) CCG (iv) GGU

(A)  (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(B)  (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)

(C)  (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

(D)  (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Answer: (A)

155. How many types of gametes will be produced in the following allelic sequences Aa BB CC Dd Ee?

(A)  64

(B)  32

(C)  8

(D)  16

Answer: (D)

156. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of the gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor?

(A)  Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen.

(B)  Gastric juice will be deficient in chymsin.

(C)  In the absence of HCI secretion inactive pepsinogen is not converted into pepsin.

(D)  Enterokinase will not be released.

Answer: (C)

157. What is TRUE about haemoglobin?

(A)  It is a dipeptide and present in red blood corpuscles in blood worm.

(B)  It is present in the dissolved state in blood plasma in earth worm.

(C)  It is a dipeptide in mammals and localized in RBC.

(D)  It is present in dissolved state in blood plasma in Scorpion

Answer: (C)

158. In which of the following organs will the rate of blood flow change the least during exercise?

(A)  Heart

(B)  Intestine

(C)  Brain

(D)  Skin

Answer: (A)

159. Find the INCORRECT statement regarding mechanism of urine formation in man.

(A)  Tubular secretion takes place in the PCT.

(B)  Aldosterone induces greater reabsorption of sodium

(C)  The counter current systems contribute in diluting the urine.

(D)  The ultra filtration is opposed by the colloidal osmotic pressure of plasma.

Answer: (C)

160. Identify the TRUE statement in the following.

(A)  Each nucelosome consists of a core of five types of nine histone molecules.

(B)  Oxidation of fatty acids and synthesis of phosopholipids occur in peroxisomes.

(C)  Telocentric chromosome contains two unequal arms.

(D)  Smaller subunit of ribosome contains the enzyme peptidyl transferase.

Answer: (C)

161. Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell well is made of

(A)  unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked b y β-1, 4-glycoside bond

(B)  branched chain of glucose molecules linked by α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

(C)  unbranched chain of glucose molecules lined by α-1, 4-glycosidic bond

(D)  branched chain of glucose molecules linked by β-1, 4-glycosidic bond in straight chain & α-1, 6-glycosidic bond at the site of branching

Answer: (A)

162. Colchicine prevents the mitosis of cells at which of the following stages?

(A)  Anaphase

(B)  Metaphase

(C)  Prophase

(D)  Interphase

Answer: (B)

163. Which one of the following is NOT associated with ascent of sap in tall trees?

(A)  Cohesion and adhesion of water molecules

(B)  Continuity of water column

(C)  Pressure in tracheary elements

(D)  Transpiraationpull

Answer: (C)

164. Stomatal opening is affected by

(A)  nitrogen, carbon-dioxide concentration and light

(B)  carbon-dioxide concentration, temperature and light

(C)  nitrogen concentration, temperature and light

(D)  nitrogen, carbon-dioxide concentration and temperature

Answer: (B)

165. C4 plants have higher net photosynthetic rate because

(A)  they have no photorespiration

(B)  they can photosynthesize in low light intensity

(C)  they have PEP as CO2 acceptor

(D)  they have Kranz type of antomy

Answer: (C)

166. Which statement is WRONG for Kreb’s Cycles?

(A)  There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2.

(B)  During conversion of succinyl CO-A to succinic acid a molecule of GTP is synthesized.

(C)  The cycle starts with condensation of acertyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid.

(D)  There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+H+.

Answer: (C)

167. Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine.

Disease                           Vaccine

(a) Tuberculosis              (i) Harmless virus

(b) Whooping cought     (ii) Killed bacteria

(c) Diphteria                   (iii) G-phase

(d) Polio                         (iv) Harmless bacteria

(A)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(B)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(C)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(D)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (B)

168. Myelin sheath is produced by

(A)  astorcytes and schawann cells

(B)  Oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts

(C)  osteoclasts and astrocytes

(D)  schewann cells and oligodendrocyts

Answer: (D)

169. Column-I is the part of human brain & Column –II is its function. Match the two columns.

Column-I                       Column-II

(a) Cerebrum                  (p) Controls the pituitary

(b) Cerebelum                (q) Controls vision and hearing

(c) Hypothalamus           (r) Controls the rate of hearing

(d) Midbrain                    (s) Site of intelligence

                                       (t) Maintains body posture

(A)  (a)-(s), (b)-(t), (c)-(p), (d)-(q)

(B)  (a)-(t), (b)-(s), (c)-(q), (d)-(p)

(C)  (a)-(s), (b)-(t), (c)-(q), (d)-(p)

(D)  (a)-(t), (b)-(s), (c)-(p), (d)-(r)

Answer: (A)

170. Select the correct matched pair.

(A)  Pineal gland-does not influence menstrual cycle

(B)  Corpus luteum-secrets oxytocin

(C)  Interstitial cells-erythropoietin

(D)  Cholecystokinin-stimulates contraction of gall bladder

Answer: (D)

171. How many ova and sperms will be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary spermatocytes during gametogenesis in man?

(A)  50 ova, 100 sperms

(B)  100 ova, 100 sperms

(C)  200 ova, 200 sperms

(D)  100 ova, 200 sperms

Answer: (D)

172. ‘Shaeli’ a new oral contraceptive for the female developed by Indian scientist a

(A)  steroidal preparation

(B)  hormonal preparation

(C)  non-sterodial preparation

(D)  toxic preparation to kill sperms

Answer: (C)

173. Which of these is correct hierarchial order?

(A)  Division-Order-Family-Class

(B)  Class-Family-Order-Division

(C)  Family-Order-Class-Division

(D)  Order-Class-Family-Division

Answer: (D)

174. Teichoic acid is present in the cell wall of

(A)  Gram +ve bacteria

(B)  Gram – ve bacteria

(C)  Cyanobacteria

(D)  Mycoplasma

Answer: (A)

175. A person suffering from a disease caused by plasmodium experiences recurring chill and fever at the time when

(A)  the sporozoites released from RBCs are being rapidly killed and broken down inside spleen.

(B)  the trophozoites reach maximum growth and give out certain toxins

(C)  the parasite after its rapid multiplication inside RBCs ruptures them, releasing the stage to enter fresh RBCs

(D)  the microgametocytes and megagametocytes are being destroyed by the WBCs

Answer: (C)

176. Edible part of Mushroom is

(A)  Mycelium

(B)  Basidiocarp

(C)  Basidiospores

(D)  Fungal hyphae

Answer: (C)

177. Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic features of Bryophytes?

(A)  Dominant gametophytic generation

(B)  Flamentous rhizoids

(C)  Amphibious habitat

(D)  Vascular tissues

Answer: (D)

178. Coal is formed by

(A)  Pteridophytes

(B)  Bryophytes

(C)  Fungi

(D)  Algae

Answer: (A)

179. Find out the WRONGLY matched pair.

(A)  Tuber  –  Potato

(B)  Rhizome  –  Ginger

(C)  Bulbil  –  Agave

(D)  Leaf buds – Banana

Answer: (D)

180. Starch is mainly manufactured by

(A)  Palisade parenchyma

(B)  Spongy parenchyma

(C)  Guard cells

(D)  Vascular bundle

Answer: (A)

181. In most simple type of canal system of porifera water flows through which one of the following ways?

(A)  Spongocuel Ostia Osculum Exterior

(B)  Ostia Spongocoel Osculum Exterior

(C)  Osculum Spongocoel Ostia Exterior

(D)  Osculum Ostia Spongocoel Exterior

Answer: (B)

182. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(A)  Ascaris – Flame cell

(B)  Prawn – Haemocoel

(C)  Sycon – Canal system

(D)  Star fish – Radial symmetry

Answer: (C)

183. The correct sequence of arrangement of segments in the leg of cockroach is

(A)  Coxa, Femur, Trochanter, Tibia, Tarsus

(B)  Coxa, Trochanter, Femusr, Tibia, Tarsus

(C)  Trochanter, Coxa, Tibia, Femur, Tarsus

(D)  Trochanter, Coxa, Femur, Tibia, Tarsus

Answer: (B)

184. All mammals without any exception are characterized by

(A)  viviparity and biconcave RBC

(B)  heterodont teeth & 12 pairs of cranial nerves

(C)  a muscular diaphragm and milk producing glands

(D)  extra abdominal testes and a four chambered heart

Answer: (D)

185. Which is the principal cation in the plasma of blood?

(A)  Calcium

(B)  Sodium

(C)  Potassium

(D)  Magnesium

Answer: (B)

186. Microfilaments are composed mainly of a protein called

(A)  Actin

(B)  Myosin

(C)  Tubulin

(D)  Chitin

Answer: (A)

187. Match the following & choose the correct combination from the option given below.

Column-I                       Column-II

(a) Sulphur                     (1) Chlorophy II

(b) Zinc                          (2) Nitrogen

(c) Magnesium               (3) Methionine

(d) Molybdenum             (4) Auxin

(A)  (a) – (1), (b) – (2), (c) – (3), (d) – (4)

(B)  (a) – (3), (b) – (4), (c) – (1), (d) – (2)

(C)  (a) – (3), (b) – (1), (c) – (2), (d) – (4)

(D)  (a) – (2), (b) – (4), (c) – (1), (d) – (3)

Answer: (D)

188. Miller synthesized simple amino acids from one of the following mixtures in an experiment.

(A)  H2, O2, N2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

(B)  H2, O2, N2 (2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(C)  CH4, NH3, H2(2 : 1 : 2) and water vapour

(D)  CH4, NH3, H2 (1 : 2 : 1) and water vapour

Answer: (C)

189. ‘Muscular dystrophy’ is caused by eating Lathyrus sativus. This is due to presence of

(A)  Allyl sulphide

(B)  Trans cinnamic acid

(C)  β-oxalyl amino alanine

(D)  Cucuribitacin

Answer: (C)

190. Photochemical smog is caused by light mediated reaction between

(A)  NO2 and O3

(B)  NO2 and unsaturated hydrocarbon

(C)  SO3 and O3

(D)  SO3 and unsaturated hydrocarbon

Answer: (B)

191. As it travels along the food-chain the concentration of DDT

(A)  increases

(B)  decreases

(C)  stays constant

(D)  Fluctuates randomly

Answer: (A)

192. Match the following:

I-Helophytes, II-Psammophytes, III-Oxylophytes, IV-Chasmophytes

A-Saline soil, B-Sandy soil, C-Rock crevices, D-Acidic soil

(A)  I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C

(B)  I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-C

(C)  I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

(D)  I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Answer: (A)

193. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have seen developed by the introducing of DNA that produced (in host cells)

(A)  both sense and antisense RNA

(B)  a particular hormone

(C)  an antifeedant

(D)  a toxin protein

Answer: (A)

194. Consider the following four statements (1-4) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only.

(1) Single cell spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc.

(2) Body weight-wise the micro-organism Methylophilus methylotrophys may be able to produce several times more protein than the other organism.

(3) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium.

(4) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C.

(A)  Statements (1) and (2)

(B)  Statements (3) and (4)

(C)  Statements (1), (3) and (4)

(D)  Statements (2), (3) and (4)

Answer: (A)

195. A recombinant DNA molecule can be produced in the absence of the following.

(A)  Restriction endonuclease

(B)  DNA ligase

(C)  DNA fragments

(D)  E. Coli

Answer: (B)

196. A technology which has found immense use in solving cases of disputed parentage, is

(A)  Polymerase chain reaction

(B)  DNA finger printing

(C)  Monoclonal antibody production

(D)  Recombinant DNA technology

Answer: (A)

197. Antibiotics inhibit the growth of or destroy

(A)  bacteria & fungi

(B)  bacteria & viruses

(C)  bacteria, algae & viruses

(D)  bacteria, fungi & viruses

Answer: (B)

198. Uncontrolled plant introduction is responsible for introduction of which weed in India?

(A)  Agremone mexicana

(B)  Lantana camara

(C)  Eichhornia crassipes

(D)  All of these

Answer: (B)

199. Porous wood is generally of

(A)  Angiosperms

(B)  Gymnosperms

(C)  Both (A) and (B)

(D)  None of these

Answer: (B)

200. Non-alcoholic beverage contains stimulating property due to the presence of

(A)  Caffeine

(B)  Atropine

(C)  Nimbin

(D)  Thymol

Answer: (A)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2018 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year-2018

MENTAL APTITUDE

Directions for questions 1 – 10 :

 In the problem Figures, the first two figures bear a definite relationship with each other, and the third figure bears the same relation with one of the four figures given as Answer Figures, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Indicate the correct answer.

Questions:

1. 

 

Answer: (C)

2. 

Answer: (C)

3. 

Answer: (A)

4. 

Answer: (B)

5. 

Answer: (D)

6. 

Answer: (B)

7. 

Answer: (B)

8. 

Answer: (C)

9. 

Answer: (D)

10. 

Answer: (D)

11. If + means ÷, × means −, ÷ means × and – means +, then 8 + 6 × 4 ÷ 3 – 4 = ?

(A) −12

(B) −20/3

(C) 12

(D) 20/3

Answer: (B)

Direction for questions 12 – 14 :

  In each of the following questions, four groups of letters are given; three of them are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the ODD one.

Questions:

12.

(A) FIL

(B) RUX

(C) ILO

(D) LOQ

Answer: (B)

13.

(A) AZBY

(B) PTQS

(C) CWDW

(D) PTQS

Answer: (D)

14.

(A) NEXFL

(B) LANCP

(C) FRGSP

(D) ZGPKU

Answer: (D)

15. In a row of 60, A is standing at 10th from the right end, how many places should A move left ward to become 23rd from the left end?

(A) 25

(B) 26

(C) 27

(D) 28

Answer: (C)

Directions for questions 16 – 19 :

Each question is followed by two statements (A) and (B)

Indicate

(1) If statement (A) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (B) alone is not sufficient.

(2) If statement (B) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (A) alone is not sufficient.

(3) If BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

(4) If statements (A) and (B) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

Questions:

16. If  is x < 0 ?

(A) x < y

(B) z < 0

Answer: (A)

17. If p is the perimeter of rectangle Q, what is the value of p?

(A) Each diagonal of rectangle Q has length 10.

(B) The area of rectangle Q is 48.

Answer: (B)

18. In a school, 300 students study Hindi or Urdu or both. If 100 of these students do not study Hindi, how many of these students study both Hindi and Urdu?

(A) Of the 300 students, 200 study Hindi or both languages.

(B) A total of 240 of the students study Urdu.

Answer: (A)

19. If m is an integar, is m odd?

(A) m/2 is NOT an even integer.

(B) m – 3 is an even integer.

Answer: (B)

20. Pointing to a photograph, a woman says, “This man’s son’s sister is my mother-in-law”. How is the woman’s husband related to the man in the photograph?

(A) Grandson

(B) Son

(C) Son-in-law

(D) Nephew

Answer: (A)

Direction for questions 21 – 24 :

  In each of the following questions, a pair of words is given. You are to study the relation existing between them and then find out from the given alternatives, the pair of words that bears the same relation between them and indicate that on the answer sheet.

Questions :

21. Fatigue : Resting

(A) Overweight : Dieting

(B) Ward : Comfortable

(C) Sporadic : Infrequent

(D) Elevated : Exalted

Answer: (A)

22. Triangle : Quadrilateral

(A) Cube : Trifold

(B) Square : Rectangle

(C) Trident : Trapezium

(D) Pentagon : Hexagon

Answer: (D)

23. Numismatist : Coins

(A) Philatelist : Stamps

(B) Jeweller : Jewels

(C) Cartographer : Maps

(D) Geneticist : Chromosomes

Answer: (D)

24. Textile : Mill

(A) Eggs : Hen

(B) Coal : Mine

(C) Food : Agriculture

(D) Brick : Kiln

Answer: (C)

25. Rahim moves 20 metres in East direction and then turns to his left and then moves 15 metres and then he turns to his right and moves 25 metres. After this he turns to his right and moves 15 metres. Now how far is he from his starting point?

(A) 0 metre

(B) 40 metres

(C) 45 metres

(D) 50 metres

Answer: (C)

Directions for questions 26 – 28:

  The numbers in each series proceed according to a certain rule. Your task is to find out the rule according to which the numbers are arranged and find out the number which can fill in the LAST blank with the ‘?’ mark from among the suggested answers.

Questions :

26. 301 291   282  274   ?

(A) 265

(B) 268

(C) 270

(D) 267

Answer: (D)

27. 3 2  9  4  81  16  6561  ?

(A) 64

(B) 243

(C) 256

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

28. 4 6  10  18  34  66  ?

(A) 100

(B) 130

(C) 88

(D) 99

Answer: (B)

29. If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Friday, then which will be the last day of that year?

(A) Monday

(B) Friday

(C) Saturday

(D) Sunday

Answer: (C)

Direction for questions 30 – 39:

    In each of the following questions there are figures. Three of them are similar in some respect while one is different. Select the figure which is DIFFERENT.

Questions :

30. 

Answer: (C)

31. 

Answer: (C)

32. 

Answer: (C)

33. 

Answer: (C)

34. 

Answer: (D)

35. 

Answer: (A)

36. 

Answer: (A)

37. 

Answer: (C)

38. 

Answer: (A)

39. 

Answer: (D)

40. If ‘man’ is called ‘girl’, ‘girl’ is called ‘boy’, ‘boy’ is called ‘lady’, ‘lady’ is called ‘butler’ and ‘butler’ is called ‘player’, who will serve in restaurant?

(A) Player

(B) Butler

(C) Boy

(D) Lady

Answer: (A)

Direction for questions 41 – 43 :

  All the 30 students of a class took a test on Mathematics and a test on English. The following table shows the result :

Two students failed both in Mathematics and English.

41. How many students failed in only one subject?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

42. How many students passed in at least one subject?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

43. How many students passed in both the subjects?

(A) 28

(B) 25

(C) 22

(D) 19

Answer: (D)

44. If in a certain language, TIGER is coded as RIGET, how is ‘CROWN’ coded in that code ?

(A) NROWC

(B) NOWRC

(C) RRWCO

(D) NOWCR

Answer: (A)

Directions for questions 45 – 49 :

Read the following information to answer the given questions.

(i) There is a group of five persons A, B, C, D and E.

(ii) One of them is a horticulturist, one is a physicist, one is a journalist, one is a industrialist and one is an advocate.

(iii) Three of them – A, C and advocate prefer tea to coffee and two of them – B and the journalist prefer coffee to tea.

(iv) The industrialist and D and A are friend of one another but two of these prefer coffee to tea.

Questions :

45. Who is a horticulturist ?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (D)

46. Who is an industrialist?

(A) E

(B) C

(C) B

(D) D

Answer: (B)

47. Which of the following groups includes a person who likes tea but is not an advocate?

(A) ACE

(B) DE

(C) BD

(D) BCD

Answer: (A)

48. Who is physicist?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) D

(D) E

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the statements above is superfluous in order to answer the above questions ?

(A) Nil

(B) (iii)

(C) (ii)

(D) (v)

Answer: (A)

50. If BAT = 40, AT = 20 then CAT will be equal to ?

(A) 70

(B) 50

(C) 60

(D) 30

Answer: (B)

PHYSICS

51. The rate of change of current of 10 A s1 in a coil produces an emf of 5 V. Then the self-inductance of the coil in henry is :

(A) 0.5

(B) 0.25

(C) 1.0

(D) 1.25

Answer: (A)

52. The phase difference between the alternating current and emf is π/2. Which of the following CANNOT be the constituent of the circuit?

(A) L, C

(B) L alone

(C) C alone

(D) R, L

Answer: (A)

53. An electric motor operating on 15 V supply draws a current of 5 A and yields mechanical powers of 60 W. The energy lost as heat in one hour (in kJ) is :

(A) 0.54

(B) 5.4

(C) 54

(D) 540

Answer: (C)

54. The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to:

(A) the speed of light in vacuum

(B) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum

(C) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

(D) unity

Answer: (B)

55. The ratio of the speed of an object to the speed of its real image of magnification m in the case of a convex mirror is :

(A) −1/m2

(B) m2

(C) −m

(D) 1/m

Answer: (B)

56. An air bubble is contained inside water. It behaves as a :

(A) concave lens

(B) convex lens

(C) neither concave nor convex

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

57. An eye specialist prescribes spectacles having a combination of a convex lens of focal length 40 cm in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of this lens combination will be :

(A) +1.5 D

(B) −1.5 D

(C) +6.67

(D) −6/67

Answer: (B)

58. Two monochromatic light waves of amplitudes A and 2A interfering at a point have a phase difference of 600. The intensity at that point will be proportional to :

(A) 3 A2

(B) 5 A2

(C) 7 A2

(D) 9 A2

Answer: (C)

59. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a certain minimum :

(A) power

(B) wavelength

(C) intensity

(D) frequency

Answer: (C)

60. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

(A) 1/√2

(B) √2

(C) 1/2

(D) 2

Answer: (A)

61. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (1 1 0 1 0. 1 0 1)2 is :

(A) 9.625

(B) 25.265

(C) 26.625

(D) 26.265

Answer: (C)

62. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction :

(A) widens the depletion zone

(B) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone

(C) increases the number of donors on the n-side

(D) increases the electric field in the depletion zone

Answer: (C)

63. If force (F), velocity (V) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units, then the dimensions of mass are :

(A) FV1T1

(B) FVT1

(C) FV1T

(D) FVT2

Answer: (C)

64. If the error in measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be :

(A) 2%

(B) 4%

(C) 6%

(D) 8%

Answer: (C)

65. A particle is travelling along a straight line OX. The distance x(in meters) of the particle from O at a time t is given by x = 37 + 27t – t3, where t is in seconds. The distance of the particle from O when it comes to rest is :

(A) 81 m

(B) 91 m

(C) 101 m

(D) 111 m

Answer: (B)

66. Value of ratio between cross product and dot product of two vectors is 1/3. The angle between two vectors is:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 120°

Answer: (A)

67. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is :

(A) MV

(B) 1.5 MV

(C) 2 MV

(D) Zero

Answer: (C)

68. For an object sliding on a plane, the force of friction is less if the plane is inclined, instead of being horizontal

(A) because, effective mass decreases

(B) because, normal force decreases

(C) because, co-efficient of friction decreases

(D) for an angle of inclination θ, friction is inversely proportional to tan θ

Answer: (C)

69. If a body travels along a circular path with uniform speed then its acceleration

(A) is zero

(B) acts along its circumference

(C) acts along its tangent

(D) acts along its radius

Answer: (D)

70. A force is acting on a mass of 6 kg. Displacement x of the mass is related with time t as x = t2/4 meter. Work done by the force in 2 sec. is :

(A) 3 J

(B) 6 J

(C) 9 J

(D) 12 J

Answer: (A)

71. A particle is projected from the ground with kinetic energy E at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. Its kinetic energy at the highest point of its motion will be :

(A) F/√2

(B) E/2

(C) E/4

(D) E/8

Answer: (C)

72. Power required to raise a mass of 120 kg vertically upwards at a velocity of 4.5 m.s1 is :

(A) 5 kW

(B) 5.3 kW

(C) 8 kW

(D) 11.2 kW

Answer: (B)

73. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks in two parts of unequal masses. The centre of mass of the two parts taken together shifts horizontally towards

(A) lighter piece

(B) heavier piece

(C) depends on the vertical velocity at the time of breaking

(D) does not shift horizontally

Answer: (C)

74. Angular momentum of a moving body remains constant if

(A)a pressure acts on the body

(B) an external force acts on the body

(C) an external torque acts on the body

(D) no external torque acts on the body

Answer: (D)

75. Moment of inertia of circular wire of mass m and radius r about its diameter is

(A) 1/2mr2

(B) 1/4 mr2

(C) mr2

(D) 2mr2

Answer: (A)

76. If the diurnal motion of the earth ceases al on a sudden, then the value of the acceleration due to gravity of a body at the equator will

(A) remains same

(B) be zero

(C) increase

(D) decrease

Answer: (C)

77. Two satellites of masses m1 and m2 (m1 > m2) are revolving around the earth in orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) with velocities v1 and v2 In this case

(A) v1 = v2

(B) v1 < v2

(C) v1 > v2

(D) v1/r­1 = v2/r2

Answer: (B)

78. A wire of initial length L and area of cross-section A has Young’s modulus Y of its material. The wire is stretched by a stress S within its elastic limit. The stored energy density in the wire will be

(A) S/2Y

(B) 2Y/S2

(C) S2/2Y

(D) S2/Y

Answer: (C)

79. Which of the following works on Pascal’s law?

(A) Sprayer

(B) Hydraulic lift

(C) Barometer

(D) Venturimeter

Answer: (B)

80. Surface energy of a water drop of radius r will be directly proportional to

(A) r

(B) r2

(C) r3

(D) 1/r

Answer: (B)

81. A spherical ball is falling with a uniform velocity v through a viscous medium of coefficient of viscosity n. If the viscous force acting on the spherical ball is F then

(A) F ∝ η and F ∝ 1/v

(B) F ∝ η and F ∝ v

(C) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ 1/v

(D) F ∝ 1/n and F ∝ v

Answer: (B)

82. Apparent weight of a body immersed in water at 20°C is W1. When temperature is increased to 40°C, the apparent weight becomes W2. In this case

(A) for different solids W2 may be greater than or less than W1

(B) W2 is always equal to W1

(C) W2 is always less than W1

(D) W2 is always greater than W1

Answer: (C)

83. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is

(A) 1/T

(B) 2/T

(C) 3/T

(D) 4/T

Answer: (C)

84. During boiling water at 100°C, what will be its specific heat?

(A) zero

(B) 0.5

(C) 1

(D) infinite

Answer: (C)

85. If the temperature of a black body raises from T to 2T, how many times will its rate of radiation be ?

(A) 16

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) 2

Answer: (A)

86. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas

(A) the temperature will decrease

(B) the volume will increase

(C) the pressure will remain constant

(D) the temperature will increase

Answer: (A)

87. Even Carnot engine CANNOT give 100% efficiency, because we CANNOT

(A) eliminate friction

(B) prevent radiation

(C) reach absolute zero temperature

(D) find ideal sources

Answer: (D)

88. 3 mol of a monatomic gas (υ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 mol of a diatomic gas (υ = 7/3). The value of υ for the mixture will be

(A) 9/11

(B) 11/7

(C) 12/7

(D) 15/7

Answer: (A)

89. Time period of a simple pendulum on the surface of the earth is T1 and at a height R above the surface of the earth is T2, here R is the radius of the earth. The ratio T1/T2 :

(A) 1

(B) √2

(C) 4

(D) 2

Answer: (C)

90. When a force F1 acts on a particle, frequency is 6 Hz and when a force F2 acts, frequency is 8 Hz. Now if both the forces act simultaneously in same direction, then its frequency becomes

(A) 20 Hz

(B) 14 Hz

(C) 10 Hz

(D) 2 Hz

Answer: (B)

91. When a fundamental tone is produced from pipe of length l, open at both ends, the wavelength of the stationary wave is

(A) l

(B) 2l

(C) l/2

(D) 4l

Answer: (B)

92. A source of sound with frequency 256 Hz is moving with a velocity υ towards a wall and an observer is stationary between the source and wall. When the observer is between the source and the wall, he will

(A) hear beats

(B) hear no beats

(C) not get any sound

(D) get the sound of same frequency

Answer: (A)

93. If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in equilibrium, then the value of q is

(A) Q/2

(B) −Q/2

(C) −Q/4

(D) Q/4

Answer: (C)

94. If a linear isotropic dielectric is placed in an electric field of strength E, then the polarization P is

(A) independent of E

(B) inversely proportional to E

(C) directly proportional to √E

(D) directly proportional to E

Answer: (D)

95. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 ohm and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 ohm is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

(A) 2Ω

(B) 3Ω

(C) 6Ω

(D) 1Ω

Answer: (B)

96. A heater coil is a cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be

(A) one fourth

(B) halved

(C) doubled

(D) four times

Answer: (B)

97. An electric bulb marked as 50 W-200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is

(A) 37.5 W

(B) 25 W

(C) 12.5 W

(D) 10 W

Answer: (C)

98. A circular coil carrying a certain current produces a magnetic field B0 at its centre. The coil is now rewound so as to have 3 turns and the same current is passed through it. The new magnetic field at the centre is

(A) B0/9

(B) 9B0

(C) B0/3

(D) 3B0

Answer: (D)

99. A straight wire of length 2 m carries a current of 10 A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.15 T making an angle of 45° with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be

(A) 1.5 N

(B) 3√2 N

(C) 3 N

(D) 3/√2

Answer: (D)

100. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie temperature, then it will show

(A) anti-ferromagnetism

(B) paramagnetism

(C) diamagnetism

(D) no magnetic property

Answer: (B)

CHEMISTRY

101. At 250°C, the correct order of molar ionic conductances of the ions H+, Li+, Na+ and K+ in infinite dilute aqueous solution is

(A) H+ < Li+ < Na+ < K+

(B) K+ < Na+ < Li+ < H+

(C) Li+ < Na+ < K+ < H+

(D) Li+ < K+ < H+ < Na+

Answer: (A)

102. The activation energy of a reaction depends on

(A) temperature

(B) initial concentration of the reactant

(C) effective collisions among the reactant molecules

(D) nature of the reactants

Answer: (A)

103. The bottle of liquor ammonia is cooled before opening the cork because it

(A) is a mild explosive

(B) is a corrosive liquid

(C) is harmful to lung

(D) exerts high vapour pressure

Answer: (D)

104. Which of the following substances form a colloidal solution in water?

(A) Glucose

(B) Urea

(C) BaSO4

(D) Starch

Answer: (D)

105. Adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is an exothermic process, because

(A) change in free energy of the system increases

(B) enthalpy of the system increases

(C) entropy of the system increases

(D) enthalpy of the system decreases

Answer: (D)

106. In the manufacture of steel, the process in which O2 is used instead of air is

(A) Open-hearth process

(B) Acidic Bessemer’s process

(C) Alkaline Bessemer’s process

(D) LD process

Answer: (C)

107. The ore that does NOT contain aluminium is

(A) fluorspar

(B) Feldspar

(C) Cryolite

(D) Mica

Answer: (A)

108. Which of the following nitrogen oxides is ionic ?

(A) Nitrogen trioxide

(B) Nitrogen pentoxide

(C) Dinitrogen tetroxide

(D) Nitric oxide

Answer: (B)

109. Which one of the following is used as the photosensitive substance in Xerox machines

(A) Hg

(B) Black P

(C) Se

(D) Te

Answer: (C)

110. Fe2+ can be differentiated from Fe3+ with the help of

(A) BaCl2

(B) AgNO3

(C) NH4SCN

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

111. The salt of the d-block element that is used as a catalyst in the dissociation of the bleaching powder is

(A) Ni

(B) CO

(C) V

(D) Cr

Answer: (B)

112. The reagent used for identifying Nickel ion is

(A) Potassium ferrocyanide

(B) Phenolphthalein

(C) Dimethylglyoxime

(D) EDTA

Answer: (C)

113. When 800g of a 40% solution by weight was cooled, 100 g of solute was precipitated. The percentage composition of the remaining solution is

(A) 20.0%

(B) 25.0%

(C) 31.4%

(D) 50.0%

Answer: (C)

114. A sample of Na2CO3. H2O weighing 0.62 g is added to 100 ml of 0.1 NH2SO4. The resulting solution will be

(A) Basic

(B) Neutral

(C) Acidic

(D) Amphoteric

Answer: (C)

115. An anion X3 has 36 electrons and 45 neutrons. What is the mass number of the element X?

(A) 81

(B) 84

(C) 78

(D) 88

Answer: (C)

116. If two particles are associated with same kinetic energy, then the de-Broglie’s wavelength (λ) of these particles is

(A) directly proportional to the velocity

(B) inversely proportional to the velocity

(C) independent of mass and velocity

(D) cannot be predicted

Answer: (D)

117. The increasing order of the first ionization enthalpies of the elements B, P S and F is

(A) F < S < P < B

(B) P < S < B < F

(C) B < P < S < F

(D) B < S < P < F

Answer: (D)

118. In the relation, Electronegativity = , r is

(A) Metallic radius

(B) Ionic radius

(C) van der Waals radius

(D) Covalent radius

Answer: (D)

119. The species in which the central atom uses sp2 hybrid orbitals in its bonding is

(A) NH3

(B) PH3

(C) CH3+

(D) SbH3

Answer: (C)

120. The molecule with the highest dipole moment is

(A) CH2Cl2

(B) CH3Cl

(C) CHCl3

(D) CCl4

Answer: (B)

121. The dimension of coefficient of viscosity

(A) MLT

(B) ML1T1

(C) MLT1

(D) MLT2

Answer: (B)

122. At STP, O2 gas present in a flask was replaced by SO2 under similar conditions. The mass of SO2 present in the flask will be

(A) half that of O2

(B) equal to that of O2

(C) twice that of O2

(D) one-third of O2

Answer: (C)

123. In a reversible process, if the changes in entropy of the system and its surroundings are ∆S1 & ∆S2 respectively, then

(A) ∆S1 + ∆S2 > 0

(B) ∆S1 + ∆S2 < 0

(C) ∆S1 + ∆S2 = 0

(D) ∆S1 + ∆S2 ≥ 0

Answer: (A)

124. The volume of a gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat will

(A) double

(B) remain constant

(C) reduce to half

(D) increase four times

Answer: (B)

125. The reaction, A(g) + 2B(g) ⇌ 2C(g) + D(g) was studied using an initial concentration of B which was 1.5 times that of A. The equilibrium concentration of A and C were found to be equal. SO, Kc for the equilibrium is

(A) 0.32

(B) 2.73

(C) 4.0

(D) 8.17

Answer: (C)

126. A mixture containing N2 and H2 in a mole ratio 1 : 3 is allowed to attain equilibrium when 50% of the mixture has reacted. If P is the pressure at equilibrium, then the partial pressure of NH3 formed is

(A) P/2

(B) P/3

(C) P/5

(D) P/9

Answer: (B)

127. Oxidation number of P in pyrophosphoric acid is

(A) +1

(B) +3

(C) +4

(D) +5

Answer: (D)

128. The amount of H2O2 required for decolourising 1mol of KMnO4 in an acid solution is

(A) 1.5 mol

(B) 2.0 mol

(C) 2.5 mol

(D) 3.0 mol

Answer: (A)

129. The process by which hydrogen is prepared by the reaction of silicon, iron alloy and NaOH, is

(A) Haber’s process

(B) Silicon process

(C) Wood process

(D) Bosch process

Answer: (B)

130. Which of the followings does NOT get reduced by H2 in its aqueous solution?

(A) Cu2+

(B) Fe3+

(C) Zn2+

(D) Ag+

Answer: (C)

131. The compound which is used to extinguish fire caused by combustion of alkali metals is

(A) CCl4

(B) Sand

(C) Water

(D) Kerosene

Answer: (A)

132. The compound whose aqueous solution is called ‘baryta water’ is

(A) BaSO4

(B) BaO

(C) BaCO3

(D) Ba(OH)2

Answer: (D)

133. The optically active alkane of lowest molecular mass which is also chiral is

(A) 3-methylhexane

(B) 2,3-dimethylpentane

(C) 2-methylhexane

(D) 2, 5-dimethylhexane

Answer: (A)

134. Bond lengths C – H, C – O, C – C and C = C follow the sequence

(A) C – H < C – O < C – C < C = C

(B) C – H < C = C < C – O < C – C

(C) C – C < C = C < C – O < C – H

(D) C – O < C – H < C – C < C = C

Answer: (B)

135. Nitrobenzene is prepared from benzene by using conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4. In the nitrating mixture, nitric acid acts as a/an

(A) Base

(B) Acid

(C) Reducing agent

(D) Catalyst

Answer: (A)

136. In strong acidic and alkaline medium, p-aminophenol exists in (X) and (Y) forms respectively

Thus, in acidic and alkaline medium, electrophilic substitution occurs at

(A) a, c

(B) a, d

(C) b, c

(D) b, d

Answer: (A)

137. Incomplete combustion of gasoline produces

(A) CO2

(B) CO

(C) SO2

(D) NO2

Answer: (B)

138. Cause of byssinosis diseases

(A) fly-ash

(B) cement particles

(C) cotton fibre

(D) lead particles

Answer: (C)

139. Which one is NOT favourable for SN1 reaction

(A) Polar solvent

(B) Strong nucleophile

(C) Low concentration

(D) 3° alkyl halide

Answer: (B)

140. Consider the following reaction :

The product Z is

(A) Benzaldehyde

(B) Benzene

(C) Benzoic acid

(D) Toluene

Answer: (C)

141. Which converts carboxylic acids directly into alcohols?

(A) LiAlH4

(B) Na + C2H5OH

(C) NaBH4

(D) All of these

Answer: (A)

142. In the reaction of acetaldehyde with aniline, the product formed is

(A) Schiff’s base

(B) Carbylamine

(C) Imine

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

143. Complete hydrolysis of cellulose yields

(A) D-fructose

(B) D-ribose

(C) D-glucose

(D) L-glucose

Answer: (C)

144. Monomers of Buna-S are

(A) Styrene and Butadiene

(B) Butadiene

(C) Isoprene and Butadiene

(D) Vinyl chloride and Sulphur

Answer: (A)

145. Chemical name of aspirin is

(A) Methyl Benzoate

(B) Ethyl Salicylate

(C) Acetylsalicyclic acid

(D) Hydroxybenzoic acid

Answer: (C)

146. Which of the following crystal systems does NOT have body-centered lattice?

(A) Orthorhombic

(B) Tetragonal

(C) Monoclinic

(D) Cubic

Answer: (C)

147. NaCl has face-centered unit cell. In its crystal, the number of Clions present in contact with a Na+ ion is

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

148. Which of the following concentration units does NOT depend on temperature?

(A) Molarity

(B) Normality

(C) Mole fraction

(D) Formality

Answer: (C)

149. At a given temperature, which one of the following solutions would have the highest vapour pressure?

(A) 0.1 m glucose solution

(B) 0.1 m NaCl solution

(C) 0.1 m CaCl2 solution

(D) 0.1 m Al2 (SO4)3 solution

Answer: (A)

150. Which one of the following does NOT give precipitate on reaction with lead acetate?

(A) HI

(B) HBr

(C) HCl

(D) HF

Answer: (D)

MATHEMATICS

151. The largest interval for which x12 – x9 + x4 – x + 1 > 0 is

(A) −4 < x ≤ 0

(B) 0 < x < 1

(C) −100 < x < 100

(D) 0 < x < ∝

Answer: (D)

152. The smallest positive integer n for which  holds is

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (B)

153. The number of integral solutions of x2 + y2 = x2y2 is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) infinite

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

154. How many ways are there to arrange the letters in the word GARDEN with the vowels in alphabetical order ?

(A) 120

(B) 240

(C) 360

(D) 480

Answer: (C)

155. The sum of the series  upto ∞ is equal to

(A) 2 loge2

(B) loge2 – 1

(C) loge2

(D) loge (4/e)

Answer: (D)

156. Let a1, a2, a3 ……. cannot be terms of an A.P. If 

(A) 7/2

(B) 2/7

(C) 11/41

(D) 41/11

Answer: (C)

157. If the slope of the line joining the points A(x, 2) and B(6, −8) is −5/4, then x = ?

(A) −2

(B) 2

(C) −3

(D) 3

Answer: (A)

158. The equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(2, 3) and B(6, −9) is

(A) x + 2y – 6 = 0

(B) x – 2y – 6 = 0

(C) x + 2y + 6 = 0

(D) x – 2y + 6 = 0

Answer: (D)

159. If A(−1, 3) and B(α, β) be the extremities of the diameter of the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 5y – 7 = 0, then

(A) α = −7, β = 8

(B) α = 7, β = −8

(C) α = −6, β = 7

(D) α = 6, β = −7

Answer: (B)

160. If the parabola y2 = 4ax passes through the point P(3, 2), then the length of its latus rectum is

(A) 1/3

(B) 2/3

(C) 4/3

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

161. One focus of hyperbola is at(0, 4) and the length of its transverse axis is 6. The equation of the hyperbola is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

162. The foci of an ellipse are (0, ±6) and the length of its minor axis is 16. The equation of the ellipse is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

163. State which of the following is total number of relations from set A = {1, 2, 3, 4} to set B = {d, e} is –

(A) 24

(B) 26

(C) 28

(D) 215

Answer: (C)

164. Let A = {a, b, c, d} and f : A → A be defined by, f(a) = d, f(b) = a, f(c) = b and f(d) = c. State which of the following is equal to f1 (b) ?

(A) {a}

(B) {b}

(C) {c)

(D) {d}

Answer: (A)

165. If the binary operation on Z is defined by a*b = a2 – b2 + ab + 4, then the value of (2*3)*4 is

(A) 233

(B) 33

(C) 55

(D) −55

Answer: (C)

166. If sin1 x − cos1 x = π/6, state which of the following is the value of x ?

(A) 1

(B) 1/2

(C) 1/√2

(D) √3/2

Answer: (D)

167. Given the LPP, min. Z = 3x – y, subject to the constraints

2x + 3y ≥ 1 and x, y ≥ 0

The optimum solution of the LPP is

(A) x = 0, y = 1/2

(B) x = 0, y = 1/3

(C) x = 1/3, y = 0

(D) x = 1/2, y = 0

Answer: (B)

168. In a linear programming problem, the equation 2x + 3y = 12 in two unknowns has number of solutions equal to

(A) maximum value of an minimum value of

(B) a particular value of and

(C) infinite

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

169. Let A be a square matrix of order 3 × 3, then |KA|

(A) K |A|

(B) K2 |A|

(C) K3 |A|

(D) 3K |A|

Answer: (C)

170. The system of equations

αx + y + z = α −1

x + αy + z = α −1

x + y + αz = α −1

has no solution, if α is

(A) 1

(B) not −2

(C) either −2 or 1

(D) −2

Answer: (B)

171. Matrix  is invetible for

(A) k = 1

(B) k = −1

(C) all real k

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

172. If matrix  then k is

(A) 7

(B) −7

(C) 1/7

(D) 11

Answer: (D)

173. The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is

(A) 37/256

(B) 219/256

(C) 128/256

(D) 28/256

Answer: (D)

174. If P(A ∪ B) = 0.8 and P (A ∩ B) = 03, then P(Aʹ) + P(Bʹ) equals to

(A) 0.9

(B) 0.7

(C) 0.5

(D) 0.3

Answer: (A)

175. The value of f at x = 0 so that function  is continuous at x = 0, is

(A) 0

(B) log 2

(C) log 4

(D) e4

Answer: (A)

176. The rate of change of the function y = f(x) w.r.t x at the point x is

(A) 

(B) 2f ‘(x)

(C) 

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

177. The slope of the tangent to the ellipse  at the point (a cos θ, b sin θ) is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (C)

178. A function f(x) is defined in a < x < b and a ≤ x1 ≤ x2 < b; then f(x) is strictly monotonic decreasing in a ≤ x ≤ b when

(A) f(x2) > f(x1) when x2 > x1

(B) f(x2) < f(x1) when x2 > x1

(C) f(x2) > f(x1) when x2 < x1

(D) f(x2) < f(x1) when x2 < x1

Answer: (B)

179. If 0 ≤x ≤ 2π, the function f(x) = sin x is minimum at

(A) x = 3π/2

(B) x = π

(C) 3π/4

(D) x = 2π

Answer: (B)

180. The value of ∫(cosec 2x cot 2x) is

(A) 

(B) 2 cot 2x + c

(C) −2 cosec 2x + c

(D) 

Answer: (C)

181. If  then A is equal to

(A) 0

(B) π

(C) π/4

(D) 2π

Answer: (C)

182. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(A) 1, 2/3

(B) 3, 1

(C) 3, 3

(D) 1, 2

Answer: (B)

183. The solution of the differential equation y dx + (x + x2y) dy = 0 is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) log y = cx

Answer: (B)

184. If  then the value of m is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

185. If the position vectors of the points P and Q are  respectively, then vector  is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (B)

186. If a line whose direction ratios are proportional to 0, 1, −1 then the inclination of the line with z-axis is

(A) π/2

(B) π

(C) 3π/2

(D) 3π/4

Answer: (C)

187. If the line  is parallel to z-axis then

(A) a= c = 0 and b ≠ 0

(B) a = b = c and c ≠ 0

(C) b = c = 0 and a ≠ 0

(D) a = b = c = 0

Answer: (B)

188. The lines  are

(A) coincident

(B) skew

(C) intersecting

(D) parallel

Answer: (A)

189. The intercept made by the plane  on the x-axis is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

 (D) 

Answer: (A)

190. Value of λ such that the line  is perpendicular to normal t the plane  is

(A) −13/4

(B) −17/4

(C) 4

(D) −11/4

Answer: (D)

191. In the expansion of (1 + x)n, the binomial co-efficients of three consecutive terms are respectively 220, 495 and 792. The value of n is

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (C)

192. The function of  is

(A) an even function

(B) an odd function

(C) a periodic function

(D) neither an even nor an odd function

Answer: (B)

193. If A = {x : x = 4n + 1, 2 ≤ n ≤ 5}, then the number of subsets of A is

(A) 16

(B) 15

(C) 4

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

194. If f : R → R satisfies f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y) for all x, y, ∈ R and f(1) = 7, then  is

(A) 7n/2

(B) 

(C) 7n(n + 1)

(D) 

Answer: (D)

195. If |Z2 – 1| = |Z2| + 1 then Z lies on

(A) the real axis

(B) the imaginary axis

(C) a circle

(D) an ellipse

Answer: (B)

196. The value of  is

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (D)

197. The value of  is

(A) 1

(B) −1

(C) −i

(D) i

Answer: (D)

198. If the roots of the quadratic equation x2 + px + q = 0 are tan 30° and tan 15° respectively, then the value of 2 + q – p is

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) 3

(D) 2

Answer: (C)

199. If (1 – p) is a root of quadratic equation x2 + px + (1 – p) = , then the roots are

(A) 0, 1

(B) −1, 1

(C) 0, −1

(D) −1, 2

Answer: (C)

200. Solution of the inequation 4x+0.5 – 7.2x < 4, x ∈ R is

(A) (−2, ∝)

(B) (2, ∝)

(C) (2, 7/2)

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

BIOLOGY

151. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through

(A) mutations with natural selection

(B) continuous variations with natural selection

(C) hybridisation

(D)mutations

Answer: (B)

152. Genetic drift operates in ………….. population

(A) small

(B) large

(C) island

(D) Mendelian

Answer: (A)

153. Which of the following is quartan in periodicity?

(A) P. ovale

(B) P. vivax

(C) P. falciparum

(D) P. malariae

Answer: (A)

154. B.C.G is vaccine against?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Tuberculosis

(C) German measles

(D) Chicken pox

Answer: (B)

155. In tissue culture variations appeared are

(A) Somatic variation

(B) Clonal variation

(C) Somaclonal variation

(D) Tissue culture variation

Answer: (C)

156. A common bio control agent for the control of plant diseases is

(A) Bacillus

(B) Trichoderma

(C) Baculovirus

(D) Glomus

Answer: (A)

157. The technique for breakage of DNA fragment and inserting it into another DNA molecule, is related to

(A) Gene cloning

(B) Gene typing

(C) Gene splicing

(D) DNA fingerprinting

Answer: (A)

158. Which type of restriction enzymes are used in recombinant DNA technology?

(A) Type – I

(B) Type – II

(C) Type – III

(D) All of these

Answer: (B)

159. Which of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in plants/best genetic vector used in plants?

(A) Bacillus thuringiensis

(B) Xanthomonas citri

(C) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(D) E. coli

Answer: (C)

160. Animals with built in thermostat are

(A) poikilothermic

(B) oligothermic

(C) homeothermic

(D) biothermic

Answer: (C)

161. The lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is

(A) class

(B) kingdom

(C) species

(D) phylum

Answer: (C)

162. Most primitive number in which roots are NOT present is

(A) Rhynia

(B) Psilotum

(C) Lycopodium

(D) Selaginella

Answer: (B)

163. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms in having

(A) seeds

(B) large leaves

(C) tap roots

(D) covered seeds

Answer: (D)

164. Green glands are the excretory organs of

(A) Insecta

(B) Myriapoda

(C) Arachnida

(D) Crustaceans

Answer: (D)

165. Which tissue give mechanical strength to plant organs ?

(A) Accessory cells

(B) Collenchyma

(C) Parenchyma

(D) Stomata

Answer: (B)

166. In which flower epipetalous stamen is found ?

(A) Calotropis

(B) Sesbania

(C) Datura

(D) Acalypha

Answer: (C)

167. Which of the following is uperficial of calf muscle?

(A) Trapezius

(B) Latissimus

(C) Gluteus

(D) Gastrocnemius

Answer: (D)

168. During inspiration in cockroach the respiratory passage is

(A) Stigmata

(B) Air chamber

(C) Spiracle and trachea

(D) Longitudinal respiratory tube

Answer: (C)

169. The function of the collaterial gland in cockroach is to

(A) store eggs

(B) store sperms

(C) keep vagina moist

(D) secretate the egg case

Answer: (D)

170. Golgi apparatus takes part in

(A) Carbohydrate synthesis

(B) Lipid synthesis

(C) Protein synthesis

(D) Oxydative photophosphorylation

Answer: (A)

171. The longest living cells amongst the following are

(A) T-cells

(B) B-cells

(C) Memory cells

(D) RB

Answer: (C)

172. Mitochondria increases in the cells of

(A) dry seed

(B) dormant seed

(C) germinating seed

(D) Ripening fruits

Answer: (D)

173. What holds the ribosomes together in a polyribosome?

(A) mRNA

(B) rRNA

(C) tRNA

(D) mRNA, rRNA, & tRNA

Answer: (A)

174. Some inorganic ions are required for enzyme activity. These inorganic substance are

(A) enzyme

(B) co-factor

(C) prosthetic group

(D) activator

Answer: (B)

175. Diploid chromosome number being 8, what shall be the number of chromatids in each daughter after Meiosis-I?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 8

(D) 16

Answer: (B)

176. Potassium ion exchange hypothesis of opening and closing of stomata was proposed by

(A) Sayre

(B) Stewart

(C) Levitt

(D) Bose

Answer: (C)

177. If a cell ‘X’ has op = 6 and TP = 5 and is surrounded by the cell with op = 4 and TP = 2, then what will be the direction of water movement?

(A) From other cell to cell ‘X’

(B) From cell ‘X’ to other cell

(C) Water absorption is not affected by temperature

(D) Water will move freely

Answer: (A)

178. Bidirectional translocation of minerals takes place through

(A) xylem

(B) phloem

(C) parenchyma

(D) cambium

Answer: (B)

179. The intermediate between Glycolysis and TCA cycle is

(A) Oxaloacetate

(B) Glucose-1-6 diphosphate

(C) Pyruvic acid

(D) Acetyl Co-A

Answer: (D)

180. Out of 38 ATP molecules produced per glucose, 22 ATP molecules are formed from NADH/FASH2 in

(A) Respiratory chain

(B) Kreb’s cycle

(C) Oxidative decarboxylation

(D) EMP

Answer: (A)

181. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(A) exponential phase

(B) lag phase

(C) stationary phase

(D) senescent phase

Answer: (A)

182. Mobilisation of stored food in germinating seed is triggered by

(A) Auxin

(B) Cytokinin

(C) Gibberellin

(D) Ethylene

Answer: (C)

183. Digestive enzymes are released by pancreas and bile is released by liver in response to the hormone

(A) Zymogen

(B) Cholecystokinin

(C) Insulin

(D) Secretin

Answer: (B)

184. After O2 diffusion into pulmonary capillaries, it diffused into ……….. and binds with ……….

(A) RBC, haemoglobin

(B) RBC, CO2

(C) Interstitial fluid, CO2

(D) Interstitial fluid, RBC

Answer: (A)

185. If vagus/parasympathetic nerve to heart is cut, the heart beat will

(A) stop

(B) remain normal

(C) increase

(D) decrease

Answer: (C)

186. Which of the following hormones causes reabsorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O ?

(A) LH

(B) FSH

(C) TSH

(D) Aldosterone

Answer: (D)

187. Which of the following animals having longitudinal binary fission?

(A) Hydra

(B) Plasmodium

(C) Paramoecim

(D) Euglena

Answer: (D)

188. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by

(A) Offset

(B) Runner

(C) Sucker

(D) Rhizome

Answer: (C)

189. Formation of an organism from a single, male gamete without fusion with egg is an example of

(A) Apogamy

(B) Parthenogenesis

(C) Parthenocarpy

(D) Apospory

Answer: (B)

190. Decrease in levels of which of the following causes menstrual flow ?

(A) Progesterone

(B) Vasopressin

(C) FSH

(D) Oxytocin

Answer: (A)

191. Spermatozoa are nourished during development by

(A) Leydig cell

(B) Sertoli cell

(C) Germinal epithelium

(D) Mitochondria

Answer: (B)

192. Genital warts STD is a viral disease and is caused by

(A) Trichomonas vaginalis

(B) Treponema pallidum

(C) Human papilloma virus

(D) Chlamydia trachomatis

Answer: (C)

193. The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females

(A) who cannot retain foetus inside uterus

(B) who cannot produce ovum

(C) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilization

(D) whose cervical canal is too narrow, to allow passage for sperms

Answer: (B)

194. A method of birth control is

(A) IUDs

(B) HJF

(C) IVF-ET

(D) GIFT

Answer: (A)

195. The linked characters would always inherit together till they are

(A) mutated

(B) delinked due to segregation

(C) separated due to crossing over

(D) masked by dominance

Answer: (C)

196. Down’s syndrome is a typical case of

(A) Nullisomy

(B) Monosomy

(C) Gene mutation

(D) Trisomy

Answer: (D)

197. Leading strand during DNA replication is formed

(A) is short segment

(B) continuously

(C) first

(D) ahead of replication

Answer: (B)

198. An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene. It is called

(A) Gene therapy

(B) Cloning

(C) Mutation

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

199. Geographic limit within which a population exists is called

(A) Biome

(B) Habitat

(C) Niche

(D) Ecosystem

Answer: (A)

200. 

(A) Natality

(B) Growth rate

(C) Mortality

(D) All of these

Answer: (B)

Go Back to All  OUAT Previous Exam Papers with Answer Key

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year-2017

Physics

 

1. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a the earth, the gain in potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the earth’s surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is

(a)  mgR/4

(b)  mgR/2

(c)  mgR

(d)  2 mgR

Answer: (d)

2. A body floats in water with 40% of its volume outside water. When the same body floats in an oil, 60% of its volume remains outside oil. The relative density of oil is

(a)  0.9

(b)  1.0

(c)  1.2

(d)  1.5

Answer: (d)

3. If the Earth were to suddenly contract to 1/nth of its present radius without any change in its mass, the duration of the new day will be nearly

(a)  24 n hr.

(b)  24 hr.

(c)  24/n2 mgR

(d)  24 n2 hr.

Answer: (c)

4. Two temperature scales A and B are related by  At which temperature two scales have the same reading ?

(a)  −42°

(b)  42°

(c)  12°

(d)  −40°

Answer: (c)

5. The resistances across A and B in the figure below will be

(a)  3R

(b)  R

(c)  R/3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

6. Air inside a closed container is saturated with water vapour. The air pressure is p and the saturated vapour pressure of water is  If the mixture is compressed to one half of its volume by maintaining temperature constant, the pressure becomes

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

7. What happens when the prongs of a vibrating tuning fork are immersed in water ?

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the waves propagating outwards?

(a)  The velocity decreases.

(b)  The amplitude increases.

(c)  The frequency decreases.

(d)  The wavelength increases.

Answer: (d)

8. Steel has Young’s modulus 21 × 1011 dyne/cm2 and density 7.8 gm/cc. The velocity of sound through steel is

(a)  350 m/s

(b)  700 m/s

(c)  5000 m/s

(d)  5189 m/s

Answer: (a)

9. The coefficient of cubical expansion of sulphur is 0.000223 per ° A piece of sulphur is found to displace 48 cc of water at 0°C. It will displace the volume of water at 35°C

(a)  48.374 cc

(b)  48.743 cc

(c)  49.374 cc

(d)  49.743 cc

Answer: (b)

10. The equation of displacement of two waves are given as  and  then what is the ratio of their amplitude?

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 : 1

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (b)

11. An iron rod of length 100 cm and 10 cm2 cross-section is heated from 0°C to 100° If it is not allowed to bend or expand, what force is developed in it ? Given that Y – 1012 dyne/cm2 and α = 105/°C

(a)  108 dyne

(b)  109 dyne

(c)  1010 dyne

(d)  1011 dyne

Answer: (c)

12. A thin glass bulb is sealed at 27°C, the internal pressure being 1 atmosphere. The maximum internal pressure the blub can withstand is 95 cm of mercury. At the temperature at which the bulb will burst,

(a)  101°C

(b)  102°C

(c)  374°C

(d)  375°C

Answer: (d)

13. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced, the required length of string is

(a)  37.5 cm

(b)  40 cm

(c)  50 cm

(d)  62.5 cm

Answer: (b)

14. An ideal mono-atomic gas of given mass is heated at constant pressure. In this process, the fraction of supplied that energy used for the increase of t he internal energy of the gas is

(a)  3/8

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/4

(d)  2/5

Answer: (b)

15. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

16. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold [density = 19.5 g/cm3] is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid [density = 1.5 g/cm3], find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver [density = 10.5 g/cm3] of the same size in the same liquid.

(a)  0.133 m/s

(b)  0.1 m/s

(c)  0.2 m/s

(d)  0.4 m/s

Answer: (a)

17. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

18. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance 5 cm and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in the equilibrium condition, ratio of the magnitude of electric fields at the surfaces of sphere A and B is

(a)  1 ; 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 :4

(d)  4 : 1

Answer: (c)

19. Five equal resistances, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in figure below. A battery of V volt is connected between A and B. The current flowing in FC will be

(a)  3V/R

(b)  V/R

(c)  V/2R

(d)  2V/R

Answer: (b)

20. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current I is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

21. An electric dipole is placed at an angle 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience a

(a)  translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

(b)  torque as well as a translational force

(c)  torque only

(d)  translational force only in the direction of the field

Answer: (b)

22. An electric bulb marked as 50 W – 200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is

(a)  37.5 W

(b)  25 W

(c)  12.5 W

(d)  10 W

Answer: (c)

23. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μ The effective capacitance between A and B is

(a) 

(b)  −3 μF

(c)  6 μF

(d)  5 μF

Answer: (d)

24. The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is x. When both the current and radius I s doubled the ratio will be

(a)  x/8

(b)  x/4

(c)  x/2

(d)  2x

Answer: (b)

25. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (11010.101)2 is

(a)  9.625

(b)  25.262

(c)  26.525

(d)  26.265

Answer: (b)

26. In a common emitter configuration, a transistor has β = 50 and input resistance 1 kΩ. If the peak value of ac. input is 0.01 V then the peak value of collector current is

(a)  0.01 μA

(b)  0.25 μA

(c)  100 μA

(d)  500 μA

Answer: (b)

27. 3 moles of a mono-atomic gas (γ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 mole of a diatomic gas (γ = 7/3). The value of γ for the mixture will be

(a)  9/11

(b)  11/7

(c)  12/7

(d)  15/7

Answer: (b)

28. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(a)  All reversible cycles have same efficiency.

(b)  Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one.

(c)  Carnot cycle is a reversible one.

(d)  Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles.

Answer: (b)

30. In which of the process, internal energy of system remains constant?

(a)  Adiabatic

(b)  Isochoric

(c)  Isobaric

(d)  Isothermal

Answer: (a)

31. In Young’s double slit experiment, an interference pattern is obtained on a screen by a light of wavelength 6000 Å coming from the coherent sources S1 and S2. At certain point P on the screen third fringe is formed. Then the path difference S1P – S2P is microns is

(a)  0.75

(b)  1.5

(c)  3.0

(d)  4.0

Answer: (b)

32. In compound microscope the intermediate image is

(a)  virtual, inverted and magnified

(b)  real, inverted and diminished

(c)  virtual, erect and magnified

(d)  real, inverted and magnified

Answer: (d)

33. In the following circuit the output Y becomes zero for the inputs

(a)  A =1, B = 0, C = 0

(b)  A = 0, B= 0, C = 0

(c)  A = 1, B = 1, C = 1

(d)  A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

Answer: (d)

34. In n – p – n transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then

(a)  emitter current is 9 mA

(b)  emitter current is 11.1 mA

(c)  base current is 0.1 mA

(d)  base current is 0.01 mA

Answer: (c)

35. The r.m.s. value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is

(a)  6.37 × 109 J/m3

(b)  81.35 × 1012 J/m3

(c)  3.3 × 103 J/m3

(d)  4.58 × 106 J/m3

Answer: (a)

36. A bar magnet of magnetic moment pm is divided into two equal parts by cutting parallel to its length. The magnetic moment of either piece will be

(a)  pm/4

(b)  pm/2

(c)  pm

(d)  2pm

Answer: (c)

37. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n1 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 1, the emitted radiation has a wavelength given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

38. In frequency modulation

(a)  the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency of carrier wave

(b)  the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude of the modulating wave

(c)  the amplitude of modulated wave varies as amplitude of carrier

(d)  the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency of modulating wave

Answer: (b)

39. Audio signal CANNOT be transmitted because

(a)  the signal has more noise

(b)  the signal cannot be amplified for distance communication

(c)  the transmitting antenna length is very small to design

(d)  the transmitting antenna length is very large and impracticable

Answer: (d)

40. Which of the following is NOT electromagnetic in nature?

(a)  X-rays

(b)  Gamma rays

(c)  Cathode rays

(d)  Microwaves

Answer: (c)

41. A ray of light enters from a denser medium into the rarer medium. The speed of light in the rarer medium is twice that in denser medium. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection to take place ?

(a)  30°

(b)  45°

(c)  60°

(d)  75°

Answer: (a)

42. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be

(a)  10 cm

(b)  2.5 cm

(c)  5 cm

(d)  7.5 cm

Answer: (b)

43. The least distance of vision of a longsighted person is 60 cm. By using a spectacle lens, this distance is reduced to 12 cm. The power of the lens is

(a)  +5.0 D

(b)  +(20/3)D

(c)  −(10/3)D

(d)  +2.0 D

Answer: (b)

44. A thin prism (μ = 1.5) in the position of minimum deviation deviates the monochromatic light ray by 10°, the refracting angle of prism is

(a)  10°

(b)  20°

(c)  30°

(d)  45°

Answer: (a)

45. If the work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, the cut off wave length is

(a)  8000 Å

(b)  7000 Å

(c)  1472 Å

(d)  2950 Å

Answer: (c)

46. A nucleus raptures into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius) ?

(a)  21/3 : 1

(b)  1 : 21/3

(c)  31/2 : 1

(d)  1 : 31/2

Answer: (c)

47. What is de Broglie wavelength of the alpha particle accelerated through a potential difference V ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

48. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

(a)  atoms are ionized at high temperature

(b)  molecules break up at high temperature

(c)  nuclei break up at the high temperature

(d)  kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei

Answer: (a)

49. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is

(a)  2.5

(b)  5

(c)  10

(d)  20

Answer: (b)

50. Given that M is the mass suspended from a spring of force constant k. The dimensional formula for  is same for that of

(a)  frequency

(b)  time period

(c)  velocity

(d)  wave length

Answer: (b)

51. The side of a cubical block when measured with a vernier caliper is 2.50 cm. The vernier constant is 0.01 cm. The maximum possible error in the area of the side of the block is

(a)  ±0.01 cm2

(b)  ±0.02 cm2

(c)  ±0.05 cm2

(d)  ±0.10 cm2

Answer: (c)

52. The time (t) and displacement (x) are related as t = ax2 + bx. What is the acceleration of the particle at the origin of the coordinate axes ?

(a)  −2ab3

(b)  −2ab

(c)  −2a/b3

(d)  −2a/b

Answer: (c)

53. Consider three vectors  and  A vector  of the from  (where and are numbers) is perpendicular to  . The ratio of α and β is

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  −1 : 1

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (a)

54. A particle located at x = 0 at a time t = 0, starts moving along the positive X-direction with a velocity v that varies as v = α√x. The displacement of the particle varies with time as

(a)  t

(b)  t1/2

(c)  t3

(d)  t2

Answer: (d)

55. In the stable equilibrium position, a body has

(a)  maximum potential energy

(b)  minimum potential energy

(c)  minimum kinetic energy

(d)  neither maximum nor minimum potential energy

Answer: (d)

56. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be

(a)  L

(b)  4L

(c)  3L/4

(d)  12L

Answer: (c)

57. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is

(a)  2.4

(b)  1.2

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.2

Answer: (d)

58. The range of projection is maximum. If the range is R. what is the maximum h height?

(a)  2R

(b)  R

(c)  R/2

(d)  R/4

Answer: (c)

59. The instantaneous height y and the horizontal distance x covered by a particle are as follows y = bt2 and x = ct2. What is the speed of the particle one second after the firing ?

(a)  2(b + c)

(b)  2(b – c)

(c)  2(b2 + c2)1/2

(d)  2(b2 − c2)1/2

Answer: (c)

60. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

61. A long spring when stretched by x cm has a potential energy U. On increasing the stretching to ‘nx’ the potential energy stored in the spring will be

(a)  n2U

(b)  U/n2

(c)  U/n

(d)  nU

Answer: (a)

62. A body initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to each other with a velocity of 30 ms1. What is the velocity of the heavier fragment?

(a)  10√2 ms1

(b)  10.5 ms1

(c)  11.4 ms1

(d)  10.95 ms1

Answer: (d)

63. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 103, then the percentage change in volume is

(a)  0.6

(b)  0.4

(c)  0.2

(d)  zero

Answer: (d)

64. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then

(a)  the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(b)  the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(c)  the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged

(d)  the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved

Answer: (c)

65. A ring and a disc of different masses are rotating with the same kinetic energy. If we apply a retarding torque τ on the ring it stops after making n revolution. After how many revolution will the disc stop if the retarding torque on it is also τ ?

(a)  n/2

(b)  n

(c)  2n

(d)  4n

Answer: (a)

66. The ratio of radii of two spheres of the same mass, having the same moment of inertia about their diameters, one hollow and other solid is

(a)  9 : 25

(b)  25 : 9

(c)  √5 : √3

(d)  √3 : √5

Answer: (d)

Chemistry

67. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MGl followed by hydrolysis gives

(a)  n-Propyl alcohol

(b)  Ethanal

(c)  Propanal

(d)  Isoproppylalcohol

Answer: (d)

68. The reaction of an ester ROOR’ with an alcohol R’’OH is presence of an acid gives

(a)  R’COOR’’

(b)  R’COOH

(c)  RCOOR’’

(d)  R’’COOR

Answer: (b)

69. In the diazotization of aniline with the sodium nitrate and hydrochloric acid, the excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to

(a)  suppress the concentration of free aniline

(b)  suppress the hydrolysis of phenol

(c)  ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid

(d)  neutralize the base liberated

Answer: (d)

70. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basis medium gives

(a)  diphenyl ether

(b)  p-Hydroxyazobenzene

(c)  Chlorobenzene

(d)  Benzene

Answer: (b)

71. Which is correct statement ?

(a)  Starch is polymer of α-glucose.

(b)  Amylose is a component of cellulose.

(c)  Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid.

(d)  In cyclic structure of furanose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom.

Answer: (d)

72. The number of chiral carbons in β-D(+)- glucose is

(a)  three

(b)  four

(c)  five

(d)  six

Answer: (c)

73. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of

(a)  electrostatic attraction

(b)  hydrogen bonding

(c)  Van der Waal’s forces

(d)  dipole-dipole interaction

Answer: (b)

74. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be

(a)  6.02 × 1022

(b)  12.04× 1022

(c)  1.806 × 1023

(d)  31.80 × 1028

Answer: (b)

75. If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction?

(a)  10 ml of H2

(b)  5 ml of H2

(c)  10 ml of O2

(d)  5 ml of O2

Answer: (d)

76. 2. 76 of silver carbonate (At. Mass = 108) on being heated strongly yields at residue weighing

(a)  2.16 g

(b)  2.48 g

(c)  2.32 g

(d)  2.64 g

Answer: (a)

77. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 of silver chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is TRUE?

(a)  7.15 g

(b)  17.0 g

(c)  3.3 g

(d)  4.88 g

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following polymers is used for making switch board, heater handle ?

(a)  Polythene

(b)  Rubber

(c)  PET

(d)  Bakelite

Answer: (d)

79. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers ?

(a)  Dacron

(b)  Natural rubber

(c)  Bakelite

(d)  Polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (b)

80. Indium doped Silicon is an _______ semiconductor.

(a)  p-type

(b)  n-type

(c)  p-n-type

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

81. Schottky defect is due to missing of

(a)  anion form lattice

(b)  catin from lattice

(c)  cation and anion both form lattice

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

82. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment ?

(a)  1, 1-Dichloroethylene

(b)  cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(c)  trans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(d)  None of these compounds

Answer: (b)

83. 1-Chlorobutance on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

(a)  1-Butene

(b)  1-Butanol

(c)  2-Butene

(d)  2-Butanol

Answer: (a)

84. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is

(a)  HC ≡ CH

(b)  C6H6

(c)  C2H6

(d)  CH­3OH

Answer: (a)

85. Identify the correct statement below concerning the structure of CH3 = C = CH2.

(a)  The molecular is planar.

(b)  One of the three carbon atoms is in an sp3 hybridized state.

(c)  The molecule is non-planar with the two CH2 groups being in planar perpendicular to each other.

(d)  All the carbon atoms are sp-hybridized.

Answer: (c)

86. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-effect of the substituents ?

(a)  −NR2 < − OR < − F

(b)  −NR2 > − OR < − F

(c)  −NR2 < − OR > − F

(d)  −NR2 > − OR > − F

Answer: (a)

87. Which of the following is NOT a Ca ore?

(a)  Gypsum

(b)  Magnesite

(c)  Dolomite

(d)  Carnallite

Answer: (d)

88. Among KO2, AlO2, BaO2 and NO2, unpaired electron is present in

(a)  NO2 + and BaO3

(b)  KO2 and AlO2

(c)  KO2 only

(d)  BaO2 only

Answer: (b)

89. pH of water is 7. When a substance Y is dissolved in water, the pH becomes 13. the substance Y is a salt of

(a)  weak acid and weak base

(b)  strong acid and strong base

(c)  strong acid and weak base

(d)  weak acid and strong base

Answer: (d)

90. Which of the following sulphides has the lowest solubility product ?

(a)  FeS

(b)  MnS

(c)  PbS

(d)  ZnS

Answer: (c)

91. In a mixture of a weak acid and salt, the ratio of the concentration of acid to salt is increased ten-fold. The pH of the solution

(a)  decreases by one

(b)  decreases by one tenth

(c)  increases by one

(d)  increases by ten-fold

Answer: (b)

92. The solubility of CaCO3 in water is 3.05 × 104 moles/litre. Its solubility product will be

(a)  6.1 × 104

(b)  9.3

(c)  3.05 × 104

(d)  9.3 × 108

Answer: (d)

93. Which of the following solution will have pH close to 1.0 ?

(a)  100 ml of (M/10) HCl + 100 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(b)  55 ml of (M/10)HCl + 45 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(c)  10 ml of (M/10) HCl + 90 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(d)  75 ml of (M/5) HCl + 25 ml of (M/5) NaOH

Answer: (c)

94. One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmospheric pressure. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is

(a)  1.2 atm

(b)  2.4 atm

(c)  2.0 atm

(d)  1.0 atm

Answer: (b)

95. A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ The initial concentration of A is equal to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal KC = ?

(a)  0.08

(b)  0.8

(c)  8

(d)  80

Answer: (a)

96. For a weak acid with α as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by (C is concentration of acid in mole per litre)

(a)  Ka = Cα

(b)  Ka = Cα2

(c)  Ka = C2α

(d)  Ka = C2α2

Answer: (b)

97. A litre of solution containing 0.1 mole of CH3COOH and 0.1 mole of CH3COONa provide a buffer of pH 4.74. Calculate the pH of the solution after the addition of 0.02 mole of NaOH. Ka = 1.8 × 105

(a)  4.92

(b)  4.03

(c)  8.56

(d)  5.32

Answer: (a)

98. Calculate the pH of 0.625 M solution of CH3COONa (K­a value of CH3COOH is 1.754 × 105).

(a)  8.25

(b)  9.28

(c)  10.2

(d)  11.26

Answer: (b)

99. The dissociation constant Kb, the hydrolysis constant Kh and ionic product Kw are related to each other by the relation

(a)  Kw/Kb = Kh

(b)  Kw/Kh = Kb

(c)  Kw = Kh × Kh

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

100. In Hittorf method of determination of transport numbers we make use of a(n)

(a)  H-tube

(b)  V-tube

(c)  U-tube

(d)  L-tube

Answer: (a)

101. The mass in grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of Cu2+ by a current of 2.50 A in 2 hours, is

(a)  23.7

(b)  0.187

(c)  1.65

(d)  5.93

Answer: (b)

102. Which of the following sets contains only isoelectronic ions ?

(a)  Na+ , Ca2+, Ga3+, Al3+

(b)  K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl

(c)  P3, Sc3+, Cl, K+

(d)  Na+, Al3+, Mg2, Cl

Answer: (d)

103. The value of Van der Waals constant a for the glass N2, O2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.39, 1.36, 4 and 2.25 dm6 atm mol2 The most easily liquefiable gas is

(a)  N2

(b)  O2

(c)  NH3

(d)  CH­4

Answer: (b)

104. A gas would show maximum deviation from ideal behavior at

(a)  150°C, 2 atm

(b)  10°C, 1 atm

(c)  75°C, 0.5 atm

(d)  −100°C, 5 atm

Answer: (d)

105. Of the following pairs, each of 0.1 m solution, the isotonic solution at the same temperature will be

(a)  glucose and KCI

(b)  MgCl2 and NaCl

(c)  urea and ZnSO4

(d)  Na2SO4 and Ca(NO3)2

Answer: (b)

106. A gaseous mixture contains 56g N2, 44g CO2 and 16g CH4. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure of CH4.

(a)  160 mm

(b)  394 mm

(c)  180 mm

(d)  225 mm

Answer: (a)

107. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atoms was made by

(a)  Heisenberg

(b)  Bohr

(c)  Plank

(d)  Einstein

Answer: (c)

108. Which of the following complexes is non-conducting ?

(a)  CoCl3 . 3NH3

(b)  CoCl3 . 6NH3

(c)  CoCl3 . 4NH3

(d)  CoCl3 . 5NH3

Answer: (b)

109. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is

(a)  sodium pentacyanonitrate

(b)  sodium pentacyanonitrosylferous (II)

(c)  sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(d)  disodium pentacyanonitrosyferrate (II)

Answer: (d)

110. A catalyst increase the rate of reaction because it

(a)  increases the activation energy

(b)  lowers the energy barrier for reaction

(c)  decreases the collision diameter

(d)  increases the temperature coefficient

Answer: (a)

111. Inert pair effect is exhibited by

(a)  Pb

(b)  B

(c)  Si

(d)  Al

Answer: (a)

112. The isotope used for dating archaeological finding is

(a)  1H3

(b)  6C14

(c)  8O18

(d)  92U235

Answer: (b)

113. Isomers which can be interconverted through rotation around a single bond are

(a)  conformers

(b)  diastereomers

(c)  enantiomers

(d)  positional isomers

Answer: (c)

114. The reagent used for separation of acetaldehyde and acetophenone is

(a)  NaHSO3

(b)  C6H5NHNH2

(c)  NH2OH

(d)  NaOH-I2

Answer: (b)

115. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  16

(d)  17

Answer: (b)

116. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally to ten times its original volume. The change in entropy is

(a)  0.1 R

(b)  2.303 R

(c)  10.0 R

(d)  100.0 R

Answer: (d)

117. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(a)  Work is a state function.

(b)  Temperature is a state function

(c)  Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified.

(d)  Work appears at the boundary of the system.

Answer: (c)

118. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date

H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O(l), ∆H = −285.77 kJ/mol

H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O (g) ∆H = −241.84 kJ/mol

(a)  +43.93 kJ/mol

(b)  −43.93 kJ/mol

(c)  +527.61 kJ/mol

(d)  −527.61 kJ/mol

Answer: (a)

119. An aqueous solution of 6.3g oxalic acid dehydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is

(a)  10 ml

(b)  20 ml

(c)  40 ml

(d)  4 ml

Answer: (b)

120. Equimolar solutions in the same solvents have

(a)  same boiling point but different freezing point

(b)  same freezing point but different boiling point

(c)  same boiling point but same freezing point

(d)  different boiling point and different freezing point

Answer: (a)

121. The freezing point of equimolar aqueous solution will be highest for

(a)  C6H5NH3Cl

(b)  Ca(NO3)2

(c)  La(NO3)2

(d)  C6H12O6

Answer: (a)

122. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+| Fe and Sn2+| Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14V respectively for the cell reaction :

Fe2+ + Sn → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is

(a)  +0.30 V

(b)  −0.58 V

(c)  +0.58 V

(d)  −0.30 V

Answer: (a)

123. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5­COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 ohm1 cm2 The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is :

(a)  201.28 ohm1 cm2

(b)  390.71 ohm1 cm2

(c)  698.28 ohm1 cm2

(d)  540.48 ohm1 cm2

Answer: (b)

124. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt bridge’ because

(a)  velocity of K is greater than that of NO3

(b)  velocity of of K is less than that of NO3

(c)  velocity of both K and NO3 are nearly the same

(d)  KNO3 is highly soluble in water

Answer: (d)

125. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl. The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E

(a)  Zn2 concentration should be increased

(b)  Zn2 concentration should be decreased

(c)  Cl concentration should be increased

(d)  partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased

Answer: (d)

126. Alums purify muddy water by

(a)  dialysis

(b)  adsorption

(c)  coagulation

(d)  forming a true solution

Answer: (c)

127. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(a)  Emulsion-Card

(b)  Foam-Mist

(c)  Aerosol-Smoke

(d)  Solid sol-Cake

Answer: (c)

128. The coagulating power of an electrolyte for arsenious sulphide sol decreases in the order

(a)  Na > Al > Ba2−

(b)  Al3 > Ba2+ > Na2−

(c)  Na > Al > Ba2−

(d)  Na > Ba2− > PO43−

Answer: (b)

129. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At. No. 64) is

(a)  [Xe]4f85d06s2

(b)  [Xe]4f75d16s2

(c)  [Xe]4f35d56s2

(d)  [Xe]4f65d26s2

Answer: (b)

130. Which of the following does NOT react with AgCl ?

(a)  Na2SO3

(b)  NH4OH

(c)  NaNO3

(d)  Na2CO3

Answer: (b)

131. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite in an acidic solution is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  4/5

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

132. Which of the following is NOT an actinide?

(a)  Curium

(b)  Californium

(c)  Uranium

(d)  Terbium

Answer: (d)

Mathematics

133. Find the values of x for which the functions f(x) = 3x2 – 1 and g(x) = 3 + x are equal.

(a)  1, 4/3

(b)  1, −4/3

(c)  −1, −4/3

(d)  −1, 4/3

Answer: (d)

134. Which of the following is correct?

(a)  sin 1° > sin 1

(b)  sin 1° < sin 1

(c)  sin 1° = sin 1

(d) 

Answer: (b)

135. For specifying a straight line, how many geometrical parameters should be known ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

136. Which of the following functions are strictly increasing on R ?

(a)  x3 – 6x2 + 12x – 9, x ∈ R

(b)  x3 – 6x2 – 9, x ∈ R

(c)  x3 – 6x2 + 12, x ∈ R

(d)  −x3 – 6x2 – 12x – 9, x ∈ R

Answer: (a)

137. The area enclosed between the curves y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y is

(a)  16/3

(b)  8

(c)  22/3

(d)  16

Answer: (a)

138. The area of triangle formed by the tips of vectors  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

139. Consider the matrices X4 × 3, Y4 × 3, and P2 × 3. The order of [P(XTY)−1PT]T will be

(a)  (2 × 2)

(b)  (3 × 3)

(c)  (4 × 3)

(d)  (3 × 4)

Answer: (a)

140. The sets A and B are having elements 10 and 8. n(A ∩ B) = 2, then n(A ∪ B) is

(a)  16

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  20

Answer: (a)

141. Range of cosec1 (x) is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

142. If tan A = 1/2, tan B = 1/3 then tan(2A + B) is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

143. Equations of diagonals of the square formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0, x = 1 and y = 1 are

(a)  y = x, y + x = 1

(b)  y = x, y + x = 2

(c)  y = 2x, y + 2x = 1

(d)  2y = x, y + x = 1/3

Answer: (a)

144. Find the absolute maximum value of 

(a)  4/3

(b)  3/4

(c)  1/2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

145. If tan y dx + sec2 y tan x dy = 0, then

(a) 

(b)  (sin x) (tan y) = c

(c)  cos x = c

(d) 

Answer: (b)

146. Distance of the point (α, β, γ) from x-axis is

(a)  |β|

(b)  |α|

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

147. For what values of α and β, the following simultaneous equations have infinite number of solutions ?

x + y + z = 5, x + 3y + 3z = 9, x + 2y + αz = β

(a)  2, 7

(b)  3, 8

(c)  8, 3

(d)  7, 2

Answer: (a)

148. Which of the following is correct ?

(a)  If A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C then A ⊄ C

(b)  If A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C then A ⊂ C

(c)  If A ⊄ B and B ⊄ C then A ⊄ C

(d)  If X ∈ A and A ⊄ B then x ∈ B

Answer: (b)

149. Range of 

(a)  [1/5, 1]

(b)  [1/5, 1/3]

(c)  [1/3, 1]

(d)  [1/5. 1/3]

Answer: (c)

150. cos 2ϕ cos 2θ + sin2(θ – ϕ) – sin2(θ + ϕ) is equal to

(a)  sin 2(θ + ϕ)

(b)  sin 2((θ − ϕ)

(c)  cos 2(θ + ϕ)

(d)  cos 2(θ − ϕ)

Answer: (c)

151. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

152. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)  x – cy + 5 = 0

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

153. The plane 2x – 3y + 6x = 11 makes angle sin1 α with x-axis. The value of α is

(a)  √3/4

(b)  √2/2

(c)  12/7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

154. In how many ways can the word MANAGEMENT be rearranged ?

(a)  226800

(b)  453600

(c)  113400

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

155. If i2 = −1 then sum of I + i2 + i3 + i4 + ….. to 1000 terms is

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  −1

(d)  +1

Answer: (b)

156. 

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  ∞

(d)  −∞

Answer: (a)

157. Mean of first n natural number is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

158. Equation of the circle with center on the y-axis and passing through the origin and the point (2, 3) is

(a)  x2 + y2 + 13y = 0

(b)  3x2 + 3y2 + 13x + 3 = 0

(c)  6x2 + 6y2 – 13x = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 13x + 3 = 0

Answer: (a)

159. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(a)  4, 2

(b)  1, 4

(c)  2, 4

(d)  1, 2

Answer: (c)

160. The feasible region is

(a)  a convex set

(b)  the optimal solution

(c)  always unbounded for minimization problem

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

161. Out of 4 officers and 10 clerks in a business firm, a committee consisting of 2 officers and 3 clerks is to be formed. In how many ways can this be done if one particular clerk must be on the committee ?

(a)  216

(b)  416

(c)  36

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

162. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where √−1, n ≥ 1)

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

163. then the value of n is

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (c)

164. The variance for the following date : 6, 7, 10, 12, 13, 4, 8, 12 is

(a)  9.25

(b)  9.15

(c)  8.25

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

165. The area of the circle centered at (1, 2) and passing through (4, 6) is

(a)  5π

(b)  10π

(c)  25π

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

166. Without repetition of the numbers, four digit numbers are formed with the numbers 0, 2, 3, 5. The probability of such a number divisible by 5 is

(a)  1/5

(b)  4/5

(c)  1/30

(d)  5/9

Answer: (b)

167. If ω is cube root of unity then  is

(a)  1

(b)  ω2

(c)  ω

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

168. If 

(a)  sin x

(b) 

(c)  cos x

(d) 

Answer: (b)

169. 3A2F in hexadecimal represents

(a)  14895

(b)  14880

(c)  15150

(d)  15151

Answer: (c)

170. If e is the eccentricity of the ellipse  then

(a)  b2 = a2 (1 – e2)

(b)  a2 = b2 (1 – e2)

(c)  a2 = b2(e2 – 1)

(d)  d2 = a2(e2 – 1)

Answer: (b)

171. 6 boy and 6 girls sit in a row t random. The probability that all the girls sit together is

(a)  1/432

(b)  12/431

(c)  1/132

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

172. Principal argument of (−2 −2i) is

(a)  −3π/4

(b)  3π/4

(c)  π/4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

173. If n < 1 then  exists when

(a)  x = −1

(b)  x = 1

(c)  x = 0

(d)  x ≠ 0

Answer: (d)

174. Which of the following is unary operation ?

(a)  Addition

(b)  Multiplication

(c)  Square root

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

175. The distance between the foci of a hyperbola is 16 and its eccentricity is √2 Its equation is

(a)  x2 – y2 = 32

(b)  x2 – y2 = 23

(c)  2x2 – y2 = 32

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

176. α, β be two roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  −2

(c)  2

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

177. If ex – y = xy, then 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

178. When 1100010 is divided by 0101 what will be the decimal remainder ?

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

179. The length of the latus rectum of the ellipse 3x2 + y2 = 12 is

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  8

(d)  4/√3

Answer: (c)

180. If b3 + a2c + ac2 = 3 abc, then the relation between two roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is

(a)  α = β2 or β = α2

(b)  α = 2β or β = 2α

(c)  α2 – β2 = 0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

181. 

(a)  |x|

(b)  x2

(c) 

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

182. a ≠ b but a2 = 5a – 3 and b2 = 5b – 3, then find a equation whose roots are a/b and b/a.

(a)  3x2 – 19x + 3 = 0

(b)  x2 – 19x + 1 = 0

(c)  3x2 – 19x + 2 = 0

(d)  x2 + 19x + 1 = 0

Answer: (b)

183. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by

(a)  5, 4, 2

(b)  2, 3, 6

(c)  3, 4, 5

(d)  5, 3, 2

Answer: (b)

184. If x is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a

(a)  Tautology

(b)  Contradiction

(c)  Well-formed formula

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

185. Which of the following is ODD function ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4xy + 3 = 0

Answer: (b)

186. Principal value of cot1 (−1) = ?

(a)  3π/4

(b)  π/4

(c)  −π/4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

187. Which of the following curves are symmetrical about x-axis only ?

(a)  5x2 + 7y – 6 = 0

(b)  y2 = x + 9

(c)  xy = 1

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4xy + 3 = 0

Answer: (b)

188. The sides of an equilateral triangle are increasing at rate of 2 cm/sec. The rate at which the area increases, when side is 10 cm, is

(a)  10 cm2/s

(b)  √3 cm2/s

(c)  10√3 cm2/s

(d) 

Answer: (c)

189. 

(a)  x5 + c

(b) 

(c)  6x6 + c

(d)  x6 + c

Answer: (b)

190. If the position vector  of the point (5, n) is such that  then what is the value of n ?

(a)  ±12

(b)  0

(c)  ±1

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

191. How many solutions does the following system of linear equations have ?

−x + 5y = −1, x – y = 2, x + 3y = 3

(a)  Infinitely many

(b)  Two distinct solutions

(c)  Unique solution

(d)  No solution

Answer: (a)

192. Consider the following propositional statements :

P1 : (((A ∧ B) → C)) ≡ ((A → C) ∧ (B → C))

P2 : (((A ∨ B) → C)) ≡ ((A → C) ∨ (B → C))

Which one of the following is TRUE?

(a)  P1 is the tautology, but not P­2

(b)  P2 is a tautology, but not P1

(c)  P1 and P2 are are both tautologies

(d)  Both P1 and P2 are not tautologies

Answer: (c)

193. If 

Determine [f(x), where [ ] represents the greatest integer function.

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

194. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?

(a)  2√3

(b)  2 + √3

(c)  2 – √3

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

195. Identify the curve x2 + y2 + 6x – 2y + 10 = 0.

(a)  Parabola

(b)  Ellipse

(c)  Pair of straight lines

(d)  A unique point

Answer: (c)

196. What is the value of 

(a)  0

(b)  1/6

(c)  1/3

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

197. 

(a)  log 2 + 1

(b)  2 log 2 + 1

(c)  log (2e)

(d)  log (4/e)

Answer: (d)

198. Find a vector of magnitude 9, which is perpendicular to both the vectors 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

199. Let A, B, C, D be n × n matrices, each with non-zero determinant. If ABCD = I, then B1 = ?

(a)  D1C1A1

(b)  CDA

(c)  ADC

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

200. Which of the following is NOT correct?

(a)  A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)

(b)  A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)

(c)  A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

Biology

133. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is

(a)  extensive mixed cropping

(b)  introduction of high yielding varieties

(c)  extensive use of fertilizers

(d)  extensive use of insecticides and pesticides

Answer: (a)

134. Structural lipids of cell membrane are

(a)  simple lipids

(b)  chromolipids

(c)  steroid

(d)  phospholipids

Answer: (d)

135. Longest phase of meiosis is

(a)  Prophase I

(b)  Prophase II

(c)  Anaphase I

(d)  Metaphase II

Answer: (a)

136. Insulin is a polymer of

(a)  glucose

(b)  galactose

(c)  fructose

(d)  arabinose

Answer: (a)

137. Kupffer’s cells are

(a)  Phagocytic

(b)  Actin

(c)  Myosin

(d)  Fibrin

Answer: (a)

138. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed?

(a)  Leptotene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Pachytene

(d)  Diplotene

Answer: (b)

139. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm CANNOT

(a)  get energy

(b)  penetrate the egg

(c)  swim

(d)  get food

Answer: (b)

140. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called

(a)  colinearity

(b)  commaless

(c)  degeneracy

(d)  non-ambiguity

Answer: (d)

141. In C4 pathway, the CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells is carried out by the enzyme

(a)  Rubisco

(b)  PEP carboxylase

(c)  Pyruvate decarboxylase

(d)  Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Answer: (b)

142. In a tissue culture media, the resource of the phytohormone is

(a)  agar agar

(b)  glucose

(c)  micronutrients

(d)  coconut milk

Answer: (d)

143. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the

(a)  proximal tubule

(b)  distal tubule

(c)  collecting duct

(d)  loop of Henle

Answer: (a)

144. Fertilization occurs in

(a)  uterus

(b)  ureter

(c)  vagina

(d)  fallopian tube

Answer: (d)

145. An animals which has both exoskeletal and endoskeletal structures is

(a)  tortoise

(b)  frog

(c)  jelly fish

(d)  fresh water mussel

Answer: (a)

146. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel?

(a)  7

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  9

Answer: (a)

147. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of

(a)  Hibiscus

(b)  Nephrolepis

(c)  Cycas

(d)  Funaria

Answer: (c)

148. Gastrula has a pore which is known as

(a)  Gonophore

(b)  Blastopore

(c)  Oospore

(d)  Zoospore

Answer: (b)

149. In the absence of the enterokinase, the digestion of _______ would be affected in our intestine.

(a)  amino acid

(b)  albumin

(c)  starch

(d)  maltose

Answer: (a)

150. Mitotic stages are NOT observed in

(a)  Cosmarium

(b)  E. coil

(c)  Saccharomyces

(d)  Chlorella

Answer: (b)

151. Which stage of material parasite is infective to man ?

(a)  Gametocyte

(b)  Merozoite

(c)  Cryptomerozoite

(d)  Sporozoite

Answer: (d)

152. Which one of the following reaction is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(a)  Conversion of succinate to fumerate

(b)  Conversion of fumerate to malate

(c)  Conversion of private to acetyl CoA

(d)  Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

Answer: (d)

153. Spindle fibre is made up of

(a)  Humulin

(b)  Intermediate filament

(c)  Flagellin

(d)  Tubulin

Answer: (d)

154. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

(a)  single stranded RNA

(b)  double stranded DNA

(c)  single stranded DNA

(d)  double stranded RNA

Answer: (c)

155. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the

(a)  nature of the substrate

(b)  amount of carbon dioxide released

(c)  amount of oxygen utilized

(d)  nature of enzymes involved

Answer: (a)

156. The name of Smt. Thimmakka is associated with the

(a)  planting and conservation of avenue trees

(b)  agitations against hydroelectric project

(c)  ‘Appiko’ movement

(d)  conservation of fauna and flora of the western ghats

Answer: (a)

157. When a fresh water profozoan is placed in marine water

(a)  the contractile vacuole disappears

(b)  the contractile vacuole increases in size

(c)  a number of contractile vacuoles appear

(d)  the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

Answer: (b)

158. Which of the following is a mineralocorticold?

(a)  Testosterone

(b)  Progesterone

(c)  Adrenalin

(d)  Aldosterone

Answer: (d)

159. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?

(a)  Glycogen

(b)  Sucrose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Maltose

Answer: (a)

160. Which one of the following is an example of chlorophyllous thallophyte ?

(a)  Volvarialla

(b)  Spirogyra

(c)  Nephrolepis

(d)  Gnetum

Answer: (b)

161. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by

(a)  Kohler and Milstein

(b)  Robert Koch

(c)  ‘D’ Herelle

(d)  Land Steiner

Answer: (a)

162. Approximately what percentage of human genome encodes protein ?

(a)  2%

(b)  25%

(c)  90%

(d)  99%

Answer: (c)

163. Cycas belongs to the class

(a)  Gentopsida

(b)  Cycadopsida

(c)  Coniferopsida

(d)  Sphenopsida

Answer: (b)

164. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?

(a)  Nilgiri-pipit, Rofous, babbler, Lesser-Florican

(b)  Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet

(c)  Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofoous babbler

(d)  Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit

Answer: (b)

165. Species diversity is responsible for which phenomena?

(a)  Process of Evolution

(b)  Speciation

(c)  For alternative types (allele) of gene

(d)  For stability and normal function of ecosystem

Answer: (b)

166. Flax fibre is obtained from

(a)  Cannabis sativa

(b)  Crotalaria juncea

(c)  Cocs nucifera

(d)  Linum usitatissimum

Answer: (d)

167. An embryo may sometimes develop from cell of an embryo sac other than egg is called

(a)  apospory

(b)  parthenogenesis

(c)  parthenocarpy

(d)  apogamy

Answer: (c)

168. The roots which develop from any portion of the plant EXCEPT the radical are known as

(a)  tap roots

(b)  stilt roots

(c)  fibrous roots

(d)  adventitious roots

Answer: (d)

169. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms

(a)  being ever green

(b)  being smaller size

(c)  having compounds leaves

(d)  having ovules enclosed in ovary

Answer: (d)

170. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of

(a)  infants due to protein energy malnutrition

(b)  adults due to protein energy malnutrition

(c)  adults due to vitamin D deficiency

(d)  infants due to vitamin K deficiency

Answer: (c)

171. The function of vitamin K is in

(a)  regulation of C and P metabolism

(b)  carbohydrate metabolism

(c)  blood clotting

(d)  respiration

Answer: (c)

172. Liver is characterized b presence of

(a)  Glisson’s capsule

(b)  Kupffer’s cells

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

173. Vertebral column is derived from

(a)  Dorsal nerve cord

(b)  Ventral nerve cord

(c)  Notochord

(d)  Outgrowth

Answer: (c)

174. Cosmoplites stordidus is the pest of

(a)  sugarcane

(b)  jowar

(c)  banana

(d)  cotton

Answer: (c)

175. The sterile male technique comes under _______ control.

(a)  chemical

(b)  mechanical

(c)  biological

(d)  autocidal

Answer: (c)

176. _______ is the resinous material collected from trees.

(a)  Royal jelly

(b)  Honey

(c)  Propolis

(d)  Venom

Answer: (c)

177. When colony is in danger worker bee performs

(a)  circular dance

(b)  wriggle dance

(c)  DVAV

(d)  alarm dance

Answer: (b)

178. Number of flower visited per minute is called as

(a)  Foraging rate

(b)  Foraging speed

(c)  Foraging flow

(d)  Foraging

Answer: (a)

179. Mammary glands are modified

(a)  Sebaceous glands

(b)  Sudorfic glands/ Sweat

(c)  Cultaneous glands

(d)  Scant glands

Answer: (a)

180. Hair, nails, hoofs and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as

(a)  Keratin

(b)  Globulin

(c)  Chitin

(d)  Histone

Answer: (a)

181. The poison glands of poisonous snake are modified

(a)  Buccal glands

(b)  Palantine glands

(c)  Salivery glands

(d)  Lacrymal glands

Answer: (b)

182. Sex-linked genes refers to

(a)  present in a particular sex

(b)  controlling secondary sexual characters

(c)  controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters

(d)  present on sex chromosomes

Answer: (d)

183. Clover-leaf model of tRNA was proposed

(a)  Khorana

(b)  Lederberg

(c)  Nirenberg

(d)  Holley

Answer: (d)

184. Spirulina belongs to

(a)  Xanthophyceae

(b)  Cyanophaceae

(c)  Rhodophyceae

(d)  Pheophyceae

Answer: (c)

185. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that

(a)  the strongest of all species survives

(b)  the most intelligent of the species survives

(c)  the cleverest of the species survives

(d)  the most adaptable of the species to changes survives

Answer: (d)

186. BT brinjal is an example of transgenic crops. In this, BT refers to

(a)  Bacillus tuberculosis

(b)  Biotechnology

(c)  Betacarotene

(d)Bacillus thuringiensis

Answer: (d)

187. Which one of the following is related to humoral immunity?

(a)  Platyhelminthes

(b)  Annelida

(c)  Mollusca

(d)  Echinodermata

Answer: (b)

188. Which one of t he following animal phyla does NOT possess a coelom?

(a)  Platyhelminthes

(b)  Annelida

(c)  Mollusca

(d)  Echinodermata

Answer: (a)

189. Which of the following would be in insignificant amount in xylem sap ?

(a)  Nitrates

(b)  Phosphates

(c)  Water

(d)  Sugar

Answer: (d)

190. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)  TSH and ACTH

(b)  Oestrogen and Progesterone

(c)  FSH and LH

(d)  Vassopressin and oxytocin

Answer: (d)

191. Which of the following in the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?

(a)  SA node-AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers

(b)  AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers

(c)  SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His

(d)  Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His

Answer: (a)

192. When DNA replication starts

(a)  the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break

(b)  the phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotide break

(c)  the bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break

(d)  the leading strand produces okiazaki fragments

Answer: (d)

193. What is a genophore ?

(a)  DNA in prokaryotes

(b)  DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

(c)  DNA and protein in prokaryotes

(d)  RNA in prokaryotes

Answer: (b)

194. Transpiration facilitates

(a)  opening of stomata

(b)  absorption of water by roots

(c)  excretion of minerals

(d)  electrolyte balance

Answer: (a)

195. The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are

(a)  100 S

(b)  80 S

(c)  60 S

(d)  70 S

Answer: (d)

196. The space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall of a plasmolyzed cell surrounded by a hypertonic solution is occupied by the

(a)  hypotonic solution

(b)  isotonic solution

(c)  hypertonic solution

(d)  water

Answer: (b)

197. The single horned Rhinoceros is protected at

(a)  Kaziranga National Park

(b)  Kanha National Park

(c)  Rajiv Gandhi National Park

(d)  Anashi National Park

Answer: (a)

198. The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and thirs is located is

(a)  Cerebrum

(b)  Hypothalamus

(c)  Cerebellum

(d)  Medulla Oblongata

Answer: (c)

199. The rosette habit of cabbage can be changed by application of

(a)  IAA

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  Ethaphon

Answer: (a)

200. The presence of corollary corona, sagittate anthers and dumb-bell shaped stigma are the characteristic features of

(a)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(b)  Musa paradisiaca

(c)  Ravenala madagascariensis

(d)  Catheranthus roseus

Answer: (c)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2007 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2007 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

1. Two bodies of masses m1, m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1, p2 are their momenta, the ratio p 1/p2 is equal to

(a)   

(b)  m1/m2

(c)  m2/m1

(d)   

Answer: (a)

2. At what angle to the horizon a body must be projected so that the vertical height attained and the horizontal range are equal.

(a)  tan1 1

(b)  tan1 2

(c)  tan1 3

(d)  tan1 4

Answer: (d)

3. The energy of electron in H-atom is given by En = (−6/n2)eV. Then, the energy required to send the electron from the first orbit to the second is

(a)  10.2 eV

(b)  13.6 eV

(c)  12.1 eV

(d)  3.4 eV

Answer: (a)

4. Equal number of identical cells, each of emf e and internal resistance r are joined in series and parallel. If R be the external resistance of the circuit, then the condition for equal current in two case is

(a)  er = R

(b)  R = r/e

(c)  r = R

(d)  R = r/2

Answer: (c)

5. An engine moves along a straight line such that s ∝ t2 where s is the distance traversed by the engine in time t. The power of the engine is proportional to

(a)  t2

(b)  t

(c)  t1/2

(d)  t4

Answer: (b)

6. When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a metallic surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. Another beam of radiation however causes photoemission from the same surface. The second beam must consist of

(a)  radio waves

(b)  infrared rays

(c)  visible radiation

(d)  X-rays

Answer: (d)

7. The current in a coil of inductance 20μH increases uniformly from zero to 1 ampere in 0.1 second. The magnitude of the induced emf in volt is given by

(a)  2 × 104

(b)  2

(c)  2 × 105

(d)  2 × 106

Answer: (a)

8. A certain radioactive element  transform into  In the process, how many α and β particles are emitted?

(a)  6, 8

(b)  7, 4

(c)  4, 7

(d)  8, 6

Answer: (b)

9. The image of an object formed by a convex mirror is 1/n times the size of the object. The focal length of the mirror is f. The object distance is

(a)  (n – 1)f

(b)  f/n

(c)  (n + 1)f

(d)  nf

Answer: (a)

10. The refractive angle of a prism is 60° and  there refractive index of the prismatic material is   If a ray of emergent light grazes the second surface of refraction, the angle of incidence would be

(a)  45°

(b)  60°

(c)  30°

(d)  0°

Answer: (d)

11. The path difference between the two waves

y1 =  a1sin(ωt – 2πx/λ) and

y2 = a2 cos(ωt – 2πx/λ + ϕ) is given by

(a)  (λ/2π)ϕ

(b)  (2π/λ)ϕ

(c)  (λ/2π)(ϕ + π/2)

(d)  (2π/λ) (ϕ + π/2)

Answer: (a)

12. An equiconvex lens of focal length 2 m is symmetrically cut into two pieces to obtained two plano-convex lenses. The focal length of each piece is

(a)  4 m

(b)  2 m

(c)  1 m

(d)  8 m

Answer: (a)

13. With what velocity should a source of sound approach a stationary observer so that the apparent frequency be double the actual? (Velocity of sound = 332 m/s)

(a)  83 m/s

(b)  166 m/s

(c)  332 m/s

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

14. In a capillary glass tube, water rises to a height h. The cross-sectional area of the tube is next reduced to one-fourth of the previous value. The water will now rise to a height

(a)  4h

(b)  h/4

(c)  2h

(d)  h/2

Answer: (c)

15. A proton of mass m moves with a velocity v parallel to a magnetic field of flux density B. The force experienced by proton is

(a)  Bv

(b)  zero

(c)  Bmv

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (b)

16. A D.C. voltage supply has an internal resistance of rΩ. A resistive load R is connected across the terminals of the supply. the power developed in R is maximum when the value of R is

(a)  1Ω

(b)  √2Ω

(c)  r2Ω

(d)  rΩ

Answer: (d)

17. The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material is

(a)  0

(b)  grater than 1

(c)  negative

(d)  less than 1

Answer: (c)

18. The saturation current of a diode valve is governed by

(a)  Ampere’s law

(b)  Kirchoff’s law

(c)  Chirld’s law

(d)  Richardson’s law

Answer: (d)

19. In a vacuum tube, the principal effect of negative space charge is to

(a)  increase electron emission from cathode

(b)  decrease the grid current

(c)  increase the plate voltage

(d)  decrease the plate current

Answer: (d)

20. A triode valve has a resistance 5 × 103 ohm and its mutual conductance is 1.5 × 103/volt. The valve has an amplification factor

(a)  7.5

(b)  3 × 105

(c)  3 × 106

(d)  75

Answer: (a)

21. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field at right angles to the direction of the field. Which of the following would change?

(a)  Charge of the particle

(b)  Speed of the particle

(c)  Energy of the particle

(d)  Trajectory of particle

Answer: (d)

22. How much electricity should be passed through an electrolyte solution for one second to liberate one gram-equivalent weight of the substance at the electrode.

(a)  1 C

(b)  96500 C

(c)  1 Faraday

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Answer: (d)

23. A p article moves such that the velocity in m/sec is given by 

The acceleration of the body at the instant t = 2s given by

(a)  1 ms−2

(b)  2 ms−2

(c)  4 ms−2

(d)  6 ms−2

Answer: (d)

24. The sum of the absorptance, reflectance and transmittance of a body is always

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  between 0 and 1

(d)  infinite

Answer: (b)

25. A liquid flows through a tube. If α, β be the cross-sections of the portions of the tube at two places 1 and 2, then the ratio of the speeds v1/v2 at the two places will be

(a)  α/β

(b)  β/α

(c)  α22

(d)   

Answer: (b)

26. The turn-ratio in a step-up transformer is 1 : 3. A Lechlance cell of emf 1.5V is connected across the primary. The volt age across the secondary will be

(a)  4.5 V

(b)  0.5 V

(c)  0 V

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

27. In n-p-n transistor, the collector current is

(a)  equal to emitter current

(b)  slightly less than emitter current

(c)  greater than emitter current

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

28. The nuclei suitable for fusion process are

(a)  light nuclei

(b)  heavy nuclei

(c)  intermediate nuclei in periodic table

(d)  any nuclei

Answer: (a)

29. In Young’s double slit experiment, the separation and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity of light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

(a)  unchanged

(b)  halved

(c)  Doubled

(d)  quadrupied

Answer: (d)

30. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness and having a refractive index μ. If c be the velocity light in vacuum, the time taken by light to travel this thickness of glass is

(a)  t/μc

(b)  tμc

(c)  tμ/c

(d)  tc/μ

Answer: (c)

31. The angular momentum of the electron in H-atom can possibly be

(a)  h/4π

(b)  h/2π

(c)  2π /h

(d)  h/π

Answer: (b)

32. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were not allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be

(a)  60

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  64

Answer: (a)

33. If the main A.C. supply is 220V, the maximum voltage of the supply will be

(a)  220V

(b)  440V

(c)  311V

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

34. The average power in a pure inductive circuit is given by

(a)  Irms × Vrms

(b)  Imax × V­max

(c)  1

(d)  zero

Answer: (d)

35. A capacitor of 0.052 F after being charged to 600 V is connected across another capacitor of 0.1F. the voltage across the capacitor changes from 600 V to

(a)  100 V

(b)  120 V

(c)  300 V

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

36. In the decay equation, a neutron can be considered as nucleus of (A = mass number, Z = atomic number)

(a)  A = 0, Z = 0

(b)  A = 1, Z = 0

(c)  A = 0, Z = 1

(d)  A = 0, Z = −1

Answer: (b)

37. Ne nucleus, after absorbing energy, decays into two α-particles and an unknown nucleus. The unknown nucleus is

(a)  nitrogen

(b)  carbon

(c)  boron

(d)  oxygen

Answer: (b)

38. The potential energy of an electron in the first Bhor orbit in an H-atom is

(a)  13.6 eV

(b)  −13.6 eV

(c)  27.2 eV

(d)  −27.2 eV

Answer: (d)

39. The astronaut in a satellite moving in a circular orbit somewhat expels out one fifth of the mass of the satellite. Now the satellite will be

(a)  go to an orbit of smaller radius

(b)  go to an orbit of larger radius

(c)  go to an orbit elliptic radius

(d)  remain in the same orbit.

Answer: (d)

40. The potential difference between A and B is 23 V. The potential difference in volt across the 3 μF capacitor is given by

(a)  7

(b)  8

(c)  23

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

41. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process  , where a, b are constants. When V = b, the temperature of the gas is

(a)  a/27Rb

(b)  ab/R

(c)  ab/2R

(d)  ab/5R

Answer: (c)

42. A tank containing water has two orifices at depths 40 cm and 90 cm below the free surface of water. The ratio of discharges through orifices is

(a)  4 : 9

(b)  2 : 3

(c)  5 : 9

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (b)

43. A liquid of refractive index 1.5 is poured into a beaker such that the height of the liquid is 6 cm. The apparent depth of the liquid will be

(a)  3 cm

(b)  5 cm

(c)  9 cm

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

44. A photon behave as if it had a mass equal to

(a)  hγ/c

(b)  hγ/c2

(c)  c/hγ

(d)  c2/hγ

Answer: ()

45. In the circuit shown in the figure, the heat produced in the 5 Ω resistor, due to current flowing through it, is 10 calories/s. The heat generated in the 4 Ω resistor is given by

(a)  1 cal/s

(b)  2 cal/s

(c)  3 cal/s

(d)  4 cal/s

Answer: ()

46. In Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light at the central fringe is I0. The intensity of light at the same spot, when one of the slits is closed is

(a)  (1/2)I0

(b)  I0

(c)  (1/4)I0

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

47. A sphere has numerically equal volume and surface area. Such a sphere has a radius

(a)  9 unit

(b)  6 unit

(c)  3 unit

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

48. A physical quantity P is given by the relation 

The quantity that brings in the maximum percentage error is

(a)  B

(b)  A

(c)  D

(d)  C

Answer: ()

49. A closed vessel of volume V contains helium at a pressure P and temperature T. Another closed vessel of same volume V contains oxygen at pressure 2P and temperature T/2. The ratio of mHe : mO2 is

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  1 : 16

Answer: ()

50. A mixture of two gases A and B is enclosed at constant temperature. The ratio of the molecular weights A (diatomic) and B(monatomic) is 8. The ratio of the r.m.s. speed of molecules of B to that of the molecules of A is

(a)  8

(b)  4

(c)  16

(d)  2√2

Answer: ()

51. The Newtonian constant of gravitation G has the dimensional formula

(a)  MLT3

(b)  ML2T3

(c)  ML3T2

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

52. Two vectors  are such that . Then the angle between the vectors is

(a)  0°

(b)  90°

(c)  120°

(d)  180°

Answer: (b)

53. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. If the velocity of the smaller piece be 16 m/sec, then kinetic energy of the larger piece is

(a)  96 J

(b)  384 J

(c)  192 J

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

54. A machine gun fires n bullets a second. If the mass and speed of each bullet be m and v respectively, then the force acting on the machine gun is

(a)  mn/v

(b)  mnv

(c)  mv/n

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

55. What is the total current in the circuit shown in the adjacent diagram?

(a)  1 A

(b)  2 A

(c)  3 A

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

56. A certain radioactive element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. What fraction of element is left?

(a)  e1

(b)  √e

(c)  1 – e1

(d)  1 – √e

Answer: (a)

57. The frequency f light falling on a photosensitive material is doubled. Then the kinetic energy of the photelectron

(a)  is also doubled

(b)  is less than double

(c)  more than double

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

58. A convex lens has maximum focal length for

(a)  yellow rays

(b)  green rays

(c)  violet rays

(d)  red rays

Answer: (d)

59. In a simple harmonic motion, it is found that the maximum acceleration is α and the maximum velocity is β. The period of the S.H.M is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  T = 2πβ/α

(d)  T = β2

Answer: (c)

60. Two satellites of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) revolve around the earth in circular orbits of radii r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. If their speeds be v1 and v2 respectively then

(a)  v1 = v2

(b)  v1 < v2

(c)  v1/r1 = v2/r2

(d)  v1 > v2

Answer: (d)

61. If the densities of two gases are in the ratio 25 : 9, then the velocities of sound in the two gases will be in the ratio of

(a)  9 : 25

(b)  3 : 5

(c)  5 : 3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

62. The ratio of the radius of planet P to that of plant Q is r. The ratio of the g-values on the planets is x. Then, the ratio of the escape velocities corresponding to the two planets is

(a)  xr

(b)    

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

63. There are two charges +1 μC and +5 μC, separated by a distance d. The ratio of the forces acing on them is

(a)  1 : 5

(b)  5 : 1

(c)  1 : 25

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (d)

64. The Young’s modulus of a material in the form of a wire is numerically equal that stress which will increase the length L0 of the wire to

(a)   

(b)  2L0

(c)   

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

65. Which of the following is an ohmic conductor

(a)  Transistor

(b)  Thermionic valve

(c)  Constantan

(d)  Electrolyte

Answer: (c)

66. When light travels from one medium to another, separated by a sharp boundary, the characteristic that does not change is

(a)  velocity

(b)  wavelength

(c)  amplitude

(d)  frequency

Answer: (d)

Chemistry

1. Bohr’s model can explain

(a)  the spectrum of hydrogen only

(b)  the spectrum of atom or ion containing one electron only

(c)  the spectrum of hydrogen molecule

(d)  the solar spectrum

Answer: (b)

2. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative atom is

(a)  ns2 np3

(b)  ns2 np4

(c)  ns2 np5

(d)  ns2 np6

Answer: (c)

3. Diagonal relationship exists between

(a)  Li and Mg

(b)  Na and Mg

(c)  K and Mg

(d)  Al and Mg

Answer: (a)

4. The energy required to remove an electron of a gaseous atom from its ground state is called

(a)  potential energy

(b)  ionization energy

(c)  electrode potential

(d)  activation energy

Answer: (b)

5. Amongst the following, the molecule that is linear is

(a)  CO2

(b)  NO2

(c)  SO2

(d)  SiO2

Answer: (a)

6. Which has the least bond angle?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BeF2

(c)  H2O

(d)  CH4

Answer: (c)

7. Amongst the following molecules, the one with the largest distance between the two adjacent carbon atoms is

(a)  ethane

(b)  ethene

(c)  ethyne

(d)  benzene

Answer: (a)

8. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors

(a)  as a fuel

(b)  for lining inside of the reactor as an insulator

(c)  as a lubricant

(d)  for reducing the velocity of neutrons

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

(a)  P

(b)  As

(c)  Bi

(d)  Sb

Answer: (a)

10. Oxygen molecule exhibits

(a)  paramagpetism

(b)  diamagnetism

(c)  ferromagnetism

(d)  ferrimagnetism

Answer: (a)

11. Mark the element which displaces other halogens from their compounds.

(a)  F

(b)  Cl

(c)  Br

(d)  I

Answer: (a)

12. Which of the following series contain only nucleophiles?

(a)  H2O, SO3, H3O+

(b)  NH3, H2O, ROH

(c)  NH3, H2O, AlCl3

(d)  CN, SO3, OH

Answer: (b)

13. Which of the following exerts +I effect ?

(a)  CH3

(b)  Cl

(c)  −NH2

(d)  −NO2

Answer: (a)

14. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism

(a)  but-1-ene

(b)  but-2-ene

(c)  propene

(d)  1, 1-dichlorobutane

Answer: (b)

15. . The compound is 

(a)  acetic acid

(b)  acetaldehyde

(c)  acetone

(d)  ethanol

Answer: (b)

16. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in presence of sunlight to form

(a)  formyl chloride

(b)  phosgene

(c)  trichloroacetic acid

(d)  formic acid

Answer: (b)

17. The change in internal energy of a system depends on

(a)  initial and final states of the system

(b)  whether the path is reversible

(c)  whether the path is irreversible

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

18. In exothermal reactions

(a)  ∆E = 0

(b)  ∆H is negative

(c)  S = 0

(d)  H is positive

Answer: (b)

19. If the equilibrium constant of the reaction 2HI ⇌ H2 + I2 is 0.25, the equilibrium constant of the reaction H2 + I3 ⇌ 2HI would be

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

20. For the reaction N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 + heat

(a)  Kp = Ke

(b)  Kp = KcRT

(c)  Kp = Kc(RT)1

(d)  Kp = Kc(RT)1

Answer: (c)

21. Diazonium salt decomposes as C6H5N2 + Cl → C6H2Cl + N2

At 0℃, the evolution of N2 becomes 2 times faster when the initial concentration of the salt is doubled. So it is

(a)  a first order reaction

(b)  a second order reaction

(c)  independent of the initial concentration of the salt

(d)  a zero order reaction

Answer: (a)

22. If the concentration is expressed in moles litre, the unit of the rate constant of a first order reaction is

(a)  Mole litre1 sec1

(b)  sec1

(c)  Mole litre1

(d)  Mole1

Answer: (c)

23. The number of Faradays needed to reduce 4 gm equivalents of Cu2+ to Cu metal will be

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1/2

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

24. The radionucleide  undergoes two successive β-decays followed by one α-decay. The atomic number and mass number respectively of the resulting radionucleide are :

(a)  92 and 234

(b)  94 and 230

(c)  90 and 230

(d)  92 and 230

Answer: (c)

25. Half-life of a radioelement X is twice that of another radioelement Y. Initially the number of X and Y atoms are Nx and Ny If after 3 h alf lives of X, the number of atoms of X and Y become equal. then the ratio of Nx : Ny is

(a) 1 : 2

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  1 : 6

(d)  1 : 8

Answer: ()

26. A solution of potassium ferrocyanide would contain

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5 ions

Answer: (d)

27. In the complexes [Fe(CN)6]3 & [Cr(C2O4)]3 the respective coordination number of iron and chromium are

(a)  6 and 3

(b)  3 and 3

(c)  6 and 6

(d)  3 and 6

Answer: (c)

28. Which of the following metal is obtained by leaching its ore with dilute cyanide solution?

(a)  Silver

(b)  Titanium

(c)  Vanadium

(d)  Zinc

Answer: (a)

29. Which one of the following metals forms a volatile compound and this property is taken advantage for its extractioq?

(a)  Iron

(b)  Nickel

(c)  Cobalt

(d)  Tungsten

Answer: (b)

30. Alkali metals give colour in Bunsen flame due to

(a)  ionization potential

(b)  low melting point

(c)  softness

(d)  one electron in outermost orbit

Answer: (a)

31. Glauber’s salt is

(a)  Na2CO3, 10H2O

(b)  Na2SO4, 10H2O

(c)  CuSO4, 5H2O

(d)  FeSO4, 7H2O

Answer: (c)

32. The geometry and type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3 is

(a)  linear; sp

(b)  trigonal, sp2

(c)  tetrahedral, sp3

(d)  pyramidal, sp3

Answer: (b)

33. Transition metal are coloured due to

(a)  small size

(b)  metallic nature

(c)  unpaired d electrons

(d)  all

Answer: (c)

34. Cr has which of the following electronic configuration?

(a)  3s2 3p6 3d4 4s2

(b)  3s2 3P6 3d5 4s1

(c)  3s2 3P6 3d6

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

35. Cinnabar is an ore of

(a)  Hg

(b)  Cu

(c)  Pb

(d)  Zn

Answer: (a)

36. When acetaldehyde is heated with Fehling’s solution, it gives a precipitate of

(a)  Cu

(b)  CuO

(c)  Cup

(d)  Cu + CuO +Cu2O

Answer: (b)

37. The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketone is an example of

(a)  electrophilic addition

(b)  nucleophilic addition

(c)  nucleophilic substitution

(d)  electrophilic substitution

Answer: (b)

38. Cannizzaro reaction is not responded by

(a)  trimethylacetaldehyde

(b)  benzaldehyde

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  fonnaldehyde

Answer: (c)

39. Which compound would liberate CO2 from, NaHCO3 solution ?

(a)  CH3CONH2

(b)  CH3NH2

(c)  (CH3)4N+OH

(d)  [CH3NH3]+ Cl

Answer: ()

40. Benzenediazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly alkaline medium gives

(a)  diphenyl ether

(b)  para hydroxyazobenzene

(c)  chlorobenzene

(d)  benzene

Answer: (b)

41. Cyclopentadienyl anion is aromatic due to the presence of

(a)  6 π electrons

(b)  10 π electrons

(c)  4 π electrons

(d)  12 π electrons

Answer: (b)

42. The reaction of tolune with chlorine in presence of FeCl3 gives predominantly

(a)  benzoyl chloride

(b)  m-chlorotoluene

(c)  benzyl chloride

(d)  o-and p-chlorotoluenes

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following does not react with Fehling’s solution?

(a)  Acetaldehyde

(b)  Glucose

(c)  Benzaldehyde

(d)  Formaldehyde

Answer: (b)

44. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by

(a)  Wurtz reaction

(b)  Cannizzaro reaction

(c)  Perkin reaction

(d)  Claisen reaction

Answer: (b)

45. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of stratospheric ozone?

(a)  Polyhalogens

(b)  Ferrocene

(c)  Fullerenes

(d)  Chlorofluorocarbons

Answer: (d)

46. A greenhouse gas is

(a)  H2S

(b)  H2O vapour

(c)  SO2

(d)  NO2

Answer: (c)

47. Natural rubber is a polymer of

(a)  neoprene

(b)  chloroprene

(c)  isoprene

(d)  butadiene

Answer: (c)

48. Which of the following is an antibiotic?

(a)  Chloroamphenicol

(b)  Aspirin

(c)  Paracetamol

(d)  Chloroquine

Answer: (a)

49. Which one of the following is a conducting polymer?

(a)  PVC

(b)  Bakelite

(c)  Polyaniline

(d)  Polyethylene

Answer: (c)

50. An atom is 10 times heavier than 1/12th mass of a carbon atom (C-12). The mass of the atom in a.m.u. is

(a)  10

(b)  120

(c)  1.2

(d)  12

Answer: (a)

51. Haemoglobin contains 0.33% of iron by mass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is approximately 67200. the number of iron atoms (at. mass 56) in one molecule of haemoglobin is

(a)  6

(b)  1

(c)  4

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

52. Analysis shows that a binary compound of x(at. mass = 10) and y(at. mass = 20) contains 50% x. The formula of the compound is

(a)  xy

(b)  x2y

(c)  xy2

(d)  x2­y3

Answer: (b)

53. The maximum number of molecules is present in

(a)  15 L of H2 gas at STP

(b)  5L of N2 gas at STP

(c)  .5 g of H2 gas

(d)  10 g of O2 gas

Answer: (a)

54. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25℃. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  1 : 1

(c)  1 : 16

(d)  15 : 16

Answer: (d)

55. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight of X is

(a)  64

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  8

Answer: (a)

56. In Vander Waal’s equation of state for a real gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is

(a)  (v – b)

(b)  RT

(c)   

(d)  (RT)1

Answer: (c)

57. Which of the following is not a coligative property?

(a)  Osmotic pressure

(b)  Elevation of b.p.

(c)  Vapour pressure

(d)  Depression of f.p.

Answer: (a)

58. Blood and the solution in which blood cells retain their normal forms are

(a)  isotonic

(b)  hypertonic

(c)  isoosmotic

(d)  equinormal

Answer: (a)

59. Milk is an example of

(a)  pure solution

(b)  emulsion

(c)  gel

(d)  suspension

Answer: (b)

60. Gold number represents

(a)  quantity of gold in alloys

(b)  percentage of gold in gold biscuits

(c)  colloid protective power

(d)  percentage of gold in colloidal gold

Answer: (c)

61. The sky appears blue due to

(a)  dispersion

(b)  reflection

(c)  transmission

(d)  scattering

Answer: (d)

62. How many Cl are there around Na+ ion in NaCl crystal?

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer: (c)

63. In a crystal, the atoms are located at the position of

(a)  maximum P.E.

(b)  minimum P.E.

(c)  zero P. E.

(d)  infinite P.E.

Answer: (b)

64. The number of d-electron retained in Fe2 ion (at, no. of Fe = 26) is

(a)  6

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (a)

65. For principal quantum number n= 4, the total number of orbitals having t = 3 is

(a)  3

(b)  7

(c)  5

(d)  9

Answer: ()

66. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of a particles showed for the first time that the atom has

(a)  electrons

(b)  protons

(c)  nucleus

(d)  neutrons

Answer: (c)

Biology

1. The last five vertebral in the human vertebral column is fused and called

(a)  Pygostyle

(b)  Coccyx

(c)  Sacrum

(d)  Urostyle

Answer: (c)

2. Thoracic ribs have two heads which articulate with

(a)  the sternum and the neural arch of the stenum

(b)  the neural arch and the transverse process of the vertebra

(c)  the sternum and transverse process of vertebra

(d)  the sternum and the neural spine of vertebra

Answer: (c)

3. During muscle contraction which filaments of a myofibril move?

(a)  Myosin filaments

(b)  Actin filaments

(c)  Both myosin and actin filaments

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

4. At the time of swallowing food the nasal passage is blocked by

(a)  terminal part of the soft palate

(b)  the epiglottis

(c)  the tongue

(d)  the turbinates

Answer: (b)

5. Normal quite breathing of either the costal or abdominal type is known as

(a)  Apnea

(b)  Dyspnea

(c)  Orthopnea

(d)  Eupnea

Answer: (d)

6. Breathing rate is controlled by coordination centres in

(a)  the medulla oblongata

(b)  the hypothalamus

(c)  the cerebral hemisphere

(d)  the cerebellum

Answer: (a)

7. Wall of the stomach is not damaged/digested by the gastric juice, because

(a)  Stomach lining secretes antacid

(b)  Stomach cells produce some antienzymes

(c)  Stomach lining is covered with thick mucus

(d)  Gastric juice is diluted with water in food

Answer: (c)

8. Lacteals are

(a)  the ducts of mammary gland

(b)  blood vessels draining the small intestine

(c)  lymph vessels in the villi of intestine

(d)  blood vessels in the kidney

Answer: (a)

9. Parathormone tends to increase blood concentration of calcium, the reverse effect is produced by

(a)  Glucocorticoides

(b)  Thyrocalcitonin

(c)  Aldosterone

(d)  Thyroxine

Answer: (b)

10. Granular leukocyte are produced in

(a)  the red bone narrow

(b)  the lymphatic tissue

(c)  the liver

(d)  the spleen

Answer: (a)

11. Which of the following constituents are essential for normal blood clotting?

(a)  Vitamin B12 and Na+

(b)  Vitamin B12 and Ca++

(c)  Vitamin K and Ca++

(d)  Vitamin K and Na+

Answer: (c)

12. Bundle of His is situated in

(a)  the wall of the interauricular spetum

(b)  the interventricular septum

(c)  the wall of the pulmonary aorta

(d)  the wall of the superior vencava

Answer: (b)

13. Nissl bodies consist of

(a)  groups of flat, membranous sacs and RNA

(b)  membranous sacs containing mitochondria

(c)  vesicles secreting acetylcholine

(d)  vesicles secreting cholinesterase

Answer: (a)

14. A nerve impulse is

(a)  the depolarization of the nerve fibre

(b)  the repolarization of the nerve fibre

(c)  the self propagating wave of negativity

(d)  a wave of positivity

Answer: (c)

15. The appetite centre is located in

(a)  the cerebral cortex

(b)  the lateral part of the hypothalamus

(c)  the middle part of the  hypothalamus

(d)  medulla oblongata

Answer: (c)

16. The blood group of a child is AB, and that of one of the parents is B; the blood group of other parent may be

(a)  A, AB

(b)  B, AB

(c)  A, B, AB

(d)  O, B

Answer: (a)

17. The blood plasma of a person of blood group AB is transfused into person of group ‘O’ the recipient will

(a)  die

(b)  suffer from agglutination

(c)  suffer from hemorrhage

(d)  remain normal

Answer: (b)

18. The cause of Down’s syndrome is

(a)  loss of one chromosome

(b)  trisomy of 21st chromosome

(c)  an XXY condition

(d)  and XO condition

Answer: (b)

19. Infective stage of Entamoeba histolytica is

(a)  Trophozoite stage

(b)  Quadrinucleated cysts

(c)  Octanucleated cysts

(d)  Minuta stage

Answer: (a)

20. Exflagellationis the process found in the formation of

(a)  Sporozoites in Plasmodium vivax

(b)  Female garnets of Plasmodium vivax

(c)  Male garnets of Plasmodium vivax

(d)  Ookinete of Plasmodium vivax

Answer: (d)

21. Digestion of food in Hydra is

(a)  extracellular

(b)  intracellular

(c)  both extracellular and intracellular

(d)  some times extracellular, sometimes intracellular

Answer: (a)

22. Gonads of Obelia are placed in the

(a)  Blastostyle

(b)  Feeding Zooid

(c)  Medusa

(d)  Hydrorhyza

Answer: (c)

23. Physalia is a

(a)  Solitary Zooid

(b)  Polymorphic Colony

(c)  Dimorphic Colony

(d)  Trimorphic Colony

Answer: ()

24. During copulation of earthworms sperms are transferred into

(a)  Oviducts

(b)  Spermathecae

(c)  Seminal vesicles

(d)  Sperm ducts

Answer: (b)

25. The elongated body with two pairs of legs in each body segments is found in

(a)  Scorpion

(b)  Millipede

(c)  Mites

(d)  Prawn

Answer: (b)

26. The fish with placoid scales and heterocercal tail is

(a)  Jelly fish

(b)  Cuttle fish

(c)  Dogfish

(d)  Cat fish

Answer: (c)

27. A mammal that lays egg is

(a)  The scaly ant eater (pangolin)

(b)  Kangaroo

(c)  Whale

(d)  Platypus

Answer: (d)

28. The adult chordaic without persistent notochord is

(a)  the ascidian

(b)  the amphioxus

(c)  the scoliodon

(d)  Hagfish

Answer: ()

29. The best non-renewable energy resource for mankind is

(a)  Nuclear energy

(b)  Hydroelectricity

(c)  Solar energy

(d)  Thermal power

Answer: (a)

30. Excretory organs in Cockroach are

(a)  Green gland

(b)  Nephridia

(c)  Malpighian tubules

(d)  Coxal gland

Answer: (c)

31. Osphradium is present in the mantle cavity near

(a)  ctenidium

(b)  right nuchal lobe

(c)  over the buccal mass

(d)  left nuchal lobe

Answer: (a)

32. The last moulting of Ascar larva takes place in

(a)  Lung of man

(b)  Intestine of man

(c)  Liver of man

(d)  Heart of man

Answer: ()

33. The smallest unit of a rom pound eye in Periplaneta is

(a)  Ommatidium

(b)  Rod cells

(c)  Cone cells

(d)  Rhabdome

Answer: ()

34. Primitive streak develops during

(a)  Cleavage

(b)  Blastulation

(c)  Gastrulation

(d)  Implantation

Answer: (a)

35. Slight yellow colour of normal urine is due to the presence of

(a)  Billirubin

(b)  Billivardin

(c)  Ketone bodies

(d)  Urochrome

Answer: (d)

36. Rate of glomerular filtration and the power of nitrogen retention of kidney decreases and insomnia is found in

(a)  Grave’s disease

(b)  Addison’s disease

(c)  Cushing’s syndrome

(d)  Diabetes mellitus

Answer: (a)

37. The plants do not store carbohydrates as glucose, because it

(a)  would replace ribose in DNA synthesis

(b)  is an unstable molecule

(c)  attracts insects harbivores

(d)  dissolves in water, thereby altering the  osmotic balance

Answer: (d)

38. The spindle fibres formed during mitosis connect to the

(a)  Nucleoli

(b)  Sugar-phosphate strands

(c)  Kinetochores

(d)  Nuclear membrane

Answer: (c)

39. The carbohydrates in cell membrane participates in

(a)  cell to cell recognition

(b)  transporting substances across the  membrane

(c)  attaching the membrane to the cytoskeleton

(d)  cell adhesion

Answer: (a)

40. The two strands of a double-helix model DNA are held together hydrogen bond between

(a)  sugar and phosphate group

(b)  sugar and nitrogenous bases

(c)  phosphate groups and nitrogenous bases

(d)  nitrogenous bases

Answer: (d)

41. In the synthesis of a new strand for a DNA molecule by linking nucleotides to the developing strand which enzyme catalyzes?

(a)  DNA ligase

(b)  DNA polymerase

(c)  Tupoisomerase

(d)  Endonuclease

Answer: (a)

42. A Barr-body is a

(a)  extranuclear molecular DNA

(b)  connection between two X-chromosome.

(c)  coiled, inert X-chromosome

(d)  Supernumerary Y-chromosome

Answer: (c)

43. Most of the fossils are found in

(a)  Granite rock

(b)  Lava flows

(c)  Black soil

(d)  Sedimentary rock

Answer: (d)

44. The ‘Natural selection’ is best defined as occurring when the environment causes

(a)  differ initial success in reproduction

(b)  differential mortality

(c)  assertive mating

(d)  a reduced gene pool

Answer: (c)

45. Presence of Cnidoblast cell is the characteristic feature of

(a)  Physalia

(b)  Beroe

(c)  Poterion

(d)  Trypanosoma

Answer: (c)

46. The Hybrid disease in man is caused by the larvae of

(a)  Echinococcus granulosus

(b)  Taenia solium

(c)  Ancylostoma duodenale

(d)  Fasciola hepatica

Answer: (a)

47. Microfilaria bancroffii is the embryo of

(a)  Ascaris lumbricoides

(b)  Ancylostoma duodenale

(c)  Fasciola hepatica

(d)  Wuchereria sp

Answer: (d)

48. The enzymes of Lysosomes are capable of

(a)  Aerobic cellular respiration

(b)  Synthesizing proteins

(c)  Digesting part of cells

(d)  Synthesizing lipids

Answer: (c)

49. Which one of the following is a crop pest?

(a)  Tse-tse fly

(b)  Drosophila

(c)  Aphid

(d)  Pediculus

Answer: (c)

50. SO2 of the atmosphere combines with water to form H2SO4 and this when reaches to soil it

(a)  increases pH of soil

(b)  decreases pH of soil

(c)  pH remains unchanged

(d)  Soil eroded easily

Answer: (b)

51. Dependance of host cell nucleic add for multiplication is found in

(a)  Bacteria

(b)  Mycoplasma

(c)  Virus

(d)  Eukaryotes

Answer: (c)

52. Fixation of atmospheric Nitrogen to the soil is known as

(a)  Nitrogen fixation

(b)  Denitrification

(c)  Ammonification

(d)  Decomposition

Answer: (a)

53. Azygospores is produced in spirogyra by

(a)  Conjugation

(b)  Parthenogenesis

(c)  Syngamy

(d)  Fertilization

Answer: (c)

54. Which of the following is a development for pterdophytes over Bryophytes?

(a)  Formation of spores

(b)  Alternation of generation

(c)  Vascular system

(d)  Presence of ovator

Answer: (c)

55. All of the following features are shown by Monocotyledonous plants except

(a)  Bears only one Cotyledon in their embryo

(b)  Radicle on germination produces adventitious roots

(c)  Leaves show parallel venation

(d)  Vascular bundles are open in stem

Answer: (d)

56. Which of the following is true in exalbuminous seed?

(a)  Only nucellus is consumed

(b)  None of the endosperm and nucellus are consumed.

(c)  Only endosperm is consumed

(d)  Both endosperm and nucellus are consumed.

Answer: (a)

57. Tuberous modification of roots is for

(a)  mechanical support

(b)  vital function

(c)  storage of food

(d)  reproduction

Answer: (c)

58. Which of the following pair of words are appropriately matched?

(a)  Tuber-Ginger

(b)  Rhzome-Onion

(c)  Cladode-Asparagus

(d)  Phyllode-Hugonia

Answer: (c)

59. When rachis contains more than three leaflets in a compound pinnate leaf, it is called

(a)  Peripinnate

(b)  Quadrifoliate

(c)  Imparipinnate

(d)  Decompound

Answer: (c)

60. In which of the following Hypanthodium type of inflorescence is seen?

(a)  Euphorbia

(b)  Ficus

(c)  Dorstenia

(d)  Sibricus

Answer: (b)

61. Which of the following combination of Chromosomal pattern is produced by double fertilization and triple fusion?

(a)  n and n

(b)  2n and 3n

(c)  n and 2n

(d)  2n and 2n

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following diseases is most likely to occur due to noise pollution?

(a)  Hypertension

(b)  Diabetes

(c)  Lung cancer

(d)  Renal failure

Answer: (a)

63. Chlorophyll is found to be concentrated in which part of plastid?

(a)  Grana

(b)  Lamellae

(c)  Stroma

(d)  Sap

Answer: (a)

64. Which of the following phenomenon contradicts Mendels’ Law of Independent Assortment?

(a)  Linkage

(b)  Testcross

(c)  Back cross

(d)  Abberation

Answer: (a)

65. Which one of the following enzymes is used in genetic Engineering?

(a)  Lipoprotein lipase

(b)  Endonuclease

(c)  Enterokinase    

(d)  Amylase

Answer: (b)

66. All of the following are end products in light reaction of photosynthesis except

(a)  Adenosine triphosphate

(b)  NADPW

(c)  Oxygen

(d)  Phosphoglyceric acid

Answer: (d)

67. How many molecules of ATP are produced in anaerobic glycolysis?

(a)  Two

(b)  Three

(c)  Four

(d)  Five

Answer: (a)

68. Which of the following hormones helps in blooming of flowers?

(a)  Auxin

(b)  Cytokinin

(c)  Gibberelin

(d)  Florigen

Answer: (d)

 

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2008 O.U.A.T. Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. A mass attached to a spring oscillates with frequency f1. The spring is cut into two halves and the same mass when attached to one of the halves oscillates with frequency f2. The ratio f1/f2 is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  5/4

(d)  none of these

Answer: (d)

2. Two boxes of identical shape but of different masses are dropped from the same height. The heavier one will reach the ground (assume the presence of air)

(a)  earlier

(b)  later

(c)  simultaneously with the lighter one

(d)  earlier or later depending on air pressure

Answer: (c)

3. Photoelectrons from a photosensitive surface are obtained by irradiating it with light of 3000 A0. In order to obtain electrons with higher kinetic energy.

(a)  intensity of the radiation should be increased.

(b)  wavelength of the radiation should be increased.

(c)  wavelength of the radiation should be decreased.

(d)  both intensity and wavelength should be increased.

Answer: (a)

4. According to Kepler’s Law of planetary motion, the squares of the periods of the planets are proportional to

(a)  their mean distance from the Sun

(b)  the square of masses of the planets

(c)  the square of masses of the planets

(d)  the cube of their mean distance from the Sun.

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

5. Benoulli’s principle is based on the principle of conservation of

(a)  mass

(b)  momentum

(c)  annual momentum

(d)  energy

(e)  none of these

Answer: (d)

6. When a large bubble rises from the bottom of a lake to the surface, its radius doubles. The atmospheric pressure is equal to that of a column of water of height H. The depth of the lake is

(a)  7H

(b)  2H

(c)  4H

(d)  8H

Answer: (a)

7. A gymnast sits on a rotating stool, with his arms out stretched. Suddenly he lowers his arms. Then

(a)  the angular momentum increases

(b)  the angular momentum decreases

(c)  the moment of inertia decreases

(d)  the angular velocity remains constant

Answer: (c)

8. In a heat reservoir, when a certain amount of heat is withdrawn, the temperature of the reservoir.

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  becomes zero

(d)  remains constant

Answer: (d)

9. The specific resistance of a wire

(a)  varies with its mass

(b)  varies with its length

(c)  varies with its cross-section

(d)  varies with length and cross-section

(e)  is independent of mass, length and cross-section

Answer: (e)

10. You are provided with three “60W-220V” bulbs to be used in household supply. To get the maximum light these are to be connected across the supply

(a)  all in parallel

(b)  two in parallel and one in series

(c)  one in parallel and two in series

(d)  all in series

Answer: (a)

11. A photon and an electron have the same wavelength.

(a)  The photen has grater momentum

(b)  They have the same momentum

(c)  The electron has greater momentum.

(d)  None of the above conclusion can be uniquely drawn.

Answer: (b)

12. An electric charge e moves with a constant velocity v parallel to the lines of force of a uniform magnetic field B. The force experienced by the charge is

(a)  evB

(b)  e/Bv

(c)  ev/B

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

13. A boat, with a number of bricks on it, floats in the water of a tank. The bricks are then placed into the water of the tank. What will happen to the water level of the tank?

(a)  The level will remain the same.

(b)  The water level will rise.

(c)  The water level will fall.

(d)  Level may rise or fall.

Answer: (c)

14. You are required to measure a temperature of about 400℃. What type of thermometer do

(a)  A mercury thermometer

(b)  A resistance thermometer

(c)  A gas thermometer

(d)  A wet bulb thermometer

Answer: (b)

15. Ammonia can be liquefied at ordinary temperature while oxygen cannot be so liquefied, because.

(a)  Ammonia is a compound

(b)  Oxygen is diatomic

(c)  Oxygen has a lower critical temperature

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

16. Two straight copper wires are suspended vertically such that their bottom ends dip into a through containing mercury. The top ends are then connected to a battery through a resistance. When the current is passing through the circuit, the copper wires will

(a)  attract each other

(b)  repel each other

(c)  remain vertical

(d)  vibrate

Answer: (a)

17. You have two bulbs of 60 watt each when connected to 250 volts main. One bulb is made of tungsten filament while the filament of the other is made of carbon. If the two bulbs are joined in series and 250 volts are applied to the assembly

(a)  the bulb with tungsten filament will glow brighter

(b)  the bulb with carbon filament will glow brighter

(c)  the bulbs will glow equally

(d)  Inconclusive

Answer: (a)

18. Musical instruments having strings are accompanied with a hollow enclosure because it

(a)  produces harmonies

(b)  increases amplitude of vibration

(c)  increases frequency of vibration

(d)  produces resonance

Answer: (b)

19. The specific gravity of sea water is 1.125 and that of ice is 0.9. The fraction of an iceberg that will be seen above the sea level will be

(a)  0.2

(b)  0.15

(c)  0.09

(d)  0.32

Answer: (a)

20. When several light nuclei fuse together to form a heavier nucleus, the mass of the heavier nucleus formed is ——–the sum of the masses of constituent nuclei.

(a)  equal to

(b)  slightly higher than

(c)  slightly less than

(d)  much higher than

(e)  much less than

Answer: (c)

21. Five resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance when measured at points A and C will be

(a)  30 ohm

(b)  3.33 ohm

(c)  12 ohm

(d)  10 ohm

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

22. The needle of a tangent galvanometer produces a deflection of 45° when a current of 10 ampere is passed through it. To produce a deflection of 30°, the current has to be changed to

(a)  5.77 A

(b)  6.33 A

(c)  4.80 A

(d)  3.33 A

Answer: (a)

23. An ideal monatomic gas is taken round the cycle ABCDA as shown in the figure. The work done during the cycle is

(a)  pV

(b)  2pV

(c)  4pV

(d)  zero

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

24. Ferromagnetic substance lose their special

(a)  semi-diamagnetic

(b)  diamagnetic

(c)  paramagnetic

(d)  orthomagnetic

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

25. In a lift, a man feels his real weight when

(a)  the lift is at rest

(b)  the lift moves with an uniform velocity

(c)  the lift moves up with an acceleration

(d)  Both (a) and (b) occur

Answer: (a)

26. The velocity of escape for a body on the earth depends

(a)  on the mass of the body

(b)  on the square root of the mass of the body

(c)  on the square of the m ass of the body

(d)  not on the mass of the body

Answer: (d)

27. Which one of the following statements is not true?

(a)  A body possesses energy but has no momentum

(b)  A body possesses momentum but has no energy.

(c)  Two bodies may have the same kinetic energy but different momenta.

(d)  None of the above.

Answer: (c)

28. An audio-oscillator is tuned to a tuning fork of nominal value 512 Hz. The oscillator is accurately calibrated and when it reads 514 Hz, a beat frequency of 2 Hz is heard. When it reads 510 Hz, another beat frequency of 6 GHz is heard. The actual frequency of the fork is

(a)  518

(b)  516

(c)  512

(d)  510

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

29. A car travels one third of the total distance with velocity 10 km/h. next one-third with 20 km/h and the last one-third with 60 km/h. The average velocity in the whole journey is

(a)  30 km/h

(b)  18 km/h

(c)  37.5 km/h

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

30. A particle is moving in a circular path with a constant speed v. The change in its velocity after it has moved an angle of 120° is

(a)  zero

(b)  2v

(c)  v√2

(d)  v√3

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

31. The kinetic energy of a body is increased 300%. The percentage increase in its momentum is

(a)  300

(b)  200

(c)  150

(d)  100

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

32. The inductance and resistance are denoted by L and R respectively. The dimensional formula of L/R is

(a)  M0L0T

(b)  M0L0T0

(c)  M2L0T0

(d)  MLT2

Answer: (a)

33. A graph is plotted with the activity of a radioactive sample against the number of atoms present in it at different times. The graph is

(a)  a parabola

(b)  a hyperbola

(c)  a straight line

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

34. The Young’s modulus of a material is equal to that stress which increase the length l of a wire to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (d)

35. Two vectors  satisfy the condition that  The angle between  is

(a)  0°

(b)  60°

(c)  90°

(d)  120°

(e) None of these

Answer: (b)

36. An astronaut while orbiting the earth in a circle 200 km above the earth’s surface releases out his spacecraft a packet. The packet will

(a)  follow the spacecraft

(b)  fall vertically downward to the earth

(c)  move irregularly to have a final fall to the earth

(d)  do none of the above

Answer: (a)

37. Ultrasound may be generated by

(a)  Peltier effect

(b)  Doppler effect

(c)  Piezoelectric effect

(d)  Faraday effect

Answer: (b)

38. Decibel is

(a)  a musical note

(b)  a musical instrument

(c)  the wavelength of noise

(d)  the itch of a musical sound

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

39. When light travels from one medium to another separated by a sharp boundary, the characteristic that remains unchanged is

(a)  velocity

(b)  wavelength

(c)  frequency

(d)  amplitude

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

40. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

(a)  Infrared rays have more heating power than visible rays.

(b)  Infrared rays travel with the same velocity as visible rays.

(c)  Ultraviolet rays have a wavelength longer than infrared rays.

(d)  Infrared rays can be focused by a lens and reflected by a mirror.

Answer: (c)

41. 1g of steam at 100℃ can melt an amount m of ice at 0℃. The value of m is

(a)  8 g

(b)  8 kg

(c)  6.75 g

(d)  (80/540)g

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

42. N similar conductors, each of resistance R, when connected in parallel give an equivalent

(a)  r/N2

(b)  N2r

(c)  Nr

(d)  r/N

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

43. A current is passed through a closed circuit of two dissimilar metals. It is found that heat is generated in one junction and absorbed at the other. The phenomenon is called

(a)  Joule effect

(b)  Thomson effect

(c)  Seeback effect

(d)  Peltier effect

Answer: (d)

44. The ratio of the specific charge of a proton to that of an α-particle is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  2 : 1

Answer: (d)

45. A body is projected at 30° to the horizontal having kinetic energy E. What will be the kinetic energy at the top most point of the trajectory?

(a)  Zero

(b)

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

46. The unit of nuclear radius is

(a)  Micron

(b)  Angstrom

(c)  Curie

(d)  Fermi

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

47. The molecular weight of heavy water is

(a)  18

(b)  20

(c)  36

(d)  40

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

48. What is the angle between 

(a)  0

(b)  π/2

(c)  π

(d)  2π

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

49. Which of the following effects is shown by a.c. ?

(a)  Magnetic effect

(b)  Chemical effect

(c)  Electro-chemical effect

(d)  Heating effect

Answer: (d)

50. Which of the following pairs are identical in respect to units or dimensions?

(a)  Force and Work

(b)  Pressure and Density

(c)  Momentum and Impulse

(d)  Moment and Impulse

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

51. Two musical instruments are sounds together the frequencies of sound emitted by them are

n1 and n2(n1 > n2). The heat frequency is

(a)  2(n1 – n2)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

52. The energy of monochromatic X-rays of wavelength 1 A0 is about

(a)  2 × 1015 J

(b)  2 × 1010 J

(c)  2 × 1017 J

(d)  2 × 1018 J

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

53. A red postage stamp is viewed in green light. It would appear

(a)  black

(b)  orange

(c)  deep yellow

(d)  reddish green

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

54. The device that converts heat to electrical energy is

(a)  electric cell

(b)  steam engine

(c)  thermocouple

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

55. A lorry and a car moving with the same kinetic energy are brought to rest by the application of brakes that provide equal retarding forces. Which of them will come to rest in a shorter distance?

(a)  Lorry

(b)  Car

(c)  Both in equal distance

(d)  Cannot be said unless their masses are known

Answer: (c)

56. Therminoic emission is a process in which

(a)  photons are emitted

(b)  heat radiation is given off

(c)  light is emitted

(d)  electrons are emitted

(e)  None of the above is true

Answer: (d)

57. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for sometime after which it decelerates at a constant rate β to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, the maximum velocity acquired by the car is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

58. A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ kept on the floor of a lift. When the lift is descending with a retardation a, the acceleration of the block relative to the incline is

(a)  (g – a) sin θ

(b)  (g + a) sin θ

(c)  g sin θ

(d)  (g – a)

Answer: (b)

59. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy of an object of mass m, raised from the earth’s surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is

(a) 

(b)  2mgR

(c)  mgR

(d) 

Answer: (a)

60. A laser beam is different from an ordinary beam of light because

(a)  their frequencies are different

(b)  laser beam has greater amplitude than that of ordinary light

(c)  waves in the laser beam are in phase whereas the waves in ordinary light are not

(d)  wavelength of laser is smaller thall that of ordinary light

Answer: (c)

61. When the cold junction of a thermocouple is at 0℃, the neutral temperature (max emf) is 200℃. When the cold junction is raised to a temperature of 40℃, the neutral temperature

(a)  becomes 220℃

(b)  remains the same

(c)  decreases

(d)  becomes 240℃

Answer: (a)

62. A proton moving with constant velocity passes through a region of space without any change in its velocity. If E and B represent the electric and magnetic fields respectively, this region of space may have

(a)  E = 0, B = 0

(b)  E = 0, B ≠ 0

(c)  E ≠ 0, B = 0

(d)  E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0

Answer: (a)

63. Two vectors are acting at a point. If one of them is reversed in direction, their resultant turns through an angle of 90°. This happens due to which one of the following reasons?

(a)  Two vectors are of unequal magnitude.

(b)  Two vectors are of equal magnitude.

(c)  The magnitude of one vector is double the other.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

64. A siphon works under atmospheric pressure. What will happen to the efficiency of the siphon when the pressure is increased?

(a)  It will work as before

(b)  The efficiency will increase

(c)  The efficiency will decrease.

(d)  Efficiency may decrease or increase depending on other factors.

Answer: (b)

65. A beaker filled partly with water is placed on one pan of a balance. it is balanced by putting weights on the other p an and in this condition a piece of stone tied to a string is immersed in the water of the beaker such that no part of the stone or thread touches the beaker or the balance. What will happen to the equilibrium condition of the balance ?

(a)  The pan with the beaker will move upwards.

(b)  The pan with beaker will go down.

(c)  The balance will remain in equilibrium as before.

(d)  Information is insufficient for any conclusion..

Answer: (c)

66. A boy drops a coin outside a train running with a constant velocity. The trajectory of the coin as seen by another boy sitting in a second train moving in the opposite direction is

(a)  a vertical line

(b)  a parabolic curve

(c)  an arc of a circle

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

Chemistry

 

67. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give

(a)  Formamide

(b)  Methylamine

(c)  Hexamethylene tetramine

(d)  Formalin

(e)  Formic acid

Answer: (c)

68. In a reversible reaction, a catalyst influences

(a)  only the equilibrium constant of the reaction

(b)  only the backward reaction rate

(c)  only the forward reaction rate

(d)  the rates of both the forward and backward reactions

Answer: (d)

69. A solution of a weak monobasic acid and one of its salts will have the maximum buffer efficiency when

(a)  the concentrations of acid and salt are equal

(b)  the pH is 7.0

(c)  the pka is equal to the pH of a solution of the salt

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

70. Oxidation of isopropanol with acidic dichromate solution gives

(a)  acetone

(b)  acetic acid

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

71. Types of valence bonds in the formation of NH4Cl are

(a)  electrovalent only

(b)  covalent only

(c)  electrovalent and covalent

(d)  electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent

Answer: (d)

72. Bragg equation correlates

(a)  lattice spacing in terms of wavelength

(b)  order of reflection against crystal forms

(c)  glancing angle against axial angles

(d)  electron velocity against wavelength

Answer: (b)

73. Internal energy of an ideal gas at constant temperature

(a)  is independent of pressure

(b)  is independent of volume

(c)  is independent of both pressure and volume

(d)  changes with pressure and volume

Answer: (c)

74. During an adiabatic process, the entropy of the system

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  remains constant

(d)  cannot be predicted

Answer: (c)

75. The hardness of a sample of water containing 0.001 mole of MgSO4 in a litre of water in ppm is

[Assume ca = 40, c = 12 and O = 16]

(a)  1000

(b)  100

(c)  10

(d)  1

(e)  0.001

Answer: (b)

76. Which of the following can absorb CO the most?

(a)  P2O5

(b)  NH3

(c)  NaOH

(d)  CuCl2

(e)  NH3 and CuCl2 in solution

Answer: (e)

77. Which is the most powerful nucleophile among the following?

(a)  HO

(b)  CH3COO

(c)  Cl

(d)  HSO−4

(e)  Br

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following products is obtained when Cl2 gas is passed over heated alumina and coke?

(a)  AlCl3

(b)  CHCl3

(c)  COCl­2

(d)  CCl4

(e)  Al4C3 and HCl

Answer: (a)

79. Sea-weeds are important commercial source of

(a)  Methane

(b)  Ozone

(c)  Bromine

(d)  Iodine

Answer: (d)

80. Which of the following pairs of reactant generate H2 gas?

(a)  Zn and cold dilute HNO3

(b)  Mg and cold dilute HNO3

(c)  Cu and conc. H2SO4

(d)  Fe and cold dilute HNO3

Answer: (a)

81. When CH3 – CH2 – CH = CH2 reacts with HBr, the product is

(a)  CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2Br

(b)  Br – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2Br

(c)   

 

(d)  CH3.CH2.CH3 and CH3Br

Answer: (c)

82. While aqueous solution of AlCl3 is acidic towards litmus, that of NaCl is not. This is because of

(a)  hydrolysis

(b)  oxidation

(c)  reduction

(d)  oxidation and reduction

(e)  solubility

Answer: (d)

83. The solubility of iodine in water is greatly increased by

(a)  adding an acid solution

(b)  adding KI solution

(c)  boiling the solution

(d)  cooling the solution

(e)  boiling, followed by cooling the solution

Answer: (d)

84. 1 gram of Zn liberates 224 ml of H2 at N. T.P. from 98 grams of H2SO4 and 0.35 gram of Zn is left unreacted. The data determines the equivalent weight of

(a)  Zn

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

85. Acetate ions in solution behave as

(a)  base

(b)  acid

(c)  both acid and base

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

86. Which of the following compound has different equivalent weight in different media?

(a)  Na2CO3

(b)  FeSO4

(c)  KMnO4

(d)  Oxalic acid

Answer: (c)

87. 50 volumes of hydrogen takes 20 minutes to diffuse out of a vessel. 40 volumes of oxygen will diffuse out from the same vessel under the same condition in

(a)  4 minutes

(b)  8 minutes

(c)  16 minutes

(d)  64 minutes

Answer: (d)

88. An unbalanced chemical equation is against the law of

(a)  mass action

(b)  definite proportion

(c)  conservation of mass

(d)  gaseous volume

Answer: (a)

89. Which one of the following law is represented by the statement – “The same elements combined together in the same proportion always given the same compound.”

(a)  Law of constant proportion

(b)  Law of multiple proportion

(c)  Law of reciprocal proportion

(d)  Law of reciprocal proportion

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

90. The chloride of an element contains 77.43% chlorine. The vaopur density of the compound being 68.69, molecular formula of the compound is

(a)  MCl

(b)  MCl2

(c)  MCl3

(d)  MCl4

Answer: (c)

91. The value of the universal gas constant is

(a)  1.987 litre atmosphere degree1mole1

(b)  0.082 calories degree1 mole1

(c)  8.03197 joule degree1 mole1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

92. Paamagnetism often found among the transition metals is because of

(a)  the existence of vacant orbitals

(b)  the presence of one or more unpaired electrons in the system

(c)  lower electropositivity

(d)  variable valency

Answer: (b)

93. Radon is a

(a)  semi conductor

(b)  rare gas

(c)  radar component

(d)  metal detecting device

Answer: (b)

94. In the nuclear reaction 7N14 + 2He148O17 + X, the term X represents

(a)  1H3

(b)  1H1

(c)  2He4

(d)  γ-rays

Answer: (b)

95. According to Bohr the motion of an electron is restricted in such a manner that its angular momentum is an integral multiple of

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

96. Find from the electronic configuration, the element that belongs to the 5th group in the periodic table.

(a)  1S2. 2S2. 2p6 . 3S2 . 3p3

(b)  1S2. 2S2 . 2p6 . 3S2 . 3p5

(c)  1S2 . 2S2 . 2p6. 3S2 . 3p4

(d)  1S2 . 2S2 . 2p6 . 3S2 . 3p6 . 4S1

Answer: (a)

97.  An atom of chlorine contains in its nucleus

(a)  17 neutrons

(b)  17 protons

(c)  18 neutrons

(d)  17 protons and 18 neutrons

Answer: (d)

98. Phosphine is produce by the action of while phosphorus on

(a)  HNO3

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  NaOH

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

99. Which of the following contains fluorine ?

(a)  Phloroglucinol

(b)  Fluorene

(c)  Freon

(d)  Phorone

Answer: (c)

100. A slurry of gypsum in water is treated with ammonia and carbon-dioxide to manufacture

(a)  Ca(OH)2

(b)  (NH4)2 CO3

(c)  (NH4)2 SO4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

101. When bi-valent thiosulphate ion is convened to bi-valent tetrathionate ion there is

(a)  no exchange of electrons

(b)  liberation of two electrons per thiosulphate ion

(c)  acceptance of two electrons by one thiosulphate ion

(d)  each thiosulphate ion donates one electron

Answer: ()

102. Compound, A is quantitatively converted to a compound P which undergoes further conversion to a third compound B. q­1­ calory of heat is evolved in the first reaction and q2­ calory is absorbed in course of the second. Now, the compound B can be reconverted to A directly during which Q calory, heat is absorbed. Then

(a)  Q > q1 + q2

(b)  Q < q1 + q2

(c)  Q – q1 + q2 = 0

(d)  Q = q1 + q2

Answer: (c)

103. In dilute solution

(a)  vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solute

(b)  vapour pressure of the solution is the product of the vapour pressure of the pure solvent and the mole fraction of the solvent

(c)  relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the mole fraction of the solute

(d)  the vapor pressure of the solution is less than that of the pure solvent by an amount equal to the molality of the solute

Answer: (c)

104. Which of the following metals is used in storage battery ?

(a)  Copper

(b)  Lead

(c)  Tin

(d)  Nickel

Answer: (b)

105. Which of the following statements is according to Hess’s law?

(a)  Heat change in a particular reaction is constant.

(b)  Heat change in a particular reaction is independent of the manner in which the reaction takes place.

(c)  Heat change in a particular reaction is the same regardless of the path by which the change occurs.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

106. Tyndall effect is

(a)  an electro Binetic phenomenon observed in colloidal system

(b)  a magnetic field effect on the transition elements

(c)  an optical property of colloids

(d)  a characteristic property of olifinic compounds

Answer: (d)

107. Brownian movement is characteristic of

(a)  crystalloids

(b)  colloid

(c)  true solution

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

108. Which of the following pairs of the solutions will cause the same depression [∆T] of the freezing point of the solvents?

(a)  0.01 Molal solutions of naphthalene and anthraune in benzene

(b)  0.05 Molar solution of urea in water and naphthalene in benzene

(c)  0.02 Molar solution of common salt and urea in water

(d)  0.02 Molar solution of cane sugar and 0.04 Molal solution of glucose

Answer: ()

109. A solution of KCl has a specific conductivity of 0.01119 mhos cm1. Its equivalent conductivity is

(a)  111.9 units

(b)  0.0001119 units

(c)  11.19 units

(d)  1119 units

Answer: (c)

110. Nitrobenzene on reduction with Zn dust and ammonium chloride solution gives mainly

(a)  Aniline

(b)  Phenyl hydrazene

(c)  Phenyl hdyroxylamine

(d)  Azobenzene

Answer: (c)

111. One example of thermoplastic is

(a)  Area-Formaldehyde

(b)  Phenol-Formaldehyde

(c)  Formica

(d)  P.V.C

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

112. When does a real gas behave almost as an ideal gas?

(a)  When the temperature is low

(b)  When both the temperature and pressure are low

(c)  When both the temperature and pressure are high

(d)  When the temperature is high but pressure is low

(e)  When the temperature is low but pressure is high

Answer: (d)

113. Atomic weight determination by Dulong-Petit’s law is not applicable for the metal

(a)  Al

(b)  Mg

(c)  Be

(d)  Cu

(e)  Zn

Answer: (c)

114. Which one of the following sets may be cited as an example to illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?

(a)  NO and K2O

(b)  Al2O3 and Fe2O3

(c)  CO2 and SO2

(d)  CO and CO2

(e)  HCl, HOCl, HClO3

Answer: (d)

115. The equivalent conductance of a solution of an electrolyte increases as

(a)  dilution increases

(b)  dilution decreases

(c)  temperature decreases

(d)  cell constant increases

(e)  cell constant decreases

Answer: (a)

116. Which one of the following is a Lewis acid ?

(a)  NaCl

(b)  CaCl2

(c)  AlCl2

(d)  CCl4

(e)  NH4Cl

Answer: (c)

117. The velocity of any chemical reaction at any instant at a given temperature is dependent on

(a)  states of rectants and products

(b)  molal concentration of reactants and products

(c)  active mass of the reactants and products

(d)  thermal stabilities of each of the reactants

(e)  the states of aggregation of the reactants

Answer: (b)

118. The nature of a chemical bond of a binary compound is decided approximately from the

(a)  difference of electronegativity between the two elements

(b)  difference of ionization potential of the two elements

(c)  difference in relative position of elements in the periodic table

(d)  the number of outermost electrons in respective atoms

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

119. Alkali hydrolysis of glycerides of fatty acids is known as

(a)  Saponification

(b)  Esterification

(c)  Isomerism

(d)  Recemisation

(e)  Epimerisation

Answer: (a)

120. Electrons ejected in β-emission come from

(a)  the orbital electrons of the atom

(b)  the nucleus of the atom

(c)  the proton of the nucleus

(d)  the neutron of the nucleus

(e)  surrounding ionized air

Answer: (d)

121. Lucas reagent is a mixture of

(a)  Conc. HCl and hydrated ZnCl2

(b)  Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2

(c)  Conc. HNO and hydrated ZnCl2

(d)  Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2

(e)  Conc. H2SO4 and anhydrous ZnCl2

Answer: (b)

122. The shape of BeF2 molecule is

(a)  tetrahedral

(b)  angular

(c)  linear

(d)  trigonal

Answer: (c)

123. If two solutions have the same osmotic pressure, they are said to be

(a)  isomeric

(b)  isotonic

(c)  isobaric

(d)  isomorphic

(e)  Isotropic

Answer: (d)

124. The group which does not enter directly in the benzene ring is

(a)  (CH3)2 CH −

(b)  −NO2

(c)  −C2H5

(d)  −NH2

(e)  Cl

Answer: (a)

125. Maximum number of electrons in an orbit with a definite principal quantum number is ultimately decided by

(a)  Uncertainty principle

(b)  Aufbau principle

(c)  Pauli’s exclusion principle

(d)  Soddy’s rule

Answer: (c)

126. Formaldehyde can be distinguished from acetaldehyde by their reaction with

(a)  Fehlings solution

(b)  Tollens reagent

(c)  NaHSO3

(d)  50% NaOH

(e)  N2H4

Answer: (d)

127. The middle oil fraction (170 − 230℃) of coal tar serves as a source for

(a)  benzene and toluene

(b)  phenol and napthalene

(c)  napthalene and anthracene

(d)  phenol and anthracene

(e)  benzene and anthracene

Answer: (b)

128. Bakelite is a polymer of

(a)  urea and formaldehyde

(b)  phenol and formaldehyde

(c)  phenol and formaldehyde

(d)  hexamethylene diamine and acetic acid

(e)  styrene and ethanol

Answer: (b)

129. In the gaseous reaction system

A2(g) + 2B2(g)         2AB2(g) + Q cal

a high yield of AB2(g) will be obtained at

(a)  high pressure and low temperature

(b)  high pressure and high temperature

(c)  low pressure and low temperature

(d)  low pressure and high temperature

(e)  high pressure and any temperature

Answer: (a)

130. Phenol is known to b acidic. The p-Nitrophenol should be

(a)  a stronger acid

(b)  a weaker acid

(c)  a neutral compound

(d)  weakly basic

(e)  equally strong as acid as phenol

Answer: (a)

131. Introduction of an I group in benzene ring may be carried by

(a)  Friedel Craft reaction

(b)  Cannizaro reaction

(c)  Sandmeyer reaction

(d)  Diazo reaction

(e)  Hell- Volhard’s method

Answer: (d)

132. Which of the following reagents is used in the transformation CH3COCH3 CH3CH2CH2 ?

(a)  Zn-amalgam + HCl

(b)  Sodium ethoxide

(c)  LiAlH4

(d)  H2/Pd

Answer: (a)

Biology

 

133. Consider the following

(1)  structural gene

(2)  messenger RNA

(3)  ribosome

(4)  transcription

(5)  translation

Which one of the following is the correct sequence for protein synthesis ?

(a)  1    4        3        2        5

(b)  1    4        2        3        5

(c)  2    1        3        5        4

(d)  3    2        5        4        1

(e)  3    2        1        5        4

Answer: (b)

134. Which one of the following factors is the most effective in accelerating the rate of breathing in a mammal?

(a)  A lack of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs

(b)  An excess of carbon-dioxide in the lungs

(c)  A lack of oxygen in the blood

(d)  An excess of carbon-dioxide in the blood

(e)  A lack of oxygen in the tissues

Answer: (d)

135. In the Embden-Meyerhof Pathways

(a)  glucose breaks down to pyruvate

(b)  glucose breaks down to CO2 and H2O

(c)  pyruvic acid breaks down to Acetyl COH

(d)  pyruvic acid breaks down to CO2 + H2O

(e)  glucose breaks down to succinic acid

Answer: (a)

136. Why do we dig for fossils and study them?

(a)  To find out new fossils that have not yet been recorded.

(b)  Fossil finding gives occupation for scientists.

(c)  Fossils fill the gaps in evolutionary records of animals

(d)  Fossils throw light an evolution of animals of the past.

(e)  For the sake of curiosity.

Answer: (d)

137. During muscle contraction which one of the following doesn’t show any change in their length?

(a)  Sarcomere

(b)  Isotropic band

(c)  H-zone

(d)  Anisotropic band

(e)  Cross-bridges

Answer: (d)

138. Which of the following p arts of the eye is characteristic of birds ?

(a)  Lens

(b)  Retina

(c)  Pecten

(d)  Iris

(e)  Conjuntiva

Answer: (c)

139. Provitamins are

(a)  organic substances which are used as raw material for synthesis of vitamin in animal body

(b)  substance which have got structural similarity to the vitamins but without similarity in physiological action

(c)  substance which have got structural and chemical similarity but without having any physiological effect

(d)  organic compounds cannot be synthesized by the organism

(e)  vitamin deficiencies leading to obvious pathological changes in tissues and organs

Answer: (a)

140. Small pieces of autonomous, extrachromosomal, circular DNA found in some bacterial cells is called

(a)  Prokaryote

(b)  Plasmid

(c)  Peroxisome

(d)  Polysome

(e)  Vector

Answer: (b)

141. Copper containing blood pigment commonly noticed among molluscs is

(a)  Haemerythrin

(b)  Haemoglobin

(c)  Chlorocruorin

(d)  Haemocyanin

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

142. Cretinism is a diseased condition which occurs due to the deficiency of which one of the following hormones ?

(a)  Thyroxin

(b)  Pituitary hormone

(c)  Adrenaline

(d)  SH and LH

(e)  Corticotrophin

Answer: (a)

143. Down’s syndrome is caused due to

(a)  Trisomy of 7th chromosome

(b)  Polyploidy of chromosome No. 20

(c)  Monosomy of No. 16 chromosome

(d)  Trisomy of chromosome No. 21

(e)  Trisomy of chromosome No. 11

Answer: (d)

144. The allantois in chick is the

(a)  protective membrane surrounding the embryo

(b)  embryonic reservoir of metabolic wastes

(c)  embryonic nutritive organ

(d)  embryonic respiratory organ

(e)  embryonic food reservoir

Answer:(c)

145. In man 2n = 46. In a primary spermatocyte how many chromosomes will be found ?

(a)  23

(b)  46

(c)  92

(d)  22

(e)  69

Answer: (b)

146. Carnassial teeth are present in

(a)  Bat

(b)  Rat

(c)  Human

(d)  Guineapig

(e)  Dog

Answer: (e)

147. The most common chlorofluorocarbons (CFCI3) which is used primarily as a propellent is aerosol spray cans and CF2Cl2 which is used as a refrigerant (commonly known as Freon) is now banned because chlorofluorocarbons in the atmosphere destroy large quantities of ozone (O3) by photolytic process. ozone is necessary as

(a)  Ozone screens out most of the damaging  portion of the ultraviolet radiation

(b)  Ozone supplies most of the O2 necessary for plants and animals

(c)  Ozone damages the ultraviolet light necessary for plants and animals

(d)  Ozone retards the growth of microorganisms

(e)  Ozone damages the cellular level

Answer: (a)

148. The sodium-potassium pump transports

(a)  Na+ and K+ out of the neuron

(b)  Na+ into the neuron and K+ out

(c)  K+ into the neuron and Na+ out

(d)  Na+ and K+ into the neuron

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

149. The membrane of endoplasmic reticulum consists of

(a)  three layers – protein – lipid – protein

(b)  three layers – carbohydrate – protein – lipid

(c)  four layers –  protein – lipid – lipid – protein

(d)  two layers – protein –lipid

(e) two layers – lipid – protein

Answer: (c)

150. A bacterium differs from a virus in

(a)  presence of nucleic acid in virus

(b)  presence of cell wall in bacterium

(c)  presence of nucleoid in virus

(d)  disease producing ability in virus

(e)  presence of plasma membrane in virus

Answer: (b)

151. The giraffe has a long neck because according to Darwin

(a)  its ancestors stretched their necks to get food

(b)  the creator designed in that way

(c)  catastrophes eliminated short-necked forms

(d)  ancestral giraffes with slightly longer necks than others

(e)  getting more food the ancestral giraffes gave birth to such

Answer: (d)

152. Pyrenoid granules are

(a)  protein covered by starch in spyrogyra

(b)  starch covered by protein in spyrogyra

(c)  fat covered by protein in spyrogyra

(d)  starch and protein covered by lipid layer in fungi

(e)  nucleoprotein present in cytoplasm of algae

Answer: (a)

153. The significance of meiosis is

(a)  duplication of somatic cells

(b)  multiplication of germ cells

(c)  reduction of chromosome numbers to facilitate recombination with other genetic constituent

(d)  duplication of chromosomes and helping in propagation

(e)  growth of the body as well as gonads

Answer: (c)

154. The phloem is responsible for

(a)  transfer of food prepared in leaves to different parts of body

(b)  transfer of water absorbed by the roots

(c)  transfer food material absorbed by the roots

(d)  transfer of both food and water in plant body

(e)  storage of food in plant body

Answer: (a)

155. The Nissl’s granules are

(a)  granular substances found in the cardiac muscle acting as stimulating agent

(b)  granular structures found in neurone acting as catalysts during  transmission of impulse

(c)  granular substances found in the epithelial cells and secretory in function

(d)  vesicular structure enclosing different enzymes

(e)  found in glial cells and secretes neurosecretory substances

Answer: (b)

156. In the Watson and Crick model, DNA molecule is formed by two polydeoxyribonucleotide strand coiling clockwise. The length of a complete cooling is

(a)  3.4° A

(b)  4.5° A

(c)  10° A

(d)  3.2° A

(e)  5.4° A

Answer: (a)

157. In a Mendelian dihyrbid cross of sweet pea taking seed coat character you got 1000 offsprings with the following ratio of character after crossing pollens of yellow (Y) and round (R) seed coat character with eggs of green (g) and wrinkled (w) seed coat character.

Yellow Round – 250

Yellow Wrinkled – 250

Green Round – 250

Green Wrinkled -250

From the above result you can conclude that this result is due to “

(a)  incomplete dominance

(b)  independent assortment

(c)  segregation

(d)  yellow round plant was hybrid for both yellow and round character

(e)  green wrinkled plant was hybrid for both green and wrinkled character

Answer: (d)

158. During cell division, the maximum DNA synthesis occurs in phase

(a)  G1

(b)  G2

(c)  S

(d)  P

(E) M

Answer: (c)

159. A phase of cell division where chromatids gradually coiled, nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear, and spindle formed, is called

(a)  Synthesis phase

(b)  Metaphase

(c)  Anaphase

(d)  Telophase

(e)  Prophase

Answer: (e)

160. The chromosome in the salivary gland of Drosophila is a bigger one with different banding patterns. it is called

(a)  lampbrush chromosome

(b)  giant chromosome

(c)  puff chromosome.

(d)  polytene chromosome

(e)  autosome

Answer: (d)

161. In a flower the thalamus is hollow and cupshaped, and completely fuses with the lower part of the ovary. The ovary is inferior. The stemens, petals and sepals are placed above the pistil. The flower is called

(a)  Hypogynous

(b)  Epigynous

(c)  Perigynous

(d)  Gamosepalous

(e)  Polysepalous

Answer: (b)

162. During fertilization in gourd one of the sperm nuclei fuses. with

(a)  synergids to form zygote

(b)  antipodal cells to form zygote

(c)  tube nucleus to form zygote

(d)  definitive nucleus to form zygote

(e)  egg to form zygote

Answer: (e)

163. During protein synthesis,, the polyribosomes are produced by

(a)  tRNA

(b)  mRNA

(c)  rRNA

(d)  DNA

(e)  Informosomes

Answer: (b)

164. Which of the following plants belong to Labiatae?

(a)  Ocimum

(b)  Gossiplum

(c)  Cinchona

(d)  Coffea

(e)  Cocos

Answer: (a)

165. Due to transpiration from leaf surface water is drawn upwards. This is termed as

(a)  water current

(b)  transpiration current

(c)  ascent of sap

(d)  guttation

(e)  imbibitional force

Answer: (e)

166. The prosthetic group of an enzyme is

(a)  non-protein group attached to the protein

(b)  protein portion attached to the non-protein parts

(c)  phosphate group attached to the enzyme

(d)  isomer of non-protein substances

(e)  −COOH group attached with the proteins parts

Answer: (c)

167. In the light phase of photosynthesis, which one of the following is produced ?

(a)  NADPH

(b)  Phosphoglyceric acid

(c)  Diphosphoglyceric acid

(d)  Ribulose diphosphate

(e)  Diphosphoribital

Answer: (a)

168. The liver abscess may be formed due to the infection by which one of the following?

(a)  Entamoeba hystolytica

(b)  Giardia intertinalis

(c)  Plasmodium vivax

(d)  Paramoecium caudatum

(e)  Euglena viridis

Answer: (a)

169. Incomplete, metamorphosis is evident in

(a)  mosquito

(b)  silk moth

(c)  honey bee

(d)  prawn

(e)  cockroach

Answer: (e)

170. Which one of the following is a major paddy pest?

(a)  Millipede

(b)  Oryctes

(c)  Crab

(d)  Leptocoryza

(e)  Scorpion

Answer: (b)

171. Which of the followings is capable taking advantages of both aerial and aquatic respiration ?

(a)  Pila

(b)  Pearl Oyster

(c)  Mytilus

(d)  Sepia

(e)  Lamellideus

Answer: (a)

172. All vertebrates are chordate but all chordates are not vertebrates because

(a)  all vertebrates posses notochord in any of its life stage but many chordates do not have vertebral column

(b)  all chordates posses vertebral column but  some vertebrates may not have notochord

(c)  chordates have gills for respiration but vertebrates have lungs

(d)  vertebrates have closed blood circulation but some chordates lack it

(e)  all vertebrates have post anal tail but lower chrodates lack it

Answer: (a)

173. In man Ancyclostoma harbour in

(a)  stomach

(b)  intestinal wall

(c)  intestinal lumen

(d)  liver lobule

(e)  lungs

Answer: (b)

174. One of the main characteristics of reptiles which is present in on other animal is

(a)  Homodont dentition

(b)  Tympanic membrane

(c)  Scales

(d)  Nails

(e)  Neck

Answer: (c)

175. The transfer of food energy from the source in plants through a series of organisms with repeated eating and being eaten is called

(a)  energy flow

(b)  food chain

(c)  food web

(d)  pyramid of energy

(e)  ecosystem

Answer: (b)

176. In a pond ecosystem, trophic status of lata fish is

(a)  producer

(b)  primary consumer

(c)  secondary consumer

(d)  decomposer

(e)  detritus feeder

Answer: (c)

177. The pinnate compound leaves are found in

(a)  Tamarind

(b)  Hingon

(c)  Mango

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

178. Sweet potato is a modified

(a)  shoot as like potato

(b)  adventitious root

(c)  tap root

(d)  prop root

(e)  fibrous root

Answer: (b)

179. The chloroplast usually contains two types of pigments

(a)  chlorophylls and carotnoids

(b)  chlorophylls and xanthophylls.

(c)  xanthophylls and carotene

(d)  lycopene and luteal

(e)  chlorophyll and lycopene

Answer: (a)

180. Acrosome Cap of sperm head is formed by

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  golgi bodies

(c)  lisosomes

(d)  endoplasmic reticulum

(e)  nucleus

Answer: (b)

181. A centrosphere is

(a)  drum like body with two open ends

(b)  cytoplasmic portion surrounding the centriole

(c)  nuclear body forming chromosomes

(d)  ciliated structure within centrosome

(e)  made up of chromatin thread

Answer: (b)

182. Deoxycytidylic acid is formed by

(a)  phosphoric acid + deoxyribose sugar + cytosine

(b)  phosphoric acid + deoxyribose sugar + guanine

(c)  phosphoric  acid + deoxyribose sugar + adenine

(d)  phosphoric acid + deoxyribose sugar + thymine

(e)  phosphoric acid + eoxyribose sugar + uracil

Answer: (a)

183. The opening or closure of the stomatal pore during transpiration i entirely dependent

(a)  on the osmotic pressure (turgidity) of the guard cells

(b)  on sunlight

(c)  on the absorption rate and water pressure of the plant

(d)  on the stomatal march

(e)  upon atmospheric temperature

Answer: (a)

184. In the model of Watson and Crick, DNA molecule is formed by two polydeoxyribonucleotide strands coiling clockwise. In each coiling the number of deoxyribonucleotide is

(a)  twelve

(b)  five

(c)  ten

(d)  fifteen

(e)  twenty

Answer: (c)

185. Flower is a modified shoot because

(a)  its sepals are green

(b)  its petals are colourful

(c)  nodes and internodes are present

(d)  stem nature of stamens and carpels

(e)  it is produced from buds

Answer: (c)

186. In angiosperms the process of double fertilization means

(a)  one of the two nuclei of the male gametes fuses with the egg nucleus and another nucleus fuses with the definitive nucleus of embryosac.

(b)  both the nuclei fuses with ovum one after another

(c)  one nucleus fuses with antipodal cells

(d)  only single nucleus travels through the pollen tube and the other is lost

(e)  pollen grains fall on the stigma at first, then nucleus of pollen grain fuses with the nucleus of ovum

Answer: (a)

187. ‘Phosphorus’ in plant body is the

(a)  tracer element

(b)  macrometabolic element

(c)  micrometabolic element

(d)  derived element

(e)  non-essential element

Answer: (b)

188. The pearl is the

(a)  secretion of mantle of pearl oyster

(b)  parasitic action on the pearl oyster

(c)  secretion product of shell of pearl oyster

(d)  gland within the foot of pearl oyster

(e)  accumulated product from the sea water in the gills of pearl oyster

Answer: (a)

189. The leech can suck blood inclot because it can secrete

(a)  sodium citrate

(b)  potassium citrate

(c)  an anticoagulant enzyme

(d)  hirudin

(e)  toxic substance

Answer: (d)

190. As fowl is not a running bird, it possesses

(a)  well developed wings

(b)  nopygostyle

(c)  feathers without bards

(d)  well developed sternum with midventral keel

(e)  absence of furcula

Answer: (b)

191. In vertebrates, the neural plate is developed from

(a)  ectodermis

(b)  endodermis

(c)  mesoderm

(d)  ectoderm and mesoderm

(e)  ectoderm and endoderm

Answer: (a)

192. Which one of the following does not take place during the first nuclear division of meiosis ?

(a)  Pairing of homologous chromosomes

(b)  complete separation of the chromatids of each chromosome

(c)  Crossing over the chromatids

(d)  Reduction of the chromosome number

Answer: (b)

193. In the life cycle of any sexually reproducing organism, two essential events are nuclear fusion. and meiosis, but the position of these events may vary so that several distinct types of life cycle are possible. Which one of the following life cycles occurs in nature?

(a)  Diploid organism, meiosis, haploid gametes, nuclear fusion, haploid zygote, diploid organism

(b)  Haploid organism, haploid gametes, nuclear fusion, diploid zygote, meiosis, diploid organism

(c)  Diploid organism, haploid gametes, nuclear fusion, diploid zygote, meiosis, diploid organism.

(d)  Haploid organism, meiosis, haploid gametes,  nuclear fusion, diploid zygotes, haploid organism

(e)  Diploid organism, meiosis, haploid organism, nuclear fusion, diploid organism, haploid gametes.

Ans: (a)

194. The ultrastructure of cross-section of a centriole shows

(a)  ten double microtubules

(b)  nine triple microtubules

(c)  five triple microtubules

(d)  four triple microtubules

(e)  six double microtubules

Answer: (b)

195. Under the influence of luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary, the

(a)  primary follicles of the ovary begin to grow

(b)  follicle cells are converted into a corpus luteum

(c)  corpus luteum is stimulated to begin secreting oestrogen

(d)  uterus changes in preparation for the fertilized ovum

(e)  placenta is formed

Answer: (c)

196. The mammal that possess small marsupiesm and also lay eggs is

(a)  bat

(b)  kangaroo

(c)  platypus

(d)  ant-eater

(e)  whale

Answer: (c)

197. The placenta develops in

(a)  pigeon

(b)  guinea-pig

(c)  crocodile

(d)  hen

(e)  lizard

Answer: (b)

198. Agar, a complex carbohydrate is extracted from

(a)  green algae

(b)  brown algae

(c)  red algae

(d)  blue green algae

(e)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

199. Moulting in insects will result in the production of a nymphal or larval stage only if a certain hormone is present. This hormone is produced by

(a)  supra-oesophageal ganglion

(b)  sub-oesophageal ganglion

(c)  prothoracic gland

(d)  corpus allatum

(e)  ventral nerve cord

Answer: (c)

200. The leaves of Mimosa pudica droop down when they are touched. This movement is called

(a)  seismonasty

(b)  nyctinasty

(c)  photonasty

(d)  epinasty

(e)  chemonasty

Answer: (a)

Mathematics

 

1. The mean of marks of 300 students in an examination is 45. The mean of the top 100 students is 70 while the mean of the last 100 is 25. The mean of the other 100 students is

(a)  29

(b)  38

(c)  40

(d)  47

(e)  50

Answer: (c)

2. The first of the two samples has 100 items with the man 15 and standard deviation 3. If the whole group has 250 items with mean 15.6 and standard deviation  the standard deviation of the reminder of the group is

(a)  3.2

(b)  3.5

(c)  4

(d)  4.5

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

3. How m any optimal solutions the following problem has ?

Maximize z = 6x1 + 10x2

subject to  3x1 + 5x2 ≤ 10

5x1 + 3x2 ≤ 15

and x1, x2 ≥ 0

(a)  None

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  4

(e)  Infinitely many

Answer: ()

4.  exists then

(a)  derivative of f(x) with respect to x exists at x = 0

(b)  differential co-efficient f(x) with respect to x exists at the point x

(c)  f(x) is differentiable with respect to x everywhere

(d)  f(x) continuous at x = 0

(e)  f(x) is continuous and differentiable every where

Answer: (e)

5. The roots of the equation  are

(a)  (−3, −2, 0)

(b)  (1, 3, 6)

(c)  (0, 2, 4)

(d)  (−2, 0, 1)

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following is NOT necessarily a symmetric matrix ?

(a)  Diagonal matrix

(b)  Identity matrix

(c)  Null matrix

(d)  Orthogonal matrix

(e)  Transpose of diagonal matrix

Answer: (d)

7. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  1/2

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

8. The area in the first quadrant bounded by the curves y2 = 4x and (x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  28/3

(d)  64/3

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

9. The solution of the differential equation is

(a)  2x + 3y = tan1(cex)

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

10. (1, 2, 3) and (3, 0, 5) are two points on a sphere whose centre lies on the straight line  Then the radius of the sphere is

(a)   

(b)   

(c) 

(d) 

(e) 

Answer: (b)

11. If the letters of the word RANDOM be arranged in a row at random, the probability that there are exactly two letters between A and O is

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/4

(d)  1/5

(e)  None of these   

Answer: (d)

12. The probability of a man hitting a target is 2/7. In order that the probability of hitting the target at least is greater than 3/4, he must fire at least n times where n is equal to

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

(e)  none of these

Answer: ()

13. If nP5 is equal to 20 nP3, then n is equal to

(a)  8

(b)  9

(c)  10

(d)  1

(e)  6

Answer: (a)

14. The most general value of θ which satisfies  is

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  120°

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

15.  is equal to

(a)  

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

(e)   

Answer: (c)

16. The function of f : A → B, where  and A = {x : x ∈ R, −1 ≤x ≤ x} defined by f(x) sin x is

(a)  one – one an onto

(b)  one – one and into

(c)  many – one and onto

(d)  many – one and into

(e)  Into

Answer: (a)

17. Differential coefficient of a sin1 x with respect to sin1 x is

(a)  asin1 x

(b)  asin1 x loge a

(c)  asin1 x loga e

(d)  

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

18. nCr + n – 1Cr + …..xrCr is equal to

(a)  n+1Cr

(b)  n+1Cr+1

(c)  n+2Cr

(d)  2n

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

19. If  then cos 80° cos 40° cos 20° is

(a)  1/2

(b)  −1/8

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

20. If f : R → R is defined by f(x) = x2 + 1, x ≥ 0, then which of the following is true?

(a)  f1(17) = 4

(b)  f1(17) = −4

(c)  f1(+3) = 0

(d)  f1 (0) = 0

(e)  f1(1) = −1

Answer: (a)

21. The two circles x2 + y2 + ax – by + c = 0 and x2 + y2 + bx + ay – c = 0

(a)  cannot cut orthogonally

(b)  cut orthogonally whatever values, a, b, c may have

(c)  touch one another

(d)  can cut orthogonally only if c = 0

Answer: (b)

22. The value of the indefinite integral  is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

23. The two straight line represented by the equation 4x2 – 12xy + 9y2 + 12x – 18y + 10 = 0

(a)  are perpendicular to each other

(b)  make an angle 45° to one another

(c)  are parallel

(d)  make an angle 60° to one another

Answer: (c)

24. The slope of a curve at any point (x, y) is 2x – 3. The curves passes through (3, 2). The area bounded by the curve, the x-axis and x = 2 and x = 4 is

(a)  4 sq. units

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

25. If a variable line makes on the x-axis and y-axis intercepts a and b such that 1/a + 1/b = 1/3. Then the line must p ass through the point

(a)  (3, 0)

(b)  (0, 3)

(c)  (3, 3)

(d)  (a, b)

Answer: (c)

26. The circles (x – 1)2 + λ(x + 1)2 + (1 + λ)y2 = 0 and (x – 1)2 + μ(x + 1)2 + (1 + μ)y2 = 0 will cut orthogonally if

(a)  λ = 0, μ ≠ 0

(b)  μ = 0, λ ≠ 0

(c)  μ  + λ = 0

(d)  λ – μ = 0

Answer: (c)

27. The rank of the matrix  is

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

28. A square matrix A of the order n × n has how many minors of order 1?

(a)  n

(b)  n2

(c)  n(n2 – 1)

(d)  n!

(e)   

Answer: (b)

29. The degree of the polynomial in t represented by the determinant of the matrix  is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  6

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

30. Find the determinant of the matrix X such that 

(a)  10/9

(b)  2

(c)  18

(d)  10

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

31. Value of k for which the following three equations are consistent is

4x + 5y – 9 = 0

11x – 4y – k = 0

x + 2y – 3 = 0

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  3

(d)  4

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

32. Given 2x + y + z = 1, x – 2y – 3z = 1 and 3x + 2y + 4z = 5, value of y is given by

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

33. Consider the following problems :

Maximise      z = 3x1 + 4x2

Subject to      x1 – x2 ≥ 0

                      −x1 + 3x2 ≤ 3

and x1, x2 ≥ 0. The optimum solution in this case

(a)  is the point of intersection of the lines x1 =  x2 and 3x2 – x1 = 3

(b)  does not exist

(c)  is x1 = x2 = 0

(d)  is unbounded

Answer: (b)

34. cos 80° + cos 40° is equal to

(a)  cos 20°

(b)  cos 120°

(c)  1/2

(d)  √3/2

Answer: (a)

35. If in a triangle, cos 3A + cos 3B + cos 3C = 1 then one angle

(a)  must be 90°

(b)  must be 120°

(c)  must be 45°

(d)  cannot be said.

Answer: (b)

36. Distance of the point (2, 5) from the line 3x + y + 4 = 0 measured parallel to the line 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 is

(a)  5

(b)  7.5

(c)  6/5

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

37. If the equation ax2 + by2 + 2hxy = 0 represent pair of straight lines passing through the origin then the two straight lines will be perpendicular if

(a)  a = b

(b)  a + b = 0

(c)  a + b = h

(d)  They can never be perpendicular to each other

Answer: (b)

38. Consider the circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y – 12 = 0 and the straight line 3x + 4y + 7 = 0. Which of the following is true ?

(a)  The line cuts the circle in two different points.

(b)  The line touches the circle at a point.

(c)  The line and the circle have no common points.

(d)  The line passes through the centre of the circle.

Answer: (b)

39. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  −sin x

(d)  N one of these

Answer: (b)

40. Probability that a teacher will give an unannounced test during any class meeting is 1/5. If a student is absent twice, probability that he will miss at least one test is

(a)  2/5

(b)  4/5

(c)  9/25

(d)  16/25

Answer: (c)

41. The number of words that can be formed with 15 consonant and 2 vowels out of 21 consonants and 5 vowels is

(a)  785

(b)  43584

(c)  542640

(d)  101080

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

42. There are 25 books in a cupboard, namely 13 books of Physics, 4 books of Chemistry, 3 volumes of Mathematics and 5 books of Statistics. Then, the number of possible ways in which some or all of these books may be taken out is

(a)  1679

(b)  1800

(c)  3204

(d)  5400

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

43. If cot1 x + cot1 y + cot1 z = π/2 then

(a)  xyz = x + y + z

(b)  xy + yz + xz = 1

(c)  xy + yz + xz = x + y + z

(d)  xyz = 1

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

44. The greatest distance from the origin of coordinates to the point z for which   is

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)  

(e)   

Answer: ()

45. The equation to the circle which touches the axis of x at a directed distance + 10 from the origin and cuts off an intercept 4√11 from the axis of y is given by

(a)  x2 + y2 – 10x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 – 20x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 + 10x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 200x ± 24y + 100 = 0

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

46. The equations of the tangent and normal to a circle at the point (2, 3) are x + y = 5 and y – x = 1 respectively. Then the equation of the circle is given by

(a)  x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y – 21 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 3 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 + 2x – 4y – 5 = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y – 29 = 0

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

47. Let a set W = {0, 2, 5, 9, 11} and let a function f : W → R(where R is the set of real numbers) be defined such that f(x) = x2 – x – 2. Then the range of f is

(a)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 108}

(b)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 100}

(c)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 121}

(d)  {–2, 0, 18, 70, 144}

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

48. The function  for x > 0 is

(a)  monotonically increasing    

(b)  monotonically decreasing

(c)  partly increasing and partly decreasing

(d)  a straight line

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

49. 1 is the value of

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

(e) 

Answer: (e)

50. If x = a(θ – sin θ), y = a(1 + cos θ), then 

(a)  cot θ

(b)  −cot θ

(c)  cot (1/2) θ

(d)  −cot(1/2) θ

(e)  tan θ + cot θ

Answer: (d)

51. A function f(x) is defined as follows :

Then the function is discontinuous at

(a)  x = 0

(b)  x = −4/5

(c)  x = 4/5

(d)  x = 16/5

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

52. The value of   for 0 is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

(e)   

Answer: (e)

53. The maximum value of x1/x is

(a)  ee

(b)  e

(c)  1/ee

(d)  e1

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

54. The value of integral  is given by

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

55. The differential equation of all circles touching the y-axis at the origin is given by

(a)  (x2 – y2)dy – 2xy  dx = 0

(b)  (x2 – y2)dx – 2xy  dy = 0

(c)  (x2 + y2)dy – 2xy  dx = 0

(d)  (y2 – x2)dy – 2xy  dx = 0

(e)  (y2 – x2)dy – 2xy  dy = 0

Answer: (e)

56. A curve satisfies the different equation  and passes through the point (3, 2). The equation of the curve is given by

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

57. Area of the segment of the curve y = (1 – x) (x – 4) cut off by the x-axis is

(a)   

(b)  5

(c)   

(d)   

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

58.  then the values of x, y and z are respectively

(a)  –1, 2 and –3

(b)  –1, –2 and –3

(c)  –1, 3 and –3

(d)  –1, –4 and –3

(e)  none of these

Answer: (a)

59. The co-ordinates of two vertives of a triangle are (2, 3) and (1, 4). Then the equation to the locus of the third vertex if the area of the triangle is 5 square units is given by

(a)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y + 15 = 0

(b)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y – 10 = 10

(c)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y – 15 = 0

(d)  x + y + 5 = 0, x + y – 5 = 0

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

60. The cosine of the angle between the vectors 4i + 3j + 5k and –i + 2j – 3k is

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

61. Let  Then [AB]1 is equal to

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

62. The following linear equations

2x + 3y – 17 = 0

x – 2y + k = 0

3x + y – 1 = 0

are consistent if k has the value of

(a)  –15

(b)  4

(c)  16

(d)  –16

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

63. The matrix  is

I : Singular

II : Non-Singular

III : Idempotent i.e. A2 = A

(a)  Only I is true

(b)  Only II is true

(c)  Both I and III are true

(d)  Both II and III are true

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

64. Given a matrix 

It can be uniquely represented as the sum of symmetric and a skew symmetric matrix which are respectively

(a)    

(b) 

(c)  

(d)   

Answer: (c)

65. a = i + 2j + 3k, b = −i + j – k and c = i + 4j + 6k are three vectors. Then the vector d which is both perpendicular to a and b and satisfies the relation d.c = 25 is

(a)  (25, 10, 15)

(b)  (25, –10, 15)

(c)  (–25, –10, 15)

(d)  (–25, –10, –15)

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

66. Let A and B be two events. Then P(A ∩ B) = P(A) P(B) indicates that A and B are two

(a)  exhaustive events

(b)  mutually exclusive events

(c)  independent events

(d)  mutually exhaustive and independent

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

67. The probability of getting a total of 10 points with 4 dice is

(a)  0.723

(b)  0.5

(c)  0.127

(d)  0.061

(e)  None of these

Answer: ()

68. a, b, c are three real variables satisfying 2a + 3b + 5c = 0. The variable lines ax + by + c = 0 always passes through the point whose coordinates are

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: ()

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2009 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. One Fermi is equal to

(a)  1019 m

(b)  1012 m

(c)  1015 m

(d)  1018 m

Answer: (c)

2. One Angstrom is equal to

(a)  1010 m

(b)  109 m

(c)  108 m

(d)  106 m

Answer: (a)

3. Velocity of light is

(a)  3 × 108 ms1

(b)  3 × 108 ms1

(c)  3 × 1010 ms1

(d)  3 × 1012 ms1

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is not a unit of length ?

(a)  Angstrom

(b)  Light year

(c)  Micro second

(d)  Metre

Answer: (c)

5. Motion of gas molecules in a room is a case of

(a)  one dimension

(b)  two dimensions

(c)  three dimensions

(d)  four dimensions

Answer: (c)

6. An insect crawling on the floor of a room is case of

(a)  one dimension

(b)  two dimensions

(c)  three dimensions

(d)  four dimensions

Answer: (b)

7. A body covered a distance of 5 metre along a semicircular path. The ratio of distance to displacement is

(a)  11 : 7

(b)  12 : 5

(c)  8 : 3

(d)  7 : 5

Answer: (a)

8. The area of acceleration time curve gives

(a)  displacement of the body

(b)  velocity

(c)  change of velocity of acceleration

(d)  rate of change of acceleration

Answer: (c)

9. Time is a scalar because

(a)  it has no magnitude

(b)  it has no direction

(c)  it cannot be resolved into compounds

(d)  it has no magnitude as well as direction

Answer: (b)

10. Identify the vector quantity

(a)  Time

(b)  Current density

(c)  Work

(d)  Electric current

Answer: (b)

11. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(a)  Infinitesimally small rotation

(b)  Current

(c)  Pressure

(d)  Work

Answer: (a)

12. The rectangular components of a force of 13 N are

(a)  5 N, 12 N

(b)  10 N, 11 N

(c)  6.5 N, 6.5 N

(d)  9 N, 12 N

Answer: (a)

13. When the angle between the force and displacement obtuse, the work done is

(a)  unity

(b)  zero

(c)  positive

(d)  negative

Answer: (d)

14. Work is measured in

(a)  newton

(b)  newton – cm

(c)  joule

(d)  watt

Answer: (c)

15. Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body because of

(a)  Motion

(b)  position

(c)  mass

(d)  Gravity

Answer: (a)

16. Kinetic energy is measured in

(a)  joules

(b)  newton

(c)  watt

(d)  dyne

Answer: (a)

17. The motion of our earth is a case of

(a)  translator motion

(b)  rotator motion

(c)  both translational and rotational

(d)  oscillatory

Answer: (c)

18. A cracker explodes in air, the path followed by the C.M. after explosion is

(a)  parabolic

(b)  hyperbola

(c)  ellipse

(d)  straight

Answer: (a)

19. The equivalent of torque in linear motion is

(a)  momentum

(b)  impulse

(c)  acceleration

(d)  force

Answer: (d)

20. Torque depends upon

(a)  only force

(b)  only the point of application of force

(c)  only on the mass of the object

(d)  None of the statements is correct

Answer: (d)

21. The value of Gravitational Constant was first of all determined in the laboratory by

(a)  Newton

(b)  Boys

(c)  Galileo

(d)  Cavendish

Answer: (c)

22. On the surface of the earth, the value of g is maximum at

(a)  the equator

(b)  the poles

(c)  45° latitude

(d)  60° latitude

Answer: (b)

23. The minimum velocity projection to go out from earth’s gravitational pull is called

(a)  orbital velocity

(b)  escape velocity

(c)  terminal velocity

(d)  uniform velocity

Answer: (b)

24. The orbital speed of mercury planet is

(a)  greater than that of earth

(b)  less than that of earth

(c)  equal to that of earth

(d)  less than that of pluto

Answer: (a)

25. Who said that the motion along a horizontal plane is perpetual?

(a)  Rutherford

(b)  Bohr

(c)  Galileo

(d)  Aristotle

Answer: (c)

26. Newton’s second law relates force and

(a)  velocity

(b)  density

(c)  impulse

(d)  Acceleration

Answer: (d)

27. One kilogram force is equal to

(a)  9.8 N

(b)  980 N

(c)  980 dynes

(d)  105 dynes

Answer: (a)

28. Rocket works on the principle of conservation of

(a)  momentum

(b)  mass

(c)  energy

(d)  angular momentum

Answer: (a)

29. Pascal is the unit of

(a)  force

(b)  momentum

(c)  impulse

(d)  pressure

Answer: (d)

30. The atmospheric pressure is about

(a)  107 Nm2

(b)  105 Nm2

(c)  103 Nm2

(d)  109 Nm2

Answer: (b)

31. Heat is

(a)  orderly motion

(b)  degree of hotness

(c)  disorderly motion

(d)  degree of coldness

Answer: (c)

32. The unit of modulus of elasticity is

(a)  dyne/cm

(b)  dyne/cm2

(c)  Nm1

(d)  dynes

Answer: (b)

33. The temperature of a body on Rankine scale is 510°. The temperature of the body on Celsius will be

(a)  20°

(b)  30°

(c)  40°

(d)  10°

Answer: (d)

34. The common temperature for Celsius and Kelvin scale is

(a)  −100°

(b)  −273°

(c)  zero

(d)  No common temperature

Answer: (d)

35. Very low temperatures are measured by

(a)  gas thermometers

(b)  pyrometers

(c)  thermocouple thermometers

(d)  vapour pressure thermometers

Answer: (c)

36. The triple point temperature in the case of water is

(a)  273.15°C

(b)  273.15 K

(c)  237.16°C

(d)  273.16 K

Answer: (d)

37. Frequency is measured in

(a)  cycles

(b)  cycles per second

(c)  hertz per second

(d)  meter per second

Answer: (b)

38. The heart beat of a person is 90 per minute. The frequency is

(a)  90 Hz

(b)  60 Hz

(c)  1.33 Hz

(d)  1.5 Hz

Answer: (d)

39. Fourier was primarily a

(a)  Mathematician

(b)  Astronomer

(c)  Botanist

(d)  Geologist

Answer: (a)

40. A spring is replaced by another spring of stiffer material. Its time period will

(a)  remain same

(b)  increase

(c)  decrease

(d)  fluctuate

Answer: (b)

41. Sound is

(a)  an electromagnetic wave

(b)  a transverse wave

(c)  a longitudinal wave

(d)  not a wave

Answer: (a)

42. The formula for the speed of sound waves was first obtained by

(a)  Galileo

(b)  Newton

(c)  Einstein

(d)  Huygen

Answer: (b)

43. In the case of sound waves the pressure is

(a)  more at the condensation

(b)  more at the rarefaction

(c)  same everywhere

(d)  zero

Answer: (a)

44. In which medium will the speed of sound be maximum ?

(a)  Air

(b)  Hydrogen

(c)  Water

(d)  Steel

Answer: (d)

45. The positive and negative names of electricity were given by

(a)  Faraday

(b)  Lenz

(c)  Benjanium Frankein

(d)  Galileo

Answer: (a)

46. The charge on the electron is

(a)  1.6 × 1016 C

(b)  1.6 × 1017 C

(c)  1.6 × 108 C

(d)  1.6 × 1019 C

Answer: (d)

47. A proton is composed of which of the following quarks?

(a)  1U + 1d

(b)  2U + 2d

(c)  1U + 2d

(d)  2U + 1d

Answer: (d)

48. The dielectric constant K of an insulator can be

(a)  0.4

(b)  Zero

(c)  −2

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

49. The e.m.f. of a Leclanche cell is of the order of

(a)  1.1 V

(b)  1.08 V

(c)  1.45 V

(d)  1.12 V

Answer: (c)

50. The internal resistance of a secondary cell is

(a)  very low

(b)  very high

(c)  equal to that of primary cell

(d)  more than that of primary cell

Answer: (d)

51. Which of the following cells gives fairly steady current ?

(a)  Voltaic cell

(b)  Daniel cell

(c)  Leclanche cell

(d)  Fuel cell

Answer: (b)

52. The capacity o f a cell is expressed in

(a)  Ah

(b)  farad

(c)  ohm

(d)  Vh

Answer: (a)

53. One kilowatt hour is equal to

(a)  3.6 × 102 J

(b)  3.6 × 104 J

(c)  3.6 × 106 J

(d)  3.6 × 107 J

Answer: (c)

54. Standard resistance coils are made of

(a)  silver

(b)  gold

(c)  copper

(d)  manganin

Answer: (d)

55. Nichrome is

(a)  a metal

(b)  non-metal

(c)  amalgams

(d)  alloy

Answer: (d)

56. Fuse wire is made of

(a)  constantan

(b)  Cu

(c)  lead-tin alloy

(d)  tungsten

Answer: (c)

57. The magnetic field is measured in

(a)  newton

(b)  faraday

(c)  rutherford

(d)  tesla

Answer: (d)

58. One tesla is defined as

(a)  weber-m

(b)  weber m1

(c)  weber m2

(d)  weber m2

Answer: (d)

59. A charged particle enters at 30° to the magnetic field. Its path becomes

(a)  circular

(b)  helical

(c)  elliptical

(d)  straight line

Answer: (b)

60. Pole strength is measured in

(a)  Am1

(b)  Am2

(c)  Am

(d)  Am2

Answer: (c)

61. Susceptibility has the units of

(a)  tesla

(b)  Am2

(c)  Am2

(d)  No units

Answer: (d)

62. Magnetic moment is a

(a)  vector

(b)  scalar

(c)  flux

(d)  unit

Answer: (a)

63. The laws of electromagnetic induction are the contribution of

(a)  Faraday

(b)  Maxwell

(c)  Lawrence

(d)  Hall

Answer: (a)

64. Eddy currents are also known as

(a)  Focault currents

(b)  Faraday currents

(c)  Huygen currents

(d)  Franklin currents

Answer: (a)

65. The frequency of a.c. used in India is

(a)  50 Hz

(b)  50 KHz

(c)  100 Hz

(d)  60 Hz

Answer: (a)

66. The output of a dynamo using a split ring commutator is

(a)  D.C.

(b)  A.C.

(c)  fluctuating D.C.

(d)  half-wave rectified D.C.

Answer: (a)

Chemistry

1. Rutheford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the

(a)  nucleus

(b)  atom

(c)  electron

(d)  neutron

Answer: (a)

2. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wave-length is

(a)  ultraviolet

(b)  radiowave

(c)  x-ray

(d)  infrared

Answer: (b)

3. The heaviest particle is

(a)  α

(b)  electron

(c)  proton

(d)  neutron

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following elements occur free in nature?

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Phosphorus

(c)  Arsenic

(d)  Antimony

Answer: (a)

5. The number of electrons in Al3+ is

(a)  13

(b)  16

(c)  10

(d)  9

Answer: (c)

6. AP- orbital can accommodate

(a)  4 electrons

(b)  6 electrons

(c)  2 electrons with parallel spins

(d)  2 electrons with opposite spins

Answer: (d)

7. Which of the following does (do) not consist of particles of matter?

(a)  Alpha rays

(b)  Beta rays

(c)  Gamma rays

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

8. Isotone of 32Ge76 is (are)

(a)  32Ge77

(b)  33As77

(c)  34Se77

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following species has a trigonal planar shape ?

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following is not an electrophile ?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BF3

(c)  AlCl3

(d)  Hg2+

Answer: (a)

11. Which of the following is not a nulceophile?

(a)  OH

(b)  NH3

(c)  BF3

(d)  HSO3

Answer: (c)

12. In CH3­CH2OH, the bond that undergoes heterolytic cleavage most readily is

(a)  C−C

(b)  C−O

(c)  C−H

(d)  O−H

Answer: (d)

13. Ammonical silver nitrate reacts with

(a)  Ethyne

(b)  Ethylene

(c)  Butyne-2

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

14. Acetylene is

(a)  red coloured gas

(b)  useful in polymer industry

(c)  alkaline permanganate solution

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

15. Benzene can undergo

(a)  substitution

(b)  decarboxylation

(c)  elimination

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

16. Amongst the following the compound that is nitrated with difficulty is

(a)  Benzene

(b)  Nitrobenzene

(c)  Toluene

(d)  Phenol

Answer: (b)

17. Which of the following decolourizes alkaline KMnO4?

(a)  C8H3

(b)  C3H4

(c)  CH4

(d)  CCl4

Answer: (b)

18. Nuclides having the same atomic and mass numbers are known as

(a)  isomers

(b)  isotopes

(c)  isotones

(d)  isobars

Answer: (a)

19. Which of the following nuclei is unstable?

(a)  5B10

(b)  4Be10

(c)  7N14

(d)  8O16

Answer: (b)

20. The larges stable nucleus is

(a)  U-238

(b)  U-235

(c)  Pb-206

(d)  Bi-209

Answer: (b)

21. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional to their

(a)  stability

(b)  molecular weight

(c)  equivalent weight

(d)  active mass

Answer: (d)

22. In a reversible reaction both side rates of reactions are

(a)  same

(b)  different

(c)  one side more

(d)  not definite

Answer: (a)

23. The number of gram molecules of a substance present in unit volume is termed as

(a)  activity

(b)  normal solution

(c)  molar concentration

(d)  active mass

Answer: (d)

24. The law of mass action was enunciated by

(a)  Guldberg and Waage

(b)  Bodenstein

(c)  Berthelot

(d)  Graham

Answer: (a)

25. In reversible reaction both side rates of a reaction are

(a)  same

(b)  different

(c)  one side more

(d)  reactant rates less

Answer: (a)

26. The rate of reaction does not depend upon

(a)  pressure

(b)  temperature

(c)  concentration

(d)  catalyst

Answer: (d)

27. The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(a)  temperature

(b)  mass

(c)  weight

(d)  time

Answer: (a)

28. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest to completion?

(a)  K = 102

(b)  K = 102

(c)  K = 10

(d)  K = 1

Answer: (a)

29. The temperature coefficient of most of the reactions lies between

(a)  1 and 3

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 4

(d)  2 and 4

Answer: (b)

30. The minimum energy necessary to permit a reaction is

(a)  internal energy

(b)  threshold energy

(c)  activation energy

(d)  free energy

Answer: (b)

31. In the hydrogenation of oils the catalyst used is

(a)  iron

(b)  platinum

(c)  nickel

(d)  molybdenum

Answer: (c)

32. Theory of ionization was given by

(a)  Rutherford

(b)  Faraday

(c)  Graham

(d)  Arrhenius

Answer: (d)

33. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence of

(a)  free electrons

(b)  free ions

(c)  free molecules

(d)  atoms of sodium and chlorine

Answer: (b)

34. 1 litre of water contains 107 moles of H+ .Degree of ionization of water is

(a)  1.8 × 107

(b)  1 × 10−9

(c)  3.6 × 107

(d)  3.6 × 109

Answer: (a)

35. The pH of an aqueous solution is 4.0. Its pOH will be

(a)  4.0

(b)  6.0

(c)  8.0

(d)  10.0

Answer: (d)

36. Which one of the following has highest pH ?

(a)  Distilled water

(b)  1 M NH3

(c)  1 M NaOH

(d)  water saturated with chlorine

Answer: (c)

37. The pH of distilled water is

(a)  0.0

(b)  14

(c)  7

(d)  9

Answer: (c)

38. The pH of pure water at 25℃ is close to

(a)  0.0

(b)  14.0

(c)  7.0

(d)  9.0

Answer: (c)

39. An electrolyte is one

(a)  which conducts electric current

(b)  which is capable of ionization by passing electric current

(c)  which dissociated into ions by dissolving in a suitable solvent

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

40. Conductivity of a solution is directly proportional to

(a)  dilution

(b)  number of ions

(c)  current density

(d)  volume of the solution

Answer: (b)

41. The one that is a good conductor of electricity in the following list of solids is

(a)  sodium chloride

(b)  graphite

(c)  diamond

(d)  sodium

Answer: (b)

42. The electrolytic conductance is a direct measure of

(a)  resistance

(b)  potential

(c)  concentration

(d)  dissociation

Answer: (d)

43. Electrolysis of molten NaCl leads to the formation of

(a)  sodium and hydrogen

(b)  sodium and oxygen

(c)  hydrogen and oxygen

(d)  sodium and chlorine

Answer: (d)

44. On the electrolysis of aqueous solution of sodium sulphate, on cathode we get

(a)  Na

(b)  Hz

(c)  SO1

(d)  SO3

Answer: (b)

45. Law of electrolysis was given by

(a)  Lamark

(b)  Ostwald

(c)  Faraday

(d)  Arrhenius

Answer: (c)

46. Phosphorus pentachloride reacts with

(a)  klater

(b)  ethers

(c)  amines

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

47. Phenol is

(a)  a base weaker than ammonia

(b)  an acid stronger than carbonic acid

(c)  an acid weaker than carbonic acid

(d)  a neutral compound

Answer: (c)

48. Hydrogen bonding is possible in

(a)  ethers

(b)  hydrocarbons

(c)  water

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

49. Which of the following compounds can’t be used as acetylating agent?

(a)  Acetyl Chloride

(b)  Acetic anhydride

(c)  Acetic acid

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

50. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

(a)  Acetophenone

(b)  Methyl acetate

(c)  Acetamide

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

51. Acetamide reacts with NaOBr in alkaline medium to form

(a)  NH3

(b)  CH3NH2

(c)  CH3CN

(d)  CH3CH2NH­2

Answer: (b)

52. On strong heating ammonium acetate gives

(a)  acetamide

(b)  methyl cyanide

(c)  urea

(d)  formamide

Answer: (a)

53. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

54. Amongst the following, the most basic compound is

(a)  Benzylamine

(b)  Aniline

(c)  Acetanilide

(d)  P-Nitroaniline

Answer: (a)

55. 5 grams each of the following gases at 87℃ and 750 mm pressure are taken. Which of them will have the least volume?

(a)  HF

(b)  HCl

(c)  HBr

(d)  HI

Answer: (d)

56. The largest number of molecules is in

(a)  54 gm of N2O5

(b)  28 gm of CO

(c)  36 gm of H2O

(d)  46 gm of C­12H5OH

Answer: (c)

57. The value of R in calorie/degree/mole is

(a)  0.0831

(b)  8.31

(c)  8.31 × 107

(d)  1.987

Answer: (d)

58. The vapour density of a gas is 11.2. The volume occupied by 11.2 gm of the gas at N.T.P. is

(a)  1 litre

(b)  11.2 litre

(c)  22.4 litre.

(d)  44.8 litre

Answer: (b)

59. The rates of diffusion of SO2 and O2 (S = 32, O = 16) are in the ratio

(a)  1 : 1√2

(b)  1 : 32

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (a)

60. In solids the constituent particles may be

(a)  Atoms

(b)  ions

(c)  molecules

(d)  Either of the above three

Answer: (d)

61. In square close packing pattern in one layer, the available space filled by the spheres is

(a)  40%

(b)  50%

(c)  52.4%

(d)  60%

Answer: (b)

62. The available space filled in hexagonal close packing pattern in one layer is

(a)  40%

(b)  2.4%

(c)  60.4%

(d)  70%

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following does not adopt hcp structure?

(a)  Be

(b)  Mg

(c)  Fe

(d)  Mo

Answer: (c)

64. Which of the following is the smallest cation?

(a)  Na+

(b)  Mg2+

(c)  Ca2+

(d)  Al3+

Answer: (d)

65. Which of the following element occurs in free state?

(a)  C

(b)  Si

(c)  Ge

(d)  Sn

Answer: (b)

66. The ability of a substance to assume two or more crystalline structure is called

(a)  isomerism

(b)  polymorphism

(c)  isomorphism

(d)  amorphism

Answer: (b)

Biology

1. Palaeontology is the study of

(a)  Bones

(b)  Fossils

(c)  Primates

(d)  Birds

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following deals with the plants an environmental relationship?

(a)  Ecology

(b)  Phytogeography

(c)  Plant morphology

(d)  Palaeobotany

Answer: (a)

3. Study of disease of different plants is

(a)  Pathology

(b)  Plant physiology

(c)  Anatomy

(d)  Phycology

Answer: (a)

4. The science of vegetable culture is called as

(a)  Floriculture

(b)  Agriculture

(c)  Olericulture

(d)  Horticulture

Answer: (c)

5. Pedology is the science of

(a)  Disease

(b)  Pollution

(c)  Soil

(d)  Rocks

Answer: (c)

6. The basic unit of classification is

(a)  Genes

(b)  Species

(c)  Family

(d)  Order

Answer: (b)

7. Who is the father of taxonomy ?

(a)  Engler

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Linnaeus

(d)  Eichler

Answer: (c)

8. Which spreads the cy&ts of Entamoeba histolytica

(a)  Mosquito

(b)  Bed bug

(c)  Mouse

(d)  House fly

Answer: (d)

9. Shuffner’s granules are found in malaria patient in the cells of

(a)  liver

(b)  red blood cells

(c)  signet ring trophozoite

(d)  gametocytes of plasmodium

Answer: (b)

10. Plasmodium is

(a)  Monogenetic

(b)  Digenetic

(c)  Polygenetic

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

11. Regulation of water in the body is called

(a)  Homoeostasis

(b)  Excretion

(c)  Paedogenesis

(d)  Osmoregulation

Answer: (d)

12. The tail of tadpole larva, is lost in adult Herdmania due to

(a)  Parasitism

(b)  Ptedatism

(c)  Commensalism

(d)  Phagocytosis

Answer: (b)

13. Most characteristic feature of plant’s cell is

(a)  chlorophyll present

(b)  cell wall present

(c)  only one vacuole

(d)  plastids present

Answer: (d)

14. ATP transport is the function of

(a)  Golgi body

(b)  Mitochondria

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  ER

Answer: (b)

15. Mitochondria are activated by

(a)  Golgi body

(b)  Plasma

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  ER

Answer: (c)

16. Peroxisomes were discovered by

(a)  De Duve

(b)  Golgi

(c)  Rhodin

(d)  Hexley

Answer: (a)

17. The activities of all living cells are controlled by

(a)  Chloroplast

(b)  Tonoplast

(c)  Nucleus

(d)  Auxins

Answer: (c)

18. The site of respiration within cell is

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  Mitochondria

(c)  Golgi body

(d)  Nucleus

Answer: (b)

19. Animal cell is limited by

(a)  Plasma membrane

(b)  Cell wall

(c)  Basement membrane

(d)  cell membrane

Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following is described as “Energy currency of the cell”?

(a)  DNA

(b)  RNA

(c)  ATP

(d)  Vitamins

Answer: (c)

21. The acrosome of human sperm is formed by

(a)  Mitochondria

(b)  Centrioles

(c)  Golgi bodies

(d)  Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: (c)

22. Crossing over of chromosomes takes place during

(a)  Amitosis

(b)  Meiosis

(c)  Mitosis

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

23. Genetic crossing usually takes place during

(a)  Mitosis

(b)  Meiosis I

(c)  Meiosis II

(d)  Mitosis and Meiosis

Answer: (b)

24. During meiosis, the chromosome number is

(a)  halved

(b)  unchanged

(c)  doubled

(d)  tripled

Answer: (a)

25. In plant cells, cell plate formation is

(a)  Acropetal

(b)  Centripetal

(c)  Centrifugal

(d)  Basipetal

Answer: (c)

26. A transformed cell of the body which has lost control over its division is called

(a)  Mast cell

(b)  Leukocyte

(c)  Cancer cell

(d)  Connective cell

Answer: (c)

27. Viruses which cause cancers are known as

(a)  Virion

(b)  Virioids

(c)  RNA viruses

(d)  Oncogenic viruses

Answer: (d)

28. The chromosomes are made up of

(a)  DNA

(b)  DNA + Proteins

(c)  RNA

(d)  RNA + Proteins

Answer: (a)

29. Centromeres are found is

(a)  primary constrictions

(b)  secondary constrictions

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

30. A hybrid has

(a)  both nuclei of the two fusing cells.

(b)  only cytoplasm of two fusing cells.

(c)  cytoplasm of two fusing cells and one nucleus.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

31. Genes are arranged on

(a)  Ribosomes

(b)  Centrosomes

(c)  Chromosomes

(d)  Lysosomes

Answer: (c)

32. RNA is found only in

(a)  Cytoplasm

(b)  Nucleoplasm

(c)  Cytoplasm and Nucleoplasm

(d)  Chromosome

Answer: (a)

33. RNA has which of the following sugar ?

(a)  Ribose

(b)  Hexose

(c)  Fructose

(d)  Glucose

Answer: (a)

34. The amino acid proline is coded by

(a)  CCU

(b)  CCA

(c)  CCC

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

35. Mendel was born at

(a)  Heinzendorf

(b)  Vienna

(c)  Prague

(d)  Paris

Answer: (b)

36. The A, B, AB and O types of human blood groups were discovered by

(a)  Londsteiner

(b)  De Vries

(c)  Careens

(d)  Weiner

Answer: (a)

37. AB blood group is an example for

(a)  total dominance

(b)  partial dominance

(c)  co-dominance

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

38. Antigens are also called

(a)  Agglutinogens

(b)  Immuno globulins

(c)  Agglutinins

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (a)

39. The antigen present in blood group A is

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  AB

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

40. Water is lost from the plant body by

(a)  Transpiration

(b)  Guttation

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

41. The rate of transpiration is measured by

(a)  Photometer

(b)  Hygrometer

(c)  Auxanometer

(d)  Potometer

Answer: (d)

42. Dilution of milk with water involves

(a)  osmosis

(b)  diffusion

(c)  filtration

(d)  imbibition

Answer: (b)

43. DPD stands for

(a)  Diffusion Pressure Deficit

(b)  Diffusion Potential Deficit

(c)  Daily Phosphate Demand

(d)  Daily Photosynthetic Depression

Answer: (a)

44. Diffusion pressure of pure water is

(a)  zero

(b)  100 atm

(c)  1000 atm

(d)  1236 atm

Answer: (a)

45. A primary carnivore is also called a

(a)  Producer

(b)  Autotroph

(c)  Secondary consumer

(d)  Tertiary consumer

Answer: (c)

46. Chipko movement is associated with

(a)  H. N. Bahuguna

(b)  S. I. Bahuguna

(c)  R. Mishra

(d)  Kamal Nath

Answer: (b)

47. The national headquarters of NEERI is at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Bengaluru

(c)  Nagpur

(d)  Chennai

Answer: (c)

48. DDT is a

(a)  bio-degradable pollutant

(b)  bio-nondegradale pollutant

(c)  non-polluting chemical

(d)  (a) or (b) depending upon its concentration

Answer: (b)

49. Two wheelers can become environmental hazards mainly because of

(a)  their noise

(b)  their numbers

(c)  their speed

(d)  their exhaust fumes

Answer: (d)

50. We can find which of these birds only in the jungle?

(a)  Bulbul

(b)  Crow

(c)  Sparrow

(d)  Hombill

Answer: (d)

51. In pond ecosystem the food chain begins with

(a)  Aquatic animals

(b)  Small fishes

(c)  Phytoplankton

(d)  Zooplankton

Answer: (c)

52. A food chain starts with

(a)  Nitrogen fixation

(b)  Decay

(c)  Respiration

(d)  Photosynthesis

Answer: (d)

53. The interconnected food chains are called

(a)  Food web

(b)  Parasitic food chain

(c)  Detritous food chain

(d)  Predator food chain

Answer: (a)

54. The theory of panspermia was proposed by

(a)  Richter

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Redi

(d)  Oparin

Answer: (d)

55. The theory of biogenesis was proposed by

(a)  Aristotle

(b)  Francisco Redi

(c)  A. I. Oparin

(d)  Louis Pasteur

Answer: (d)

56. Theory of chemical evolution was hypothesized by A.I. Oparin in

(a)  1900

(b)  1914

(c)  1964

(d)  1984

Answer: (b)

57. Archaeopteryx is a link between

(a)  amphibians and fishes

(b)  fishes and reptiles

(c)  reptiles and birds

(d)  birds and mammals

Answer: (c)

58. Mutation theory was proposed by

(a)  Gregor Mendel

(b)  Hugo de Vries

(c)  J. B. S. Haldane

(d)  H. J. Muller

Answer: (b)

59. The first life on earth was

(a)  animals life

(b)  plant life

(c)  animals and plant life

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

60. Paratonic movements are

(a)  Phototropism

(b)  Geotropism

(c)  Thigmotropism

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

61. Which of the following is known as the age of mammals?

(a)  Palaeozoic era

(b)  Mesozoic era

(c)  Conozoic era

(d)  Precambian era

Answer: (a)

62. Growth in a plant organ involves

(a)  Cell division

(b)  Cell elongation

(c)  Karyokinesis

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

63. IAA plays a role in

(a)  Phototropism

(b)  Cell elongation

(c)  Karyokinesis

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (d)

64. GA was first obtained in crystalline form by

(a)  Yabuta

(b)  Sumiki

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  Sawada

Answer: ()

65. The naturally occurring gaseous hormone is

(a)  Ethylene

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

66. ABA has the ability of influence

(a)  Thigmotropism

(b)  Thigmonasty

(c)  Geotropism

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

67. Movement of roots towards gravity is in the case of

(a)  positive geotropism

(b)  negative geotropism

(c)  positive  phototropism

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

68. The dropping movement of leaves of Mimosa plant when touched is

(a)  Nyctinasty

(b)  Thigmonasty

(c)  Photonasty

(d)  Seismonasty

Answer: (b)

Mathematics

1. If a, b, c are in A.P. , b, c, d are in G.P. and c, d, e are in H.P. then

(a)  a, c, e are in A.P.

(b)  a, c, e are in G.P.

(c)  a, c, e are in H.P.

(d)  a = d = e

Answer: (b)

2. If  are in A.P. then a, b, c are in

(a)  A. P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

3. If log12 18 = m, log24 54 = n, then mn + 5(m – n + 1) = ?

(a)  −6

(b)  −3

(c)  3

(d)  6

Answer: (d)

4. If ω be a complex cube root of unity, then the value of (a + b) (aω + bω2) (aω2 + bω) is

(a)  a3 + b3

(b)  a3 – b3

(c)  0

(d)  3(a3 + b3)

Answer: (a)

5. If the roots of the equation x2 – 2(a + b)x + a(a + 2b + c) = 0 are equal, then

(a)  a = b = c

(b)  a, b, c are in A.P.

(c)  a, b, c are in G.P.

(d)  a, b, c are in H.P.

Answer: (c)

6. There are 18 points in a plane. Out of which 5 are collinear. The number of triangles that can be formed by joining the points is

(a)  816

(b)  810

(c)  806

(d)  800

Answer: (c)

7. A candidate has to secure the minimum marks in each of the six subjects to pass in an examination. In how many ways can he fail?

(a)  62

(b)  26

(c)  62 – 1

(d)  26 – 1

Answer: (b)

8. If x is real, then the maximum value of 1 – 2x – x2 is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

9. Log2 e – log4 e + log8 e …… to ∞ = ?

(a)  log 2

(b)  e

(c)  1/e

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

10. If sin x = 3/5, cos y = −12/13, where  , then tan (x – y) = ?

(a)  15/64

(b)  16/65

(c)  16/63

(d)  15/68

Answer: (c)

11. The simplest value of  is

(a) 

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

12. If in a ∆ ABC, (a + b + c) (b + c – a) = 3 bc, then A =

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  

(d)   

Answer: (c)

13. If f(x) = cos2x + sec2x, then

(a)  f(x) < 1

(b)  f(x) = 1

(c)  1 < f(x) < 2

(d)  f(x) ≥ 2

Answer: (d)

14. If  then x = ?

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

15. If the parametric co-ordinates of a point P be [3(cot θ + tan θ), 4(cot θ – tan θ)], θ = parameter, then the locus of P will be

(a)  straight line

(b)  circle

(c)  ellipse

(d)  hyperbola

Answer: (d)

16. If the area of the triangle formed by the points (−1, m), (m – 2, 1), (m – 2, m) be 25/2 sq. units, then m = ?

(a)  2 or –4

(b)  6 or –4

(c)  6 or –2

(d)  4 or –2

Answer: (b)

17. The radius of the circle passing through the point (0, 0), (3, 0) and (0, 4) is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  

(d)   

Answer: (a)

18. If the equation of diretrix of the parabola y2 – kx + 8 = 0 is x = 1, then the value of k is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

19. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse x2 + 3y2 = 6 at a distance 2 units from the centre is

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

20. The eccentricity of the geometric locus represented by the equation 16x2 – 9y2 = 144 is

(a)  5/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  5/3

(d)  4/3

Answer: (c)

21. If f(x) = |x| − [x], where [x] is the greatest integer not greater than x, then f(−5) = ?

(a)  0.5

(b)  4.5

(c)  7.5

(d)  0.7

Answer: (c)

22. If the function  when x ≠ 0 is continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?

(a)  1   

(b)  2/3

(c)  3/2

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

23. 

(a)  0

(b)  2/3

(c)  1/3

(d)  Does not exist

Answer: (d)

24. If f(x) = x – [x], x < 2 and f(x) 3x – 5, x > 2 then 

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  Does not exist

Answer: (b)

25. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

26. 

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

27. If  then   

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)   

Answer: (b)

28. If y = tan1 x and  then p = ?

(a)  −1

(b)  1

(c)  −2

(d)  2

Answer: (d)

29. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  √2

Answer: (a)

30. 

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

31. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

32.  is solution of the differential equation

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

33. A particle is moving in a straight line such that its distance at any time t is given by , then acceleration is minimum for t = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (a)

34. The point on the curve y2 – x, at which the tangent makes an angle 45° with X-axis is

(a)  (4, 2)

(b)  (1/4, 1/2)

(c)  (1, 1)

(d)  (1, −1)

Answer: (b)

35. The normal to a curve y = f(x) is parallel to X-axis if

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

36. The area of the parabola y2 = 4x bounded by the latus rectum (in sq. units) is

(a)  2/3

(b)  4/3

(c)  8/3

(d)  16/3

Answer: (b)

37. If the nth term of an AP is P, then the sum of its first (2n – 1) terms is

(a)  nP

(b)  (n – 1)P

(c)  (2n + 1)P

(d)  (2n – 1)P

Answer: (d)

38. If x, 2x + 1, 4x + 5, …. are in GP, then its sixth term is

(a)  18

(b)  27

(c)  243

(d)  729

Answer: (b)

39. If log10 x = a and log100 y = b then the value of 10a +2b – 2 in terms of x, y is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

40. If  and r2 = er, then 

(a)  1

(b)   

(c)  

(d)  rr1

Answer: (c)

41. The path of a particle moving in a straight line is given by s = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 4. Its velocity increases for

(a)  t > 2

(b)  t < 3

(c)  2 < t < 3

(d)  t > 3

Answer: (d)

42. The complex numbers z + x + iy which satisfy the equation  is

(a)  the X-axis

(b)  the Y-axis

(c)  the straight lines x = 5

(d)  the circle x2 + y2 = 25

Answer: (a)

43. If the roots of the equation a(b – c)x2 + b(c – a)x + c(a – b) = 0 are equal, the a, b, c are in

(a)  AP

(b)  GP

(c)  HP

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

44. If the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 be in the ratio m n, then (m + n)2/mn = ?

(a)  

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

45. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Then the number of sides of the polygon is

(a)  9

(b)  12

(c)  15

(d)  18

Answer: (b)

46. A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without repetition. The total number of ways this can be done is

(a)  96

(b)  120

(c)  216

(d)  240

Answer: (b)

47. If Un + 1 = 3Un – 2Un – 1 and U0 = 0, U1 = 1 then Un = ?

(a)  n + 1

(b)  2n – 1

(c)  2n – 1

(d)  2n – 1  + 1

Answer: (d)

48. If (1 – x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ……+a2nx2n, then a0­ + a1 + a2 + …… + a2n = ?

(a)  3n – 1

(b)  3n + P

(c)  (3n – 1)/2

(d)  (3n + 1)/2

Answer: (d)

49. The sum of the infinite series  is

(a)  log 3

(b)   

(c)  log 2

(d)   

Answer: (c)

50. In a third order determinant, if the cofactor of the element in the second row and third column is K times the corresponding minor, then K = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

51. Among 52 guests 16 drink tea but not coffee and 33 drink tea. The number of guests who drink coffee but not tea is

(a)  17

(b)  36

(c)  19

(d)  34

Answer: (c)

52. If A and B are two events and  then P(Ac ∩ Bc) = ?

(a)  3/20

(b)  17/20

(c)  13/20

(d)  7/20

Answer: (a)

53. The simplest value of cosec 10° − 4 sin 70° is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

54. If y = a log x + bx2 + x has its extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then

(a)  a = 2, b = −1

(b)  a = 2, b = −1/2

(c)  a = −2, b = 1/2

(d)  a = 1/2, b = −1

Answer: (b)

55. The simplest value of (sin2 240 – sin2 60) (sin2 420 – sin2 120) is

(a)  1

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/16

(d)  1/64

Answer: (c)

56. The simplest value of  is

(a)  a/b

(b)  2a/b

(c)  b/a

(d)  2b/a

Answer: (b)

57. The number of all possible triplets (a1, a2, a3) such that a1 + a2cos 2x + a3 sin2 x = 1 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

58. The parameteric co-ordinates of a point P is  then the locus of P is

(a)  circle

(b)  an ellipse

(c)  a hyperbola

(d)  a rectangular hyperbola

Answer: (*)

59. A ray of light coming from the point (1, 2) passes through the point (3, 5) after reflexion at the point A on X-axis. The abscissa of the point A is

(a)  9/5

(b)  13/5

(c)  17/5

(d)  21/5

Answer: (*)

60. If one end of a focal chord of y2 = 4ax is (at2, 2at) then the length of the focal chord is

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

61. Eccentricity of a hyperbola of which the coordinates of the foci are (±5, 0) and the length of the latus rectum 9/2 is

(a)  3/2

(b)  4/3

(c)  5/4

(d)  6/5

Answer: (c)

62. Which of the following function reaches its maximum at x = 0?

(a)  y = x5 – x3

(b)  y = x1/3

(c)   

(d)  y = 1 – x2

Answer: ()

63. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/6

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

64. If  is to be continuous at x = 0, then f(0) = ?

(a)  3

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

65. If  then f ‘ = 0 ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (d)

66. The particular solution of the differential equation (1 + y2)dx + (1 + x2)dy = 0, with y = 1 for x = 0 is

(a)  (x + 1) (y + 1) = 2

(b)  (x + 1) (y + 1) = 4

(c)  xy = 2

(d)  xy = 4

Answer: (a)

67. The area bounded by the curve x2 = y, the X-axis and the ordinates x = 1 and x = k(>1) is  then K = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3/2

(c)  3

(d)  5/2

Answer: (c)

68. The angle that the normal to the parabola x = at2, y = 2at at t = 1, makes with the X-axis is

(a)  45°

(b)  90°

(c)  135°

(d)  180°

Answer: (c)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2010 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2010 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and −30 cm are placed in contact with each other. The combination has a focal length

(a)  −10 cm

(b)  50 cm

(c)  60 cm

(d)  10 cm

Answer: (c)

2. A film projector magnifies a 100 cm2 film strip on a screen. If the linear magnification is 4, the area of the magnified film on the screen is

(a)  1600 cm2

(b)  400 cm2

(c)  800 cm2

(d)  200 cm2

Answer: (a)

3. The objective of a small telescope has focal length of 120 cm and diameter 5 cm. The focal length of the eye piece is 2 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope for distant object is

(a)  12

(b)  24

(c)  60

(d)  300

Answer: (c)

4. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 unit be cut into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic moment of the each half of the will be

(a)  80 unit

(b)  40 unit

(c)  60 unit

(d)  20 unit

Answer: (a)

5. A device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is

(a)  dynamo

(b)  induction coil

(c)  electric motor

(d)  generator

Answer: (c)

6. The magnetic field at a distance d from a short bar magnet in longitudinal and transverse positions are in the ratio

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  2 : 1

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (c)

7. Soft iron is used to manufacture electromagnets because their

(a)  magnetic saturation limit it high and retentivity and coercive force are small

(b)  retentivity is high

(c)  coercive force is high

(d)  area of hysteresis curve is large

Answer: (b)

8. A dip needle in a plane perpendicular to magnetic meridian will remain

(a)  vertical

(b)  horizontal

(c)  in any direction

(d)  at angle of dip to the horizontal

Answer: (d)

9. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from outside fields by placing it inside a box of

(a)  teak wood

(b)  plastic material

(c)  soft iron of high permeability

(d)  a metal of high conductivity

Answer: (c)

10. Which one of the following is the unit of electric charge?

(a)  coulomb

(b)  newton

(c)  volt

(d)  coulomb/volt

Answer: (a)

11. An electric field can deflect

(a)  X-rays

(b)  neutrons

(c)  α-particles

(d)  γ-rays

Answer: (c)

12. Of the following groups which one contains good conductors of electricity?

(a)  Iron nickel and cobalt

(b)  Copper, silver sand aluminium

(c)  Mica, distilled water and ceramics

(d)  Diamond, ebonite and wood

Answer: (b)

13. Unit electric field in volt/m is equal to

(a)  1 N/C

(b)  3 × 1010 N/C

(c)  107 N/C

(d)  1010 N/C

Answer: (a)

14. The canal rays are

(a)  a steam of electrons

(b)  a stream of positively charged particles

(c)  light rays

(d)  a stream of uncharged particles

Answer: (b)

15. According to classical theory Rutherford atom was

(a)  stable

(b)  unstable

(c)  semistable

(d)  metastable

Answer: (b)

16. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is

(a)  1/4

(b)  4/9

(c)  9/4

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

17. X-rays were discovered by

(a)  Becquerel

(b)  Roentgen

(c)  Marie Curie

(d)  Von Laue

Answer: (b)

18. Two radiations containing photons of energy twice and five times the work functions of a metal are incident successfully on the metal sur3face. The rates of the maximum velocities of the emitted electrons in the two cases will be

(a)  1 : 3

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (c)

19. If R be the Rydberg constant for hydrogen, the wave number of the first line in the Lyman series is

(a)  R/2

(b)  2R

(c)  R/4

(d)  3R/4

Answer: (d)

20. An electric kettle has two heating elements. One brings at to boil in 10 minutes and other in 15 minutes. If the two heating filaments be connected in parallel, the water in the kettle will boil in

(a)  6 min.

(b)  8 min.

(c)  25 min.

(d)  5 min.

Answer: (a)

21. Radio waves and visible light in vacuum have

(a)  different velocity and different wavelength

(b)  same velocity and same wavelength

(c)  same wavelength but different velocity

(d)  same velocity but different wavelength

Answer: (a)

22. Sound source is moving towards a stationary listener with 1/10th of the speed of sound. The ratio of apparent o real frequency is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

23. The diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of sound waves than in the case of light waves because

(a)  sound waves are of longer wavelength

(b)  sound waves are mechanical waves

(c)  sound is perceived by the car

(d)  sound waves are longitudinal

Answer: (d)

24. An example of diamagnetic substance is

(a)  nickel

(b)  aluminium

(c)  copper

(d)  iron

Answer: (d)

25. Device used to measure very high temperature is

(a)  calorimeter

(b)  bolometer

(c)  thermometer

(d)  pyrometer

Answer: (d)

26. The number of degrees of freedom for molecules of a monoatomic gas is

(a)  6

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

27. Percentage of the original number of atoms in a radioactive sample remaining at the end of one mean life is

(a)  37

(b)  63

(c)  60

(d)  50

Answer: (a)

28. Choke used to limit high frequency A.C. has

(a)  iron core

(b)  air core

(c)  a diamagnetic core

(d)  a paramagnetic core

Answer: (c)

29. Kirchoff’s voltage law is based on the law of conservation of

(a)  energy

(b)  mass

(c)  charge

(d)  momentum

Answer: (a)

30. When a proton in a radioactive nucleus becomes a neutron the emitted particle is

(a)  positron

(b)  electron

(c)  π-meson

(d)  neutrino

Answer: (b)

31. An electric bulb marked 40 W, 220 V, is used in a circuit of supply voltage 100 V. Its power now is

(a)  100 W

(b)  40 W

(c)  10 W

(d)  20 W

Answer: (c)

32. Phenomenon of diffraction of light was discovered by

(a)  Fresnel

(b)  Grimaldi

(c)  Huygens

(d)  Newton

Answer: (c)

33. In a longitudinal stationary wave produced in a gas, pressure changes are maximum

(a)  at the nodes

(b)  at the antinodes

(c)  at all points

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

34. The unit of power is

(a)  kilowatt

(b)  kilowatt-hour

(c)  dyne

(d)  joule

Answer: (a)

35. The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. It may be expressed in MKS system as

(a)  7 × 102 N/m

(b)  7 × 102 N/m

(c)  7 × 103 N/m

(d)  70 N/m

Answer: (a)

36. A cube has numerically equal volume and surface area. The volume of such cube is

(a)  216 units

(b)  1000 units

(c)  2000 units

(d)  3000 units

Answer: (a)

37. Identify the vector quantity

(a)  Time

(b)  Work

(c)  Heat

(d)  Angular momentum

Answer: (d)

38. A river is flowing from west to east at a speed of 5 m/min. A man on the south bank of the river, capable of swimming at 10m/min. in still water, wants to swim across the river in shortest time. he should swim in a direction

(a)  due north

(b)  30° west of north

(c)  30° east of north

(d)  60° east of north

Answer: (b)

39. A pendulum is suspended from five of a train moving with acceleration a. The inclination θ to the vertical is given by

(a)  0°

(b)  tan1 (a/g)

(c)  tan1 (g/a)

(d)  sin1 (a/g)

Answer: (b)

40. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of mass 3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of the mass of 3 kg is 16 m/sec. The kinetic energy of mass 6 kg is

(a)  96 J

(b)  192 J

(c)  384 J

(d)  768 J

Answer: (b)

41. The acceleration of body which is performing uniform circular motion is

(a)  v2r

(b)  v2/r

(c)  v/r

(d)  vr

Answer: (b)

42. The M.I. of a circular ring with mass M and radius R about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

43. The value of Universal Gravitational Constant G in MKS system of units is

(a)  6.66 × 103

(b)  6.66 × 106

(c)  6.66 × 1011

(d)  6.66 × 105

Answer: (c)

44. The temperature of a block of iron is 140℉. Its temperature on the Celsius scale is

(a)  108°

(b)  32°

(c)  60°

(d)  140°

Answer: (c)

45. A Celsius is a unit

(a)  of electric potential difference

(b)  of trigonometric angle

(c)  equivalent to degree kelvin

(d)  equivalent to degree centigrade

Answer: (d)

46. When water is heated from 0℃ to 10℃, its volume

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  does not change

(d)  first decreases and then increases

Answer: (d)

47. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1℃ is called

(a)  kilocarloric

(b)  Calorie

(c)  B. Th. U.

(d)  Calorie/℃

Answer: (a)

48. 1 g of ice is mixed with 1 g of steam. After thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is

(a)  0℃

(b)  100℃

(c)  55℃

(d)  80℃

Answer: (b)

49. Melting point of ice is

(a)  increases with increasing pressure

(b)  decreases with increasing pressure

(c)  is independent of pressure

(d)  is proportional to pressure

Answer: (b)

50. Some quantity of tap water is place in an open pan and allowed to evaporate. After sometime the temperature of the water

(a)  decreases slightly

(b)  increases slightly

(c)  remains the same

(d)  increases considerably

Answer: (a)

51. A jar has a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen gases in the ratio 1 : 5. The ratio of mean kinetic energies of hydrogen and oxygen molecules is

(a)  1 : 16

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  1 : 5

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (c)

52. If the pressure in a closed vessel be reduced by drawing some gas, the mean free path of the molecules

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  remains unchanged

(d)  first increases and then decreases

Answer: (b)

53. Avagadro’s number is the number of molecules present in

(a)  one litre of the gas at NTP

(b)  22.4 litre of the gas at NTP

(c)  22.4 ml of the gas at NTP

(d)  44.8 litre of the gas at NTP

Answer: (b)

54. A cold cake bottle is left open on the pan of a balance and its weight observed from time to time. The weight

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  increases, reaches a maximum and then starts decreasing

(d)  remains stationary

Answer: (c)

55. A sound wave has frequency 500 Hz and velocity 350 m/ sec. What is the distance between the two particle having phase difference of 60°?

(a)  0.7 cm

(b)  12.0 cm

(c)  70 cm

(d)  120 cm

Answer: (b)

56. The velocity of sound in air at 4 atmosphere and at 1 atmosphere pressure would be

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (d)

57. The wavelength of sound from a tuning fork of frequency 330 Hz is nearly

(a)  100 cm

(b)  10 cm

(c)  1 cm

(d)  330 cm

Answer: (b)

58. The intensity of a sound gets reduced by 20% on passing through a slab. The reduction in intensity of passage through two consecutive slab is

(a)  40%

(b)  36%

(c)  30%

(d)  60%

Answer: (b)

59. A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 60°

(a)  6

(b)  2

(c)  5

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

60. A plane mirror is approaching you at 10 cm/sec. You can see your image in it. At what speed will your image approach you?

(a)  10 cm/sec

(b)  5 cm/sec

(c)  20 cm/sec

(d)  15 cm/sec

Answer: (c)

61. A bird flying high up in the air does not cast shadow on the ground because

(a)  size of the bird is smaller than sun

(b)  layers of atmosphere are dense

(c)  the light rays are not falling on it

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

62. The image formed by a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm is a quarter of the size of the object. Then the distance of the object from the mirror is

(a)  30 cm

(b)  90 cm

(c)  120 cm

(d)  60 cm

Answer: (b)

63. A diminished virtual image can be obtained only in a

(a)  plane mirror

(b)  concave mirror

(c)  convex mirror

(d)  parabolic mirror

Answer: (c)

64. The refractive index of a given piece of transparent quartz is greatest for

(a)  red light

(b)  violet light

(c)  green light

(d)  yellow light

Answer: (a)

65. A cut diamond sparkles because of its

(a)  hardness

(b)  high of light by the diamond

(c)  emission of light by the diamond

(d)  absorption of light by the diamond

Answer: (d)

66. A lens behaves as converging lens in air and as a diverging lens in water. The refractive index of materials is

(a)  equal to unity

(b)  equal to 1.33

(c)  between unity and 1.33

(d)  greater than 1.33

Answer: (c)

Chemistry

 

1. When ethyl hydrogen sulphate is heated at 140℃ with excess of alcohol, the product formed is

(a)  ethane

(b)  ethylene

(c)  diethyl ether

(d)  diethyl sulphate

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is not a common air pollutant?

(a)  N2O

(b)  NO

(c)  NO2

(d)  N2O5

Answer: (c)

3. Man made chemical responsible for the depletion of ozone layer is

(a)  ethylene

(b)  acetylene

(c)  teflon

(d)  CFC

Answer: (d)

4. Aspirin is a/an

(a)  antibiotic

(b)  antipyretic

(c)  antiseptic

(d)  pyretic

Answer: (b)

5. SLV-3 uses propellants

(a)  solid

(b)  liquid

(c)  solid-liquid

(d)  biliquid

Answer: (c)

6. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the

(a)  nucleus

(b)  atom

(c)  electron

(d)  neutron

Answer: (a)

7. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wavelength is

(a)  ultraviolet

(b)  radiowave

(c)  X-ray

(d)  infrared

Answer: (b)

8. The lightest particle is

(a)  electron

(b)  proton

(c)  neutron

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

9. Oleum is

(a)  castor oil

(b)  oil of vitriol

(c)  fuming H2SO4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

10. Which one is known as oleum?

(a)  H2SO3

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  H2S2O8

(d)  H2S2O7

Answer: (d)

11. Peroxo acid of sulphur is

(a)  H2SO3

(b)  H2SO5

(c)  H2S2O7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

12. The element which liberates O2 from water is

(a)  P

(b)  Na

(c)  F

(d)  I

Answer: (c)

13. Freon is

(a)  CCl2F2

(b)  CF4

(c)  CClF3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

14. Chlorine gas dried over

(a)  CaO

(b)  NaOH

(c)  KOH

(d)  Conc. H2SO4

Answer: (d)

15. P. and M.P. of inert gases are

(a)  high

(b)  low

(c)  very high

(d)  very low

Answer: (d)

16. Percentage of Ar in air is about

(a)  1%

(b)  2%

(c)  3%

(d)  4%

Answer: (a)

17. Which of the following fluorides of xenon is impossible?

(a)  XeF2

(b)  XeF3

(c)  XeF4

(d)  XeF6

Answer: (a)

18. An isomer of ethanol is

(a)  methanol

(b)  diethyl ether

(c)  acetone

(d)  dimethyl ether

Answer: (d)

19. How many chain isomer can be obtained from the alkane C6H14 ?

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  7

Answer: (b)

20. The compound C4H10O can show

(a)  metamerism

(b)  functional isomerism

(c)  positional isomerism

(d)  All types

Answer: (d)

21. One Faraday of electricity will liberate one gram atom of the metal from a solution of

(a)  AuCl3

(b)  BaCl2

(c)  CuSO4

(d)  NaCl

Answer: (d)

22. Law of electrolysis was given by

(a)  Lamark

(b)  Ostwald

(c)  Faraday

(d)  Arrhenius

Answer: (c)

23. Al galvanic cells do not contain

(a)  a cathode

(b)  an anode

(c)  ions

(d)  a porous plate

Answer: (d)

24. The rate of reaction of substances is proportional to their

(a)  stability

(b)  molecular weight

(c)  equivalent weight

(d)  active mass

Answer: (d)

25. The law of mass action was enunciated by

(a)  Guldberg and Waage

(b)  Bodenstein

(c)  Berthelot

(d)  Graham

Answer: (a)

26. In which of the following gaseous equilibria Kp is less than Kc ?

(a)  N2SO4 ⇌ 2NO2

(b)  2HI ⇌ H2 + I2

(c)  2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3

(d)  N2 + O2 ⇌ 2NO

Answer: (c)

27. The pH of a 0.005 molar aqueous solution of sulphuric acid is approximately

(a)  0.005

(b)  2

(c)  1

(d)  0.01

Answer: (b)

28. Concentration of hydrogen ion in water is

(a)  8

(b)  1 × 107

(c)  7

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

29. The pH of normal KOH is

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  14

(d)  7

Answer: (c)

30. How many primary amines are possible for the formula C4H11N?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

31. Which alkane would have only the primary and tertiary carbon ?

(a)  Pentane

(b)  2-Methylbutane

(c)  2, 2-Dimethylpropane

(d)  2, 2-Dimethylbutane

Answer: (d)

32. How many oxygen atoms are present in 0.5 mole of sulphur dioxide ?

(a)  6.02 × 1023

(b)  3.01 × 1023

(c)  9.03 × 1023

(d)  12.04 × 1023

Answer: (a)

33. Volume occupied by 4g CO2 is

(a)  2.24 litres

(b)  22.4 litres

(c)  224 litres

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the following sub-shell is not possible ?

(a)  2d

(b)  4f

(c)  6p

(d)  3s

Answer: (a)

35. Maximum electron in a d-orbital are

(a)  2

(b)  10

(c)  6

(d)  14

Answer: (b)

36. Number of elements present in 5th period is

(a)  8

(b)  18

(c)  32

(d)  24

Answer: (b)

37. Element with highest electron affinity is

(a)  F

(b)  Cl

(c)  Br

(d)  I

Answer: (a)

38. Which of the following has zero dipole moment?

(a)  CHCl3

(b)  CHCl2

(c)  CH2Cl

(d)  CCl4

Answer: (d)

39. Which of the following has the smallest bond angle ?

(a)  NH3

(b)  BeF2

(c)  H2O

(d)  CH4

Answer: (c)

40. The density of neon will be highest at

(a)  S.T.P.

(b)  0℃, 2 atm

(c)  273℃, 1 atm

(d)  273℃, 2 atm

Answer: (c)

41. The pressure at which one mole of a gas at 0℃ occupies a volume of al litre is

(a)  2.24 atm

(b)  4.48 atm

(c)  11.2 atm

(d)  22.4 atm

Answer: (d)

42. Which of the following is not a colloidal system ?

(a)  Milk

(b)  Blood

(c)  Ice Cream

(d)  urea dissolved in water

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following substances is not used for preparing lyophilic sols?

(a)  Starch

(b)  Gum

(c)  Gelatin

(d)  Metal sulphide

Answer: (d)

44. Order of reaction is decided by

(a)  molecularity

(b)  Pressure

(c)  Temperature

(d)  mechanism of reaction as well as relative concentration of reactants

Answer: (d)

45. Rate constant depends on

(a)  temperature

(b)  time

(c)  initial concentration

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

46. Which one is used as an air purifier in spacecraft?

(a)  Quick lime

(b)  Slacked lime

(c)  Potassium superoxide

(d)  Anhydrous CaCl2

Answer: (c)

47. Melting point is lowest for

(a)  Be

(b)  Mg

(c)  Ca

(d)  Sr

Answer: (a)

48. Sea weeds are important source of

(a)  Fluorine

(b)  Chlorine

(c)  Bromine

(d)  Iodine

Answer: (d)

49. Which one of the following halogens exhibit only one oxidation state in its compounds?

(a)  Bromine

(b)  Chlorine

(c)  Fluorine

(d)  Iodine

Answer: (c)

50. Transition elements

(a)  do not act as catalysts

(b)  have low melting point

(c)  exhibit variable valency

(d)  exhibit inert pair effect

Answer: (c)

51. Percentage of silver in Germanium silver is

(a)  0%

(b)  1%

(c)  5%

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

52. The alloy of steel that is used for making automobile parts and utensils is

(a)  Stainless steel

(b)  Nickel steel

(c)  Tungsten steel

(d)  Chromium steel

Answer: (d)

53. Galvanization of iron denotes coating with

(a)  Al

(b)  Sn

(c)  Cd

(d)  Zn

Answer: (d)

54. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state.

(a)  MnO4

(b)  Cr(CN)3/6

(c)  NiF2/6

(d)  CrO2Cl2

Answer: (d)

55. For decolourisation of 1 mole of KMnO4, the moles of H2O2 required is

(a)  1/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  5/2

(d)  7/2

Answer: (c)

56. The metal which forms a bicarbonate is

(a)  Zn

(b)  Sr

(c)  Na

(d)  Al

Answer: (c)

57. The by-product of Solvay ammonia process is

(a)  Carbon dioxide

(b)  Ammonia

(c)  Calcium chloride

(d)  Calcium carbonate

Answer: (c)

58. The easiest and the quickest way to purify camphor is by

(a)  sublimation

(b)  distillation

(c)  chromatography

(d)  differential extraction

Answer: (a)

59. Dumas method involves the determination of nitrogen content in the organic compound in the form of

(a)  NH3

(b)  N2

(c)  NaCN

(d)  (NH4)2SO4

Answer: (c)

60. The isomers of a substance must have same

(a)  chemical properties

(b)  structural formula

(c)  molecular formula

(d)  functional groups

Answer: (c)

61. Bond length is shortest in

(a)  methane

(b)  ethane

(c)  ethylene

(d)  acetylene

Answer: (d)

62. LPG mainly contains

(a)  methane

(b)  butane

(c)  ethane

(d)  ethyne

Answer: (b)

63. Which one of the following compounds cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction?

(a)  CH4

(b)  C2H6

(c)  C3H8

(d)  C4H10

Answer: (a)

64. When chloroform is boiled with NaOH, it gives

(a)  formic acid

(b)  trihydroxy methane

(c)  acetylene

(d)  sodium formate

Answer: (d)

65. Allyl Chloride on dehydrochlorination gives

(a)  propadiene

(b)  propylene

(c)  allyl alcohol

(d)  acetone

Answer: (b)

66. Ann alcohol produced in the manufacture of soap is

(a)  butanol

(b)  glycerol

(c)  ethanol

(d)  ethylene glycol

Answer: (b)

Mathematics

1. is discontinuous when

(a)  x > 3

(b)  x < −3

(c)  −3 < x < 3

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

2. is discontinuous at x = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  Both (b) and (c)

Answer (d)

3.  is equal to

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

4. If   is

(a)  2

(b) 

(c)  

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

5. If y = a cos x + b sin x then  is equal to

(a)  y

(b)  −y

(c)  aby

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

6. The probability of a sure event is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1/2

(d)  unlimited

Answer (b)

7. If y = aex + be−x then  is

(a)  y

(b)  −y

(c)  aby

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

8. If y = cot x, then  is

(a)  −cosec2 x

(b)  2cosec2x cot x

(c)  cosec2x cot x

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

9. If y = log x2, then the value of  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (b)

10. If  is

(a)  −cosec2x

(b)  −cosec x cot x

(c)  cos2 x

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

11. 

(a) 

(b)  2 sin x cos x +c

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

12. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (b)

13.  is equal to

(a)  cot x – tan x + c

(b)  tan x – cot x + c

(c)  tan x + cot x + c

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

14.  is equal to

(a)  2 tan x + c

(b) 

(c)  sec x – x + c

(d)  tan x – x + c

Answer (d)

15. The value of  is

(a)  π/2

(b)  −π/2

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

16. The value of  is

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  3/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

17. 

(a)  0

(b) 1

(c)  2

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

18.  is equal to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

19. If n(A) = 3 and n(B) = 6 and A ⊆ B, then the number of elements in A ∪ B is equal to

(a)  3

(b)  9

(c)  6

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

20. A relation R on a set A is called an equivalence relation if

(a)  it is reflexive

(b)  it is symmetric

(c)  it is transitive

(d)  it is reflexive, symmetric and transitive

Answer (d)

21. The number log2 7 is

(a)  an integer

(b)  a rational number

(c)  an irrational number

(d)  a prime number

Answer (c)

22. 

(a)  a rational number

(b)  an irrational number

(c)  an imaginary number

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

23. The sum of the series  is

(a)  log 2

(b)  e1

(c)  √e

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

24. An approximate value of log 3 correct to one place of decimal is

(a)  0.5

(b)  1.2

(c)  1.1

(d)  1.0

Answer (c)

25. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

(a)  Mean

(b)  Median

(c)  Mode

(d)  Range

Answer (d)

26. The mean of first n natural numbers is

(a) 

(b)  n(n + 1)

(c) 

(d)  (n + 1)

Answer (c)

27. If the mode of a data is 18 and the mean is 24, then median is

(a)  18

(b)  24

(c)  22

(d)  21

Answer (c)

28. 49n + 16n – 1 is divisible by

(a)  3

(b)  64

(c)  19

(d)  29

Answer (b)

29. The value of 13C2 + 13C3 + …….+ 13C13 is

(a)  213 – 13

(b)  213 – 14

(c)  an odd number ≠ 213 – 12

(d)  an even number of ≠ 213 – 14

Answer (b)

30. The 4th term in the expansion of  is

(for x > 0)

(a)  independent of x

(b)  positive

(c)  negative

(d)  the only middle term

Answer (a)

31. Angle between vectors  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (d)

32. The area of the parallelogram of which  are adjacent is

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  √2

Answer (c)

33. The unit vector perpendicular to vectors  forming a right-handed system is

(a)

(b)

(c)  

(d) 

Answer (a)

34. The value of n, when nP2 = 20 is

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  5

Answer (d)

35. If 2 + i√5is a root of a quadratic equation then the other root is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

36. If 3 − √7 is a root of a quadratic equation then the other root of it is

(a)  3 + √7

(b)  √3 + 7

(c)  √7 – 3

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

37. If the roots of the equation x2 – ax + b = 0 are reciprocal to each other then

(a)  b = 0

(b)  b = 1

(c)  b = a

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

38. If sum of the two roots of a quadratic equation is 8 and product of the two roots is 9 then the quadratic equation is

(a)  x2 – 8x + 9 = 0

(b)  x2 + 8x + 9 = 0

(c)  x2 + 9x + 8 = 0

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

39. If x + iy = 0 then

(a)  x = 0, y = 1

(b)  x = y = 0

(c)  x = y = 1

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

40. The value of  is

(a)  −1

(b)  +1

(c)  i

(d)  −i

Answer (b)

41. The value of  where  is

(a)  2i

(b)  0

(c)  √2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

42. The complex conjugate of 2 + 5i is

(a)  2 – 5i

(b)  5 + 2i

(c)  5 – 2i

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

43. If tan x tan 3x = 1 then tan x is

(a)  1

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

44. Given that,  and θ lies in the 4th quadrant, then the value of cos θ is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (c)

45. The number of solutions of the equation  lying between 0 to 2π is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer (c)

46. If sin θ = 1, the value of θ (0 ≤ θ < 360°) is

(a)  270°

(b)  180°

(c)  0°

(d)  90°

Answer (d)

47. The point (−3, 6) lies in the

(a)  1st quadrant

(b)  2nd quadrant

(c)  3rd quadrant

(d)  4th quadrant

Answer (b)

48. Which one is polar co-ordinate?

(a)  (2, 3)

(b)  (3, π/3)

(c)  (5, 9)

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

49. The cartesian co-ordinates of the point whose polar co-ordinates are (3, π/6), are

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer (b)

50. The distance between two points (3, 5) and (8, 10) is

(a)  2√5

(b)  5

(c)  5√2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

51. The slop of the line 2x + 3y – 5 is

(a)  2/3

(b)  −2/3

(c)  3/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

52. The equation of the line parallel to X-axis and at a distance of 5 units from it is

(a)  x = 5

(b)  x + y = 5

(c)  y = 5

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

53. The angle made by the straight line y = −x with the positive direction of X-axis is

(a)  −45°

(b)  45°

(c)  135°

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

54. The distance between the lines 3x + 4y = 9 and 6x + 8y = 15 is

(a)  3/2

(b)  3/10

(c)  6

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

55. The equation of the circle whose centre is (0, 0) and radius is 5, is

(a)  x2  + y2 = 25

(b)  (x – 5)2 + (y – 5)2 = 52

(c)  x2 + (y – 5)2 = 52

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

56. The equation k(x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y – 1) = 0 where k ≠ 0 represents

(a)  a circle

(b)  a parabola

(c)  an ellipse

(d)  a pair of straight lines

Answer (a)

57. The latus rectum of the parabola y2 = −48x is

(a)  −48

(b)  −12

(c)  48

(d)  12

Answer (b)

58. The length of the radius of the circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 7y – t = 0 is 9/2, then value of t is

(a)  8

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

59. The co-ordinates of the locus of the parabola y2 = 2ax which passes through the point of intersection of the straight lines  are

(a)  (3, 10)

(b)

(c)  (10, 3)

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

60. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola y2 = 25x is

(a)  6

(b)  25

(c)  25/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

61. The value of |x| when x = −3, is

(a)  −3

(b)  3

(c)  ±3

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

62. √3 is a

(a)  rational number

(b)  irrational number

(c)  real number

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

63. If f(x) = loge x and g(x) = ex, then g{f(x)} is

(a)  ex

(b)  loge x

(c)  x

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

64. If f(x) = |x| – 2x, then the value of f(−4) is

(a)  4

(b)  −12

(c)  12

(d)  None of these

Answer (c)

65. If  then  is

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  1/2

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

66. 

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

67. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  2

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

68. The value of  is

(a)  loge 2/loge 3

(b)  loge(2/3)

(c)  loge(3/2)

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

Biology

1. Which one of the following is not a fish

(a)  Lung fish

(b)  Whale

(c)  Saw fish

(d)  Dog fish

Answer (a)

2. Phylloclade is a modification of

(a)  root

(b)  stem

(c)  leaf

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

3. Prickles in rose are

(a)  modified leaves

(b)  accessory buds

(c)  exogenous in origin

(d)  endogenous in origin

Answer (d)

4. As a tree grows older, which increases rapidly in thickness ?

(a)  its heart wood

(b)  its sap wood

(c)  its cortex

(d)  Phloem

Answer (a)

5. Annual rings are distinct in plants growing in

(a)  Tropics

(b)  Artic zones

(c)  Grass land

(d)  Temperate

Answer (a)

6. Winter sleep is known as

(a)  Hibernation

(b)  Aestivation

(c)  Nocturnal

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

7. The efferent process of neuron is known as

(a)  Axon

(b)  Dendrite

(c)  Cyton

(d)  Neurofibrillae

Answer (b)

8. Cilia are formed by

(a)  Dictyosome

(b)  Centrioles

(c)  Peroxisome

(d)  Lysosome

Answer (b)

9. Who proved that plant cells are totipotent?

(a)  Steward

(b)  Haberlandt

(c)  Muir

(d)  Maheshwari

Answer (b)

10. The two strands of DNA are held together by

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Carbon

(c)  Oxygen

(d)  Hydrogen

Answer (d)

11. The smallest RNA is

(a)  m-RNA

(b)  t-RNA     

(c)  r-RNA

(d)  Chromosomal RNA

Answer (c)

12. In mitosis, nuclear envelop and nucleolus disappear during

(a)  Prophase

(b)  Interphase

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Telophase

Answer (a)

13. Colchicine influences

(a)  DNA replication

(b)  organization of spindle

(c)  chromosome condensation

(d)  chromosome division

Answer (a)

14. Gurad cells differ from epidermal cells in having

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  vacuoles

(c)  cell wall  

(d)  chloroplast

Answer (d)

15. Plasmolysis occurs due to

(a)  Absorption

(b)  Osmosis

(c)  Endosmosis

(d)  Exosmosis

Answer (c)

16. Die-back disease of citrus is caused by

(a)  B

(b)  Mn

(c)  Cu

(d)  Zn

Answer (c)

17. Lack of which element has made some plants insectivorous?

(a)  Iron

(b)  Sodium

(c)  Nitrogen

(d)  Magnesium

Answer (b)

18. Chloroplast fix

(a)  O2

(b)  H2

(c)  CO2

(d)  N2

Answer (b)

19. Carbon-dioxide acceptor in C3 plants is

(a)  PEP

(b)  PGA

(c)  RMP

(d)  RuBP

Answer (b)

20. Fermentation is performed by

(a)  all microorganisms

(b)  some fungi & some bacteria

(c)  all bacteria

(d)  all fungi

Answer (c)

21. Total ATP produced during EMP pathway is

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  24

(d)  36

Answer (a)

22. Hormone responsible for apical dominance is

(a)  IAA

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  Florigen

Answer (d)

23. Movement of auxin is

(a)  Acropetal

(b)  Basipetal

(c)  Centripetal

(d)  Both (b) & (c)

Answer (a)

24. The first permanent teeth develops at the age of

(a)  3 years

(b)  5 years

(c)  4 years

(d)  6 years

Answer (a)

25. Vermiform appendix is a part of

(a)  Intestine

(b)  Liver

(c)  Stomach

(d)  Rectum

Answer (b)

26. Percentage of O2 present in inhaled air in man is about

(a)  21%

(b)  1%

(c)  78%

(d)  43%

Answer (b)

27. Blood contains CO2 in which of the following forms?

(a)  NaHCO3

(b)  Carbonic acid

(c)  Hb-CO2

(d)  Hb-CO2 and CO

Answer (d)

28. Chordae tendineae in the heart are found in

(a)  ventricle

(b)  left auricle

(c)  right auricle

(d)  None of these

Answer (b)

29. Human spleen

(a)  controls pulse rate

(b)  secretes hormones

(c)  regulates heart beat     

(d)  controls blood volume

Answer (a)

30. Mark the odd one

(a)  Ammonotelism

(b)  Micturition

(c)  Ureotelism

(d)  Uricotelism

Answer (b)

31. Which one of the following are not filtered in the glomerulus?

(a)  Urea

(b)  Blood cells

(c)  Water

(d)  Glucose

Answer (d)

32. In human body, the number of bones is

(a)  106

(b)  426

(c)  306

(d)  None of these

Answer (d)

33. The tissue with highest total glycogen content is

(a)  kidney

(b)  Muscle

(c)  Liver

(d)  Nerve

Answer (c)

34. Iris is a part of

(a)  sclerotic

(b)  choroid

(c)  choroid and retina

(d)  sclerotic & choroid

Answer (b)

35. Which one of the following called false fruit ?

(a)  Apple

(b)  Mango

(c)  Orange

(d)  Guava

Answer (c)

36. How many cells does a pollen grain have ?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  Four

Answer (d)

37. How many spermatozoa are produced from five secondary spermatocytes ?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  8

(d)  10

Answer (b)

38. The spermatogonia of an animal contains 32 chromosomes. What will be the number of spermatids chromosomes in it?

(a)  16

(b)  18

(c)  20

(d)  22

Answer (a)

39. How many chromosomes are present in the nucleus of a human sperm?

(a)  21

(b)  22

(c)  23

(d)  24

Answer (a)

40. What percentage of sperms are there in an ejaculate vigorous motility, for normal fertility?

(a)  40% of the sperms

(b)  50% of  the sperms

(c)  30% of the sperms

(d)  10% of the sperms

Answer (b)

41. How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog which gave birth of 6 puppies ?

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  12

Answer (d)

42. How many eggs are released by a human ovary in a month ?

(a)  One egg

(b)  Two eggs

(c)  Three eggs

(d)  Four eggs

Answer (a)

43. Humans are

(a)  oviparous

(b)  viviparous

(c)  ovoviviparous

(d)  None of these

Answer (a)

44. STDS are also called

(a)  Venereal diseases (VDS)

(b)  Reproductive tract infections (RTI)

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  Medical termination of pregnancy

Answer (a)

45. A body has blood group AB. What is true of the inheritance of this blood group in his case?

(a)  His parents should be one with O group and the other with B group

(b)  His parents should be one with O group and the other with A group

(c)  Both his parents should be with B group

(d)  His parents should e with A group and mother with B group

Answer (d)

46. Mention the age group where STDS are reported to be very high occurrence

(a)  10-12 years

(b)  12-14 years

(c)  15-24 years

(d)  20-24 years

Answer (d)

47. How many types of gametes are produced by an individual with genotype Aa Bb?

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  7

Answer (b)

48. How many different phenotypes are formed in the 16-squares in a Punnet square as a result of dihybrid cross?

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer (b)

49. The egg of an animal contains 10 chromosomes, of which one is X-chromosome. How many autosomes would be there in the karyotype of this animal?

(a)  2 pairs

(b)  3 pairs

(c)  9 pairs

(d)  18 pairs

Answer (a)

50. How many autosomes are found in a single mature human sperm?

(a)  22

(b)  24

(c)  26

(d)  28

Answer (b)

51. Which of the following changes is the cause for sickle cell anaemia ?

(a)  Glutamic acid to valine

(b)  Glutamic acid to methionine

(c)  Glutamic acid to alanine

(d)  Glutamic acid to tyrosine

Answer (c)

52. Which one of the following disorders appears more in human males than in females ?

(a)  Phenylketonuria

(b)  Sickle-cell anaemia

(c)  Red-green colour blindness

(d)  Albinism

Answer (a)

53. Down’s syndrome is caused due to

(a)  Monosomy of 21st chromosome

(b)  Trisomy of 21st chromosome

(c)  an extra Y-chromosome in male

(d)  an extra X-chromosome in female

Answer (d)

54. A hemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the probability that their daughter will be hemophilic?

(a)  100%

(b)  75%

(c)  50%

(d)  0%

Answer (d)

55. If a double standed DNA has 20 percent of cytosine, calculate the percentage of adenine in that DNA.

(a)  30%

(b)  35%

(c)  40%

(d)  60%

Answer (a)

56. The complementary strand of a DNA synthesized on a template of DNA with the codons TAGCATACT is

(a)  ATCGTATGA

(b)  AUCGGATTGA

(c)  ATGGUATGA

(d)  ATCGTATCA

Answer (c)

57. How many base pairs are present in one full turn of DNA helix ?

(a)  5

(b)  10

(c)  15

(d)  20

Answer (b)

58. What is the length of the pitch of the helix ?

(a)  3.4 nm

(b)  4.3 nm

(c)  34 nm

(d)  43 nm

Answer (b)

59. What is the distance between two base pairs in a strand of DNA ?

(a)  3.4 nm

(b)  0.34 nm

(c)  0.04 nm

(d)  0.24 nm

Answer (a)

60. What is approximate length of DNA in a typical mammalian cell ?

(a)  2.2 m

(b)  2.4 m

(c)  2.8 m

(d)  3.0 m

Answer (b)

61. The smallest unit of classification is

(a)  Family

(b)  Order

(c)  Genus

(d)  Species

Answer (c)

62. The largest herbarium of the world is located at

(a)  Geneva

(b)  Berlin

(c)  New York

(d)  Kew

Answer (d)

63. Red tides are produced by

(a)  Red algae

(b)  Dinoflagellates

(c)  Diatoms

(d)  Phaeophyceae

Answer (d)

64. The cell wall of diatoms is formed of

(a)  cellulose

(b)  pectin

(c)  cellulose and silica

(d)  cellulose and chitin

Answer (a)

65. Venter is the part of

(a)  Sporogonium

(b)  Sporangium

(c)  Antheridium

(d)  Archegonium

Answer (b)

66. Which of the following is least likely to occur along the sea coast ?

(a)  Green algae

(b)  Brown algae

(c)  Red algae

(d)  Mosses

Answer (d)

67. Continued secretion of milk is maintained by

(a)  Aldsterone

(b)  Progesterone

(c)  Oestrogen

(d)  Prolactin

Answer (a)

68. Macropus is

(a)  Prototherian

(b)  Marsupian

(c)  Eutherian

(d)  Amphibian

Answer (a)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2011 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2011 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. Ohm’s law is valid when the temperature of the conductor is

(a)  constant

(b)  very high

(c)  very low

(d)  varying

Answer: (a)

2. According to the Kirchhoff’s law the sum of the products of current and resistance as well as emfs in a closed loop is

(a)  greater than zero

(b)  less than zero

(c)  zero

(d)  determined by the emf.

Answer: (b)

3. What happens during the charging of acid cell?

(a)  Voltage increases.

(b)  Energy is given out.

(c)  Relative density of electrolyte decreases.

(d)  Cathode becomes chocolate brown.

Answer: (b)

4. The relative density of the electrolyte of acid accumulator should not be allowed to fall below

(a)  1.80

(b)  1.50

(c)  1.28

(d)  1.18

Answer: (d)

5. The electric cell is a device that obtains

(a)  electrons

(b)  electric-charge

(c)  electric energy from chemical energy

(d)  electric force

Answer: (c)

6. What is the nature of graph between temperature and thermo emf?

(a)  Hyperbola

(b)  Straight line

(c)  Parabola

(d)  Some other curve

Answer: (c)

7. Two bulbs, one of 50 watt and another 25 watt are connected series to the mains. The current flowing through them will be in the ratio

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  1

(d)  2 : 3

Answer: (c)

8. Electric current is passed through the following solutions. In which case hydrogen will be liberated at the cathode?

(a)  Sugar

(b)  Sodium hydroxide

(c)  Sulphuric acid

(d)  Copper & Sulphate

Answer: (c)

9. An electric kettle is rated at 500 w. The time taken to heat 0.5 litre of water from 30℃ to 100℃ in this kettle is

(a)  7.9 minutes

(b)  3.9 minutes

(c)  4.9 minutes

(d)  5.9 minutes

Answer: (c)

10. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is

(a)  zero

(b)  high

(c)  infinite

(d)  low

Answer: (c)

11. Of the following an ideal voltmeter is

(a)  moving coil voltmeter

(b)  voltameter

(c)  an electrometer

(d)  hot wire voltmeter

Answer: (d)

12. A copper rod moves parallel to the horizontal direction. The induced e.m.f. developed across its ends due to earth’s magnetic field will be maximum at the

(a)  equator

(b)  latitude 30°

(c)  latitude 60°

(d)  poles

Answer: (d)

13. Dynamo is designed on the principle of

(a)  electromagnetic induction

(b)  self induction

(c)  mutual induction

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

14. What does a dynamo generate ?

(a)  Electrons

(b)  Charge

(c)  emf

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

15. A choke coil should have

(a)  high resistance low inductance

(b)  high resistance high inductance

(c)  low resistance high inductance

(d)  low resistance low inductance

Answer: (c)

16. An AC. series circuit contains 8 ohm of resistance and 6 ohm of inductive reactance.

(a)  14 ohm

(b)  2 ohm

(c)  10 ohm

(d)  14.2 ohm

Answer: (c)

17. What is the nature of path of an electron when it moves in a transverse electric field?

(a)  Straight line

(b)  Ellipse

(c)  Parabola

(d)  Circle

Answer: (d)

18. The seconds hand of a clock is 2.0 cm long. Displacement of the tip of the hand in 15 seconds is

(a)  2.0 cm.

(b)  2√2 cm.

(c)  1.0 cm.

(d)  0.5 cm.

Answer: (b)

19. A bus travels the first one-third distance at a speed of 10 km/hr., the next one-third distance at 20 km/hr. and the last one third distance at 60 km/hr. The average speed of the bus is

(a)  16 km/hr.

(b)  18 km/hr.

(c)  2√2 km/hr.

(d)  √2 km/hr.

Answer: (b)

20. A shell following a parabolic path explodes somewhere in its flight. The centre of mass of fragments will continue to move in

(a)  vertical direction

(b)  any direction

(c)  horizontal direction

(d)  same parabolic path

Answer: (a)

21. If the earth would have been of iron of density 8 × 103 kg/m3, then the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) would be

(a)  zero

(b)  equal to g

(c)  less than

(d)  greater than g

Answer: (d)

22. If the diameter of the earth becomes two times of its present value and its mass remains unchanged, then how would the weight of an object on the surface of the earth be effected?

(a)  It will become half

(b)  It will become one-fourth.

(c)  It will become double.

(d)  It will become four times.

Answer: (b)

23. The compressibility of water is 4 × 105 per unit at mospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 10 cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be

(a)  0.004 cm3

(b)  0.025 cm3

(c)  0.4 cm3

(d)  4 × 105 cm3

Answer: (c)

24. A wooden cube first floats inside water when a 200 g mass is placed on it. When the mass is removed, the cube is 2 cm above water level. The size of cube is

(a)  5 cm

(b)  10 cm

(c)  15 cm

(d)  20 cm

Answer: (b)

25. A boat having a length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1 cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is

(a)  60 kg

(b)  62 kg

(c)  72 kg

(d)  28 kg

Answer: (a)

26. No other thermometer is suitable as a platinum resistance thermometer to measure temperatures in the entire range of

(a)  −50℃ to + 350℃

(b)  −200℃ to + 600℃

(c)  0℃ to 100℃

(d)  100℃ to 1500℃

Answer: (b)

27. The temperature of the sun is measured with

(a)  platinum thermometer

(b)  gas thermometer

(c)  pyrometer

(d)  vapour pressure thermometer

Answer: (c)

28. Absolute scale of temperature is reproduced in the laboratory by making use of a

(a)  radiation pyrometer

(b)  platinum resistance thermometer

(c)  constant volume helium gas thermometer

(d)  constant pressure ideal gas thermometer

Answer: (d)

29. 336 g of ice at 0℃ is mixed with 336g of water at – 80℃. The final temperature of

(a)  80℃

(b)  40℃

(c)  60℃

(d)  0℃

Answer: (d)

30. NTP corresponds to a temperature of

(a)  0 K

(b)  −273 K

(c)  273 K

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

31. An isochoric process is one which takes place at

(a)  constant internal energy

(b)  constant entropy

(c)  constant volume

(d)  constant pressure

Answer: (c)

32. If the temperature of black body raised by 5%, the heat energy radiated would increase by

(a)  6%

(b)  20%

(c)  21.51%

(d)  41.61%

Answer: (c)

33. On a cold morning a metal surface will fell colder to touch than a wooden surface, because metal has

(a)  high specific heat

(b)  low specific heat

(c)  high thermal conductivity

(d)  low thermal conductivity

Answer: (b)

34. A body of mass 5 gram is executing S.H.M. about a fixed point O with an amplitude of 10 cm. Its maximum velocity is 100 cm/s. Its velocity will be 50 cm/s at a distance (in cm)

(a)  5

(b)  5√2

(c)  5√3

(d)  10√2

Answer: (c)

35. A tunnel has been dug through centre of the earth and a ball is released in it. It executes S.H.M. with time period

(a)  42 minutes

(b)  1 day

(c)  1 hour

(d)  84.6 minutes

Answer: (d)

36. A stone is dropped into a lake from a tower 500 metre high. The sound of splash will be heard by the man approximately after

(a)  11.5 sec.

(b)  21 sec.

(c)  10 sec.

(d)  14 sec.

Answer: (c)

37. In case of the longitudinal mechanical wave in air what is the phase difference between the pressure wave and the displacement wave?

(a)  0°

(b)  45°

(c)  90°

(d)  180°

Answer: (c)

38. At what temperature the velocity of sound in air is 1.5 times the velocity at 7℃?

(a)  357℃

(b)  476°

(c)  588℃

(d)  819℃

Answer: (a)

39. To hear a clear echo, the reflecting surface must be at a minimum distance of

(a)  10 m

(b)  16.5 m

(c)  33 m

(d)  66 cm

Answer: (c)

40. The distance between any two successive compression zones in medium in which a sound wave of 50 cm wave-length is travelling is

(a)  12.5 cm

(b)  25 cm

(c)  37.5 cm

(d)  50 cm

Answer: (d)

41. When a wave passes from one medium to another, there is change in

(a)  frequency and velocity

(b)  frequency and wavelength

(c)  wavelength and velocity

(d)  frequency, wavelength and velocity

Answer: (c)

42. A fork gives 5 beats with a 40 cm length of sonometer wire. If the length of the wire is shortened by 1 cm, the number of beats is still the same. he frequency o f the fork is

(a)  385 Hz

(b)  600 Hz

(c)  395 Hz

(d)  400 Hz

Answer: (c)

43. A pipe closed at one end and open at the other end, resonates with sound waves of frequency 135 Hz and also 165 Hz, but not with any wave of frequency intermediate between these two. Then the frequency of the fundamental note is

(a)  30 Hz

(b)  15 Hz

(c)  60 Hz

(d)  7.5 Hz

Answer: (a)

44. The penetration of light into the region of geometrical shadow is called

(a)  Polarisation

(b)  Interference

(c)  Diffraction

(d)  Refraction

Answer: (c)

45. When light is transmitted from air to glass, its

(a)  wave-length increases

(b)  wave-length decreases

(c)  frequency increases

(d)  There occurs no change.

Answer: (b)

46. Which of the following is not the case with the image formed by a plane mirror?

(a)  It is erect.

(b)  It is virtual.

(c)  It is diminished.

(d)  It is at the same distance as the object.

Answer: (c)

47. The low, generally negative D.C. voltage applied to the grid is called

(a)  bias

(b)  signal

(c)  cut off voltage

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

48. When a compact disc is illuminated by a source of white light, coloured lines are observed. This is due to

(a)  dispersion

(b)  diffraction

(c)  interference

(d)  refraction

Answer: (a)

49. A beam of monochromatic light is refracted from vacuum into a medium of refractive index 1.5. The wavelength of refracted light will be

(a)  dependent on intensity of refracted light

(b)  same

(c)  smaller

(d)  larger

Answer: (c)

50. A convex lens of focal length 30 cm forms an image of height 2 cm for an object situated at infinity. If a concave lens of focal length 20 cm is placed coaxially at a distance of 26 cm in front of convex lens, then size of final image would be

(a)  1.5 cm

(b)  2 cm

(c)  2.5 cm

(d)  4 cm

Answer: (c)

51. A form of electromagnetic radiation with wave-lengths intermediate between those of visible light and those of micro-wave is known as

(a)  infra-red radiation

(b)  ultraviolet radiation

(c)  visible-spectrum

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

52. The focal length of a lens for red and violet colours are 16.4 cm and 16 cm. What is the dispersive power?

(a)  0.050

(b)  0.025

(c)  0.012

(d)  0.006

Answer: (b)

53. Which of the following provides warmth in sunlight?

(a)  X-rays

(b)  Ultraviolet rays

(c)  Visible light

(d)  Infrared rays

Answer: (d)

54. What causes chromatic aberration ?

(a)  None paraxial rays

(b)  Paraxial rays

(c)  Variation of focal length with colour.

(d)  Difference in radii of curvature of the bonding surfaces of the lens

Answer: (d)

55. Diameter of objective of telescope is large for

(a)  greater magnification

(b)  greater resolution

(c)  greater ease in handling.

(d)  greater magnifying power

Answer: (d)

56. A person cannot see object clearly beyond 50 cm. The power of the lens to correct the vision is

(a)  +5 diopter

(b)  −0.5 diopter

(c)  −2 diopter

(d)  +2 diopter

Answer: (d)

57. A large magnet is broken into two pieces so that their lengths are in the ratio 2 : 1. The pole strengths of the two pieces will have ratio

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (d)

58. The ratio of magnetic fields due to a small bar magnet at a given distance in the end on position to broad side on position is

(a)  1/4

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  2

Answer: (d)

59. When magnetizing field on a bar of steel is increased, its magnetization given on

(a)  decreasing

(b)  increasing

(c)  increasing first and then decreases

(d)  increasing till it becomes constant

Answer: (d)

60. The hysteresis cycle for the material of a transformer core is

(a)  short and wide

(b)  tall and narrow

(c)  tall and wide

(d)  short and narrow

Answer: (b)

61. In a cassette player, materials used for coating magnetic tapes are

(a)  cobalt

(b)  CoFe2O4

(c)  NiFe2O4

(d)  Nickel

Answer: (b)

62. Water is

(a)  diamagnetic

(b)  paramagnetic

(c)  ferromagnetic

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

63. DEBYE is the unit of

(a)  Electric dipole moment

(b)  Electric flux

(c)  Electric potential

(d)  Electric field

Answer: (a)

64. A hollow metallic sphere qf radius 10 cm is changes such that potential of its surface is 80 volt. The potential at the centre of the sphere would be

(a)  zero

(b)  8 V

(c)  80 V

(d)  800 V

Answer: (c)

65. When a dielectric material is introduced between the plates of a changed condenser then electric field between the plates

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  remains constant

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

66. The electric field between the two spheres of a charges spherical condenser

(a)  is zero

(b)  is constant

(c)  increases with distance from the centre

(d)  decreases with distance from the centre

Answer: (b)

Chemistry

 

1. Acetylene reacts with HCN to produce

(a)  CH4

(b)  CH2 = CH.CN

(c)  C2H5CN

(d)  CH3CN

Answer: (b)

2. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is

(a)  HC ≡ CH

(b)  C6H6

(c)  C2H6

(d)  CH3OH

Answer: (a)

3. The product(s) obtained via oxymercuration (HgSO4 + H2SO4) of 1-butyne would give

(a) 

(b)  CH3CH2CH2CHO

(c)  CH3CH2CHO + HCHO

(d)  CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH

Answer: (a)

4. Propyne and propene can be distinguished by

(a)  Conc. H2SO4

(b)  Br2 in CCl4

(c)  dil H2SO4

(d)  AgNO3 in ammonia

Answer: (b)

5. When propyne is treated with HgSO4/H2SO4 product is

(a)  propanol

(b)  propenal

(c)  propanone

(d)  propanoic acid

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following will form sodium salt?

(a)  CH3 – CH3

(b)  CH3-C = C-CH3

(c)  CH3-CH2-C ≡ CH

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

7. KMnO4 will oxidize acetylene to

(a)  ethylene glycol

(b)  ethyl alcohol

(c)  oxalic acid

(d)  acetic acid

Answer: (c & d)

8. Octane number can be changed by

(a)  isomerisation

(b)  alkylation

(c)  cyclisation

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

9. Anti-Markownikov addition of HBr is not observed in

(a)  Propene

(b)  -Butene

(c)  But-2-ene

(d)  Pent-2-ene

Answer: (c)

10. 2-hexyne gives trans-2-hexane on treatment with

(a)  Li-NH3/C2H5OH

(b)  Pd/BaSO4

(c)  LiAlH4

(d)  Pt/H2

Answer: (b)

11. Out of the following compounds, which one will have a zero dipole moment?

(a)  1, 1-dichloroethylene

(b)  cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(c)  trans-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(d)  None of these compounds

Answer: (c)

12. n-propyl bromide on treatment with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces

(a)  propane

(b)  propene

(c)  propyne

(d)  propanal

Answer: (b)

13. 1-chlorobutane on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

(a)  1-Butene

(b)  1-Butanol

(c)  2-Butene

(d)  2-Butanol

Answer: (a)

14. The produce formed on reaction of ethyl alcohol with bleaching powder is

(a)  CH3OH

(b)  CH3-CH2-OH

(c)  CHCl3

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (c)

15. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity ?

(a)  F

(b)  OH

(c)  CH3

(d)  NH2

Answer: (a)

16. Among the following the molecule with highest dipole moment is

(a)  CH3Cl

(b)  CH2Cl2

(c)  CHCl3

(d)  CCl­4

Answer: (a)

17. When chloroform is boiled with NaOH, it gives

(a)  formic acid

(b)  trihydroxy methene

(c)  acetylene

(d)  sodium formate

Answer: (d)

18. The colour of CoCl2 . 5NH3, H2O is

(a)  orange yellow

(b)  orange

(c)  green

(d)  pink

Answer: (d)

19. Which one of the following is an example of non-typical transition elements?

(a)  Li, K, Na

(b)  Be, Al, Pb

(c)  Zn, Cd, Hg

(d)  Ba, Ca, Sr

Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following does not have valence electron in 3d-subshell?

(a)  Fe(III)

(b)  Mn(II)

(c)  Cr(I)

(d)  P(0)

Answer: (b)

21. Effective magnetic moment of Sc3+ ion is

(a)  1.73

(b)  0

(c)  5.92

(d)  2.83

Answer: (d)

22. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest oxidation state is

(a)  MnO2, FeCl3

(b)  [MnO4]CrO2, Cl2

(c)  [Fe(CN)6]3, [Co(CN)3]

(d)  [NICl4]2, [CoCl4]

Answer: (b)

23. Which one of the following are prepared by electrolytic method ?

I. Mg   II. Sn   III. Sulphur   IV. F2

(a)  I and II

(b)  II and III

(c)  III and IV

(d)  I and IV

Answer: (d)

24. Refactory materials are used in furnace because they

(a)  posses great structural strength

(b)  can withstand high temperature

(c)  are chemically inert

(d)  do not require replacement

Answer: (b)

25. An important ore of Magnesium is

(a)  Malachite

(b)  Cassiterite

(c)  Carnallite

(d)  Galena

Answer: (c)

26. Red hot iron absorbs SO2 giving the products

(a)  FeS + O2

(b)  Fe2O3 + FeS

(c)  FeO + FeS

(d)  FeO + S

Answer: (b)

27. All ores are minerals, while al minerals are not ores. because

(a)  the metal can’t be extracted economically from al the minerals

(b)  minerals are complex compounds

(c)  the minerals are obtained from mines

(d)  All of these are correct.

Answer: (a)

28. Which of the following process is used in the extractive metallurgy of magnesium?

(a)  Fused salt electrolysis

(b)  Self-reduction

(c)  Aqueous solution electrolysis

(d)  Thermite reduction

Answer: (a)

29. The ore which contains copper and iron both is

(a)  cuprite

(b)  chalcocite

(c)  chalcopyrite

(d)  malachite

Answer: (c)

30. White phosphorus reacts with caustic soda. The products are PH3 and NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of

(a)  oxidation

(b)  reduction

(c)  oxidation and reduction

(d)  neutralization

Answer: (c)

31. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce KMnO4 and HF can reduce

(a)  H2SO4

(b)  KMnO4

(c)  K2Cr2O7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

32. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in the presence of

(a)  dry air

(b)  moisture

(c)  sunlight

(d)  pure oxygen

Answer: (b)

33. HNO3 reacts with iodine to give

(a)  HI

(b)  HOI

(c)  HOIO3

(d)  HOIO3

Answer: (a)

34. When I2 is dissolved in CCl4, the colour that result is

(a)  brown

(b)  violet

(c)  colour less

(d)  bluish green

Answer: (a)

35. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2 . H2S respectively are

(a)  0, +1 and −2

(b)  +2, +1 and −2.

(c)  0, +1, and +2

(d)  −2, +1 and −2

Answer: (a)

36. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state,

(a)  MnO4

(b)  Cr(CN)63

(c)  NiF62

(d)  CrO2Cl2

Answer: (d)

37. The reaction : 3ClO(aq) → ClO3(aq) + 2Cl(aq) is an example of

(a)  oxidation reaction

(b)  reduction reaction

(c)  disproportionation reaction

(d)  decomposition reaction

Answer: (c)

38. Oxidation state of Osmium (Os) in OsO4 is

(a)  +7

(b)  +6

(c)  +4

(d)  +8

Answer: (d)

39. How many isomers of C5H11OH will be primary alcohols?

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

40. When CO2 is passed through solution of calcium hydroxide, which one of the following compound is precipitated?

(a)  Ca(HCO3)2

(b)  CaO

(c)  CaCO3

(d)  Ca(OH)2

Answer: (a)

41. Oleum is chemically known as

(a)  H2SO3

(b)  H2SO5

(c)  H2S2O7

(d)  H2S2O8

Answer: (c)

42. Ferric alum has the composition (NH4)2SO4, Fe2(SO4)3, xH2 The value of x is

(a)  7

(b)  24

(c)  6

(d)  15

Answer: (b)

43. The IUPAC name of the compound  is

(a)  2-ethyl butanamide

(b)  2-methylbutanamide

(c)  1-amino-2-methylpropane

(d)  1-amino-3-methylpropane

Answer: (b)

44. The compound is known by which of the following names ?

(a)  Bicyclo [2, 2, 2] octane

(b)  Bicyclo [2, 2, 1] octane

(c)  Bicyclo [1, 2, 1] octane

(d)  Bicyclo [1, 1, 1] octane

Answer: (a)

45. IUPAC name of  is

 

(a)  2-cyano, 3-methyl hexane

(b)  3-methyl, 5-cyanohexane

(c)  2, 2-dimethyl-4-cyanopentane

(d)  2-cyano, 3-methyl hexane

Answer: (c)

46. IUPAC name of the compound  is

 

(a)  4-methylpentane-2-ol

(b)  2-methylpentanol-4

(c)  4, 4-dimethylbutan-2-ol

(d)  4-methylpentan-2-ol

Answer: (a)

47. Successive alkanes differ by

(a)  > CH2

(b)  -C-H

(c)  -CH3

(d)  C2H4

Answer: (a)

48. The IUPAC name of n-butyl chloride is

(a)  1-chlorobutane

(b)  n-chlorobutane

(c)  ter-butylchloride

(d)  2-methylbutane

Answer: (a)

49. How many methyl groups are present in 2, 5-dimethyl-4-ethy name?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

50. A fractionation column is used in

(a)  Sublimation

(b)  Distillation

(c)  Fractional distillation

(d)  Chromatography

Answer: (c)

51. Copper wire test of halogens is known as

(a)  Beilstein’s test

(b)  Liebig’s test

(c)  Fusion test

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

52. Nitrogen is an organic compound can be estimated by

(a)  Kjeldahl’s method only

(b)  Duma’s method only

(c)  Both the methods

(d)  None of these methods

Answer: (c)

53. The Beilstein test for organic compounds is used to detect

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Sulphur

(c)  Carbon

(d)  Halogens

Answer: (d)

54. The density of air is 0.00130 g/ml. The vapour density of air will be

(a)  0.00065

(b)  0.65

(c)  14.4816

(d)  14.56

Answer: (a)

55. Which of the following is not a nucleophile?

(a)  CN

(b)  H2O

(c)  BF3

(d)  Carbanion

Answer: (c)

56. Of the following compounds, the one having linear structure is

(a)  Methane

(b)  Ethylene

(c)  Acetylene

(d)  Water

Answer: (c)

57. The Cl-C-Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethene and tetrachloromethane will be about

(a)  120° and 109.5°

(b)  90° and 109.5°

(c)  109.5° and 90°

(d)  109.5° and 120°

Answer: (a)

58. Which of the following is an electrophile?

(a)  H2O

(b)  NH3

(c)  AlCl3

(d)  C2H5NH3

Answer: (c)

59. The most common type reaction in aromatic compounds is

(a)  elimination reaction

(b)  addition reaction

(c)  electrophilic substitution reaction

(d)  rearrangement reaction

Answer: (c)

60. Among the following is strongest nucleophile is

(a)  C2H5SH

(b)  CH3COO

(c)  CH3NH2

(d)  NC-CH2

Answer: (c)

61. Cetane number of diesel fuel increases with the addition of

(a)  Decane

(b)  Hexadecane

(c)  Pentane

(d)  Methyl napthalene

Answer: (a)

62. Petroleum is a mixture of

(a)  alkanes

(b)  alkenes

(c)  alkynes

(d)  alkyl halides

Answer: (a)

63. Ethyl iodide when heated with sodium in dry ether gives pure

(a)  C4H10

(b)  C2H6

(c)  C3H8

(d)  C2H5OH

Answer: (a)

64. Which one of the following compounds cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction?

(a)  CH4

(b)  C2H6

(c)  C3H8

(d)  C410

Answer: (a)

65. Which of the following alkenes will react fastest with H2 under catalytic conditions ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

66. Which of the following is the most stable?

(a)  1-butene

(b)  2-butene

(c)  1-pentene

(d)  2-pentene

Answer: (d)

Mathematics

1. A single letter is selected at random from the word ‘PROBABILITY’. The probability that it is a vowel is

(a)  3/11

(b)  4/11

(c)  2/11

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

2. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of these being queens is

(a)  1/26

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/221

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

3. If 

(a)  x = f(y)

(b)  f(1) = 3

(c)  y increases with x for x < 1

(d)  f is not a rational function of %

Answer: (a)

4. If log10 x = y, then log10 3x2 equals

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

5. 

(a)  1/3

(b)  −1/3

(c)  1/5

(d)  −1/6

Answer: (d)

6. If 

= 0, [x] = 0

Where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x, then  equals

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  −1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

7. If  is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

8. 

(a)  1/2

(b)  2/3

(c)  3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

9. The maximum value of sin x + cos x =

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  √2

(d)  1/√2

Answer: (c)

10. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

11. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

12. 

(a) 

(b)  log 2

(c)  log 3

(d)  log √3

Answer: (d)

13. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

14. The area between the curve y = 1 – |x| and X-axis is

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  2

(d)  1/3

Answer: (a)

15. The degree of the differential equation  is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

16. The solution set of the inequaiton 2x + y > 5 is

(a)  half plane that contains the origin

(b)  open half plane not containing the origin

(c)  whole XY-plane except the points lying on the line 2x + y = 5

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

17. The maximum value of the objective function P = 5x + 3y, subject to the constraints x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 and 5x + 2y ≤ 10 is

(a)  6

(b)  10

(c)  15

(d)  25

Answer: (c)

18. If A = {2, 4, 5}, B = {7, 8, 9} then n(A × B) =

(a)  6

(b)  9

(c)  3

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

19. If A & B are sets, then A ∩ (B – A) is

(a)  ϕ

(b)  A

(c)  B

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

20. If a set A has a n elements, then the total number of subsets of A is

(a)  n

(b)  n2

(c)  2n

(d)  2n

Answer: (c)

21. 

(a)  a rational number

(b)  an irrational number

(c)  an imaginary number

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

22. If x and y are real positive numbers, then

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

23. If  then z69 is equal to

(a)  −i

(b)  i

(c)  1

(d)  −1

Answer: (a)

24. The number  is equal to

(a)  i

(b)  −1

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (d)

25. The value of 

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

26. If P and P’ be perpendicular from the origin upon the straight lines,

x sec θ + y cosec θ = a and x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ, then the value of the expression 4P2 + P’2 is

(a)  a2

(b)  3a2

(c)  2a2

(d)  4a2

Answer: (a)

27. The lines x + (a – 1)y + 1 = 0 & 2x + a2y – 1 = 0 are perpendicular if

(a)  |a| = 2

(b)  0 < a < 1

(c)  −1 < a < 0

(d)  a = −1

Answer: (d)

28. The equation of the line parallel to x-axis bisecting the joint of (1, 4) and (−2, 6) is

(a)  y = 5

(b)  y = 3

(c)  y + 1 = 0

(d)  x = 5

Answer: (a)

29. The circle x2 + y2 + 4x – 7y + 12 = 0 cuts an intercept on y-axis equal to

(a)  1

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  7

Answer: (a)

30.  The equation of chord of the circle x2 + y2 – 4x = 0 whose midpoint is (1, 0) is

(a)  y = 2

(b)  y = 1

(c)  x = 2

(d)  x = 1

Answer: (d)

31. The equation of the circle passing through the origin is x2 + y2 – 6x + 3y = 0. The equation of one of its diameter is

(a)  x + 3y = 0

(b)  x + y = 0

(c)  x = y

(d)  3x + y = 0

Answer: (a)

32. The slope of a chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax, which is normal at one end and which subtends a right angle at the origin is

(a)

(b) 

(c)  ±2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

33. The eccentric angle of a point on the ellipse  whose distances from the centre of the ellipse is 2, is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

34. The number of values of c such that the straight line y = 4x + c touches the curve  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  Infinite

Answer: (c)

35. If the major axis of an ellipse is thrice the minor axis, then its eccentricity is equal to

(a)  1/3

(b)  1/√3

(c)  1/√2

(d)  2√2/3

Answer: (d)

36. For m ≠ n, if tan mθ = tan nθ, then the different values of θ are in

(a)  NO particular sequence

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  A.P.

Answer: (d)

37. tan 20° + tan 40° + √3 tan 20° tan 40° is equal to

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

38. Let sin x+ sin y = a and cos x + cos y = b then sin(x + y) is equal to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

39. If sin A = sin B, cos A = cos B, then the value of A in terms of B is

(a)  nπ + B

(b)  nπ + (−1)n B

(c)  2nπ + B

(d)  2nπ − B

Answer: (a)

40. The number of real solutions of  is

(a)  zero

(b)  one

(c)  two

(d)  infinite

Answer: (b)

41. 

(a)  π

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/3

(d)  π/4

Answer: (c)

42. The value of   is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

43. If sin1 x + sin1 y + sin1 z = π then x4 + y4 + z4 + 4x2y2z2 = k(x2y2 + y2z2 + z2x2) where k = ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

44. A triangle ABC is right-angled at B. Then the diameter of the incircle of the triangle is

(a)  2(c + a – b)

(b)  c + a – 2b

(c)  c + a – b

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

45. If the angles of triangle are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3, he corresponding sides are in the ratio

(a)  2 : 3 : 1

(b)  √3 : 2 : 1

(c)  2 : √3 : 1

(d)  1: √3 : 1

Answer: (d)

46. The maximum number of real roots of the equation x2n – 1 = 0 is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  n

(d)  2n

Answer: (a)

47. We are given b, c & sin B such that B is acute and b < c sin B, then

(a)  No triangle is possible

(b)  One triangle is possible

(c)  Two triangles are possible

(d)  A right-angled triangle is possible

Answer: (b)

48. The expression ax2 + bx + c, a > 0 is positive for all real x only if

(a)  b2 – 4ac = 0

(b)  b2 – 4ac ≠ 0

(c)  b2 – 4ac < 0

(d)  b2 – 4ac > 0

Answer: (d)

49. If α, β are the roots of quadratic equation x2 + bx – c = 0 then the equation whose roots are b & c is

(a)  x2 + αx – β = 0

(b)  x2 – [(α + β) + αβ] x – αβ (α + β) = 0

(c)  x2 + [(α + β) + αβ] x + αβ (α + β) = 0

(d)  x2 + (αβ + α + β) x – αβ(α + β) = 0

Answer: (c)

50. If the ratio of the roots of the equation x2 + bx + c = 0 is the ratio of the roots of the equation x2 + qx + r = 0 then

(a)  r2b = qc2

(b)  r2c = qb2

(c)  c2r = q2b

(d)  b2r = q2c

Answer: ()

51. The roots of the equation 4x – 3 . 2x + 3 + 128 = 0 are

(a)  1 and 2

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  3 and 4

(d)  4 and 5

Answer: (c)

52. If ax = bx = cz and a, b, c are in GP. then x, y, z are in

(a)  A.P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

53. If  , the value of n is

(a)  35

(b)  36

(c)  37

(d)  38

Answer: (a)

54. If the sum of n terms of the series 23 + 43 + 63 + …….. ∞ is 3528, then n equals

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

Answer: (a)

55. The 99th term of the series 2 + 7 + 14 + 23 + 34 + , ……. is

(a)  9999

(b)  9998

(c)  10000

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

56. The letters of the word RANDOM are written in all possible orders and these words are written out as in a dictionary. Then the rank of the word RANDOM is

(a)  614

(b)  615

(c)  613

(d)  616

Answer: (b)

57. How many numbers of five digits can be formed from the digits 2, 0, 4, 3, 8 when repetition of digits is not allowed ?

(a)  96

(b)  120

(c)  144

(d)  14

Answer: (a)

58. If the co-efficient of mth, (m + 1)th and (m + 2)th terms in the expansion of (1 + x)n are in A.P. then

(a)  n2 + 4(4m + 1) + 4m2 – 2 = 0

(b)  n2 + n(4m + 1) + 4m2 + 2 = 0

(c)  (n – 2)m2 = n + 2

(d)  (n + 2m)2 = n + 2

Answer: (c)

59. The middle term in the expansion of  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

60. The value of the determinant  is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

61. The inverse of the matrix  is

(a)  A

(b)  Aʹ

(c)

(d) 

Answer: (a)

62. If A and B are any 2 × 2 matrices, then det(A + B) = 0 implies

(a)  det A + det B = 0

(b)  det A = 0 or det B = 0

(c)  det A = 0 and det B = 0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

63. Value of a for which  are coplanar

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  −4

(d)  3

Answer: (c)

64. If  the vector form of the component of   is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

65. The point which divides the line joining the points (2, 4, 5) & (3, 5, −4) in the ratio −2 : 3 lies on

(a)  ZOX plane

(b)  XOY plane

(c)  YOZ plane

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

66. If θ is an angle given by  where α, β & γ are the angles made by a line with the positive directions of the axes of reference, then the measure of θ is

(a)  π/3

(b)  π/6

(c)  π/2

(d)  π/4

Answer: (a)

67. Weighted mean is computed by the formula

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

68. The mean and S.D. of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

Biology

1. Excess of the white corpuseles in blood is called

(a)  anaemia

(b)  leukaemia

(c)  anoxia

(d)  septicemia

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following organs develops first?

(a)  Liver

(b)  Heart

(c)  Notochord

(d)  Kidney

Answer: (b)

3. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

(a)  Chicken pox

(b)  Poliomyelitis

(c)  Influenza

(d)  Tuberculosis

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following micro-organisms can use molecular nitrogen as nutrient?

(a)  Methanomonas

(b)  Mucor

(c)  Rhizobium

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

5. A dry fruit is dispersed by

(a)  wind

(b)  Both (A) and (B)

(c)  body surfaces of animals

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

6. The term ‘anaerobic’ means

(a)  with glucose

(b)  with oxygen

(c)  without glucose

(d)  without oxygen

Answer: (d)

7. Xylem is primarily instrumental for

(a)  conduction of water

(b)  conduction of solute

(c)  mechanical support

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following absorbs part of the isolation and preserves earth is radiated heat?

(a)  Nitrogen

(b)  Oxygen

(c)  Water vapour

(d)  Carbon dioxide

Answer: (d)

9. The condition in which there are more than two complete sets of chromosomes is called

(a)  Monoploidy

(b)  Polyploidy

(c)  Aneuploidy

(d)  Polytene

Answer: (b)

10. The hardest substances in human body is

(a)  chondrin

(b)  dentine

(c)  enamel

(d)  keratin

Answer: (c)

11. Cell was discovered by

(a)  Robert Hooke

(b)  Leeuwenhock

(c)  Robert Brown

(d)  Dujardin

Answer: (a)

12. Cell was discovered in the year

(a)  1652

(b)  1656

(c)  1665

(d)  1674

Answer: (c)

13. Nucleolus was discovered by

(a)  Oken

(b)  Wagner

(c)  Robert Brown

(d)  Frontana

Answer: (d)

14. Cell theory was proposed by

(a)  Schwann

(b)  Schleiden

(c)  Galeleo

(d)  None them

Answer: (b)

15. Father of genetics is

(a)  Devries

(b)  Correns

(c)  Mendel

(d)  Tschermuk

Answer: (c)

16. TMV is a full name of

(a)  Termie Maselte Virus

(b)  Taretic Mosaic Virus

(c)  Taitric Mosaic Virus

(d)  Tobacco Mosaic Virus

Answer: (d)

17. The hormone insulin which is used in treating diabetes was discovered by

(a)  F. G. Banting

(b)  Louis Pasteur

(c)  J. E. Salk

(d)  J. F. Enders

Answer: (a)

18. Colour of blood is red due to

(a)  Haemoglobin

(b)  WBC

(c)  Hormone

(d)  Protein

Answer: (a)

19. Cancer caused by

(a)  Bacteria

(b)  Virus

(c)  Fungles

(d)  Protozoa

Answer: (a & b)

20. The main constituent of chlorofil is

(a)  Mg

(b)  Fe

(c)  Zn

(d)  Cu

Answer: (a)

21. Photosynthesis take place at

(a)  fungy

(b)  stem

(c)  green leaves

(d)  roots

Answer: (c)

22. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of

(a)  Vitamin A

(b)  Vitamin C

(c)  Vitamin D

(d)  Vitamin B

Answer: (c)

23. The main respiratory substrate of human is

(a)  glucose

(b)  food

(c)  meat

(d)  milk

Answer: (a)

24. Example of monosaccharide is

(a)  Fructose

(b)  Maltose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Glucose

Answer: (a & d)

25. Which one of the following is complete flower?

(a)  Chinarose

(b)  Night queen

(c)  Rose

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

26. Raphides is

(a)  Calcium sulphate

(b)  Calcium carbonate

(c)  Calcium oxalate

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

27. Excretory organs of planaria is

(a)  flame cell

(b)  Gills

(c)  green glands

(d)  Liver

Answer: (a)

28. Example of Beneficial Bacteria is

(a)  Rhizobium

(b)  Basilas subtilis

(c)  Lactobasilus

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

29. Cholera is caused by

(a)  Vibrio cholerae

(b)  Clostridium tetani

(c)  Tuberculosis

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

30. Cotton fibre is obtained from the

(a)  stem

(b)  seed

(c)  Leaf

(d)  Fruit       

Answer: (b)

31. The adult human skeleton consist of

(a)  204 bones

(b)  201 bones

(c)  206 bones

(d)  208 bones

Answer: (c)

32. Gene the basic unit of heredity, was first synthesized in the laboratory by

(a)  Hargobind Khorana

(b)  Watson and Crick

(c)  Gregor Mendel

(d)  Arthur Kornberg

Answer: (a)

33. The Central Drug Research Institute of India is located at

(a)  Bengaluru

(b)  Lucknow

(c)  Chennai

(d)  Delhi

Answer: (b)

34. The acid present in lemons and oranges is

(a)  acetic acid

(b)  hydrochloric acid

(c)  citric acid

(d)  oxalic acid

Answer: (c)

35. The most abundant source of iron is

(a)  milk

(b)  green vegetables

(c)  eggs

(d)  beans

Answer: (b)

36. While cooking food, the compounds lost to the maximum extent are

(a)  fats

(b)  carbohydrates

(c)  vitamins.

(d)  proteins

Answer: (c)

37. Cholesterol is

(a)  type of chlorophyll

(b)  derivative of chloroform

(c)  fatty alcohol found in animal fats

(d)  chromium salt

Answer: (c)

38. Antibodies is the name given to

(a)  harmful bacteria

(b)  poisonous substances

(c)  viruses that cause infection

(d)  substances formed in the blood that arrest or destroy harmful bacteria attacks

Answer: (d)

39. Haemoglobin is

(a)  the colouring matter of leaves of plants

(b)  colouring matter of blood

(c)  a compound present in milk

(d)  a compound transmitting signals to the brain

Answer: (b)

40. Sweat contains

(a)  pure water

(b)  phosphoric acid

(c)  calcium phosphate and water

(d)  water, salt and waste matter

Answer: (d)

41. The main use of salt in the diet is to

(a)  make the taste of food better

(b)  produce in small amount the hydrochloric acid that is needed to digest food

(c)  ease the process of cooking.

(d)  increase the solubility o f food particles in water

Answer: (b)

42. Absolute alcohol is prepared by

(a)  Kolbe’s method

(b)  Vacuum distillation

(c)  Azeotropic distillation

(d)  Fractional distillation

Answer: (d)

43. The chromosome number in a bacterium is

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

44. In a plant cell, DNA is found in

(a)  chloroplast

(b)  mitochondria

(c)  nucleus

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

45. Blood is formed in the human adult by the

(a)  heart

(b)  spleen

(c)  yellow bone marrow

(d)  red bone marrow

Answer: (d)

46. Which of the following sugars are components of cane sugar?

(a)  Glucose and fructose

(b)  Glucose and galactose

(c)  Glucose and mannose

(d)  Glucose and ribose

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following compounds found in all living organisms are rich in phosphorus?

(a)  Carbohydrates

(b)  Nucleic acids

(c)  Fats

(d)  Proteins

Answer: (b)

48. The largest part of most human diets is made up of

(a)  proteins

(b)  nucleic acids

(c)  carbohydrates

(d)  lipids

Answer: (c)

49. The microscope built by

(a)  Galileo

(b)  Newton

(c)  Jan Swammerdam

(d)  Robert Hooke

Answer: (d)

50. Which of the following propagates through leaf tip?

(a)  Moss

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Walking ferm

(d)  Sprout leaf plant

Answer: (a)

51. Which of the following is a living fossil?

(a)  Spirogyra

(b)  Cycas

(c)  Saccharomyces

(d)  Moss

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a)  Vitamin B2 – Pellagra

(b)  Vitamin B1 – Beri-Beri

(c)  Vitamin B6 – Loss of appetite

(d)  Vitamin B12– Pernicious anaemia

Answer: (b)

53. Hormones are chemically

(a)  steroids only

(b)  proteins only

(c)  biogenetic amines only

(d)  proteins, steroids and bio-genetic amines

Answer: (d)

54. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a)  Lag phase

(b)  Exponential phase

(c)  Senescent phase

(d)  Stationary phase

Answer: (b)

55. Maize grain is a/an

(a)  Fruit

(b)  Ovule

(c)  Seed

(d)  Embryo

Answer: (c)

56. Guttation occurs through

(a)  Periderm

(b)  Hydathodes

(c)  Stomata

(d)  Lenticels

Answer: (b)

57. Match List-I (Endocrine glands) with List-II (Hormones secreted) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I                      List-II

(a) Gonads.             1. Insulin

(b) pituitary            2. Progesterone

(c) Pancreas            3. Growth hormones

(d) Adrenal             4. Cortisone

(a)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 4; (d) – (1)

(b)  (a) – 2; (b) – 3; (c) – 1; (d) – 4

(c)  (a) – 4; (b) – 3; (c) – 2; (d) – 1

(d)  (a) – 3; (b) – 4; (c) – 1; (d) – 2

Answer: (b)

58. Uricotelism is found in

(a)  frogs and toads

(b)  mammals and birds

(c)  fishes and fresh water protozoans

(d)  insects, birds and reptiles

Answer: (d)

59. Man in the life-cycle of plasmodium is

(a)  primary host

(b)  secondary host

(c)  intermediate host

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

60. External fertilization occurs almost exclusively inhabitats that are

(a)  warm

(b)  moist

(c)  crowded

(d)  tropical

Answer: (b)

61. Insect-resistant cotton plants have been genetically engineered by inserting a gene from a/an

(a)  Mangrove plant

(b)  Bacterium

(c)  Insect

(d)  Virus

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following animals is not a chrodate?

(a)  Shark

(b)  Snake

(c)  Starfish

(d)  Dolphin

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following enzymes digest starch?

(a)  Renin

(b)  Ptyalin

(c)  Pepsin

(d)  Trypsin

Answer: (b)

64. Tadpole of frog breathes by

(a)  lungs

(b)  gills

(c)  skin and lungs

(d)  skin and gills

Answer: (d)

65. The theory of continuity of germ-plasm was pronounced by

(a)  Lamarck

(b)  Haeckel

(c)  Weismann

(d)  Mendel

Answer: (c)

66. Cartilaginous fishes do not have

(a)  Operculum

(b)  Scales

(c)  Gill slits

(d)  Pelvic fins

Answer: (b)

67. Plant hormone cytokinin stimulates

(a)  cell division

(b)  cell elongation

(c)  cell wall thickening

(d)  cell turgidity

Answer: (a)

68. Food poisoning (Botulism) is caused by infection of a species of

(a)  Azotobacter

(b)  Clostridium

(c)  Rhizobium

(d)  Lactobacillus

Answer: (b)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2012 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2012 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. In the circuit shown below the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter are

(a)  4A, 10V

(b)  0.4A, 4V

(c) 

(d)  4A, 4V

Answer: (b)

2. If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude 50 mm and time period of 2 s, then its maximum velocity is

(a)  0.10 m/s

(b)  0.15 m/s

(c)  0.8 m/s

(d)  0.16 m/s

Answer: (d)

3. If the pressure amplitude in a sound wave is doubled, then the intensity of sound is increased by a factor of

(a)  √2

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  0.5

Answer: (c)

4. The stationary wave produced on a string is represented by the equation  where x and y are in cm and t in second. The distance between consecutive nodes is

(a)  2 cm

(b)  3 cm

(c)  4 cm

(d)  8 cm

Answer: (c)

5. y = a cos(kx + ωt) super imposes on another wave giving a stationary wave having node at x = 0. The equation of the other wave which superimposes on to it will be

(a)  −a cos(kx – ωt)

(b)  −a cos(kx + ωt)

(c)  −a sin(kx + ωt)

(d)  a cos(kx – ωt)

Answer: (a)

6. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced then required length of the string is

(a)  62.5 cm

(b)  50 cm

(c)  40 cm

(d)  37.5 cm

Answer: (c)

7. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by the spring will be (if T is the tension in the spring and K is spring constant)

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

8. If 8 be the surface tension, the work done in breaking a big drop of radius R into n drops of equal radius is

(a)  Rn23S

(b)  R(n23 – 1)S

(c)  R(n13 – 1)S

(d)  4πR2(n13 – 1)S

Answer: (d)

9. A thin glass prism (μ = 1.5) is immersed in water (μ = 1.3). If the angle of deviation in air for a particular ray be δ, then that in water will be

(a)  0.6 δ

(b)  0.5 δ

(c)  0.3 δ

(d)  0.2 δ

Answer: (a)

10. In an astronomical telescope the final image for normal vision is formed at

(a)  the focus of the eye-piece

(b)  the least distance of distinct vision

(c)  the focus of the objective lens

(d)  Infinity

Answer: (b)

11. To produce a pure spectrum on a screen with the help of a prism, which of the following is not required?

(a)  Narrow slit

(b)  Extended source of light

(c)  Colour filter

(d)  Convex lens

Answer: (d)

12. Two lenses in contact form an archromatic lens. Their focal lengths are in the 3 : 4. Ratio of their dispersive powers will be

(a)  4 : 3

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  3 : 4

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (c)

13. In a movie hall if the distance between the projector and the screen is increased by 2%, illumination on the screen will be

(a)  increased by 4%

(b)  decreased by 4%

(c)  increased by 2%

(d)  decreased by 2%

Answer: (b)

14. Fraunhoffer’s line commonly visible in the Sun’s spectrum are example of

(a)  line emission spectrum

(b)  the absorption spectrum

(c)  band emission spectrum

(d)  band absorption spectrum

Answer: (b)

15. The wavelength of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is λ. The wavelength of the same line in doubly ionized lithium will be

(a)  λ/2

(b)  λ/9

(c)  λ/8

(d)  λ/27

Answer: (b)

16. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°, the velocity of light in the medium is

(a)  3 × 108  m/s

(b)  1.5 × 108  m/s

(c)  6 × 108  m/s

(d)  √3 × 108  m/s

Answer: (b)

17. A radioactive element has a half-life 2 hours. In 8 hours 1 gm of radioactive material is reduced to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following helps in knowing about the stability, of nucleus?

(a)  Binding energy per nucleon

(b)  Binding energy

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  Neither (A) nor (B)

Answer: (a)

19. Mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. The binding energy per nucleon for helium will be

(a)  28 MeV

(b)  7 MeV

(c)  4 MeV

(d)  1 MeV

Answer: (b)

20. When a metal with work function of 0.6 eV is illuminated with the light of 2 eV, the necessary stopping potential for the metal will be

(a)  2.6 V

(b)  3.6 V

(c)  0.8 V

(d)  1.4 V

Answer: (d)

21. If W1, W2, and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown in the gravitational field of a point mass m, find the correct relation between W1, W2 and W3.

(a)  W1 = W2 = W3

(b)  W1 > W2 > W3

(c)  W1 < W2 < W3

(d)  W2 > W1 > W3

Answer: (a)

22. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force F of 2.5 newton is applied on the block as shown in the figure,

the frictional force between the block and the floor will be

(a)  10 N

(b)  7.84 N

(c)  5 N

(d)  2.5 N

Answer: (a)

23. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by  and  respectively. The ratio of their amplitudes will be

(a)  2

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

24. A body starting from rest moves along a straight line with a constant acceleration. The variation of speed (v) with distance (S) is represented by the graph

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

25. Specific heat at constant pressure is greater than the specific heat at constant volume. The reason behind this statement is

(a)  heat is used up to increase temperature at constant pressure

(b)  heat is used by gas for expansion oat constant pressure

(c)  heat is used to increase internal energy

(d)  None of the above statements are true

Answer: (a)

26. The absolute zero is temperature at which

(a)  molecular motion ceases

(b)  water freezes quickly

(c)  all the substances exit in solid state

(d)  solid, liquid and gaseous state of a body exist simultaneously

Answer: (a)

27. The freezing point of water is marked in a faulty thermometer as 20℃ and boiling points as 150℃. A thermometer at 60℃ will be shown as

(a)  78℃

(b)  98℃

(c)  150℃

(d)  130℃

Answer: (b)

28. What is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about an axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance R/2 from the centre?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

29. If we dip capillary tubes of different radii r in water and water rises to different heights h in them, then

(a)  h/2= constant

(b)  h/r = constant

(c)  hr = constant

(d)  hr2 = constant

Answer: (c)

30. In old age arteries carrying blood in the human body become narrow resulting in an increase in the blood pressure. This follows from

(a)  Pascal’s Law

(b)  Stoke’s Law

(c)  Bernoull’s Principle

(d)  Archimedes Principle

Answer: (b)

31. An ideal engine exhausting heat at 77℃ is to have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at

(a)  127℃

(b)  227℃

(c)  327℃

(d)  673℃

Answer: (b)

32. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 4 × 103 m and the distance of the screen from the p lane of the slit is 2 m. Light of wavelength in the range 2000 Å to 8000 Å is allowed to fall on the slits. The wavelength that will be present on the screen at 5 × 103 m from the central maximum is

(a)  3500 Å

(b)  2500 Å

(c)  4500 Å

(d)  6500 Å

Answer: (b)

33. A composite slab consists of two parts of equal thickness. The thermal conductivity of one is twice that of the other. What will be the ratio of temperature difference across the two layers in the state of equilibrium ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

34. Amongst the following which quantity is not dimensionless?

(a)  Relative permeability

(b)  Relative density

(c)  Relative permittivity

(d)  Relative velocity

Answer: (d)

35. A wooden rod cannot float vertically in a pond of water because

(a)  centre of gravity lies above the metacentre

(b)  centre of gravity lies below the metacentre

(c)  density of wood is less than that of water

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

36. Two rods, one of copper and the other made of aluminium, having initial length l1 and l2 are connected together to form a single rod of length l1 + l2. The coefficient of linear expansion for copper and aluminium are α1 and α2 If the length of each rod increases by the same amount when their temperature are raised by t℃, then the ratio  will be

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

37. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved?

(a)  Centre of the circle

(b)  On the perimeter of the circle

(c)  Inside the circle

(d)  Outside the circle

Answer: (a)

38. Gas thermometers are more sensitive than the liquid thermometers because they

(a)  are lighter

(b)  have low specific heat

(c)  have high specific heat

(d)  have large coefficient of expansion

Answer: (d)

39. In which of the process, internal energy of system remains constant ?

(a)  Isothermal

(b)  Isochoric

(c)  Isobaric

(d)  Adiabatic

Answer: (a)

40. What is the thermal capacity of one gram water when it is at the boiling point ?

(a)  Zero

(b)  Infinity

(c)  1 cal/K

(d)  540 cal/K

Answer: (d)

41. The percentage of fissionable mass in uranium 235 is

(a)  0.1%

(b)  0.2%

(c)  0.7%

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

42. A wooden log of mass M and length L is hanged vertically down by a frictionless nail. A bullet of mass m strikes with velocity v and sticks to it. Just after the collision about the nail the angular velocity of the system will be

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

43. The dimensional formula of emf in MKS is

(a)  ML2T2Q1

(b)  ML23T2Q2

(c)  MLT2Q1

(d)  ML1T2Q2

Answer: (a)

44. If  and given that    then angle between  will be.

(a)  75°

(b)  60°

(c)  45°

(d)  30°

Answer: (b)

45. A vector is represented by  Its length in XY plane is

(a)  √5

(b)  √10

(c)  √14

(d)  2

Answer: (b)

46. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river in km/h is

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  √21

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

47. A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of 600 rpm. Assuming 40% efficiency the work done by the motor in one rotation will be

(a)  7.46 J

(b)  7400 J

(c)  7.46 erg

(d)  74.6 erg

Answer: (a)

48. A space craft of mass ‘m’ and moving with velocity ‘v’ suddenly breaks into two pieces of same mass ‘m’. After the explosion one of the mass ‘m’ becomes stationary. The velocity of the other part of the craft will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

49. If R is the radius of a planet, g is the acceleration due to gravity, then the mean density of the planet is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

50. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is

(a)  2.4

(b)  1.2

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.2

Answer: (d)

51. Pressure exerted by a gas is

(a)  independent of density of the gas

(b)  inversely proportional to the density of the gas

(c)  directly proportional to the square of the density of the gas

(d)  directly proportional to the density of the gas

Answer: (d)

52. A thin concave and a thin convex lenses are in contact. The ratio of the magnitude of power of two lenses is 2/3 and focal length of combination is 30 cm, then the focal lengths of individual lenses are

(a)  75 cm, 50 cm

(b)  −75 cm, 50 cm

(c)  75 cm, −50 cm

(d)  −15 cm, 10 cm

Answer: (d)

53. A bob of mass M is suspended by a masless string of length L. The horizontal velocity V at position A is just sufficient to make it reach the point B. The angle θ at which the speed of the bob is half of t hat at A, satisfies

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

54. An alpha particle having kinetic energy of 10 MeV is moving towards a stationary nucleus of atomic n umber 50. The distance of closest approach will be

(a)  1.44 × 1015 m

(b)  14.4 × 1015 m

(c)  1.44× 1013 m

(d)  14.4 × 1016 m

Answer: (b)

55. The electrostatic potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x2

(a)  The Y and Z components of electrostatic field at any point is zero

(b)  The x-component of the electrostatic field at any points is given by  

(c)  The x-component at a point (1, 0, 2) is

(d)  All the above (a), (b), (c) are correct

Answer: (d)

56. The law of equipartition of energy is applicable to the system whose constituents are

(a)  in random motion

(b)  in orderly motion

(c)  at rest

(d)  moving with constant speed

Answer: (a)

57. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. The resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R. The equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is

(a)  R/2

(b)  R

(c)  2R

(d)  R/4

Answer: (b)

58. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time T1 and another heater boils the same water in time T2. If both are connected in series water boils in time

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

59. A proton is rotating along a circular path with kinetic energy K in an uniform magnetic field B. If the magnetic field is mad four times, then the kinetic energy of the rotation proton will be

(a)  16 K

(b)  8 K

(c)  4 K

(d)  K

Answer: (c)

60. A galvanometer may be converted in to ammeter or a voltmeter. In which of the following the resistance of the device so obtained will be largest?

(a)  Voltmeter of range 10 V

(b)  Voltmeter of range 1V

(c)  Ammeter of range 10 A

(d)  Ammeter of range 1 A

Answer: (a)

61. A wire of certain length carries a steady current. It is first bent to form a circular coil of one turn. The same wire is next bent to form a circular coil the three turns. The ratio of magnetic inductions at the centre of the coil in the two cases is

(a)  1 : 9

(b)  9 : 1

(c)  3 : 1

(d)  1 : 3

Answer: (a)

62. 5 m long wire carries a current 5A. It experiences a force 7.5 N when place in uniform magnetic field of intensity 2T. The angle between the magnetic field and direction of current is

(a)  90°

(b)  60°

(c)  45°

(d)  30°

Answer: (d)

63. The equation of an A.C. signal is represented by V = V0 sin ω In what time the voltage will be half of the maximum value starting from initial time t = 0.

(a)  t/12

(b)  t/8

(c)  t/6

(d)  t/4

Answer: (b)

64. In insulators

(a)  valence band is partially filled with electrons

(b)  conduction band is partially filled with electrons

(c)  conduction band is filled with electrons and valence band is empty

(d)  conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons

Answer: (c)

65. In the depletion region of an unbiased p-n junction diode, there are

(a)  only electrons

(b)  only holes

(c)  both electrons and holes

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

66. A vertical copper disc of diameter 40 cm makes 30 revolutions per second about a horizontal axis passing through its centre. A uniform field 102 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular to the plane of the disc. Potential difference developed between the centre of the disc and rim of disc is

(a)  5.472 × 102 V

(b)  1.432 × 102 V

(c)  3.768 × 102 V

(d)  6.973× 102 V

Answer: (c)

Chemistry

 

1. The double helical structure of DNA is due to

(a)  phosphodiester bond

(b)  hydrogen bond

(c)  covalent bond

(d)  electrostatic force of attraction

Answer: (b)

2. According to Faraday’s second law, the mass deposited on the electrode is directly proportional to

(a)  charge of ion

(b)  atomic mass

(c)  atomic mass × charge of the ion

(d)  atomic mass / charge of the ion

Answer: (d)

3. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide and an alkyne. The bromoalkane and alkyne respectively are

(a)  BrCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ CH

(b)  BrCH2 CH2CH3 and CH3 CH2 CH2C ≡ CH

(c)  Br CH2 CH2CH2 CH2 CH3 and CH3C ≡ CH

(d)  Br CH2CH2 CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ C

Answer: (d)

4. What type of hybridization is considered on I in IF7 ?

(a)  sp3d

(b)  dsp3

(c)  sp3d3

(d)  d2sp3

Answer: (c)

5. Ethylene can be separated from acetylene by passing the mixture through

(a)  fuming H2SO4

(b)  pyrogallol

(c)  ammoniacal Cu2Cl2

(d)  charcoal powder

Answer: (c)

6. Electron is an alloy of

(a)  Mg and Zn

(b)  Fe and Mg

(c)  Ni and Zn

(d)  Al and Zn

Answer: (a)

7. The oxidant which is used as an antiseptic is

(a)  KBrO3

(b)  KMnO4

(c)  CrO3

(d)  KNO3

Answer: (b)

8. The catalyst used for olefin polymerization is

(a)  Ziegler-Natta catalyst

(b)  Wilkinson catalyst

(c)  Raney Ni catalyst

(d)  Merrifield resin

Answer: (a)

9. In which of the following reactions new C-C bond is not formed ?

(a)  Cannizzaro reaction

(b)  Wurtz reaction

(c)  Aldol reaction

(d)  Friedel Craft reaction

Answer: (a)

10. In a borax bead test, the brown colour is due to

(a)  Cr

(b)  Co

(c)  Mn

(d)  Fe

Answer: (d)

11. Shape of carbon dioxide is

(a)  tetrahdedral

(b)  trigonal

(c)  bent

(d)  linear

Answer: (d)

12. Lunar caustic is

(a)  AgCl

(b)  AgNO3

(c)  NaOH

(d)  KNO3

Answer: (b)

13. Tollens reagent can be used to detect

(a)  (CH3)2CHOH

(b)  CH3COCH3

(c)  CH3CH2CHO

(d)  CH3OCH3

Answer: (c)

14. Which amine of the following will not respond to carbylamines test?

(a)  Ethylamine

(b)  Methylamine

(c)  Dimethylamine

(d)  Phenylamine

Answer: (c)

15. Which base is found only in the nucleotide of RNA ?

(a)  Adenine

(b)  Uracil

(c)  Guanine

(d)  Cystosine

Answer: (b)

16. The purest coal is

(a)  anthracite

(b)  bituminous

(c)  peat

(d)  lignite

Answer: (a)

17. Seaweed is an important source of

(a)  Cl2

(b)  I2

(c)  F2

(d)  Br2

Answer: (b)

18. Which of the following is not a lewis acid ?

(a)  BF3

(b)  AlCl3

(c)  SnCl4

(d)  CCl4

Answer: (d)

19. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by

(a)  trietylacetaldehyde

(b)  acetaldehyde

(c)  benzaldehyde

(d)  formaldehyde

Answer: (b)

20. German silver is

(a)  silver made in Germany

(b)  an alloy of silver

(c)  an alloy of Cu

(d)  a silvery white paint

Answer: (c)

21. Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produces purple coloration due to formation of

(a)  Na[Fe(H2O)5NOS]

(b)  Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

(c)  Na3[Fe(CN)5NOS]

(d)  Na4[Fe(H2O2)5NOS]

Answer: (b)

22. Baeyer’s reagent is

(a)  alkaline KMnO4 solution

(b)  acidified KMnO4 solution

(c)  neutral KMnO4 solution

(d)  aqueous Br2 solution

Answer: (a)

23. Which of the following is the hardest substance ?

(a)  Steel

(b)  Graphite

(c)  Silicon

(d)  Diamond

Answer: (d)

24. An important mineral for Mg is

(a)  malachite

(b)  cassiterite

(c)  carnalite

(d)  galena

Answer: (c)

25. It is possible to distinguish between optical isomers by

(a)  IR spectroscopy

(b)  mass spectroscopy

(c)  melting pint determination

(d)  polarimetry

Answer: (d)

26. Which of the following is used in radiocarbon dating?

(a)  C12

(b)  C11

(c)  C13

(d)  C14

Answer: (d)

27. The number of d-electrons in Cr[(H2O)6]3+ ion is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

28. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of following orbitals ?

(a)  sigma-sigma

(b)  sigma-pi

(c)  pi-pi

(d)  pi-d

Answer: (b)

29. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)  4-bromo-3-cyanophenol

(b)  2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(c)  2-cyano-4-hyroxybromobenzene

(d)  6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

Answer: (a)

30. Among the following compounds, the most acidic is

(a)  p-nitrophenol

(b)  p-hydroxybenzoic acid

(c)  o-hydroxybenzoic acid

(d)  p-toluic acid

Answer: (a)

31. The bond energy (Kcal mol1) of C-C single bond is approximately

(a)  1

(b)  10

(c)  100

(d)  1000

Answer: (c)

32. In the reaction

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

33. In self-reduction, the reducing species is

(a)  S

(b)  O2

(c)  S2

(d)  SO3

Answer: (b)

34. Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Fe3+, Ni2+, Zn2+, Pb2+, Cu2+ ions in an acidified aqueous solution precipitates

(a)  Pb2+, Cu2+

(b)  Fe3+, Ni2+

(c)  Ni2+, Cu2+

(d)  Zn2+, Pb2+

Answer: (a)

35. On increasing the temperature of the source and sink of an engine working in a Carnot’s cyclic process, the efficiency of the engine

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  remains unaltered

(d)  may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the working substance

Answer: (a)

36. For the reaction 2A + B → Products, doubling the initial concentration o f both the reactants increases the rate by a factor of 8 and doubling the concentration of B alone doubles the rate. The order of the reaction with respect to A and B are respectively

(a)  one and two

(b)  two and one

(c)  one and one

(d)  two and two

Answer: (b)

37. An example of thermosetting plastic is

(a)  PVC

(b)  Nylon

(c)  Polythene

(d)  Bakelite

Answer: (d)

38. Which of the following is not a green house gas ?

(a)  Carbon dioxide

(b)  water vapour

(c)  Sulphur dioxide

(d)  Ozone

Answer: (b)

39. Minamata disease is related to

(a)  Pb

(b)  As

(c)  Cd

(d)  Hg

Answer: (d)

40. To prepare a 100 ml. standard solution of 0.01 N strength of oxalic acid (C2H2O4 ∙ 2H2O), the amount of oxalic acid required is

(a)  0.126 g

(b)  0.63 g

(c)  0.063 g

(d)  0.0063 g

Answer: (c)

41. Heavy water

(a)  contains dissolved Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions

(b)  contains dissolved Ca2+ ions only

(c)  is water with maximum density at 4℃

(d)  is made up of 1H2 and 8O16 atoms

Answer: (a)

42. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3] is

(a)  +2

(b)  +4

(c)  +1

(d)  +3

Answer: (a)

43. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4] are

(a)  geometrical isomers

(b)  optical isomers

(c)  linkage isomers

(d)  ionization isomers

Answer: (d)

44. In which of the following molecule hydrogen bridge bond is present?

(a)  Water

(b)  Hydrogen peroxide

(c)  Formaldehyde

(d)  Diborane

Answer: (d)

45. The bond order of NO molecule is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  2.5

(d)  1.5

Answer: (c)

46. CO2 i s isostructural with

(a)  C2H2

(b)  HgCl2

(c)  NO2

(d)  NH3

Answer: (c)

47. Complete the following equation.

92U238 + – – – – – → 94PU241 + 0n1

(a)  0n1

(b)  1D2

(c)  1H1

(d)  2He4

Answer: (d)

48. The equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction may be written as :

(a)  K = exp(−∆G/RT)

(b)  K = exp(−∆G0/RT)

(c)  K = exp(−∆A/RT)

(d)  K = exp(−∆H0/RT)

Answer: (b)

49. For the reaction 2CO + O2 ↔ 2CO2, the relation between Kp and kc is

(a)  Kp = Kc

(b)  Kp = KcRT

(c)  Kp > Kc

(d)  Kp = Kc/RT

Answer: (d)

50. Among the following compounds which is paramagnetic ?

(a)  C2

(b)  N2

(c)  CO

(d)  O2

Answer: (d)

51. The state of hybridization and structure of XeF4 is

(a)  sp3, tetrahedral

(b)  dsp2, square  planar

(c)  sp3d2, square planar

(d)  sp3d2, octahedral

Answer: (c)

52. For a process of vaporization at constant temperature and pressure, the correct set of thermodynamic parameter is

(a)  ∆G > 0, ∆S = 0

(b)  ∆G = 0, ∆S = 0

(c)  ∆G < 0, ∆S > 0

(d)  ∆G = 0, ∆S > 0

Answer: (c)

53. For a certain first order reaction t1/2 = 100 sec. The rate constant for the reaction is

(a)  6.93 × 102 s1

(b)  6.93 × 103 s1

(c)  6.93 × 102 s1

(d)  6.93 × 103 s1

Answer: (c)

54. ZnO is white when cold while it is yellow when hot, due to

(a)  Nonstoichiometric crystal defect

(b)  Schottky defect

(c)  Frenkel defect

(d)  impurity

Answer: (c)

55. The IUPAC nomenclature of the complex [Pt(NH3)6][PtCl4] is

(a)  Hexaamineplatinum (II) tetrachloroplatinum(II)

(b)  Hexaammoniumplatinum(II)  tetra-chloroplatinate(II)

(c)  Hexaammineplatinum(II) tetrachlorineplatinate(II)

(d)  Hexaammineplatinum(II) tetrachloroplatinate(II)

Answer: (d)

56. The shape and magnetic properties of complexes [NiCl4]2, [Ni(CN)4]2, Ni(CO)4 respectively are

(a)  tetrahedral & paramagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic

(b)  tetrahedral & paramagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic, tetrahedral & diamagnetic

(c)  tetrahedral & paramagnetic, tetrahedral & diamagnetic tetrahedral & diamagnetic

(d)  square planar & paramagnetic, square3 planar & diamagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic

Answer: (b)

57. The amount of N­2 liberated at STP on dissociation of 8 gm of NH4NO2 is

(a)  3.8 litre

(b)  22.4 litre

(c)  4 litre

(d)  2.8 litre

Answer: (d)

58. How many electrons have the total charge of 1 coulomb ?

(a)  6.023 × 1023

(b)  6.023 × 1023

(c)  6.24 × 1018

(d)  1.602 × 1019

Answer: (c)

59. Copper reacts with concentrated HNO2 to give

(a)  NO2

(b)  NO

(c)  N2O

(d)  N2

Answer: (a)

60. Milk is a colloid where dispersed phase is

(a)  solid and dispersion medium is liquid

(b)  liquid and dispersion medium is solid

(c)  liquid and dispersion medium is liquid

(d)  solid and dispersion medium is solid

Answer: (c)

61. When ammonia is passed over heated cupric oxide the gas produced is

(a)  N2O

(b)  NO

(c)  NO2

(d)  N2

Answer: (d)

62. 1 ml. of an HCl solution of pH 5 is diluted to 1 litre. The pH of the r esulting solution is

(a)  8

(b)  6.9

(c)  5

(d)  7

Answer: (b)

63. In a saturated solution of CaF2, the concentration of F ion is 0.0067 g/litre. Find out the solubility product of CaF2.

(a)  2.19 × 107

(b)  0.00228

(c)  5.78 × 105

(d)  3.2 × 1011

Answer: (a)

64. The reason for non-ideality of real gases is due to

(a)  intermolecular force of attraction

(b)  a finite volume of the gas molecules that reduces the effective volume of the container

(c)  intermolecular force of attraction and a finite volume of the gas molecules that reduces the effective volume of the container

(d)  intermolecular force of attraction

Answer: (a)

65. Which of the following orders regarding ionization energy is correct ?

(a)  N < O < F

(b)  N > O > F

(c)  N < O > F

(d)  N > O < F

Answer: (a)

Mathematics

 

1. If  then

(a)  a = 1, b = c

(b)  a = 1, c = 1

(c)  b = 1, c = a

(d)  b = 2, c = 2a

Answer: (c)

2. If a force  is acting at the point P(1, −1, 3) then the moment of   about the point Q(2, −1, 3) is

(a)

(b) 

(c)  12

(d)  17

Answer: (a)

3. If  are three non-zero vectors such that  then the value of  is

(a)  greater than zero

(b)  less than zero

(c)  equal to zero

(d)  3

Answer: (b)

4. If 15Pr–1 : 16Pr – 2 ­= 3 : 4, then r is equal to

(a)  8

(b)  14

(c)  12

(d)  10

Answer: (b)

5. The number of triangles can be drawn through n given points on a circle is

(a)  nC3

(b)  (n(C3 – n)

(c)  n

(d)  n – 3

Answer: (a)

6. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Number of sides of this polygon is

(a)  12

(b)  15

(c)  16

(d)  9

Answer: (a)

7. is equal to

(a)  −2

(b)  −1/2

(c)  1/2

(d)  5/2

Answer: (d)

8. 

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (c)

9. is equal to

(a) 

(b)   

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

10. The number of ways 6 rings of different types can be had in four fingers, is

(a)  64

(b)  46

(c)  6P4

(d)  6C4

Answer: (b)

11. is equal to

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

12. is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  2

(d)     0

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  2

(d)     0

13. then f ‘(x) is equal to

(a)  

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

14. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x – x2 and the straight line y = −x is

(a)  9/2

(b)  35/6

(c)  43/6

(d)  13/4

Answer: (a)

15. The area bounded by the curve y = x sin x and the x-axis between x = 0 and x = 2π is

(a)  2π

(b)  3π

(c)  4π

(d)  π

Answer: (a)

16. The solution of the equation  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

17. The solution of (x + y) dx + (y – x)dy= 0 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

18. The solution of  is

(a)  2y sin x – cos 2x = c

(b)  2y sin x +  cos 2x = c

(c)  2y = sin x cos 2x + c

(d)  2y sin x = c cos 2x

Answer: (b)

19. If (x2 – ay) – (ax – y2) dy = 0 and y(0) = 0, then

(a)  x3 + y3 + 3axy = 0

(b)  x3 + y3 – 3axy = 0

(c)  x3 + y3 + 3axy(x + y) = 0

(d)  x3 – y3 – 3axy = 0

Answer: (b)

20. If the straight line x + y = a is tangent to the ellipse  then the value of a is

(a)  ±6

(b)  ±10

(c)  ±5

(d)  ±25

Answer: (c)

21. The equation of normal to the curve 2y = (3 – x2) at x = 1, is

(a)  x + y = 0

(b)  x + y + 1 = 0

(c)  x – y + 1 = 0

(d)  x – y = 0

Answer: (d)

22. The locus of the mid-points of the portion of the line x cos θ + y sin θ = a intercepted between the axes, is

(a)  x2 + y2 = 4a2x2y2

(b)  a2(x2 + y2) = 4x2y2

(c)  x2 + y2 = a2

(d)  x2 + y2 = 4a2

Answer: (b)

23. The distance between the lines 4x + 3y = 9 and 8x + 6y = 15, is

(a)  3

(b)  0.3

(c)  0.6

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

24. The angle between the pair of lines x2(cos2θ – 1) + y2 sin2 θ – xy sin2 θ = 0, is

(a)  π/3

(b)  π/4

(c)  2π/3

(d)  π/2

Answer: (d)

25. The value of K for which the circles x2 + y2 – 4x – Ky – 12 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y – 12 = 0 cut orthogonally, is

(a)  K = 3

(b)  K = 4

(c)  K = 6

(d)  K = −2

Answer: (c)

26. If (2, 0) is the vertex and y-axis the directrix of a parabola, then the focus is

(a)  (2, 0)

(b)  (−2, 0)

(c)  (4, 0)

(d)  (−4, 0)

Answer: (c)

27. The eccentricity of the hyperbola 9x2 – 16y2 = 144, is

(a)  5/4

(b)  9/7

(c)  11/2

(d)  16/9

Answer: (a)

28. The foot of the perpendicular from the point (7, 14, 5) to the plane 2x + 4y – z = 2, is

(a)  (1, 2, 8)

(b)  (2, 1, 5)

(c)  (7, 2, 8)

(d)  (1, 14, 8)

Answer: (a)

29. If P(−1, 4, −3) i s one end of a diameter PQ of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – 3x – 2y + 2z – 15 = 0, then the coordinates of Q, are

(a)  (−2, 4, −1)

(b)  (−4, 2, 1)

(c)  (4, 2, −1)

(d)  (4, −2, 1)

Answer: (d)

30. A coin is tossed 5 times. The probability that the tail appears an odd number times, is

(a)  3/5

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/2

(d)  2/15

Answer: (c)

31. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1, then  is equal to

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (c)

32. The maximum value of z = 5x1 + 7x2, subject to x1 + x2 ≤ 4, 3x1 + 8x2 ≤ 24, 10x1 + 7x2 ≤ 35, x1, x2 ≥ 0, is

(a)  17.5

(b)  25.1

(c)  24.8

(d)  21

Answer: (c)

33. A company produces 2 types of hats. Every hat A requires twice as much labour time as the second hat B. If the company produces only hat B, then it can produce a total of 500 hats a day. The market limits daily sales of hat A and B to 150 and 250 respectively. The profit on hat A and B are Rs. 8 and Rs. 5 respectively. The optimal solution by graphical method is

(a)  (120, 220)

(b)  (125, 250)

(c)  (220, 100)

(d)  (130, 230)

Answer: (b)

34. The length of a minute pointer of a watch is 12 cm. The distance travelled by the pointer in 40 minutes, is

(a)  20π cm

(b)  4 π/3cm

(c)  10 cm

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

35. The value of sin 50° − sin 70° + sin 10° is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0

(d)  1/4

Answer: (c)

36. Let R be the set of all real numbers. Then

(a)  (R, +) as well as (R, ×) is a group

(b)  (R, +) is a group but (R, ×) is not a group

(c)  (R, ×) is a group but (R, +) is not a group

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

37. Let G be the set of all 2 × 2 matrices over the field or real numbers. Then

(a)  (G, ×) is an abelian group

(b)  (G, ×) is a non-abelian group

(c)  (G, ×) is not a group

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

38. Let G be a group of order n and a ∈ G such that O(a) = m. Then

(a)  m > n

(b)  m ≥ n

(c)  m ≤ n

(d)  m = n

Answer: (b)

39. The order of the permutation  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (b)

40. Let V be a vector space over the field F. Let 0 ≠ α ∈ V and 0 ≠ a ∈ Then

(a)  a1 as well as α1 exist

(b)  a1 exists but α1 does not exist

(c)  α1 exists but a1 does not exist

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

41. 

(a)  ±(3 + 4i)

(b)  ±(3 – 4i)

(c)  ±(4 + 3i)

(d)  ±(4 − 3i)

Answer: (a)

42. i104 + i100 + i114 + i110 is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  −1

(c)  i

(d)  −i

Answer: (a)

43. For any complex number z, the minimum value of |z| + |z – 1| is

(a)  1/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  0

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

44. The complex number (sin x + i cos 2x) and (cos x – i sin 2x) are conjugate to each other for

(a)  x = 0

(b)  x = nπ

(c)   

(d)  no value of x

Answer: (d)

45. If A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB are both defined.

(a)  both are null matrices

(b)  both are identity matrices

(c)  both are square matrices of the same order

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

46. If  then for every positive integer n, An is equal to

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

47. The matrix  is nilpotent of index

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

48. If A is a symmetric matrix, then A3 is

(a)  symmetric

(b)  skew-symmetric

(c)  scalar

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

49. If  and f(x) = 2x2 – 4x + 5, then f(A) is equal to

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (c)

50. If A is a 3-rowed square matrix, then |adj(adj(A)| is equal to

(a)  |A|6

(b)  |A|3

(c)  |A|4

(d)  |A|2

Answer: (c)

51. If the points (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3) are collinear, then the rank of the matrix  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  less than 3

Answer: (d)

52. The eigvenvalues of a Skew-Hermitian matrix are

(a)  real or zero

(b)  purely imaginary or zero

(c)  of unit modulus

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

53. If  and (aI2 + bA)2 = A, then

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

54. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity, then the value of  is

(a)  1

(b)  ω

(c)  ω2

(d)  0

Answer: (d)

55. If a, b, c be positive real numbers, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  positive

(c)  negative

(d)  a perfect square

Answer: (c)

56. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  abc

(c)  a2b2c2

(d)  4a2b2c2

Answer: (d)

57. For the positive numbers x, y, z the numerical value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  log x + log y + log z

(d)  log(x + y + z)

Answer: (a)

58. If |A| = 2 and A is a 2 × 2 matrix, the value of det[adj {adj(adj A2)}] is

(a)  4

(b)  16

(c)  64

(d)  128

Answer: (a)

59. The existence of the unique solution of the system x + y + z = b, 2x + 3y – z = 6, 5x – y + az = 10 depend on

(a)  b only

(b)  a only

(c)  a and b

(d)  neither a nor b

Answer: (b)

60. 

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  e

(d)  1/e

Answer: (b)

61.  

(a)  −2

(b)  4

(c)  8

(d)  −8

Answer: (c)

62. 

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  Does not exist

Answer: (c)

63. If f(x) = |x|3, then f ‘(0) = is

(a)  0

(b)  1/2

(c)  −1

(d)  +1

Answer: (a)

64. 

(a)  0

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  3/2

Answer: (c)

65. If   then  at x = 0 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  x

(d)  y

Answer: (b)

66. If Rolle’s theorem holds for f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + kx + 5 on [1, 3] with  the value of k is

(a)  −3

(b)  3

(c)  7

(d)  11

Answer: (d)

67. Let f(x) = x(x – 1) (x – 2) be define in  . Then, the value of c of the mean value theorem is

(a)  0.16

(b)  0.20

(c)  0.24

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

68. The position vectors of the points A, B, C are  and  respectively. These points

(a)  form an isosceles triangle

(b)  form a right angle

(c)  are collinear

(d)  form a scalene triangle

Answer: (a)

Biology

1. A diploid cell contains in its nucleus

(a)  an even number of chromosomes

(b)  an odd number of chromosomes

(c)  on copy of each homologous chromosome

(d)  either an even or an odd number of chromosomes

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following is not a disease ?

(a)  Cystic fibrosis

(b)  Thalassaemia

(c)  Haemophilia

(d)  Cretinism

Answer: (d)

3. Genetic map is one that

(a)  shows the stages during the cell division

(b)  shows the distribution of various species

(c)  establishes site of the genes on a chromosome

(d)  establishes the various stages of the gene evolution

Answer: (c)

4. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

(a)  Pseudomonas

(b)  Trichoderma

(c)  Xanthomonas

(d)  Bacillus

Answer: (a)

5. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

(a)  Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(b)  Penicillium expansum

(c)  Trichoderma harzianum

(d)  Meloidogyne incognita

Answer: (a)

6. Which one of the following plants is monoecious ?

(a)  Cycas

(b)  Papaya

(c)  Marchantia

(d)  Pinus

Answer: (d)

7. MHC-II may be found on all of the following expect

(a)  B-cells

(b)  cytotoxic T-cells

(c)  presentation cells

(d)  body cells for self-recognition

Answer: (d)

8. Resin and turpentine are obtained from

(a)  Cycas

(b)  Pinus

(c)  Abies

(d)  Cedrus

Answer: (b)

9. The nerve chord of chordate is

(a)  hollow

(b)  solid

(c)  ventral

(d)  black

Answer: (b)

10. Which of the following characters differentiate birds and mammals ?

(a)  Metanephric kidney

(b)  7-cervical vertebrae

(c)  Parental care

(d)  One arotic arch

Answer: (b)

11. Sacromere is distance between

(a)  two I-bands

(b)  A and I bands

(c)  two Z-lines

(d)  Z and A bands

Answer: (c)

12. Which organ forms antibodies ?

(a)  Thyroid

(b)  Liver

(c)  Kidney

(d)  Tonsil

Answer: (d)

13. Which of the following is called pacemaker ?

(a)  SA Node

(b)  SV Node

(c)  AV Node

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

14. Blackening of urine when exposed to air is a metabolic disorder in human beings. This is due to

(a)  Phenylalanine

(b)  tyrosine

(c)  valine replacing glutamine

(d)  homogentisic acid

Answer: (d)

15. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder of

(a)  trisomic condition

(b)  monosomic condition

(c)  autosomal dominant gene

(d)  autosomal recessive gene

Answer: (d)

16. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of

(a)  lymphocytes

(b)  RBCs

(c)  platelets

(d)  leucocytes

Answer: (b)

17. The limbs of a insect and the leg of a bird are

(a)  analogous

(b)  homologous

(c)  degenerate

(d)  analogous and homologous

Answer: (a)

18. Which of the following is not a part of Darwin’s theory of evolution ?

(a)  Genetic drift

(b)  Natural Selection

(c)  Survival of the fittest

(d)  Struggle for existence

Answer: (a)

19. Sum total of genes in a population is

(a)  genotype

(b)  gene flow

(c)  genetic constitution

(d)  gene pool

Answer: (d)

20. Randon genetic drift in a population probably results from

(a)  highly genetically variable individuals

(b)  interbreeding within the population

(c)  constant slow mutation rate

(d)  large population size

Answer: (a)

21. Drawin’s theory states that

(a)  characters are acquired through inheritance

(b)  species change morphologically with time

(c)  nature select organisms, which can adapt

(d)  evolution is due to effect of environment

Answer: (c)

22. Glucocorticoids are produced by the

(a)  thyroid

(b)  pituitary

(c)  adrenal cortex

(d)  adrenal medulla

Answer: (c)

23. Basic unit of classification is

(a)  family

(b)  genus

(c)  species

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

24. System of classification used by Linnaeus was

(a)  Natural system

(b)  Artificial system

(c)  Phylogenetic system

(d)  Asexual system

Answer: (b)

25. AIDS is due to

(a)  deficiency of T4 lymphocytes

(b)  bacterial infection

(c)  deficiency of riboflavin

(d)  high blood pressure

Answer: (a)

26. Viroids are

(a)  infectious nucleoproteins

(b)  infectious nucleic acids

(c)  infectious proteins

(d)  infectious lipoproteins

Answer: (b)

27. Litmus yielding lichen is known as

(a)  Rocella tinctaria

(b)  Lecanora esculenta

(c)  Cladonia rangiferina

(d)  Centroria islandica

Answer: (a)

28. Interferons are produced in response to infection of

(a)  fungi

(b)  tapeworms

(c)  viruses

(d)  bacteria

Answer: (c)

29. Virus envelope is known as

(a)  capsid

(b)  virion

(c)  nucleoprotein

(d)  core

Answer: (a)

30. Interferons are

(a)  specific type immunoglobulins

(b)  proteins released by cells in response to viral infections

(c)  protein molecules which render unattached cells less susceptible to viral attack

(d)  Both (B) & (C)

Answer: (d)

31. Transduction was first studied in

(a)  Escherichia

(b)  Rhizobium

(c)  Salmonella

(d)  Pneumococcus

Answer: (c)

32. Which of the following is the food poisoning and as forming rod bacterium ?

(a)  Clostidium

(b)  Salmonella

(c)  E. Coli

(d)  Shigella

Answer: (a)

33. The grown of a tree is faster during

(a)  autumn

(b)  winter

(c)  summer

(d)  spring

Answer: (a)

34. Which of the hormone inhibits FSH production in female mammal ?

(a)  estrogen

(b)  adrenalin

(c)  thyrotoxin

(d)  testosterone

Answer: (a)

35. The most common plant hormone IAA was first isolated from

(a)  human urine

(b)  avena coleoptile

(c)  fungus fusarium

(d)  corn germ oil

Answer: (a)

36. Closure of leaflets of Mimosa pudica is an example of

(a)  thigmotactic movement

(b)  thigmotropic movement

(c)  turgor movement

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

37. Photochemical smog is caused by a light mediated reaction between

(a)  NO2 unburnt hydro carbons

(b)  NO2 and O3

(c)  SO2 and unburnt hydro carbons

(d)  SO2 and O3

Answer: (b)

38. Cochineal insects are useful for

(a)  wed control

(b)  cerbicide

(c)  pesticide

(d)  cactus control

Answer: (d)

39. Tiger is not a resident of in which one of the following national park ?

(a)  Gir

(b)  Jim Corbett

(c)  Ranthambore

(d)  Sundarban

Answer: (a)

40. Full form of the IRRI is

(a)  International Rice Research Institute

(b)  Intra Rice Research Institute

(c)  Inter Rice Research Institute

(d)  International Raw Rice Institute

Answer: (a)

41. Epiphytes are most abundant in a

(a)  tropical rain forest

(b)  temperate deciduous forest

(c)  thron woodland

(d)  scrub land

Answer: (a)

42. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems has very little primary productivity ?

(a)  River

(b)  Estuary

(c)  Lake

(d)  Marsh

Answer: (a)

43. What is deficient in the patient of Haemophilia A ?

(a)  AHF (Anti Haemophilic Factor)

(b)  Thrombin

(c)  Thrombokinase

(d)  PTC (Plasma Thrmboplastin Component)

Answer: (a)

44. A benign tumor is more likely to become malignant when

(a)  the tumor cells no longer respond to growth factor signals

(b)  the rate of cell division slows down

(c)  it reaches a certain size

(d)  several tumor suppressor genes are inactivated by mutations

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following plants yields a fibre called sunn hemp ?

(a)  Boehmeria

(b)  Helecteres isora

(c)  Cannabis sativa

(d)  Crotalaria juncea

Answer: (d)

46. Pesticides include

(A) insecticides only

(B) insecticides, nematocides and rodenticides

(C) insecticides, fungicides, nematocides, rodenticides and herbicides

(D) herbicides and insecticides product of the body of honey bee ?

Answer: (c)

47. Phylogenetic system of classification refers to the grouping of plants on the basis of

(a)  all morphological characters

(b)  evolutionary trends

(c)  increasing complexities

(d)  floral similarities

Answer: (b)

48. Floral diagram fails to indicate

(a)  position of ovary on the thalamus

(b)  epiphylly & epipetally

(c)  cohesion of stamens and carpels

(d)  aestivation of placentation

Answer: (d)

49. Asteraceae is now known as

(a)  Cruciferae

(b)  Gramineae       

(c)  Umbelliferae

(d)  Compositae

Answer: (d)

50. Obligate parasites are those which

(a)  can survive only in the presence of a living host

(b)  normally lead a parasitic life but under changed circumstances can lives as saprophytes

(c)  can survive only on artificial medium

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

51. Early blight of potato is caused by

(a)  Phytopthora infestans

(b)  Alternaria solani

(c)  Ustilago tritici

(d)  Colletotrichum falcatum

Answer: (b)

52. Symbiotic association between fungus and root of higher plant is

(a)  Puffball

(b)  Orchid

(c)  Lichen

(d)  Mycorrhiza

Answer: (d)

53. Africa ‘sleeping sickness’ in human is used by

(a)  Giardia intestinalis

(b)  Trichomonas vaginalis

(c)  Trypanosoma gambiense

(d)  Leismania donovani

Answer: (c)

54. The shivering of malaria occurs when

(a)  the signet ring is formed

(b)  schizonts are on reticulo endothelial cells

(c)  schizonts enter the RBC

(d)  merozoites are liberated from RBC with toxin

Answer: (d)

55. The bacteria (Clostridium botutinum) that cause botulism are

(a)  obligate aerobes

(b)  facultative anaerobes

(c)  obligate anaerobes

(d)  facultative aerobes

Answer: (c)

56. Plasmids found in the cells of bacteria are molecules of

(a)  DNA

(b)  RNA

(c)  protein

(d)  DNA bound by histones

Answer: (a)

57. Who developed vaccine first time?

(a)  Edward Jenner

(b)  Louis Pasteur

(c)  John Salk

(d)  J. Lister

Answer: (a)

58. Which is the first stable product of CO2 fixation in C3 plants ?

(a)  Ribulose phosphate

(b)  PGA

(c)  Glucose

(d)  Starch

Answer: (b)

59. Emersion effect is associated with

(a)  respiration

(b)  salt absorption

(c)  photosynthesis

(d)  transpiration

Answer: (c)

60. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the calvin cycle with

(a)  light energy

(b)  CO2 and ATP

(c)  H2O and NADPH

(d)  ATP and NADPH

Answer: (d)

61. Site of respiration in plants is

(a)  ribosome

(b)  chloroplast

(c)  mitochondria

(d)  lysosomes

Answer: (c)

62. The end product of citric acid cycle is

(a)  pyruvic acid

(b)  citric acid

(c)  CO2 + H2O

(d)  ethanol

Answer: (c)

63. Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria requires

(a)  oxygen

(b)  pyruvic acid

(c)  NADP

(d)  FMN

Answer: (a)

64. Respiratory quotient is maximum when the respiratory substrate is

(a)  glucose

(b)  fat

(c)  malic acid

(d)  protein

Answer: (a)

65. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder located on chromosome

(a)  17

(b)  16

(c)  12

(d)  11

Answer: (c)

66. In a metacentric chromosome, the centromere is located

(a)  between one end and the middle of the chromosome

(b)  near one end of the chromosome

(c)  at or near the m idle of the chromosome

(d)  any where along the length of chromosome

Answer: (a)

67. Sebaceous gland are

(a)  merocrine

(b)  holocrine

(c)  apocrine

(d)  acrine

Answer: (b)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2013 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2013 O.U.A. T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. A transverse wave is represented by the equation For what value of λ is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity?

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (c)

2. A car sounding its horn at 480 Hz moves towards a high wall at a speed of 20 ms1. If the speed of sound is 340 ms1, the frequency of reflected sound heard by the man sitting in the car will be nearest to

(a)  480 Hz

(b)  540 Hz

(c)  510 Hz

(d)  570 Hz

Answer: (b)

3. When a wave undergoes reflection at rarer medium then it undergoes a phase difference of

(a)  π

(b)  π/2

(c)  2π

(d)  No change in phase

Answer: (d)

4. If the temperature of solid body increases by a small amount ∆θ, its moment of inertia I about an axis increases by (α = coefficient of thermal expansion)

(a)  2αI ∆θ

(b) 

(c)  0

(d)  αI∆θ

Answer: (a)

5. The ratio of the densities of two bodies is 2 : 3 and their specific heats are 0.13 and 0.08 respectively. The ratio of their thermal capacities per volume is

(a)  12 : 13

(b)  122 : 132

(c)  13 : 12

(d)  132 : 122

Answer: (c)

6. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section have been joined as shown in the figure. Each rod is of the same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0℃ and 90℃ The temperature of the junction of the three rods will be

(a)  45℃

(b)  60℃

(c)  30℃

(d)  20℃

Answer: (b)

7. The emissivity and surface area of tungsten filament of an electric bulb are 0.40 and 6.74 × 105 m2 The operating temperature of filament is 2500 K. If σ = 5.7 × 108 watt m2 k4, then power of bulb is approximately

(a)  60 watt

(b)  150 watt

(c)  3000 watt

(d)  1500 watt

Answer: (a)

8. In a thermo dynamic process, a system absorbs 2 kcal of heat and the same time does 500 J of work. What is the change in internal energy o f the system?

(a)  −500 J

(b)  500 J

(c)  7900 J

(d)  8900 J

Answer: (c)

9. Boiling water is changing into steam; under the condition, the specific heat of water in cal g/℃ is

(a)  1

(b)  zero

(c)  infinity

(d)  <1

Answer: (c)

10. 22 gm of COP2 at 27℃ is mixed with 60 gm of O2 at 37℃. The temperature of mixture is

(a)  27℃

(b)  30.5℃

(c)  32℃

(d)  37℃

Answer: (c)

11. A capillary tube of length 16 cm is dipped in water. Water rises to a height 10 cm. If the whole apparatus is kept in a freely falling lift, the height of water column in that tube will be

(a)  10 cm

(b)  16 cm

(c)  5 cm

(d)  8 cm

Answer: (b)

12. A 2 kg stone tied at the end of a string 1m long is rotated in a vertical circle at a constant speed of 4 ms1. The tension in the string will be 52 N, when the stone is

(a)  at the top of the circle

(b)  half way down

(c)  at the bottom of the circle

(d)  anywhere on the circle

Answer: (c)

13. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around the earth has a total energy –E0.

(a)  E0

(b)  −1.5 E0

(c)  −2E0

(d)  −E0

Answer: (c)

14. The work done in carrying a charge Q once round the circle of radius r with charge Q at the centre of the circle is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

15. A hemispherical surface of radius R is placed in a uniform electric field E in such a manner that the field is directed perpendicular to the circular plane face of the hemisphere. The electric flux through the said surface is

(a)  πR2E

(b)  4πR2E

(c)  2πR2E

(d)  2πRE

Answer: (a)

16. An electron placed in a uniform electric field, experiences an electric force equal to its weight mg. The intensity of the field is

(a)  mg.e

(b)  e/mg

(c)  mg/e

(d)  cannot be found

Answer: (c)

17. A charge ‘q’ is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal positive charges ‘Q’. The system of the three charges will be in equilibrium, if q is equal to

(a)  −Q/2

(b)  −Q/4

(c)  +Q/4

(d)  +Q/2

Answer: (b)

18. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides

(a)  on the positive plate

(b)  on both the positive and negative charged plates

(c)  in the field between the plates

(d)  around the edge of the capacitor plates

Ans: (c)

19. n cells each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r send the same current through an external resistance R whether the cells are connected in series or in parallel. Then

(a)  R = nr

(b)  R = r

(c)  r = nR

(d)  R = √nr

Answer: (b)

20. V-I graph for parallel and series combination of two metallic resistors are shown in fig. Which graph represents the parallel combination.

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: (a)

21. What is the effective resistance between points A and B ?

(a)  4R/3

(b)  R

(c)  2R/3

(d)  R/2

Answer: (b)

22.  Two cells of unequal e.m.f. E1 and E­2(E1 < E2) and internal resistances r1 and r2 are shown in figure. VA and VB are potentials at A and B respectively, then

(a)  One cell will not continue supply energy to other

(b)  Potential energy across both cells need not be equal.

(c)  Potential difference across one cell is equal to its e.m.f.

(d) 

Answer: (b)

23. An electric bulb is designed to draw power P0 at voltage V0 . If the voltage V draws a power P, then

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (c)

24. When the temperature difference between the hot and cold junction of a thermocouple is 100 K and emf of 1 mv is generated, the thermo emf remains constant over the whole temperature range, When the temperature of the cold junction is raised by 20K, the percentage by which the emf is charged, is

(a)  −20%

(b)  20%

(c)  80%

(d)  −80%

Answer: (a)

25. Cyclotron is used to

(a)  measure charge of an electron

(b)  measure mass of a neutron

(c)  accelerate protons

(d)  detect positrons

Answer: (c)

26. A thin and flexible wire is kept on a table in the form of a rectangle and a strong current is sent through it. The shape of the wire will become.

(a)  triangular

(b)  circular

(c)  hexagonal

(d)  rectangular

Answer: (b)

27. A straight wire carrying a current of 12 A is bent into a semicircular arc of radius 2 cm as shown in the fig. The magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of the arc due to current carrying wire AB is

(a)  1.89 × 104 T

(b)  1.72 × 103 T

(c)  2.1 × 105 T

(d)  Zero

Answer: (a)

28. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is placed in a magnetic field of induction B. The torque exerted on it is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

29. Current I is flowing inn all a coil of area A and number of turns is n. The magnetic moment of the coil is

(a)  nIA

(b)  n2IA

(c)  nI/A

(d)  nI/√A

Answer: (a)

30. A galvanometer has a resistance of G ohm and range V volt. The value of resistance used in series to convert it into voltmeter of range nV volt is

(a)  nG

(b)  (n – 1)G

(c)  G/n

(d)  G/n – 1

Answer: (d)

31. In the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction, the induced emf does NOT depend on

(a)  number of turns of the coil

(b)  time

(c)  resistance of the coil

(d)  change in flux

Answer: (c)

32. A square shaped coil of side 10 cm and number of turns 500 is placed perpendicular to magnetic flux lines, which is changing at the rate of 1TS1. The emf induced in the coil is

(a)  0.1 V

(b)  0.5 V

(c)  1 V

(d)  5 V

Answer: (d)

33. In an L-R circuit, the growth curve of current with time is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

34. A short linear object of length L lies on the axis of a spherical mirror of focal length f at a distance u from the mirror. Its image has an axial length equal to (u > > L)

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

35. The refractive index of a prism material is cot A/2, where A is the angle of the prism. The minimum angle of deviation is

(a)  180° − A

(b)  90° − A

(c)  180° − 2A

(d)  A/2

Answer: (c)

36. When a small lamp is held 1.5 m above the surface of water in a tank, its image formed by reflection as the surface appears to coincide with image of the bottom of the tank (μ of water = 4/3). The depth of tank is

(a)  2m

(b)  1.5m

(c)  1m

(d)  4m

Answer: (d)

37. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The power of the combination is

(a)  −1.5 D

(b)  −6.5 D

(c)  +6.5 D

(d)  +6.67 D

Answer: (a)

38. A telescope is adjusted for parallel rays. The distance between the objective and the eyepiece is observed to be 20 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope is 9. The focal lengths of the lenses are

(a)  11 cm, 9 cm

(b)  9 cm, 11 cm

(c)  10 cm, 10 cm

(d)  18 cm, 2 cm

Answer: (d)

39. Two points are situated at the same distance from a source of light but in opposite side. The phase difference between the light waves at the two points will be

(a)  π/2

(b)  0

(c)  π

(d)  3π/2

Answer: (b)

40. The dual nature of light is exhibited by

(a)  diffraction and reflection

(b)  diffraction and photoelectric effect

(c)  only photoelectric effect

(d)  refraction and interference

Answer: (c)

41. A radio transmeter works at a frequency of 880 KHz and a power of 10 kW. The number of photons emitted per sec. are

(a)  1.72 × 1031

(b)  1.327 × 1034

(c)  13.27 × 1034

(d)  0.075 × 1034

Answer: (a)

42. If λ1 and λ2 denote the wavelengths of De Broglie waves for electrons in the first and 2nd Bohr orbits in hydrogen atom, then λ12 is equal to

(a)  2/1

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/4

(d)  4/1

Answer: (d)

43. The angular momentum of an electron in a hydrogen atom is proportional to

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  r2

Answer: (c)

44. Mosley’s Law for characteristic X-ray is 

Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)  It is applicable to all those atoms to which Bohr’s theory is not applicable.

(b)  It is applicable to all energy levels of some atoms only.

(c)  It cannot be applied for higher values of n and n2.

(d)  it cannot be applied for higher values of z.

Answer: (b)

45. In a sample of radioactive material, what fraction of the initial number of active nulcei will remain undisintegrated after half of a half-life of the sample?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (b)

46. Assuming that the silicon diode having resistance of 20 ohm, the current through the diode is (knee voltage 0.7 volt)

(a)  0 mA

(b)  10 mA

(c)  6.5 mA

(d)  13.5 mA

Answer: (b)

47. The current gain of a transistor is 0.95 the change in emitter current is 10 mA. The change in base current is

(a)  9.5 mA

(b)  0.5 mA

(c)  10.5 mA

(d)  (200/19) mA

Answer: (b)

48. The depletion layer in the p-n junction is caused by

(a)  drift of holes

(b)  drift of electrons

(c)  diffusion of carrier ions

(d)  migration of impurity ions.

Answer: (b)

49. The co-ordination number for a simple cubic crystal is

(a)  4

(b)  6

(c)  8

(d)  12

Answer: (c)

50. In the relation y = r sin(ωt – kx), the dimension of  is

(a)  M0L0T0

(b)  M0L1T−1

(c)  M0L0T1

(d)  M0L1T0

Answer: (b)

51. The least count of a stop watch is 1/5 sec. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is measured to be 25 sec. The minimum percentage error in the measurement of time will be

(a)  0.1%

(b)  0.8%

(c)  8%

(d)  1.8%

Answer: (b)

52. A body initially at rest is moving with uniform acceleration ‘a’. Its velocity after n secs is v. The displacement of the body at last 2 sec is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (a)

53. A body is projected at an angle 450 to the horizontal with kinetic energy ‘E’. The potential energy at the highest point of flight is

(a)  zero

(b)  E/4

(c)  E/2

(d)  3E/4

Answer: (c)

54. If  and  find the vector having the same magnitudes as  and parallel to .

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (a)

55. A block of mass 6 kg is suspended through light spring balances A and B. Then readings of the two are

(a)  6 kg-f, zero kg-f

(b)  3 kg-f, 3 kg-f

(c)  zero kg-f, 4 kg-f

(d)  6 kg-f, 6 kg-f

Answer: (d)

56. A meter scale is standing vertically on the earth’s surface on one of its ends. It now falls on earth without slipping. Find the velocity with which the free end of the scale strikes the earth (9 = 9.8 ms2).

(a)  9.8 ms1

(b)  5.4 ms1

(c)  4.5 ms1

(d)  1 ms1

Answer: (b)

57. A uniform flexible chain of length 4 m is held on a smooth horizontal table so that 1 m overhangs one edge. The chain being perpendicular to the edge. If the chain be released from rest, the velocity with which it leaves the table will be

(a)  6.06 ms1

(b)  6 ms1

(c)  9.8 ms1

(d)  4.9 ms1

Answer: (d)

58. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms1. In 10 sec the velocity changes to 5 ms1 north-wards. The average acceleration in this time is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

59. Angular momentum  vector and   The variation of log L and log p is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

60. The radius of the earth is reduced by 1%, the escape velocity will (if mass of earth remains same)

(a)  increases by 0.5%

(b)  decreases by 1%

(c)  No change

(d)  Decreases by 5%

Answer: (a)

61. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is

(Y is Young’s modulus)

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

62. A lead sphere of mass m falls in aviscous liquid with a terminal velocity v0. Another lead sphere of mass 8 m through the same liquid will fall with terminal velocity

(a)  v0

(b)  4 v0

(c)  8 v0

(d)  64 v0

Answer: (b)

63. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system falls freely under gravity. The upward thrust on the body due to the liquid then is

(a)  zero

(b)  equal to the liquid displaced

(c)  equal to the weight of the body in air

(d)  equal to the weight of the immersed portion in the liquid.

Answer: (a)

64. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a frequency f. The frequency with which kinetic energy oscillates is

(a)  f

(b)  4f

(c)  2f

(d)  f/2

Answer: (c)

65. Two masses m1 and m2 are suspended together by a massless spring of constant k. When the masses are in equilibrium m1 is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of vibration is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

66. 56 tuning forks are arranged in a series that each fork gives 4 beats per second with previous one. The frequency of last fork is 3 times that of first. .Then frequency of first fork is

(a)  52 Hz

(b)  56 Hz

(c)  60 Hz

(d)  110 Hz

Answer: (d)

Chemistry

 

1. Which is INCORRECT information about phosphine?

(a)  PH3 is prepared on reaction between white P and NaOH solution

(b)  PH3 reacts with CuSO4 to form Cu3P2 as black ppt.

(c)  PH3 possesses smell of rotten fish

(d)  PH3 is soluble in base

Answer: (d)

2. When 20 gm of naphthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50 gm of benzene (Kf = 1.72 K Kg mol1), a freezing point depression of 2K is observed. The Van’t Hoff factor (i) is

(a)  1

(b)  0.5

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (b)

3. The reagent(s) for the following conversion is/are

(a)  alcoholic KOH

(b)  alcoholic KOH followed by NaNH2

(c)  aqueous KOH followed by NaNH2

(d)  Zn/CH3OH

Answer: (b)

4. The percentage of free space in cube close packed structure in body centered packed structure are respectively

(a)  48 & 26

(b)  30 & 26

(c)  26 & 32

(d)  32 & 48

Answer: (c)

5. The Gibb’s energy for decomposition of Al2O3 at 500℃ is as follows

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500℃ is at least

(a)  2.5 V

(b)  5 V

(c)  3 V

(d)  4.5 V

Answer: (a)

6. The bond enthalpy of formation of NH3 is−46 KJ/mol. If enthalpy of formation of H2 from its atoms is – 436 KJ/mol and that of N2 is −712 KJ/mol, the average bond enthalpy of N-H bond in NH3 is

(a)  −1102 KJ/mol

(b)  −964 KJ/mol

(c)  964 KJ/mol

(d)  352 KJ/mol

Answer: (c)

7. Correct acidity order is

(a)  HClO2 > HClO > HClO3 > HClO4

(b)  HClO3 > HClO4 > HClO > HClO2

(c)  HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO

(d)  HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4

Answer: (c)

8. Paracetamol is

(a)  antisepctic

(b)  antipyretic

(c)  analgesic

(d)  antibiotic

Answer: (b)

9. What is the product ? 

(a) 

 

(b) 

 

(c)  

(d) 

Answer: (d)

10. Van der Waals equation for gas for n-mole is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

11. The correct bond angle order is

(a)  NH3 > CCl4 > H2O > H2S

(b)  CCl4 > NH4 > H2O > H2S

(c)  H2S > CCl4 > H2O > NH3

(d)  H2O > H2S > CCl4 > NH3

Answer: (b)

12. Which can convert CH­3CHO to CH3COOC2H5?

(a)  NaOC2H5

(b)  NaNH2

(c)  Al(OC2H5)3

(d)  Al(C2H5)3

Answer: (c)

13. The reagents to prepare methyl tertiary butyl ether are

(a)  (CH3)3CONa & CH3I

(b)  CH3ONa & (CH3)3C-Cl

(c)  CH3CH2CH2CH2ONa & CH3I

(d) 

Answer: (b)

14. Out of the following, the alkene that exhibits optical isomerism is

(a)  3-methyl-2-pentene

(b)  3-methyl-1-pentene

(c)  2-methyl-2-pentene

(d)  4-methyl-1-pentene

Answer: (a)

15. Consider the following bromides.

The correct order of SN1 reactivity is

(a)  A>B>C

(b)  C>B>A

(c)  B>C>A

(d)  B>A>C

Answer: (c)

16. Which compound is used to dry NH3 gas?

(a)  H2SO4

(b)  P2O5

(c)  Anhydrous CaCl2

(d)  CaO

Answer: (b)

17. Which of the following oxidation states as the most common among the lanthanides?

(a)  4

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

18. How many bridging oxygen atoms are present in P4O10?

(a)  6

(b)  5

(c)  10

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

19. Which metal is extracted b y self-reduction method?

(a)  Fe

(b)  Cu

(c)  Zn

(d)  Al

Answer: (b)

20. Gangue and flux combine to form

(a)  anodising

(b)  polling

(c)  bosh

(d)  slag

Answer: (d)

21. Manufacture of NH3 by Ostwald’s process involves the following successive steps.

(a)  (i) Oxidation of NH3 to NO in presence of platinum gauze catalyst

(ii) Reaction of produced NO with air gives NO2

(iii) Absorption NO2 gas by water

(b)  (i) Oxidation of NH3 to give N2O

(ii) Absorption of NO2 gas by water

(c)  (i) Oxidation of NO to N2O3

(ii) Absorption of N2O3 to produce HNO3

(d)  (i) Reaction of NH3 with SO2 to form NO2

(ii) Absorption of NO2 gas by water

Answer: (a)

22. Reaction of CH2O and CH3CHO in presence of NaOH solution gives

(a)  CH3COONa + CH2CH2OH

(b)  (CH3)2CH-COONa + C2H5OH

(c)  C(CH2OH) + HCOONa

(d)  HCOONa + C2H5OH

Answer: (d)

23. Correct relation between chemical (E) & electrochemical equivalent (Z) weight is

(a)  F ×Z × E = 0.00045

(b)  Z = E × 0.0000104

(c)  E = Z × 0.000104

(d)  1/F = Z × E × time

Answer: (b)

24. Colour of tarnished oil paintings can be recovered by

(a)  Cl2

(b)  H2O2

(c)  SO2

(d)  N2O

Answer: (b)

25. Which DOESNOT show tautomerism?

(a)   

(b)  CH3CH2COCH3

(c)  CH3CHO

(d)   

Answer: (a)

26. The compound that DOESNOT exhibit metamerism is

(a)   

(b)  CH3OCH2CH2CH3

(c)  CH3CH2CH2NH2

(d)  CH3CH­2CH2CHO

Answer: (c)

27. The IUPAC name of the following compound is 

(a)  6-bromo 3-hydroxybenzonitrile

(b)  2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(c)  4-bromo 3-cyano phenol

(d)  2-cyano 4-hydroxy bromobenzene

Answer: (c)

28. For a first order reaction A → P, the temperature (T) dependant rate constant (k) was found to follow the 

The pre-exponential factor is

(a)  6 S1

(b)  2 × 106 S1

(c)  3 × 106 S1

(d)  1 × 106 S1

Answer: (d)

29. The correct acidity order of the following

(a)  I>IV>III>II

(b)  IV>I>III>II

(c)  II>I>III>IV

(d)  III>II>I>IV

Answer: (a)

30. Correct electron affinity order is

(a)  Cl2 > F­2 > Br2 > I

(b)  F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

(c)  I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(d)  Br2 > Cl2 > I2 > F2

Answer: (a)

31. Base strength of I, II, III is

(a)  III > II > I

(b)  I > II > III

(c)  II > III > I

(d)  I > III > II

Answer: (b)

32. Equivalent conductance of NH4Cl, NaOH and NaCl at infinite dilution are E, F and G respectively. What is the value of NH4OH at infinite dilution?

(a)  E + G – F

(b)  G + F – E

(c)  2E + F – G

(d)  E + F – G

Answer: (d)

33. Reagent for Reimer Tiemann reaction is

(a)  CHCl3 + NaOH

(b)  CHCl3 + C6H6

(c)  C6H6, CCl4

(d)  CCl4 + NaCl

Answer: (a)

34. On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is

[Fe(CN)6]4 → [Fe(CN)6]3+e     E° = −0.3V

Fe+2 → Fe+3 + e                           E° = −0.77V

(a)  Fe+2

(b)  [Fe(CN)6]4

(c)  Fe+3

(d)  [Fe(CN)­6]3

Answer: (d)

35. The correct order of decreasing second ionization potential of Ti(22), V(23), Cr(24) & Mn(25) is

(a)  Mn > Cr > V > Ti

(b)  V > Ti > Cr > Mn

(c)  Cr > Mn > V > Ti

(d)  V > Ti > Mn > Cr

Answer: (c)

36. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

(a)  acid chloride > amide > acid anhydride > ester

(b)  amide > acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester

(c)  ester > acid chloride > amide > acid anhydride

(d)  acid chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

Answer: (c)

37. Ionic conductance in aqueous solution follows the order :

(a)  Li+ > Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

(b)  Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+ > Li+

(c)  K+ > Na+ > Rb+ > Cs+ > Li+

(d)  Li+ > Cs+ > Rb+ > Na+ > K+

Answer: (b)

38. OCl2 possesses the shape

(a)  tetrahedral

(b)  Linear

(c)  Angular

(d)  Square planar

Answer: (c)

39. Which is TRUE for first order rate equation?

(a)  Half life period is directly proportional to initial concentration of reactants.

(b)  Half life period is independent of initial concentration of reactants.

(c)  Half life period is inversely proportional to initial concentration of reactants.

(d)  Half life period is proportional to the square of the initial concentration of reactants.

Answer: (b)

40. A compound is formed of two univalent atoms of elements M & A. The bond distance is 1 Å. If the observed dipole moment is 3.6 D, what is the % of ionic character ?

(a)  50

(b)  90

(c)  25

(d)  75

Answer: (d)

41. Which DOENOT produce haloform?

(a)  C6H5COCH3

(b)  CH3CHO

(c)  CH3CH2CHO

(d)  CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3

Answer: (a)

42. The product on reaction between propanamide, bromine & KOH solution are

(a)  K2CO3, KBr, C3H7Br, H2O

(b)  K2CO3, KBr, C2H5NH2, H2O

(c)  KBr, C3H7Br, H2O

(d)  C2H5NH2, KBr, ,H2O

Answer: (b)

43. Heating gypsum (CaSO4, 2H2O) at 120℃ gives

(a)  CaSO4

(b)  CaSO4, H2O

(c)  CaO, SO2

(d)  CaSO4, 1/2H2O

Answer: (d)

44. Henderson equation for a buffer having weak base & its salt is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

45. The products by the reaction between benzyl methyl ether with HI are

(a)  C6H5COOH & CH3I

(b)  Benzyl Iodide & CH3OH

(c)  C6H5CH3 & CH3I

(d)  Benzylalcohol & CH3I

Answer: (d)

46. The raw materials for nylon 6 : 6 are

(a)  (CH2)6(NH2)2 and adipic acid

(b)  1-amino hexane & adipic acid

(c)  terephthalic acid & adipic acid

(d)  vinyl chloride

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following DOESNOT represent the mathematical expression for the Heisenberg uncertainty principle?

(a)  ∆X . ∆P ≥ h/4π

(b)  ∆X . ∆P ≥ h/4πm

(c)  ∆E . ∆X ≥ h/4π

(d)  ∆E . ∆t ≥ h/4π

Answer: (c)

48. Which of the following properties is exhibited by phenol?

(a)  It is soluble in aqueous NaOH & evolve CO2 in aqueous NaHCO3

(b)  It is not soluble in aqueous NaOH & evolve CO2 in aqueous NaHCO3

(c)  It is insoluble in aqueous NaOH & does not evolve CO2 aqueous NaHCO3

(d)  It is soluble in aqueous NaOH solution & does not evolve CO2 in aqueous NaHCO3

Answer: (b)

49. When H2O2 is shaken with an acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 in presence of ether, the ethereal layer turns blue due to the formation of

(a)  Cr2O3

(b)  CrO42

(c)  Cr2(SO4)3

(d)  CrO5

Answer: (c)

50. The paramagnetic behaviour of O2 is due to the presence of

(a)  two unpaired electron in πbMO

(b)  two unpaired electrons in σbMO

(c)  two unpaired electrons in π*MO

(d)  two unpaired electrons in σ*MO

Answer: (c)

51. The order of rate of nitration of A, B, C, D is

(a)  A > B > C> D

(b)  D > C > A > B

(c)  B > D > A > C

(d)  A > B > D > C

Answer: (c)

52. Choose the correct reagent to prepare DDT

(a)  Phthalic anhydride & phenol

(b)  Chlorobenzene, chloral & conc. H2SO4

(c)  Phthalic anhydride & chlorobenzene

(d)  Bromobenzene & chloral

Answer: (c)

53. Which reaction DOESNOT given chlorine?

(a)  KI & HCl

(b)  KMnO4 & HCl

(c)  K2Cr2O7 & HCl

(d)  MnO2 & HCl

Answer: (a)

54. In transforming 0.01 mole PbS to PbSO4, the volume of 10 volume H2O2 required will be

(a)  11.2 ml

(b)  22.4 ml

(c)  33.6 ml

(d)  44.8 ml

Answer: (d)

55. Which compound produces primary standard solution?

(a)  Na2CO3 . 10H2O

(b)  HCl

(c)  Na2CO3

(d)  NaOH

Answer: (c)

56. The ionic conductance of B+2 and Cl are 127 & 76 ohm1 cm2 What is the equivalent conductance?

(a)  203

(b)  279

(c)  139.5

(d)  101.5

Answer: (c)

57. Gold number of protective colloids A, B, C & D are 0.50, 0.01 0.10 & 0.005 respectively. Correct order of their protective power is

(a)  A > B > C > D

(b)  D > B > C > A

(c)  A > C > B > D

(d)  B > D > C > A

Answer: (b)

58. A plot of   versue-log p for the adsorption of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with a slope equal to

(a)  1/n

(b)  log K

(c)  −log K

(d)  n

Answer: (a)

59. 2/7 mole of solid A, is burnt completely in 5/2 mole O2 in a sealed tube. Cooling to room temperature,, pressure becomes 2/5th of the initial. Only gaseous compound L is formed. Formula of L is

(a)  A2O5

(b)  A3O4

(c)  A2O7

(d)  AO

Answer: (a)

60. Which reagent can produce ethylacetate from acetaldehyde in single step?

(a)  Pd-BaSO4

(b)  H2SO4

(c)  NaOH

(d)  Al(OC2O5)3

Answer: (d)

61. Which molecule does not show intramolecular hydrogen bonding?

(a)  KHF2

(b)  CuSO4.5H2O

(c)  m-nitrophenol

(d)  4-ethoxy- but-3-ene 4-0l-2-one

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following two compounds have same colour?

(a)  FeCl2, VOCl2

(b)  CuCl­2, VOCl2

(c)  CuCl2, FeCl­2

(d)  MnCl2, VOCl2

Answer: (b)

63. Number of methylene groups in urotropine is

(a)  6

(b)  4

(c)  5

(d)  3

Answer: (a)

64. Boric acid in presence of glycerol behaves as

(a)  dibasic acid

(b)  monobasic acid

(c)  tribasic acid

(d)  tetrabasic acid

Answer: (b)

65. Violet complex obtained in the detection of sulphur is

(a)  Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5]

(b)  Na3[Fe(ON SNa) (CN)5]

(c)  Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]

(d)  Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

Answer: (a)

66. Products during passing of SO2 has through bromine water are

(a)  S + H2O

(b)  HBr

(c)  HBr + H2SO4

(d)  H2O + HBr

Answer: (c)

Mathematics

1. If the function f be defined by  then f1(x) is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

2. The position vector of a point A is   divides AB internally in the ratio 2 : 3, then the position vector of B is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

3.  is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  0

(d)  The limit does not exit

Answer: (a)

4. The range of   is

(a)   

(b)  [−1, 1]

(c)  [−3, 3]

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

5. If f(x) = sin2x and the composite function gof(x) = |sin x|, then the function g(x) is equal to

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

6. The coordinates of the vertex A of the triangle ABC are (2, 5). If the ccentroid of the triangle is at (−2, 1), then the coordinates of the midpoint of the side BC are

(a)  (4, 1)

(b)  (−4, 1)

(c)  (−1, −4)

(d)  (−4, −1)

Answer: (d)

7. If  then the value of f1(x) is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

8. Orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines x + y = 1, x = 0 and y = 0 is

(a)  (0, 1)

(b)  (0, 0)

(c)  (1, 0)

(d)  (1, 1)

Answer: (b)

9. Distance between the parallel lines y = 2x + 7 and y = 2x + 5 is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

10. If  then the value of   is

(a)  1

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  0

Answer: (d)

11. The domain of definition of the function f(x) = log3+x(x2 – 1) is

(a)  (–3, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(b)  [–3, 1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(c)  (–3, –2) ∪ (–2, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

(d)  [–3, –2) ∪ (–2, –1) ∪ (1, ∞)

Answer: (a)

12. 

(a)  e

(b)  ex

(c)  ex

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

13. The ordinate of the circle passing through (0, 0) and (1, 0) and touching the circle x2 + y2 = 9

(a)  ±1

(b)  ±2

(c)  ±√2

(d)  ±√3

Answer: (c)

14. The centre of the circle is at (2, −3) and its circumference is 10π, then the equation if the circle is

(a)  x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y – 12 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y + 12 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y + 12 = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4x – 6y − 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

15. If  then the value of f(2) is

(a)  1/6

(b)  1/3

(c)  −1/3

(d)  −1

Answer: (d)

16. The period of the function sin4x + cos4x is

(a)  π

(b)  2π

(c)  π/2

(d)  3π/2

Answer: (c)

17. Given f(0) = 0 and  for x ≠ 0

Then the function f(x) is

(a)  continuous at x = 0

(b)  not continuous at x = 0

(c)  both continuous and differentiable at x = 0

(d)  continuous but not differentiable at x = 0

Answer: (b)

18. The angle between the vectors   is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

19. Let A = {1, 2, 3} be a given set and a relation R on A be defined as follows.

R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (2, 1), (3, 12)}

Then the relation R on A is

(a)  reflexive and transitive but not symmetric

(b)  reflexive and symmetric but not transitive

(c)  symmetric and transitive but not reflexive

(d)  an equivalence relation

Answer: (d)

20. If the vectors   are perpendicular to each other than λ = ?

(a)  −3

(b)  −6

(c)  −9

(d)  −1

Answer: (c)

21. Three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(3, −1, 2), B(1, 2, −4) and C(−1, 1, 2).

The coordinates of D are

(a)  (2, −3, 5)

(b)  (−3, 4, 2)

(c)  (1, −2, 8)

(d)  (2, −1, −8)

Answer: (c)

22. The angle between the lines   and  is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

23. If A and B are events such that P(A) = 0.4, P(B) = 0.8 and P(B/A) = 0.6, then P(A/B) = ?

(a)  0.2

(b)  0.3

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.5

Answer: (b)

24. A couple has 2 children. What is the probability that both are girls, if its known that one of them is a girl.

(a)  1/3

(b)  2/3

(c)  3/4

(d)  5/8

Answer: (a)

25. Two numbers are selected at random from integers a through 9. If the sum is even, what is the probability that both numbers are odd.

(a)  1/6

(b)  2/3

(c)  4/9

(d)  5/8

Answer: (d)

26. If A and B are square matrices of the same order, then (A + B) (A – B) = ?

(a)  A2 – B2

(b)  A2 + AB – BA – B2

(c)  A2 – AB + BA – B2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

27. The value of λ for which the matrix product  is an identity matrix.

(a)  1/2

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/4

(d)  1/5

Answer: (d)

28. 

(a)  (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(b)  −(a – b) (b – c) (c – a)

(c)  (a + b) (b + c) (c + a)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

29. 

(a)  increasing in (0, 1)

(b)  decreasing in (0, 1)

(c)  increasing in (0, 1/2) & decreasing in (1/2, 1)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

30. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

31. 

(a)  (a + b + c)

(b)  (a + b+ c)2

(c)  (a + b + c)3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

32. The general solution of the Differential Equation  is

(a)  sin1 x + sin1 y = c

(b)   

(c)  tan1x + tan1 y = c

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

33. ∫ex(cot x + log sin x) dx = ?

(a)  ex cot x + c

(b)  ex log sin x + c

(c)  ex sin x + c

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

34. If ex+y = xy then, 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

35. 

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  2

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

36. The equation of parabola whose focus is at (2, 2)) and the equation of the directrix is x + y = 0 is

(a)  x2 + y2 – 2xy + 8x + 8y + 16 = 0

(b)  x2 + y2 + 2xy – 8x – 8y + 16 = 0

(c)  x2 + y2 + 2xy + 8x + 8y =16

(d)  x2 + y2 – 2xy – 8x – 8y + 16 = 0

Answer: (d)

37. 

(a)  0

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

38. The principal value of   is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

39. 

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

40. If S be the focus of the parabola y2 = 2x and PSP’ be a focal chord, then  is equal to

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  1/4

Answer: (a)

41. The value of  is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  π/2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

42. The equation of directrix of the parabola y2 + 4y + 4x + 2 = 0 is

(a)  x = −1

(b)  x = 1

(c)  x = −3/2

(d)  x = 3/2

Answer: (d)

43. If t1 and t2 are parameters of the end points of a focal chord of a parabola y2 = 4ax then

(a)  t1 + t2 = 0

(b)  t1t2 = 1

(c)  t1 + t2 = −1

(d)  t1t2 = −1

Answer: (c)

44. If  when x ≠ 0

                   = 2              when x = 0

is continuous at x = 0, then the value of m is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  −1/2

(c)  ±1

(d)  ±2

Answer: (d)

45. If   and  then  is equal to

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

46. For all real x, the minimum value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1/3

(c)  1

(d)  3

Answer: (b)

47. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity then (1 + ω + ω2)7 equals

(a)  128ω

(b)  −128ω

(c)  128ω2

(d)  −128ω2

Answer: (d)

48. The number of different factors of 2160 is

(a)  29

(b)  39

(c)  49

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

49. (1 + xn) = C0 + C1x + C2x2 + C3x3 + …… + Cnxn then C0 – 2C1 + 3C2 – 4C­3 + …. +(−1)n1Cn =

(a)  2n – 1

(b)  (n – 1)2n+1

(c)  0

(d)  n2n+1

Answer: (c)

50. The sum of the series   is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)  1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

51. Imaginary part of  is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

52. The value of log8[log15 16 × log2 15] is

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  2/3

(d)  3/2

Answer: (b)

53. If i2 = −1, then the value of  is

(a)  100

(b)  0

(c)  50

(d)  −50

Answer: (b)

54. If 43Cr – 6 = 433r + 1, then the value of r is

(a)  10

(b)  12

(c)  8

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

55. The sum of the integers from 1 to 100 that are divisible by 2 or 5 is

(a)  3000

(b)  3600

(c)  3250

(d)  3050

Answer: (d)

56. The number of ways in which 5 boys and 3 girls can be seated in a row so that each girl is between two boys is

(a)  2800

(b)  1880

(c)  2880

(d)  14400

Answer: (d)

57. If α and β are the roots of the equation x2 + αx + β = 0 then

(a)  α = 1, β = −2

(b)  α = 0, β = 1

(c)  α = −2, β = 0

(d)  α = −2, β = 1

Answer: (a)

58. If the sum of first n terms of an A.P. series is n2 + 2n, then the term of the series having value 201 is

(a)  99th term

(b)  100th term

(c)  101st term

(d)  102nd term

Answer: (b)

59. The number of diagonals of a polygon of n sides is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

60. If logp x = a and logx q = b, then the value of logp x is

(a)  

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (*)

61. If  then the value of x is

(a)  0.1

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/5

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

62. The value of cos[tan1 (tan 2)] is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

63. If  then  

(a)  2 cos 3θ

(b)  3 cos 3θ

(c)  2 cos 2θ

(d)  3 cos 2θ

Answer: (a)

64. In any triangle ABC, if a, b, c are in A.P. then   are in

(a)  A.P.

(b)  G.P.

(c)  H.P.

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

65. If A + B + C = π, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  −1

(c)  1

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

66. The minimum value of 4tan2θ + 9cot2θ =

(a)  9

(b)  16

(c)  6

(d)  12

Answer: (d)

67. The set of values of x for which tan 3x – tan 2x = 1 + tan 3x . tan 2x is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

Biology

1. 90% of the photosynthesis in the world is carried out by

(a)  Angiosperms

(b)  Monocots

(c)  Gymnosperms

(d)  Algae

Answer: (d)

2. One turn of Kreb’s cycle generates

(a)  one molecule of NADH­2

(b)  three molecule of NADH2

(c)  two molecule of citric acid

(d)  one molecule of O2

Answer: (b)

3. How many ATP are produced from one molecule of FADH2 in ETS?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following have double fertilization?

(a)  Algae

(b)  Bryophytes

(c)  Pteridophytes

(d)  Angiosperm

Answer: (d)

5. Stomatal opening is regulated by

(a)  light

(b)  temperature

(c)  atmospheric humidity

(d)  wind

Answer: (a)

6. Hydathodes are also called

(a)  water stomata

(b)  sunken stomata

(c)  guard cells

(d)  subsidiary cells

Answer: (a)

7. Is land plants, the guard cells differ from other epidermal cells in having

(a)  mitochondria

(b)  E.R.

(c)  chloroplasts

(d)  cytoskeleton

Answer: (c)

8. If water enters in a cell, the pressure exerted by its swollen protoplast is

(a)  torgor pressure

(b)  DPD

(c)  osmotic pressure

(d)  imbibition

Answer: (a)

9. In a fully turgid cell

(a)  TP = 0

(b)  WP = 0

(c)  DPD = 0

(d)  OP = 0

Answer: (c)

10. What is the net ATP molecule gain, when 4 molecules of glucose undergo anaerobic respiration in plants?

(a)  8 ATP

(b)  20 ATP

(c)  144 ATP

(d)  16 ATP

Answer: (a)

11. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a)  stationary phase

(b)  senescent phase

(c)  lag phase

(d)  exponential phase

Answer: (d)

12. Which pigment involves in photoperiodic change in plants

(a)  Phytochrome

(b)  Cytochrome

(c)  Chlorophyll

(d)  Anthrocyanin

Answer: (a)

13. Which of the following induces flowering in long day plants?

(a)  Gibberellins

(b)  Cytokinin

(c)  Auxins

(d)  Ethylene

Answer: (a)

14. Which type of pollen grains are found in insect pollinated flowers?

(a)  Hygroscopic

(b)  Light and sticky

(c)  Light and rough

(d)  Heavy and coloured

Answer: (b)

15. Male gametes in angiosperms formed by the division of

(a)  microspore

(b)  generative cell

(c)  vegetative cell

(d)  microspore mother cell

Answer: (b)

16. Which one of the following pairs of food components in humans reaches the stomach totally undigested?

(a)  Protein and starch

(b)  Starch and fat

(c)  Fat and cellulose

(d)  Starch and cellulose

Answer: (c)

17. Cholesterol is synthesized from

(a)  malate

(b)  oxalate

(c)  acetyl Co-A

(d)  α-Ketoglutaric acid

Answer: (c)

18. Lipids are insoluble in water, because lipid molecules are

(a)  neutral

(b)  zwitterions

(c)  hydrophobic

(d)  hydrophilic

Answer: (c)

19. Which of the following is NOT an amino acid?

(a)  Glycine

(b)  Lysine

(c)  Uracil

(d)  Tryptophan

Answer: (c)

20. Ligament connects

(a)  bone to bone

(b)  bone to muscle

(c)  muscle to muscle

(d)  Both (B) and (C)

Answer: (a)

21. Choroid plexus is a network of

(a)  nerves

(b)  capillaries

(c)  muscle fibres

(d)  lymph vessels

Answer: (a)

22. Oxyhaemoglobin carries how many molecules of oxygen?

(a)  1-4

(b)  5-8

(c)  9-12

(d)  13-16

Answer: (a)

23. Hamburger’s phenomenon is also called

(a)  sodium shift

(b)  chloride shift

(c)  hydrogen shift

(d)  bicarbonate shift

Answer: (b)

24. Tachycardia is

(a)  fast heart rate

(b)  slow heart rate

(c)  slow heart rate

(d)  normal heart rate

Answer: (a)

25. Ultrafiltration occurs through

(a)  capsular wall

(b)  basement membrane

(c)  interpodocytic space

(d)  glomerular membrane

Answer: (d)

26. Secretion of androgens by testis is regulated by

(a)  LTH

(b)  FSH

(c)  ICSH

(d)  Oxytocin

Answer: (a)

27. Which blood group has NO antibody?

(a)  O

(b)  A

(c)  B

(d)  AB

Answer: (d)

28. During expiration the diaphragm becomes

(a)  oblique

(b)  normal

(c)  flattened

(d)  dome-shaped

Answer: (d)

29. Which is the correct sequence of the air passage in man?

(a)  Nosal cavity → Parynx → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(b)  Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Trachea → Parynx → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(c)  Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Parynx → Bronchioles → Alveoli

(d)  Nosal cavity → Pharynx → Parynx → Trachea → Bronchi → Bronchioles → Alveoli

Answer: (a)

30. Our most abundant antibody is

(a)  IgA

(b)  IgG

(c)  IgM

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

31. Tissue fluid is produced from

(a)  plasma

(b)  lymph

(c)  cell sap

(d)  heart beat stops

Answer: (a)

32. When vagus nerve is cut,

(a)  heart beat reduces

(b)  heart contraction increases

(c)  heart beat increases

(d)  heart beat stops

Answer: (c)

33. Interferon is one type of

(a)  glycolipid

(b)  glycoside

(c)  phospholipid

(d)  glycoprotein

Answer: (d)

34. Respiration is controlled by which part of the brain?

(a)  Cerebrum

(b)  Cerebellum

(c)  Pons

(d)  Medulla oblongata

Answer: (d)

35. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is

(a)  Z-band

(b)  Myofibril

(c)  Sarcomere

(d)  Cross bridges

Answer: (c)

36. The main product of ornithin cycle is

(a)  urea

(b)  NH3

(c)  uric acid

(d)  CO2

Answer: (a)

37. Which hormone possesses anti-insulin effect

(a)  Cortisol

(b)  Calcitonin

(c)  Oxytocin

(d)  Aldosteron

Answer: (a)

38. The ketone bodies of our blood are

(a)  pyruvic acid, acetone, β hydroxyl buturic acid

(b)  acetone, Acetoacetic acid, β hydroxyl buturic acid

(c)  pyruvic acid, acetoacetic acid, acetic acid

(d)  acetic acid, acetone, pyruvic acid

Answer: (b)

39. Which nervous system constitute total spinal nerve ?

(a)  Sympathetic

(b)  Parasympathetic

(c)  P.N.S.

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

40. The main cause of Rigor Mortis is

(a)  lack of Ca++ in  muscles

(b)  change of pH in muscles

(c)  lack of ATP

(d)  lack of nerve impulses

Answer: (a)

41. The term ecological pyramid was proposed by

(a)  Odum

(b)  Elton

(c)  Tansley

(d)  Haeckel

Answer: (b)

42. In tissue culture, which of the following shows totipotency?

(a)  Collenchyma

(b)  Sive tube

(c)  Merstem

(d)  Xylem vessels

Answer: (c)

43. The natural parthenogenesis is found in

(a)  Shark

(b)  Cockroach

(c)  House fly

(d)  Honey bee

Answer: (d)

44. Which one contains four pyrimidine bases?

(a)  GATCAATGC

(b)  UAGCGGUAA

(c)  GCUAGACAA

(d)  TGCCTAACG

Answer: (a)

45. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases; the total number of nucleotides present in the segment is

(a)  120

(b)  240

(c)  60

(d)  480

Answer: (d)

46. It double helix, one nucleotide is at an angle with the neighbouring nucleotide. The angle is

(a)  60°

(b)  90°

(c)  45°

(d)  36°

Answer: (b)

47. DNA is NOT found in

(a)  chloroplast

(b)  mitochondria

(c)  nucleolus

(d)  golgi complex

Answer: (d)

48. Which one is dinucleotide?

(a)  ADP

(b)  NAD

(c)  RNA

(d)  DNA

Answer: (b)

49. A prokaryotic cell lacks

(a)  cell wall

(b)  ribosomes

(c)  DNA

(d)  histone and nucleolus

Answer: (d)

50. The number of pairs of hydrogen bonds in DNA molecules of 150 base pairs having 60 A-T pairs would be

(a)  300

(b)  150

(c)  390

(d)  490

Answer: (c)

51. If two pairs of chromosomes can recombine in four possible ways, then five pairs of chromosome would combine in

(a)  32 ways

(b)  16 ways

(c)  10 ways

(d)  8 ways

Answer: (a)

52. Whittaker’s five kingdom classification is based on

(a)  life style

(b)  Source of nutrition

(c)  complexity of body organization

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

53. Roots are absent in

(a)  Wolffia

(b)  Podostemon

(c)  Pistia

(d)  Lemna

Answer: (a)

54. A fibrous root system is excellent for

(a)  food storage

(b)  nitrogen fixation

(c)  absorbing water from deeper layer of soil

(d)  providing good anchorage for the plant

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following plant parts can respire even in absence of oxygen?

(a)  Seeds

(b)  Roots

(c)  Stems

(d)  Leaves

Answer: (a)

56. A horizontal underground stem is a

(a)  corn

(b)  phylloclade

(c)  rhizome

(d)  rhizoid

Answer: (c)

57. Stem is modified into cladode in

(a)  Casuarina

(b)  Asparagus

(c)  Opuntia

(d)  Euphorbia

Answer: (b)

58. Modification of petiole into leaf-like structure is called

(a)  cladode

(b)  phylloclade

(c)  phyllode

(d)  pistillode

Answer: (c)

59. The reticulate venation is commonly found in the leaves of

(a)  monocot plant

(b)  dicot plant

(c)  bryophytes

(d)  thallophytes

Answer: (a)

60. In china rose, the inflorescence is

(a)  cymose

(b)  capitulum

(c)  racemose

(d)  solitary axillary

Answer: (c)

61. When light strikes a chlorophyll molecule in pigment system-II, how many chlorophyll electron move to a higher energy state?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Four

(d)  Six

Answer: (b)

62. The first step in photosynthesis is

(a)  ionization of water

(b)  formation of ATP

(c)  attachment of CO2 to a 5℃ sugar

(d)  excitement of an electron of chlorophyll by a photon of light

Answer: (d)

63. During photosynthesis when PGA is changed into phos-phoglyceraldehyde, which of the following reactions occurs?

(a)  Oxidation

(b)  Reduction

(c)  Hydrolysis

(d)  Electrolysis

Answer: (c)

64. Kranz type of anatomy is found in the leaves of

(a)  C3 plants

(b)  C4 plants

(c)  Both C3 and C4 plants        

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

65. Which one of the following is represented by Calvin cycle?

(a)  Oxidative carboxylation

(b)  Oxidative phosphorylation

(c)  Reductive carboxylation

(d)  Photophosphorylation

Answer: (b)

66. The organelle associated with photorespiration is

(a)  mesosome

(b)  lysosome

(c)  ribosome

(d)  peroxisome

Answer: (d)

67. Algae often float on the surface of water during the day but sink during night due to

(a)  release of absorbed air by warming of water

(b)  warming action of the Sun during the day

(c)  evolution and trapping of O2 during the day in their photosynthesis

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (c)

68. Endosperm cell and angiosperm has 24 chromosomes. The number of chromosomes in the gametes would be

(a)  8

(b)  16

(c)  24

(d)  48

Answer: (a)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2014 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. If C is the capacity and V is the potential across the condenser, then the dimensional representation of  will be

(a)  [ML2T2A2]

(b)  [ML2T2]

(c)  [ML2T3A2]

(d)  [ML2T2]

Answer: (d)

2. The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 30 divisions which coincide against 29 main scale divisions. Each main scale division is  The least count of the instrument is

(a)  30ʹ

(b)  10ʹ

(c)  1ʹ

(d)  0.1ʹ

Answer: (a)

3. The efficiency of a Carnot engine operating with reservoir temperature of 100℃ and −23℃ will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

4. The energy of the ground electronic state of hydrogen atom is −6 eV. The energy of the first excited state will be

(a)  −3.4 eV

(b)  −6.8 eV

(c)  −27.2 eV

(d)  −52.4 eV

Answer: (a)

5. The kinetic energy o f an electron, which is accelerated in the potential difference of 100 volts is

(a)  1.602 × 1017 J

(b)  1.6 × 104 J

(c)  416.6 Cal

(d)  6.636 Cal

Answer: (a)

6. The ball whose kinetic energy is E, is thrown at an angle of 450 with horizontal. The kinetic energy at the highest point of its flight will be

(a)  E

(b)  E/2

(c) 

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

7. A ball is thrown up vertically with velocity v0; it reaches a  maximum height h. If one wishes to triple the maximum height of the ball should be thrown with a velocity of

(a)  3v0

(b)  9 v0

(c)  √3v0

(d)  3/2

Answer: (c)

8. If   denote the sides of a parallelogram whose area is  The angle between  is

(a)  60°

(b)  45°

(c)  30°

(d)  37°

Answer: (c)

9. A particle is moving towards east with a velocity of 5 ms1. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to 5 ms1 The average acceleration in this time is

(a) 

(b)  0

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

10. A force of 200 N is required to push a car of 500 kg slowly at a constant speed on level road. If the applied force is 600 N, the acceleration of the car is

(a)  0.2 ms2

(b)  0.8 ms2

(c)  1 ms2

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

11. If two bulbs, whose resistances are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in series, the power dissipated in them was the ratio of

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  2 : 1

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?

(a)  The current in photocell increases with increasing frequency

(b)  The photo current is proportional to the applied volt age

(c)  The photo current increases with intensity of light

(d)  The stopping potential increases with increase of incident light.

Answer: (c)

13. Due to earth’s magnetic field, the charged cosmic-ray particles

(a)  require greater kinetic energy to reach the equator than the pole

(b)  require less kinetic energy to each the equator than the pole

(c)  can never reach the pole

(d)  can never reach the equator.

Answer: (d)

14. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop at 0.5 at all currents and a maximum power rating of 100 miliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor R, connected in series and with diode and obtaining maximum current?

(a)  5 ohm

(b)  5.6 ohm

(c)  6.76 ohm

(d)  20 ohm

Answer: (a)

15. The primary winding of a transformer has 500 turns whereas its secondary has 5000 turns. The primary is connected to an A.C. supply 20 V, 50 Hz. The secondary will have an output of

(a)  200 V, 50 Hz

(b)  200 V, 500 Hz

(c)  2V, 50 Hz

(d)  2V, 5 Hz

Answer: (a)

16. A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a 5N force. If the work done is 25 J, then the angle between the force and the direction of motion of the body is

(a)  30°

(b)  45°

(c)  60°

(d)  75°

Answer: (c)

17. An air column in a pipe which is closed at one end will be in resonance with a vibrating tuning fork of frequency 26 Hz. The length of the air column is

(a)  21.25 cm

(b)  62.50 cm

(c)  93.75 cm

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

18. A mass sliding down an inclined plane and reaches the bottom with velocity v. If the same mass is in the form of a disc and rolls down the same inclined plane, what is its velocity at the bottom?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

19. When kinetic energy of the body is increased by 300% the momentum of the body is increased by

(a)  200%

(b)  100%

(c)  50%

(d)  150%

Answer: (b)

20. A wire of mass M and length l is bent in the form of a circular ring. The moment of inertia about its axis is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

21. Two masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest at infinite distance. They approach each other due to gravitational attraction. What is the speed of approach at a distance r between them? (G = Gravitational constant).

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

22. In an orbital motion, the angular momentum vector is

(a)  along radius vector

(b)  Perpendicular to orbital plane

(c)  Parallel to linear momentum

(d)  in the orbital plane

Answer: (d)

23. A thick rope of density ρ and length L is hung from a rigid support. The increase in length of the rope due to its own weight is (Y = the Young’s modulus)

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

24. 8 equal rain drops are falling through air with a steady velocity of 10 cm/s. If the drops coalesce, the new terminal velocity will be

(a)  20 cm/s

(b)  30 cm/s

(c)  40 cm/s

(d)  60 cm/s

Answer: (c)

25. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its

(a)  pressure and temperature are both high

(b)  pressure and temperature are both low

(c)  pressure is high and temperature is low

(d)  pressure is low and temperature is high

Answer: (d)

26. For a certain gas the ratio of specific heat is 1.5. For this gas

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

27. Work done against friction is

(a)  adiabatic  process

(b)  isothermal process

(c)  an irreversible process

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

28. At 0 K a body emits

(a)  no radiation

(b)  electromagnetic radiation of single wavelength

(c)  electromagnetic radiation of all wavelengths that are emitted by it at room temperature

(d)  electromagnetic radiation of fewer wavelengths than that are emitted by it at room temperature

Answer: (c)

29. Two stars P and Q observed at night; star P appears reddish white, star Q is white. From this, we conclude

(a)  temperature of Q is higher than that of P

(b)  temperature of Q is lower than that of P

(c)  star Q is at the same distance as that of star P

(d)  star P is further away than star Q

Answer: (d)

30. In a cyclic process the change in internal energy of a system is

(a)  minimum but not zero

(b)  zero

(c)  maximum but not infinite

(d)  infinite

Answer: (b)

31. A simple pendulum executing SHM has a period T and amplitude A. Its peed, when at a distance A/4 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d) 

Answer: (a)

32. A particle of mass m is the attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of force constant K as shown in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly against the spring A and released then the time period of oscillations is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

33. A transverse wave is described by the equation  The maximum particle velocity is equal to 4 times the wave velocity if

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  λ = πy0

(d)  λ = 2πy0

Answer: (b)

34. Ultrasonics are used for stirring liquid solutions in order to produce

(a)  soundless stirring

(b)  perfectly homogenous solution

(c)  chemical reactions in them

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

35. If the intensity of sound is doubled, the sound level will increase by nearly

(a)  2 dB

(b)  3 dB

(c)  4 dB

(d)  a factor of 2

Answer: (b)

36. Two equal electric currents are flowing perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. AB and CD are perpendicular to each other and symmetrically placed with respect to the currents. Where do we expect the resultant magnetic field to be zero?

(a)  On AB

(b)  On CD

(c)  On both AB and CD

(d)  On both OD and BO

Answer: (a)

37. A body dropped from a height h with initial velocity zero, strikes the ground with a velocity 3 m/s. Another body of same mass dropped from the same height h with an initial velocity of 4 m/s. Find the final velocity of second mass, with which it strikes the ground.

(a)  3 m/s

(b)  4 m/s

(c)  5 m/s

(d)  12 m/s

Answer: (c)

38. A diatomic gas initially at 18℃ is compressed adiabatically to one-eighth of its original volume. The temperature after compression will be

(a)  18℃

(b)  887.4℃

(c)  395.4℃

(d)  144℃

Answer: (c)

39. A beaker full of the water is kept in a room. If it cools from 80℃ to 75℃ in t1 minutes, from 75℃ to 70℃ in t2 minutes and from 70℃ to 65℃ in t3 minutes, then

(a)  t1 = t2 =t3

(b)  t1 < t2 = t3

(c)  t1 < t2 < t3

(d)  t1 > t2 > t3

Answer: (c)

40. A lens is placed between a source of light and a wall. It forms images of area A1 and A2 on the wall for its two different positions. The area o f the source of light is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

41. A hospital uses an ultrasonic scanner to locate tumours in a tissue. The operating frequency of the scanner is 4.2 MHz. The speed of sound in a tissue is 1.7 km/s. The wavelength of sound in the tissue is close to

(a)  4 × 104 m

(b)  8 × 104 m

(c)  4 × 103 m

(d)  8× 103 m

Answer: (a)

42. The figure represents the observed intensity of X-rays emitted by an X-ray tube as a function of wavelength. The sharp peaks A and B denote

(a)  band spectrum

(b)  continuous spectrum

(c)  white radiation

(d)  characteristic radiation

Answer: (d)

43. After the emission of one α-particle followed by one β-particle from the atom of 92X238, the number of neutrons in the atom will be

(a)  148

(b)  146

(c)  144

(d)  143

Answer: (d)

44. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time t as b.t. The p article starts from the origin with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled by the particle in time t will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

45. The ABC is a triangular plate of uniform thickness. The sides are in the ratio shown in the figure. IAB, IBC and ICA are the moments of inertia of the plate about AB, BC and CA respectively. Which one of the following relations is CORRECT?

(a)  IAB > IBC

(b)  IBC > IAB

(c)  IAB + IBC = ICA

(d)  ICA is minimum

Answer: (b)

46. An oscillator is nothing but an amplifier with

(a)  voltage gain

(b)  no feedback

(c)  positive feedback

(d)  negative feedback

Answer: (a)

47. An an A.C. circuit, the current flowing is i = 5 sin(100t – π/2) amp and the potential difference is V = 200 sin 100t volt. The power consumption is equal to

(a)  1000 W

(b)  40 W

(c)  20 W

(d)  0 W

Answer: (d)

48. Colours appear on a thin soap film and on soap bubbles due to the phenomenon of

(a)  refraction

(b)  dispersion

(c)  interference

(d)  diffraction

Answer: (c)

49. The photoelectric work function for a metal surface is 4.125 eV. The cut-off wavelength for this surface is

(a)  4125 Å

(b)  2062.5 Å

(c)  3000 Å

(d)  6000 Å

Answer: (c)

50. A uniform field having a magnitude E0 exists along positive X-axis. If the potential V = 0 at x = 0, then its value at x = +x will be

(a)  xE0

(b)  −xE0

(c)  x2E0

(d)  −x2E0

Answer: (b)

51. Eight dipoles of charges of magnitude e are placed inside a cube. The total electric flux coming out of cube is

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

52. A capacitor C1 is charged by a potential difference V0 as shown in the figure. This charging battery removed and the capacitor is connected as into an uncharged capacitor C2. The final potential difference V across the combination

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

53. n identical cells are joined in series with two cells A and B with reversed polarities. EMF of each cell is E and internal resistance is r. Potential difference across cell A or B is (n > 4)

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

54. If the radius of a copper wire carrying a current is doubled, the drift velocity of the electrons will

(a)  increase four times

(b)  decrease four times

(c)  remain same

(d)  increase first and then decrease

Answer: (b)

55. In the figure shown, the reading of an ideal voltmeter V is zero. Then the relation between R and r1 and r2 is

(a)  R = r2 – r1

(b)  R = r1 – r2

(c)  R = r1 + r2

(d)

Answer: (b)

56. If J is the current density then the power transferred per unit volume in joules in a resistor of resistivity ρ is

(a) 

(b)  J2ρ

(c)  ρJ

(d)  ρ2J2

Answer: (b)

57. A moving charge would produce

(a)  electric field only

(b)  magnetic field only

(c)  both electric and magnetic field

(d)  no field

Answer: (c)

58. Two electrons move parallel to each other with speed v; the a ratio of magnetic and electric force between them is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

59. If a long copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with current will be

(a)  only outside the pipe

(b)  only inside the pipe

(c)  neither inside nor outside

(d)  both inside and outside

Answer: (a)

60. A magnetic field is measured by

(a)  Avometer

(b)  Pyrometer

(c)  Fluxmeter

(d)  Thermopile

Answer: (c)

61. The magnetic field of earth is due to

(a)  motion and distribution of some material in and outside the earth

(b)  induction effect of the sun

(c)  interaction of cosmic rays with the current the earth

(d)  a magnetic dipole buried at the centre of the earth

Answer: (b)

62. If the magnetic flux linked with a coil through which a current of x amp is flowing, is y weber, then the coefficient of self inductance of coil is

(a)  (x – y) Henry

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  xy Henry

Answer: (c)

63. When X-rays are scattered by electrons their wavelength increases. This phenomenon is called

(a)  Compton effect

(b)  Thomson effect

(c)  Hall effect

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

64. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron of energy 600 eV is

(a)  4Å

(b)  2 Å

(c)  1 Å

(d)  0.5 Å

Answer: (d)

65. A certain element disintegrates for an interval of time equal to its mean life. The fraction of the original amount that remains undecayed is

(a)  1/e

(b)  e

(c)  e2

(d)  1/e2

Answer: (a)

66. The velocity of an electron in the first orbitor H-atom is v. The velocity of an electron in the 2nd orbit of He+ is

(a)  2v

(b)  v

(c)  v/2

(d)  v/4

Answer: (c)

Chemistry

 

1. Which of the following has the smallest radius ? N3+, N0, N3

(a)  N0

(b)  N3

(c)  N3+

(d)  All

Answer: (c)

2. A neutral compound whose molecular formula C7H8O, is found to the reaction of Phenol with CH2N2 and ether. What is the compound?

(a)  m-Cresol

(b)  p-Cresol

(c)  Anisole

(d)  o-Cresol

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following compounds is nonpolar?

(a)  CCl4

(b)  CHCl3

(c)  CH3Cl

(d)  CH3OCH3

Answer: (a)

4. ∆H° values for complete combustion of C(s), H2(g) and CH4(g) are −96, −71, and −218 Kcal per mole respectively. The ∆H° value for the reaction

(s) + 2H2(g) → CH4(g) is

(a)  −17 Kcal

(b)  −81 Kcal

(c)  −20 Kcal

(d)  −34 Kcal

Answer: ()

5. In the periodic table which one of the following trends is NOT correct across a period?

(a)  Metallic to non-metallic

(b)  Oxidising to reducing

(c)  Reducing to oxidising

(d)  Base to acid forming

Answer: (b)

6. A saturated Hydrocarbon of molecular weight 72 gives only one monochloro substitution product. Identify this product.

(a)  Methyl cyclopentene

(b)  2, 2 Dimethylpropane

(c)  2, 3 Dimethyl-2-pentene

(d)  2 Methyl-2-butene

Answer: (b)

7. The normality of 5 volumes of H2O2 is

(a)  2.78

(b)  5.80

(c)  6.80

(d)  1.78

Answer: (a)

8. The Vander Wall’s equation explains the behaviour of

(a)  ideal gas

(b)  vapours

(c)  non-real gases

(d)  real gases

Answer: (d)

9. An optically active alkene with molecular formula C6H12 which upon hydrogenation gives optically inactive alkane is

(a)  2-hexene

(b)  3-methyl-2-pentene

(c)  2-methyl-2-pentene

(d)  3-methyl-1-pentene

Answer: (d)

10. A pink coloured residue obtained in Cobalt Nitrate Charcoal cavity test is due to

(a)  Mg2+

(b)  Sn2+

(c)  Al3+

(d)  Zn2+

Answer: (a)

11. If two molecules of A and B having mass 121 Kg and 81 Kg and rate of diffusion of A is 16 × 103, then what will be the rate of diffusion of B?

(a)  20.75 × 103

(b)  20.75 × 104

(c)  19.75 × 103

(d)  20.75× 104

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following hydrogen bonds is the strongest?

(a)  O − H —————- F

(b)  O − H ———H

(c)  F − H ———-F

(d)  O − H———O

Answer: (c)

13. When a pair of one cation and one anion are missing from an ionic crystal lattice, this defect is known as

(a)  Schottky defect

(b)  Frenkel defect

(c)  Substitutional effect

(d)  Interstitial defect

Answer: (a)

14. What happens when Benzoic acid is treated with concentrated Nitric acid in the presence of concentrated Sulphuric acid?

(a)  p-Nitro benzoic acid

(b)  m-Nitro benzoic acid

(c)  o-Nitro benzoic acid

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

15. Some standard electrode (or reduction) potential in acidic solutions are as follows.

Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V ; Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V

Will copper (s) reduce Ag+ ion in aqueous solution?

(a)  Yes

(b)  No

(c)  Insufficient data

(d)  Cannot be said

Answer: (b)

16. Calculate the number of α and β particles which are emitted in the conversion of Thorium (Th232) to Lead (82Pb208)

(a)  4α and 2β

(b)  5α and 4β

(c)  5α and 3β

(d)  6α and 4β

Answer: (d)

17. Which of the following compound is NOT Chiral?

(a)  DCH2CH2CH­2Cl

(b)  CH3CH­2CHDCl

(c)  CH3CHDCH­2Cl

(d)  CH3CHClCH2D

Answer: (a)

18. At constant T and P, which one of the following statements is CORRECT for the reaction,

(a)  ∆H is independent of the physical state of the reactants of that compound

(b)  ∆H > ∆E

(c)  ∆H < ∆E

(d)  ∆H = ∆E

Answer: (b)

19. A salt solution is acidified with dil. HCl and BaCl2 solution is added. A white ppt. is formed. The salt contains which radical?

(a)  Br

(b)  SO42

(c)  S2

(d)  I

Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following is the buffer solution of strong acid structure?

(a)  HCOOH + HCOO

(b)  CH2COOH + CH3COO

(c)  H2C2O4 + C2O42

(d)  H3BOO3 + BO33

Answer: (b)

21. 4 g calcium is dissolved in HCl acid at 27℃ in an open vessel at the atmosphere pressure 0.821 atm. The work done is

(a)  −24.94 J

(b)  0.08211 J

(c)  −2.463 J

(d)  0

Answer: (c)

22. Which of the following Basic radical gives positive test on Borax Bead?

(a)  Ca2+

(b)  NH4+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Cu2+

Answer: (d)

23. Aldehydes and Ketones form hydrocarbons by

(a)  Rosenmund’s reduction

(b)  Clemmenson reduction

(c)  Cannizzaro’ reduction

(d)  Stephen’s reduction

Answer: (b)

24. If the wavelength of photon is 4.4 × 1014 m, h = 13.2 × 1034 Js, then momentum of photon is

(a)  3 × 1020 Kgms1

(b)  3× 1020 Kgms1

(c)  0.33 × 1020 Kgms1

(d)  0.33 × 1020 Kgms1

Answer: (a)

25. 30 ml of a solution of Barium Hydroxide on titration with a 0.2 molar solution of HCl acid gave a liter value of 40 ml. The molarity of Barium Hydroxide solution was

(a)  0.23

(b)  0.32

(c)  0.26

(d)  0.11

Answer: (c)

26. Which of the following gives a tertiary alcohol when treated with Grignard reagents?

(a)  HCHO

(b)  CH3CHO

(c)  CH3CH2OH

(d)  CH3COCH3

Answer: (d)

27. 1 ppm is equal to

(a)  1 mg/Lit

(b)  106 mg/Lit

(c)  1 gm/Lit

(d)  106 gm/Lit

Answer: (b)

28. The conjugate base of H3PO4 is

(a)  PO­43

(b)  P2O5

(c)  H3PO4

(d)  HPO42

Answer: (d)

29. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+ ion is

(a)  4

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

30. The effect of temperature on reaction ratio is given by

(a)  Clausius Clapeyron equation

(b)  Arrhenius reaction

(c)  Gibb’s Helmholtz reaction

(d)  Kirchoff’s equation

Answer: (c)

31. Diazo-coupling is useful to prepare some

(a)  pesticides

(b)  dyes

(c)  proteins

(d)  vitamins

Answer: (b)

32. In the flame test on which does radical produce brick red colour flame?

(a)  Mg2+

(b)  K+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Ca2+

Answer: (d)

33. The stability of the dispersed phase in a lyphobic colloids is due to

(a)  the formation of electrical layer between two phases

(b)  high viscosity of the medium

(c)  high surface tension of solution

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

34. Why in the titration of Mohr’s salt solution with standard K2Cr2O7 solution, dil. H2SO4 is added?

(a)  K2­Cr2O7 acts as reducing agent in acidic medium

(b)  K2Cr2O7 acts as an oxidizing agent in acidic medium

(c)  K2Cr2O7 acts as a reducing agent in acidic medium as well as oxidizing agent in acidic medium

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

35. Of the following outer electronic configuration of atoms, the highest oxidation state is achieved by which one of these?

(a)  (n – 1)d5ns2

(b)  (n – 1)d8ns2

(c)  (n – 1)d5ns1

(d)  (n – 1)d3ns2

Answer: (a)

36. Which one of the following is NOT correct to prepare Diborane?

(a)  NaBH4 + I2

(b)  BCl3 + H2

(c)  BCl3 + LiH3

(d)  BCl3 + NaH

Answer: (b)

37. A heat engine absorbs heat Q1 at temperature T1 and heat Q2 at temperature T2. Work done by the engine is J(Q1 – Q2). This data

(a)  violates 1st Law of thermodynamics

(b)  violates 1st Law of thermodynamics if Q1 is negative

(c)  violates 1st Law of thermodynamics if Q2 is negative

(d)  does not violate 1st Law of thermodynamics

Answer: (b)

38. The bond, present in CuSO4, 5H2O is

(a)  Ionic, Covalent and Co-ordinate

(b)  Ionic & Covalent

(c)  Covalent and Co-ordinate

(d)  Ionic and Co-ordinate

Answer: (a)

39. For reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) = 2BHr(g) the reaction rate = k[H2][Br2]1/2. Which of the following statements is T RUE in this reaction?

(a)  The reaction is of second order

(b)  The unit of k is sec1

(c)  Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2

(d)  Molecularity of the reaction is 2

Answer: (d)

40. n-propyl magnesium bromide on treatment with carbon dioxide and further hydrolysis gives which compound?

(a)  Acetic acid

(b)  Acetone

(c)  Propanoic acid

(d)  Butanoic acid

Answer: (d)

41. Consider t he given equilibrium in a closed container N2O4(g) → 2 NO2(g) at a fixed temperature, the volume of t he reaction container is halved. For this change which of the following holds TRUE regarding the equilibrium constant (KP) and degree of dissociation (α).

(a)  Neither KP nor α changes

(b)  Both KP and α changes

(c)  KP changes but α not change

(d)  KP does not change but α changes

Answer: (d)

42. Bakelite a ———- polymer

(a)  Plastic

(b)  natural

(c)  synthetic

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (c)

43. Which of the following compounds show(s) Geometrical isomerism?

(a)  2-Butene

(b)  2-Methyl-2-Butene

(c)  2-Pentene

(d)  1, 2-Dichloropropane

Answer: (c)

44. 02 × 1019 molecules of urea are present in 200 ml of its solution. The concentration of urea solution is (Avogadro constant, NA = 6.02 × 1023 ml1)

(a)  0.0005 M

(b)  0.005 M

(c)  0.0001 M

(d)  0.001 M

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following does NOT conduct electricity?

(a)  Molten NaOH

(b)  Molten NaCl

(c)  Molten Sodium

(d)  Molten AlCl3

Answer: (c)

46. When Conc. H2SO4 and Cu turning are added to Nitrate salt, a coloured gas is evolved. What is the colour of this gas?

(a)  Blue

(b)  Green

(c)  Brown

(d)  Red

Answer: (b)

47. Calculate the K.E. of a molecule of CO2 at 100C (R = 8.314 J mol−1K, Avogadro’s number = 6.023 × 1023)

(a)  5.65 × 10−21 J Molecule−1

(b)  6.79 × 10−20 J Molecule−1

(c)  8.98 × 10−21 J Molecule−1

(d)  6.21 × 10−20 J Molecule−1

Answer: (a)

48. Specific conductance does NOT depend on

(a)  dimension of the cell

(b)  electric flow of the cell

(c)  electrolyte in the cell

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

49. What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faradays of electricity through cupric salt (At. wt. of Cu= 63.5)?

(a)  2.0 gm

(b)  3.175 gm

(c)  127 gm

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

50. With a particular ligand, which one of the following ions will form the least stable complex (Keeping the other factors constant)?

(a)  K+

(b)  Cs+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Rb+

Answer: (c)

51. According to Bohr’s model, the angular momentum of an electron in the third orbit is

(a)  3h/π

(b)  1.5h/π

(c)  3π/h

(d)  9h /π

Answer: (b)

52. Ionization of Boric acid in aqueous medium gives

(a)  [B(OH)4]

(b)  [B(OH)2O]

(c)  [B(OH)O2]2

(d)  [BO3]3

Answer: (c)

53. BaSO4 is insoluble and MgSO4 is soluble in water because

(a)  BaSO4 is more covalent than MgSO4

(b)  lattice energy of MgSO4 is greater than BaSO4

(c)  hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is greater than that Ba2+ ions

(d)  lattice energy of BaSO4 is greater than MgSO4

Answer: (c)

54. Sodium Nitroprusside solution is used for which radical identification?

(a)  SO32

(b)  S2

(c)  SO42

(d)  PO43

Answer: (d)

55. When nitrobenzene is treated with bromine in presence of FeBr3, the major product formed is m-bromo nitrobenzene. The statement which is related to obtain m-isomer is

(a)  The intermediate carbonium ion formed after initial attack of Br+ at the meta position is least stabilized

(b)  The electron density of meta carbon is more than that on ortho and para position

(c)  Loss of aromacity when Br+ attacks at the ortho and para positions and not at meta position

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

56. Which of the following will distinguish ethanol from Benzaldehyde?

(a)  [Ag(NH3)2]OH

(b)  2, 4, DNP

(c)  CuSO4 + NaOH + Sodium Potassium Nitrate

(d)  NaHSO3

Answer: (b)

57. The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of copper is

(a)  Cu2O + FeS

(b)  FeSiO3

(c)  CuFeS2

(d)  Cu2S + FeO

Answer: (b)

58. The relatively lowering of vapour pressure in case of a solution of non-volatile solute is equal to the mole fraction of solute. The statement is based on

(a)  Ostwald Law

(b)  Raoult’s Law

(c)  Henry’s Law

(d)  Frendlich & Langmuir Law

Answer: (b)

59. An electric current of 1A is passed through acidulate water for 321 minutes 40 seconds. What is the volume of the Oxygen liberated at the anode(as reduced to NTP)?

(a)  1.12 lit

(b)  11.2 lit

(c)  2.24 lit

(d)  22.4 lit

Answer: (d)

60. Rust is

(a)  FeO + Fe(OH)2

(b)  Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2

(c)  Fe2O3

(d)  Fe2O3 + Fe(OH)2

Answer: (c)

61. Four moles of ClCH2SiCl3 react with three moles of LiAlH4 in diethyl ether solution. Which one of the following compounds is obtained?

(a)  ClCH2SiH3

(b)  CH2SiLiH3Cl

(c)  CH2SiH4­Cl

(d)  ClCH2LiAlH2

Answer: (a)

62. With a particular ligand,, which one of the following ions will form the least stable complex (keeping the other factors constant)?

(a)  K+

(b)  Cs+

(c)  Na+

(d)  Rb+

Answer: (c)

63. Octahedral hybridization is found on which compound?

(a)  XeF2

(b)  XeF4

(c)  XeF6

(d)  XeOF4

Answer: (d)

64. An FCC crystal has an atomic radius of 1.41 Å. What are the d200 spacing?

(a)  2 Å

(b)  4 Å

(c)  8 Å

(d)  16 Å

Answer: (c)

65. Substance used in bringing down the body temperature in high fever is called

(a)  Antiseptics

(b)  Pyretics

(c)  Antibiotics

(d)  Antipyretics

Answer: (d)

66. Give the number of unpaired electrons in the complex ions : [CoF6]3

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

Mathematics

 

1. If X = {4n – 3n – 1 : n ∈ N} and Y = {9(n – 1) : n ∈ N} then X ∪ Y =

(a)  X

(b)  Y

(c)  N

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

2. Let A be a non-void set of the children in a family. The relation ‘X is a brother of Y’ on Y is

(a)  Reflexive

(b)  Symmetric

(c)  Transitive

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

3. A mapping f : R → R which is defined as f(x) = cos x, x ∈ R is

(a)  One-One only

(b)  Onto only

(c)  One-One Onto

(d)  Neither One-One nor Onto

Answer: (d)

4. Let α, β be the roots of the equation x2 – tx + r = 0 and  be the roots of their equation x2 – tx + r = 0, then the value of r is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

5. If sin α, cos α are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, then

(a)  a2 – b2 + 2ac = 0

(b)  a2 + b2 – 2ac = 0

(c)  (a – c)2 = b2 + c2

(d)  (a + c)2 = b2 – c2

Answer: (c)

6. The product of cube roots of −1 is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

7. The Point in sphere which corresponds to is

(a)  (1, 1, 1)

(b)  (0, 0, 0)

(c)  (3, 3, 1/3)

(d)  (1/3, 1/3, 1/3)

Answer: (b)

8. The region of the Argand diagram defined by |z – 3| > 0 is

(a)  interior of the ellipse

(b)  exterior of a circle

(c)  interior and boundary of ellipse

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

9. How many numbers between 5000 and 10000 can be formed with the digits if each digit NOT appearing more than once in each  number?

(a)  1080

(b)  1680

(c)  36

(d)  1008

Answer: (b)

10. The unit digit of 2100 is

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  6

(d)  8

Answer: (c)

11. The minimum value of cos 2θ + cos θ for real values of θ is

(a)  9/8

(b)  −9/8

(c)  0

(d)  −2

Answer: (b)

12. The number of solutions of the pair of the equations 2sin2 θ – cos 2θ = 0

3cos2 θ – 3 sin θ = 0 in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a)  zero

(b)  one

(c)  two

(d)  four

Answer: (a)

13. The solution of the differential equation y[x2 + y2 + 1]dy + [2x(x2 + y2) – 1]dx = 0 is

(a)  2x2 + y2 + 3log(x2 + y2 – 2) = C

(b)  2x2 + y2 − 3log(x2 + y2 – 2) = C

(c)  2x2 + y2 + 3log(x2 + y2 + 2) = C

(d)  2x2 – y2 – 3log(x2 + y2 + 2) = C

Answer: (a)

14. Consider the following differential equations:

The sum of the order of 2nd differential equation and the degree of the 1st differential equation is

(a)  2

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

Answer: (b)

15. 

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

16. Probability that A speaks truth is 4/5, while this probability for B is 3/4. The probability that they contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact is

(a)  3/20

(b)  1/5

(c)  7/20

(d)  4/5

Answer: (c)

17. A bag contains unlimited number of black, blue, red and orange balls. The number of ways to select 10 balls so that the selection includes at least one ball of each colour is

(a)  1001

(b)  276

(c)  270

(d)  None of these

Answer: (*)

18. The number of diagonals of n-sided polygon is

(a)  n(n – 1)/2

(b)  n(n – 1) (n – 2)/6

(c)  n(n – 1)

(d)  n(n – 3)/2

Answer: (d)

19. The middle term of (1 + x)2n is

(a) 

(b)  2n!xn

(c)  n!xn

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

20. The product of the series  is

(a)  e1

(b)  1 – e1

(c)  e – 1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

21. If a variable line passes through the point of intersection of the lines x + 2y – 1 = 0 and 2x – y – 1 = 0 and meets the co-ordinate axes at A and B, then the locus of mid-point of AB is

(a)  x + 3y = 0

(b)  x + 3y = 10

(c)  x + 3y = 10xy

(d)  None of these

Answer: ()

22. If M is 7 × 5 matrix of rank 3 and N is a 5 × 7 matrix of rank 5, then rank of MN is

(a)  5

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

23. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix with det A = 5 and if B = A2 then det B – ?

(a)  20

(b)  100

(c)  320

(d)  1600

Answer: (*)

24. If  then det(A−1) = ?

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  1/2

(d)  −1/2

Answer: ()

25. Five horses are in a race. Mr. A selects two of them at random and bets on them. The probability that Mr. A selected the winning horse is

(a)  4/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  1/5

(d)  2/5

Answer: (c)

26. The relationship between mean, median and mode for a moderately skewed distribution is

(a)  mode = median – 2 mean

(b)  mode = 2median – mean

(c)  mode = 3median – 2 mean

(d)  mode = 2median – 3 mean

Answer: (c)

27. If two lines of regression are 3x + 12y = 19 and 9x + 3y = 46, the correlation coefficient is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  0.52

(d)  −0.52

Answer: (a)

28. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

29. ∫{xf ʹ(x) + f(x)}dx = ?

(a)  f(x) + C

(b)  xf(x) + C

(c)  xf ʹ(x) + C

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

30. If  then Fʹ(x) = ?

(a)  2 – sin x

(b)  2 +  sin t

(c)  sin x

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

31. 

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0

(d)  −1

Answer: (a)

32. If x = f(t) cost – f ʹ(t) sin t and y = f(t) sin t + f ʹ(t) cost t then

(a)  [f(t) – f ʹʹ(t)]2

(b)  [f(t) + f ″(t)]2

(c)  [f(t)]2 + [f ″(t)]2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

33. If f(x) is a differentiable function on [0, 3], and f(3) = 2 then

(a)  5f ʹ(2)

(b)  3f ʹ(2)

(c)  15f ʹ(2)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (*)

34. log3sinx – log3 cos x – log3(1 – tan x) – log3(1 + tan x) = −1 then tan 2x = ?

(a)  2

(b)  3/2

(c)  2/3

(d)  6

Answer: (c)

35.  then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (b)

36. The co-efficient of x99 in the expansion of (x – 1) (x – 2) (x – 3) …. (x – 100) is

(a)  5050

(b)  −5050

(c)  3300

(d)  −3310

Answer: (*)

37. The number of solutions of the equation 2 sin(ex) = 5x + 5x is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  infinitely many

Answer: (*)

38. The straight li ne y = mx + c cuts the circle x2 + y2 = a2 in real points if

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (*)

39. If   are two vectors such that  and ,  then

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

40. Let P, Q, R, and S be the points on the plane with position vectors  respectively. The quadrilateral PQRS must be a

(a)  parallelogram which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle

(b)  square

(c)  rectangle but not a square

(d)  rhombus but not a square

Answer: (*)

41. The value of 

(a)  log 2

(b)

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

42. Let  and  be three vectors. A vector  in the plane  whose projection on  is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (*)

43. Let P = {θ : sin θ – cos θ = √2 cos θ} and Q = {θ : sin θ + cos θ = √2 sin θ} be two sets. Then

(a)  P ⊂ Q and Q – P ≠ ϕ

(b)  Q ⊄ Q

(c)  P ⊄ Q

(d)  P = Q

Answer: ()

44. If the cardinality of a set A is 4 and that of a set B is 3, then what is the cardinality of the set A ∆ B?

(a)  1

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: ()

45. The total number of subsets of a finite set A has 56 more elements than the total number of subsets of another finite set B. What is the number of elements in the set A?

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

Answer: (b)

46. The number of continuous functions on R which satisfy (f(x))2 = x2, ∀x ∈ R, is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (*)

47. The value of C of Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem if f(x) = x(x – 1)(x – 2); a = 0, b = 1/2 is

(a)  1/4

(b)  1/3

(c) 

(d)

Answer: ()

48. 

(a)  −1

(b)  1

(c)  π

(d)  sin x

Answer: (b)

49. Let f(x) = x2 – 5x + 6 and  then f(A) = ?

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

50. Multiplication of matrices E and G is F where  and  Then the value of F is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

51. What is the value of following determinant?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (c)

52. The real part of complex number (1 + i)n is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

53. If 1, ω, ω2 are the cube roots of unity, then the roots of the equation (x – 1)3 + 8 = 0 are

(a)  −1, −1, −1

(b)  −1, 1 + 2ω;1 + 2ω2

(c)  1, ω, ω2

(d)  −1, 1 – 2ω, 1 – 2ω2

Answer: (d)

54. The remainder when 250 is divided by 7 is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

55. Solution of   is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

56. A fair dice is tossed 7 times. The probability that a 5 or a 6 occurs atleast once is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

57. The maximum value of Z = 2x + 3y, subject to constraints x + y ≤ 30, y ≥ 3, 0 ≤ 12, 0 ≤ x ≤ 20 and x – y ≥ 0 is

(a)  11

(b)  72

(c)  33

(d)  36

Answer: (*)

58. Consider the LP problem : max z = x + y subject x – 2y ≤ 10

y – 2x ≤ 10

x, y ≥ 0

Then the LP problem

(a)  admits an optimal solution

(b)  is unbounced

(c)  admits no feasible solution

(d)  admits a unique feasible solution

Answer: (*)

59. Which of the following is the convex set?

(a)  {(x, y) : x2 + y2 ≥ 1}

(b)  {(x, y) : y2 ≤ x}

(c)  {(x, y) : 3x2 + 3y2 ≥ 5}

(d)  {(x, y) : y ≥ 2, y ≤ 4}

Answer: (a)

60. The reflection of the point A(1, 0, 0) in the line  is

(a)  (3, −4, −2)

(b)  (5, −8, −4)

(c)  (1, −1, −10)

(d)  (2, −3, 8)

Answer: (a)

61. If α, β are roots of the equation 8x2 – 3x + 27 = 0 then the value of  is

(a)  1/3

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/5

(d)  1/6

Answer: (b)

62. In decimal system, the number (362)16 is equivalent to

(a)  (962)10

(b)  (862)10

(c)  (864)­10

(d)  (860)10

Answer: ()

63. The least value of n for which the sum of the series 3 + 6 + 9 +…to n terms exceeds 1000 is

(a)  25

(b)  26

(c)  27

(d)  28

Answer: (b)

64. (1 – x)3/2 can be expanded in ascending power of x if

(a)  −1 < x < 1

(b)  x < −1

(c)  x > 1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

65. The angle made by a double ordinate of length 8a at the vertex of the parabola y2 = 4ax is

(a)  π/3

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/4

(d)  π/6

Answer: (b)

66. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

67. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x and f(x) = [tan2x] then

(a) 

(b)  f(x) is continuous at x = 0

(c)  f(x) does not differentiable at x = 0

(d)  f ʹ(0) = 1

Answer: (c)

68. If f(x) = (x – p)2 + (x – q)2 + (x – r)2, then f(x) has a minimum at

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

Biology

1. Father of ‘Zoology’ is

(a)  Carolus Linnaeus

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  John Ray

(d)  Buffon

Answer: (b)

2. Which one of the following is NOT eukaryotic?

(a)  Protista

(b)  Monera

(c)  Plantae

(d)  Animalia

Answer: (b)

3. Prion consists of

(a)  protein

(b)  DNA

(c)  RNA

(d)  Both DNA & RNA

Answer: (a)

4. In bacteria the respiratory enzymes are located on

(a)  Plasmid

(b)  Episome

(c)  Mesosome

(d)  Nucleoid

Answer: (c)

5. Spirulina belongs to the kingdom

(a)  Monera

(b)  Protista

(c)  Plantae

(d)  Fungi

Answer: (a)

6. Signet ring stage of plasmodium represents

(a)  beginning of schizogony in liver cells

(b)  end of schizogony in RBC

(c)  beginning of schizogony in RBC

(d)  beginning of sporogony in humans

Answer: (c)

7. Yeast and Penicillium producing fungi are included under

(a)  Basidiomycetes

(b)  Zygomycetes

(c)  Ascomycetes

(d)  Phycomycetes

Answer: (c)

8. The CO2-acceptor in calvin cycle /C3 plants is

(a)  Phospho-enol pyruvate (PEP)

(b)  Ribulose 1, 5-bi- phosphate (RuBP)

(c)  Phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)

(d)  Ribulose mono-phosphate (RuMP)

Answer: (b)

9. An animal without segmentation is

(a)  Ship Worm

(b)  Earthworm

(c)  Tapeworm

(d)  Glow worm

Answer: (a)

10. Which is an ectotherm?

(a)  Lizard

(b)  Pigeon

(c)  Rabbit

(d)  Camel

Answer: (a)

11. Larva of Jelly fish (Aurelia) is

(a)  Plannula

(b)  Medusa

(c)  Polyp

(d)  Blastula

Answer: (a)

12. Excretory organs of flatworms are

(a)  Malpighian tubules

(b)  Nephridia

(c)  Protonephridia

(d)  Nephrone

Answer: (c)

13. A feature ABSENT in annelids is

(a)  Clitellum

(b)  Pseudocoelom

(c)  Metameric segmentation

(d)  Nephridia

Answer: (b)

14. Insects are

(a)  Ammonotelicc

(b)  Ureotelic

(c)  Uricotelic

(d)  Aminotelic

Answer: (c)

15. The scientific name of National Bird is

(a)  Passer domesticus

(b)  Pavo cristatus

(c)  Archaeoptern lithographica

(d)  Psittacula eupatrica

Answer: (b)

16. An egg lying mammal is

(a)  Kangaroo

(b)  Platypus

(c)  Koala

(d)  Whale

Answer: (b)

17. The simplest amino acid is

(a)  Lysine

(b)  Glycine

(c)  Tyrosine

(d)  Aspertic acid

Answer: (b)

18. Non-membranous organelle is

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  Lysosome

(c)  Chloroplast

(d)  G. B.

Answer: (b)

19. Nucleolar organizer is

(a)  Primary constriction

(b)  Secondary constriction

(c)  Nuclear matrix

(d)  Nucleolus

Answer: (d)

20. Mitochondria do NOT occur in

(a)  human liver cell

(b)  human nerve cell

(c)  human erythrocyte

(d)  frog liver cell    

Answer: (c)

21. Which is a component chlorophyll?

(a)  Mg

(b)  Mn

(c)  Zn

(d)  Fe

Answer: (a)

22. DNA synthesis occurs during

(a)  Interphase-G1 stage

(b)  Interphase-S stage

(c)  Metaphase

(d)  Anaphase

Answer: (b)

23. Zygotic Meiosis occurs in

(a)  Pinus

(b)  Marchantia

(c)  Chlamydomonus

(d)  Dryopteris

Answer: (c)

24. Cell division is initiated by

(a)  Cytokinin

(b)  IAA

(c)  Gibberellin (GA)

(d)  ABA

Answer: (b)

25. Total root parasite is

(a)  Rafflesia

(b)  Cassytha

(c)  Viscum

(d)  Loranthus

Answer: (a)

26. Hypanthodium inflorescence is found in

(a)  Coriander

(b)  Sunflower

(c)  Cauliflower

(d)  Fig

Answer: (d)

27. Zig zag development of flowers on inflorescence axis is

(a)  Helicoid cyme

(b)  Umbel

(c)  Scorpioid cyme

(d)  Corymb

Answer: (c)

28. Fruit of coconut is

(a)  berry

(b)  cypsela

(c)  drupe

(d)  cremocarp

Answer: (c)

29. The outer layer of ovuam is

(a)  theca externa

(b)  theca interna

(c)  zona pelucida

(d)  corona radfata

Answer: (d)

30. The hormone which is secreted from the Corps Luteum is

(a)  Testosterone

(b)  FSH

(c)  Progesterone

(d)  HCG

Answer: (c)

31. The weight of the adult male kidney is

(a)  75 gm

(b)  150 gm

(c)  275 gm

(d)  330 gm

Answer: (b)

32. The name of the 10th cranial nerve is

(a)  Hypoglossal

(b)  Vagus

(c)  Facial

(d)  Abducens

Answer: (b)

33. The Rolandic fissure of the cerebrum is located in between the

(a)  Frontal-Parietal

(b)  Frontal-Temporal

(c)  Parietal-Occipital

(d)  Temporal-Insula

Answer: (a)

34. Kranz anatomy is typical of

(a)  C4 plants

(b)  C3 plants

(c)  C2 plants

(d)  CAM plants

Answer: (a)

35. Xylem is exarch in

(a)  leaf

(b)  petiole

(c)  stem

(d)  root

Answer: (d)

36. Stomata generally operate in response to

(a)  atmospheric humidity

(b)  soil temperature

(c)  atmospheric temperature

(d)  light

Answer: (d)

37. Vascular bundles surrounded by sclerenchymatous sheath occur in

(a)  monocot stem

(b)  dicot stem and leaf

(c)  monocot root

(d)  dicot root

Answer: (a)

38. Largest family of flowering plants is

(a)  Fabaceae

(b)  Liliaceae

(c)  Poaceae

(d)  Asteraceae

Answer: (d)

39. Oryza sativa belongs to family

(a)  Asteracceae

(b)  Malvaceae

(c)  Fabaceae

(d)  Poaceae

Answer: (d)

40. What is TRUE of cardiac muscles?

(a)  Voluntary

(b)  Striated

(c)  Unstriated

(d)  Antagonastic

Answer: (b)

41. Which is NOT a Micronutrient?

(a)  P

(b)  Cu

(c)  Zn

(d)  Mo

Answer: (a)

42. Haversian canals are found in

(a)  muscle

(b)  nerve

(c)  cartilage

(d)  bone

Answer: (d)

43. Lymph differs from blood is possessing

(a)  only WBC

(b)  more ABC and WBC

(c)  more ABC and few WBC

(d)  more WBC and few ABC

Answer: (d)

44. Heparin is formed by

(a)  liver cells

(b)  plasma cells

(c)  blood cells

(d)  spleen cells

Answer: (a)

45. Which is NOT phagocytic?

(a)  Monocyte

(b)  Lymphocyte

(c)  Neutrophil

(d)  Histiocyte

Answer: (b)

46. Open circulatory system occurs in

(a)  Pheretima

(b)  Rana

(c)  Periplaneta

(d)  Cavia

Answer: (c)

47. Collagen is

(a)  protein

(b)  fat

(c)  Sugar

(d)  starch

Answer: (a)

48. Pacemaker causes

(a)  heart beat

(b)  hunger felling

(c)  muscular pain

(d)  heart failure

Answer: (a)

49. R.S.T. is related to

(a)  Ventricular contraction

(b)  Auricular contraction

(c)  Cardiac cycle

(d)  Auricular relaxation

Answer: (a)

50. In an kidney is

(a)  pronephros

(b)  mesonephros

(c)  metanephros

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

51. Anaemia is due to deficiency of

(a)  leucocytes

(b)  blood

(c)  haemoglobin

(d)  thrombocytes

Answer: (c)

52. Knee joint is

(a)  gomphosis

(b)  cartilaginous joint

(c)  suture

(d)  synovial joint

Answer: (d)

53. Pelvic girdle consists of

(a)  ilium.

(b)  ilium and ischium

(c)  ilium, ischium and pubis

(d)  ischium and pubis

Answer: (c)

54. Sympathetic nervous system is also called

(a)  Visceral

(b)  Thoracico-lumbar

(c)  Cranio-sacral

(d)  Mesenteric

Answer: (b)

55. Common neutrotransmitter of peripheral nervous system is

(a)  colchicine

(b)  epinephrine

(c)  GABA

(d)  acetylcholine

Answer: (d)

56. In human eye, the blind spot contains

(a)  rods

(b)  cones

(c)  both rods and cones

(d)  neither rods and cones

Answer: (d)

57. Organ of corti is connected with the sense of

(a)  taste

(b)  smell

(c)  hearing

(d)  equilibrium

Answer: (d)

58. The metabolic rate is controlled by

(a)  pancreas

(b)  liver        

(c)  thyroid

(d)  pituitary

Answer: (c)

59. Addison’s disease is due to under secretion of

(a)  adrenaline

(b)  corticoids

(c)  ACTH

(d)  Insulin

Answer: (c)

60. Length of one coil of B-DNA helix is

(a)  0.34 nm

(b)  3.4 nm

(c)  10 nm

(d)  20 nm

Answer: (d)

61. DNA molecule has small units called

(a)  purines

(b)  adenine and thymine

(c)  cistron, muton and recon

(d)  adenine

Answer: (c)

62. The condition of sickle cell anaemia is due to

(a)  chromosomal mutation

(b)  silent mutation

(c)  point mutation

(d)  fame-shift mutation

Answer: (c)

63. Which one causes mutations?

(a)  Crossing over

(b)  Colchicine

(c)  X-rays

(d)  Hybridization

Answer: (c)

64. Golden age of Dinosaurs’/Age of Reptiles was

(a)  Mesozoic

(b)  Coenozoic

(c)  Palaeozoic

(d)  Psychozoic

Answer: (a)

65. Cranial capacity of Neanderthal Man was

(a)  1450 cc

(b)  1300 cc

(c)  1200 cc

(d)  1100 cc

Answer: (a)

66. Human population shows

(a)  J-shaped growth curve

(b)  Z-shaped growth curve

(c)  S-shaped growth curve

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

67. Plants, living partly inside water and partly above it, are

(a)  Xerophytes

(b)  Thallophytes

(c)  Hydrophytes

(d)  Halophytes

Answer: (c)

68. An incomplete ecosystem is

(a)  grassland

(b)  river

(c)  wetland

(d)  Cave

Answer: (d)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2015 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

O.U.A.T 2015 Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. A gaseous mixture consists of 16 g helium and 16g of oxygen, The ration Cp/Cv of the mixture is

(a)  1.62

(b)  1.59

(c)  1.54

(d)  1.4

Answer: (a)

2. A vessel contains a mixture of one mole of oxygen and two moles of nitrogen at 300 K. The ratio of the average rotational KE per O2 to per N2 molecule

(a)  is 1 : 1

(b)  is 1 : 2

(c)  is 2 : 1

(d)  depends on the moment of inertia of two molecules

Answer: (a)

3. A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure P and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk modulus of the gas is

(a) 

(b)  P

(c) 

(d)  2P

Answer: (b)

4. A parallel plate capacitor is made by stacking in equally speed plates connected alternatively. If the capacitance between any two adjacent states is ‘C’, then the resultant capacitance is

(a)  (n + 1)C

(b)  (n – 1)C

(c)  nC

(d)  C

Answer: (b)

5. A circuit has a resistance of 12 ohm and an impendance of 15 ohm. The power factor of the circuit will be

(a)  0.4

(b)  0.8

(c)  0.125

(d)  1.25

Answer: (b)

6. In an LCR series a.c. circuit, the voltage across each of the components L,C and R is 50 V. The voltage across LC combination is

(a)  50 V

(b)  50√2V

(c)  100V

(d)  zero

Answer: (a)

7.  Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance ‘b’ are carrying a current ‘I’ ampere each. The magnitude of force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

8. A spherical ball falls on a table about its diameter without slipping. Then the fraction of the total energy associated with its rotation is

(a)  2/5

(b)  2/7

(c)  3/7

(d)  3/5

Answer: (a)

9. A solid cylinder first rolls without sliding and then slides without rolling down the same inclined plane. The ratio of velocities in the two cases, at the bottom of the plane, is

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  √6 : 3

(d)  √3 : 1

Answer: (c)

10. The displacement of a wave is given by the equation  The frequency of the wave is

(a)  30 Hz

(b)  25 Hz

(c)  20 Hz

(d)  15 Hz

Answer: (c)

11. If the temperature of the Sun is to increase from T to 2T and is radius from R to 2R, then the ratio of the radiant energy received on the earth to what it was previously, is

(a)  4

(b)  16

(c)  32

(d)  64

Answer: (b)

12. The temperature of a piece of metal is raised from 27℃ to 51℃. The rate at which metal radiates energy increases nearly

(a)  2 times

(b)  1.36 times

(c)  2.72 times

(d)  4 times

Answer: (b)

13. To get three image of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of

(a)  30°

(b)  60°

(c)  90°

(d)  120°

Answer: (c)

14. A person having the nearest distinct of distance vision of 32 cm uses a reading lens of 8 cm focal length. The magnification of his reading lens is

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  3

(d)  2

Answer: (a)

15. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generation will be

(a)  4 times

(b)  doubled

(c)  half

(d)  1/4

Answer: (b)

16. 220 volt, 1000 watt bulb is connected across 110 volt main supply. The power consumed will be

(a)  1000 watt

(b)  750 watt

(c)  500 watt

(d)  250 watt

Answer: (d)

17. Two bodies each of mass 66.7 kg are at a distance of 2 m. The escape velocity of a body midway between them is

(a)  13.34 m/s

(b)  6.67 m/s

(c)  33.35 m/s

(d)  zero

Answer: (a)

18. Radio carbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of

(a)  collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere

(b)  action of ultraviolet light from the Sun of atmospheric oxygen

(c)  action of solar radiations particularly cosmic rays on CO2 present in the atmosphere

(d)  lighting discharge in atmosphere

Answer: (a)

19. The absorption of ink by blotting paper involves

(a)  viscosity of ink

(b)  capillary action

(c)  diffusion of ink

(d)  siphon action

Answer: (b)

20. What will be the maximum velocity for the overturn of a car moving on a circular track of radius 100 m? The coefficient of friction between the road & tyre is 0.2.

(a)  0.14 m/s

(b)  140 m/s

(c)  1.4 km/s

(d)  14 m/s

Answer: (d)

21. Sound of frequency below 20 Hz is called

(a)  audio sounds

(b)  infrasonic

(c)  ultrasonic

(d)  supersonic

Answer: (b)

22. One thousand micron means

(a)  103 m

(b)  106 m

(c)  109 m

(d)  1012 m

Answer: (a)

23. A bar magnet is equivalent to

(a)  solenoid carrying current

(b)  circular coil carrying current

(c)  toroid carrying current

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

24. A body weighs 50 grams in air and 40 grams in water. How much would it weight in liquid of specific gravity 1.5?

(a)  30 grams

(b)  35 grams

(c)  65 grams

(d)  45 grams

Answer: (b)

25. The total energy, stored in the condenser system, shown in the figure below, is

(a)  2 mJ

(b)  4 mJ

(c)  8 mJ

(d)  16 mJ

Answer: (b)

26. Which is the value of emf E in the figure below?

VL = 40 V, VR = 80 V, VC = 100 V, EI = 50 Hz

(a)  200 V

(b)  140 V

(c)  100 V

(d)  20 V

Answer: (c)

27. An unpolarised beam of intensity I­0 falls on a Polaroid. The intensity of the emergent light is

(a)  I0/2

(b)  I0

(c)  I0/4

(d)  zero

Answer: (a)

28. Hydrogen atom does NOT emit X-rays because

(a)  it contains only a single electron.

(b)  energy levels in it are far apart.

(c)  its size is very small

(d)  energy levels in it are very close to each other

Answer: (a)

29. If power dissipated in 9 Ω resistor in the circuit shown is 36 Watt, the potential difference across 2 Ω resistor is

(a)  2 volt

(b)  4 volt

(c)  8 volt

(d)  10 volt

Answer: (d)

30. Solar spectrum is an example for

(a)  line emission spectrum

(b)  continuous mission spectrum

(c)  band absorption spectrum

(d)  line absorption spectrum

Answer: (d)

31. The most stable particle in Baryon group is

(a)  neutron

(b)  omega-particle

(c)  proton

(d)  lamda-particle

Answer: (c)

32. The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be

(a)  1.25

(b)  0.25

(c)  5

(d)  10

Answer: (b)

33. Which of the following is a dichoric crystal?

(a)  Quartz

(b)  Tourmaline

(c)  Mica

(d)  Selenite

Answer: (b)

34. A missile is fired for maximum range, with an initial velocity of 20 m/s; if g = 10 m/s2, the range of the missile is

(a)  20 m

(b)  40 m

(c)  60 m

(d)  70 m

Answer: (b)

35. Which instrument is used to measure the altitudes in aircrafts?

(a)  Audiometer

(b)  Ammeter

(c)  Altimeter

(d)  Anemometer

Answer: (c)

36. p-n junction when reverse biased acts as a/an

(a)  capacitor

(b)  inductor

(c)  on switch

(d)  off switch

Answer: (d)

37. The device or circuit used for conversion of AC into DC is called

(a)  an amplifier

(b)  a rectifier

(c)  filtering circuit

(d)  converter

Answer: (b)

38. For long distance transmission, the transformer used, is

(a)  step down

(b)  step up

(c)  Both (A) & (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

39. A 5F capacitor has potential difference across its plates of 200 volt. The charge on the capacitor is

(a)  2.5 × 108 C

(b)  10 to 5 C

(c)  103C

(d)  4 × 103 C

Answer: (c)

40. The blue colour of sky is due to

(a)  diffraction

(b)  reflection

(c)  polarization

(d)  scattering

Answer: (d)

41. Crystals of a material can behave as

(a)  convex lens

(b)  interferometer

(c)  diffraction grating

(d)  concave

Answer: (c)

42. A man is in a car is moving with velocity 36 km/hr. His speed with speed respect to the car is

(a)  10 m/s

(b)  36 m/s

(c)  zero

(d)  infinite

Answer: (c)

43. Excited atoms return to the ground state is

(a)  10 s

(b)  10 to 8 s

(c)  10 to 6 s

(d)  10 to 9 s

Answer: (a)

44. When a body moves in a circle, the angle between its linear velocity & angular velocity is always

(a)  180°

(b)  0°

(c)  90°

(d)  40°

Answer: (c)

45. The critical speed of an artificial satellite is

(a)  8 km/s

(b)  8.1 km/s

(c)  7.9 km/s

(d)  8 m/s

Answer: (c)

46. Which phenomenon can be applied to estimate the velocity of star with respect to earth

(a)  Doppler’s effect

(b)  Interference of waves

(c)  beats phenomenon

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

47. What is the value of the current in a wire of 10 cm long at the right angle to uniform magnetic field of 0.5 Weber/m2, when the force acting on toe wire is 5 N?

(a)  1 A

(b)  10 A

(c)  100 A

(d)  1000 A

Answer: (c)

48. Heating a magnet will

(a)  weaken it

(b)  strengthen it

(c)  reverse its polarity

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

49. A ferromagnet will get fully magnetized at

(a)  high voltage AC

(b)  low voltage AC

(c)  AC at its peak value

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

50. The distance covered by a body in one complete vibration is 20 cm. The amplitude of

(a)  10 cm

(b)  5 cm

(c)  15 cm

(d)  7.5 cm

Answer: (b)

51. A photon of wavelength 900 ohm behaves like a particle of mass

(a)  5.53 × 1036 kg

(b)  0 kg

(c)  2.46 × 1036 kg

(d)  1.84 × 1044 kg

Answer: (c)

52. A camera uses a …….. to form an image on a piece of film at the back.

(a)  convex lens.

(b)  concave lens

(c)  diverging lens

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

53. When white light passes through a prism it splits into …….. colours.

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

Answer: (c)

54. Short sight defect should be correct

(a)  convex lens

(b)  concave lens

(c)  converging lens

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

55. Ozone layer protects the Earth form

(a)  microwaves

(b)  infrared radiation from Sun.

(c)  X-rays

(d)  U V

Answer: (d)

56. Which of the following is NOT renewable energy?

(a)  Geothermal

(b)  Solar

(c)  Nuclear

(d)  Bio fuels

Answer: (d)

57. Large angle produces

(a)  high trajectory

(b)  curve trajectory

(c)  straight trajectory

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

58. If a projectile is launched at 45° with velocity 100 m/s, it hits the target. It will have double the range if its velocity is

(a)  200 m/s

(b)  141.4 m/s

(c)  173.2 m/s

(d)  400 m/s

Answer: (b)

59. Effective capacitance between A and B in the figure shown below, is (capacitances are in μF)

(a)  21 μF

(b)  23 μF

(c) 

(d)  

Answer: (d)

60. A body of mass M starts siding down on the inclined plane where the critical angle is

∠ACB = 30° as shown in the figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

61. Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance ‘d’ as shown in the figure. The work done on the particle during the displacement of 12 m is

(a)  13 J

(b)  18 J

(c)  21 J

(d)  26 J

Answer: (19J)

62. Identify the logic operation performed by the circuit given below:

(a)  NOT

(b)  NAND

(c)  OR

(d)  NOR

Answer: (d)

63. In the circuit below, the points A, B and C are 70 V, zero, 10 V respectively. Then

(a)  current in the paths AD, DB and DC are ratio of 1 : 2 : 3

(b)  current in the paths AD, DB and DCC are in ratio of 3 : 2 : 1

(c)  the point D will be at a potential of 60 V

(d)  the point D will be at a potential of 20 V

Answer: (b)

64. The resultant force on the current loop PQRS due to a long current carrying conductor will be

(a)  104 N

(b)  3.6 × 104 N

(c)  1.8 × 104 N

(d)  5 × 104 N

Answer: (d)

65. A satellite is moving round the Earth in a circular orbit with a velocity V. If the gravitational force of the Earth were suddenly disappear, then satellite would

(a)  spirally move away from Earth

(b)  move radially outward with a velocity V

(c)  fall towards the surface of the Earth

(d)  move with a velocity V, tangentially to its circular orbit

Answer: (d)

66. When a mass is attached to a spring, its length is increased by 20 cm. It is further lowered and released. The time period of its S.H.M. is.

(a) 

(b)  2π sec

(c)  4π

(d)  Data is not enough

Answer: (a)

Chemistry

 

1. The bond length of HCl molecule is 1.275 Å and its dipole moment is 1.03 D. The ionic character of the molecule (in percent) (charge of electron 4.8 × 1010 esu) is

(a)  100

(b)  67.3

(c)  33.6

(d)  16.83

Answer: (d)

2. Which is NOT tetrahedral?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 

Answer: (c)

3. The velocity constant of a reaction at 290 K was found to be 3.2 × 103 s1. When the temperature is raised to 310 K, it will be about

(a)  9.6 × 103

(b)  1.28 × 102

(c)  6.4 × 103

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following compound shows optical isomerism?

(a)  [CuNH3)4]2+

(b)  [ZnCl4]2+

(c)  [Cr(C2O4)3]3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

5. The radical  is aromatic because it has

(a)  6 p-orbitals & 6 unpaired electrons

(b)  7 p-orbitals & 6 unpaired electrons

(c)  7 p-orbitas

(d)  6 p-orbitals

Answer: (a)

6. The coal tar fraction which contains phenol is

(a)  heavy oil

(b)  light oil

(c)  middle oil

(d)  green oil

Answer: (c)

7. pH of saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 is 12. The value of solubility product (Ksp) of Ba(OH)2 is

(a)  4.0 × 10−6

(b)  5× 10−6

(c)  3.3 × 10−7

(d)  5.0 × 10−7

Answer: (d)

8. 023 g of sodium metal is reacted with 100 cm3 of water. The pH of the resulting solution is

(a)  10

(b)  8

(c)  9

(d)  12

Answer: (d)

9. An acid HA ionizes as

HA ⇔ H+ + A

The pH of 1.0 M solution is 5. Its dissociation constant would be

(a)  1 × 10−5

(b)  1 × 10−10

(c)  5

(d)  5 × 10−8

Answer: (c)

10. Aluminium oxide may be electrolyzed at 1000℃ to furnish aluminium metal. (Atomic mass = 27 amul Faraday = 96,500 coulombs). The cathode reaction is Al2+ + 3e → Al what will be the charges?

(a)  1.83 × 107 of electricity

(b)  5.49 × 107C of electricity

(c)  Both (A) & (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

11. The Gibbs energy for decomposition Al2O3 at 500℃ is as follows:

The potential difference needed for electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 at 500℃ is at least

(a)  5V

(b)  4.5V

(c)  3V

(d)  2.5V

Answer: (d)

12. For one mole, which one h as highest entropy?

(a)  Liquid nitrogen

(b)  Hydrogen gas

(c)  Mercury

(d)  Diamond

Answer: (b)

13. The RMS velocity of an ideal gas at 300 K is 12240 cm. sec1. What is the most probable velocity (in cm. sec1) at the same temperature?

(a)  10000

(b)  11280

(c)  1000

(d)  12240

Answer: (a)

14. Solution A contains 7g/L, of MgCl2 and solution B contains 7g/L of NaCl. At room temperature the osmotic pressure of

(a)  solution B is greater than A

(b)  Both have same osmotic pressure

(c)  solution A is greater

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

15. Volume of water needed to mix with 10 mL NHCl to get 0.1 NHCl is

(a)  90 mL

(b)  9 mL

(c)  900 mL

(d)  1000 mL

Answer: (b)

16. The crystal with metal deficiency defect is

(a)  NaCl

(b)  FeO

(c)  KCl

(d)  ZnO

Answer: (b)

17. The monomer of polystyrene, is

(a)  C2H5-CH = CH2

(b)  CH2 = CHCl

(c)  CH2 = CH2Cl

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

18. The pKa of a weak acid, HA is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base BOH is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous solution of the corresponding salt, BA will be

(a)  7.01

(b)  9.22

(c)  9.58

(d)  4.79

Answer: (a)

19. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is

(a)  CH3CH = CHCH3

(b)  CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3

(c)  CH3CH3C = CCH3CH3CH3

(d)  CHCH3C = CH

Answer: (d)

20. If the radius of 13Al27 nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 fermi, then the radius of 52Te125 nucleus will nearly.

(a)  8 fermi

(b)  6 fermi

(c)  5 fermi

(d)  4 fermi

Answer: (b)

21. The halflife of radioactive radon is 3.8 days. The time at the end of which 1/20th of the radon sample will remain undecayed is

(given log10e = 0.4343)

(a)  3.8 days

(b)  16.5 days

(c)  33 days

(d)  76 days

Answer: (b)

22. An alpha particle of energy 6 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The distance of closest approach is of the order of

(a)  1A°

(b)  1010 m

(c)  1012 m

(d)  1015 m

Answer: (c)

23. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in fused state is called

(a)  smelting

(b)  roasting

(c)  calcinations

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

24. The spectrum produced by while light is

(a)  emission spectrum

(b)  continuous spectrum

(c)  absorption spectrum

(d)  Both (A) & (B)

Answer: (b)

25. Among the alkenes which one produces tertiary butyl alcohol on acid hydration?

(a)  (CH3)2C = CH2

(b)  CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(c)  CH3–CH2–CH = CH2

(d)  CH3 – CH = CH2

Answer: (a)

26. An organic compound A(C4H9Cl) on reaction with Na/diethyl ether gives a hydrocarbon which on monochlorisation gives one chloro derivative, then A is

(a)  iso – butyl chloride

(b)  secondary butyl chloride

(c)  t-butyl chloride

(d)  n-butyl chloride

Answer: (c)

27. Anisole can be prepared by the action of methyl iodide on sodium phenate. The reaction is called.

(a)  Fittig reaction

(b)  Williamson reaction

(c)  Wurtz reaction

(d)  Etard reaction

Answer: (b)

28. The IUPAC name of   is

(a)  2-methyl-3-bromohexan

(b)  2-methyl-3-bromobutanal

(c)  3-bromo-2-methylbutanal

(d)  3-bromo-2-methylpentanal

Answer: (d)

29. Which of the following is acidic hydrogen?

(a)  2-Hexanone

(b)  2, 4-Hexanedione

(c)  2, 5-Hexanedione

(d)  2, 3-Hexanedione

Answer: (a)

30. The species having pyramidal shape is

(a)  SO3

(b)  BrF3

(c) 

(d)  OSF3

Answer: (d)

31. IUPAC name for the following compound is

 

(a)  1, 3-pentamethyl propane

(b)  1, 1, 3, 3-tetramethyl butane

(c)  2, 4, 4-trimethyl pentane

(d)  2, 2, 4-trimethyl pentane

Answer: (d)

32. Which of the following nuclei will have a magnetic moment?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (a)

33. What is the best name for the following compound?

(a)  2-methylcyclohexene

(b)  3-methylhexene

(c)  1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene

(d)  3-methyl cyclohexene

Answer: (c)

34. Which of the following alkenes would have the largest Imax?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

35. What is Imax for

(a)  229 nm

(b)  249 nm

(c)  254 nm

(d)  259 nm

Answer: (d)

36. What is major product expected from the following reaction?

(a)  

(b)  

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

37. Which of the following bonds would show the strongest absorption in IR?

(a)  Carbon-Hydrogen

(b)  Oxygen-Hydrogen

(c)  Nitrogen-Hydrogen

(d)  Sulfur-Hydrogen

Answer: (c)

38. Which of the following would NOT be reasonable nucelophile in reaction?

(a)  NH3

(b)  NC

(c)  H2O

(d)  HO

Answer: (a)

39. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

40. What is the major product obtained from the following reaction?

H2N – CH2 – CH2 – OH + CH3Na (one mole) →

(a)  CH­3 – NH – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(b)  H2N – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3

(c)  CH4 + NaNH – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(d)  CH4 + H2N – CH2 – CH2 – ONa

Answer: (d)

41. What is the major product 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

42. What is the best reagent to convert isopropyl alcohol to isopropyl bromide?

(a)  HBr

(b)  SOBr2

(c)  Br2

(d)  CH3MgBr

Answer: (a)

43. Which of the functional groups on the following molecule are susceptible to nucleophilic attack?

(a)  ‘a’ & ‘b’

(b)  ‘a’ & ‘c’

(c)  ‘b’ & ‘c’

(d)  ‘a’, ‘b’ & ‘c’

Answer: (b)

44. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

45. How many moles of CO2 are present in 220 mg ?

(a)  5 moles

(b)  0.005 mole

(c)  5000 moles

(d)  10 moles

Answer: (b)

46. One mole of (NH4)2 HPO4 contains ——- moles of hydrogen atoms.

(a)  1

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  9

Answer: (d)

47. If 2.68 g of hydrated sodium sulphate N2SO4 + nH2O, on heating produces 1.26 g of water, what is the empirical formula of this compound?

(a)  Na2SO4 + H2O

(b)  2Na2SO4 + H2O

(c)  Na2SO4 + 7H2O

(d)  9NaSO4 + 8H2O

Answer: (c)

48. The following reaction balanced properly, when the value of O2 will be

C2H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O

(a)  1.5 moles

(b)  13 moles

(c)  19 moles

(d)  38 moles

Answer: (a)

49. What is the formal charge of the oxygen atom of the following compound?

 

(a)  +3

(b)  +1

(c)  −2

(d)  −3

Answer: (b)

50. The common isotopes of carbon 12C and 13 The average mass of carbon is

12.01115 amu. What is the abundance of 13C isotope?

(a)  1.115%

(b)  98.885%

(c)  0.480%

(d)  99.52%

Answer: (a)

51. How many grams of carbon are needed to completely react with 75.2 g of SiO2?

SiO2(g) + 3 C(g) → SiC (s) + 2CO(g).

(a)  3.76 g

(b)  15.1 g

(c)  36 g

(d)  45.1 g

Answer: (d)

52.Calculate the standard heat of reaction for Zn(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Cu(s)

(a)  −217 KJ/mole

(b)  +217 KJ/mole

(c)  −88 J/mole

(d)  +88 KJ/mole

Answer: (a)

53. In allene (C3H4), the types of hybridization of carbon atoms are

(a)  Sp & Sp3

(b)  Sp & Sp2

(c)  only Sp2

(d)  Sp2 & Sp3

Answer: (a)

54. Among the following the maximum covalent character is shown by the compound

(a)  MgCl2

(b)  FeCl2

(c)  SnCl2

(d)  AlCl3

Answer: (d)

55. The hybridization of orbits of N atom in  are respectively

(a)  Sp2, Sp3, Sp

(b)  Sp, Sp2, Sp3

(c)  Sp2, Sp, Sp3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

56. Calculate KE of 3 molecules of nitrogen at 100℃.

(a)  553 × 1012 cal

(b)  5573 × 1024 cal

(c)  53 × 1012 cal

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

57. Which of the following atoms has the lowest ionization potential?

(a)  8O16

(b)  7N14

(c)  55Cs123

(d)  18Ar14

Answer: (c)

58. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the electron from the first excited state of Li++ is

(a)  122.4 eV

(b)  30.6 eV

(c)  13.6 eV

(d)  3.4 eV

Answer: (b)

59. If the atom 100Fm257 follows the Bohr model and the radius of 100Fm257 is ‘n’ times the Bohr radius, then find ‘n’.

(a)  100

(b)  200

(c)  4

(d)  1/4

Answer: (d)

60. If elements with principal quantum number n > 4 were NOT allowed in nature, the number of possible elements would be

(a)  60

(b)  32

(c)  4

(d)  64

Answer: (d)

61. Williamson’s synthesis is used for preparation of

(a)  alcohols

(b)  ketones

(c)  ethers

(d)  aldehydes

Answer: (c)

62. Phenol is heated with a solution of mixture of KBr and KBrO3. The major product obtained in the above reaction is

(a)  2, 4, 6-Tribromophenol

(b)  3-Bromophenol

(c)  2-Bromophenol

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

63. Trichloro acetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in the presence of sulphuric acid and produces

(a) 

 

(b)

(c)

(d)  

Answer: (a)

64. Number of lone pairs in XeOF4 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (a)

65. RCH2CH2OH can be converted to RCH2CH2COOH by the following sequence of steps

(a)  KNC, H3O+

(b)  PBr3, KNC, H2/P+

(c)  PBr3, KNC, H3O+

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

66. If the bond length and dipole moment of a diatomic molecule are 1.25 A and 1.0 D respectively, what is the percent ionic character of the bond?

(a)  10.66

(b)  12.33

(c)  16.66

(d)  19.33

Answer: (*)

Biology

 

1. Chromosomes can be counted best at the stage of

(a)  metaphase

(b)  late anaphase

(c)  telophase

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

2. The stage is which daughter chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle is

(a)  Anaphase

(b)  Metaphase

(c)  Prophase

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

3. Chiasmata are first seen in

(a)  Pachytene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Leptotene

(d)  Diplotene

Answer: (d)

4. Protein subunit found within microtubules is

(a)  collagen

(b)  tubulin

(c)  myosin

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

5. Balbiani rings occur in

(a)  Autosome

(b)  Heterosome

(c)  Lampbrush chromosome

(d)  Polytene chromosome

Answer: (d)

6. Cell plate grows from

(a)  one wall to another

(b)  centre to wall

(c)  wall to centre

(d)  simultaneously

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following cellular structure always disappear during mitosis and meiosis?

(a)  Plasma membrane

(b)  Nucleolus & nuclear envelope

(c)  Plastids

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

8. Centromere is a constituent of

(a)  Ribosome

(b)  ER

(c)  Chromosome

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

9. Chiasma forma occurs in

(a)  Pachytene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Lepotene

(d)  Diplotene

Answer: (d)

10. Crossing-over results in

(a)  recombination of linked alleles

(b)  dominance of alleles

(c)  segregation of alleles

(d)  linkage between genes

Answer: (a)

11. Cytoplasmic division of a cell is called

(a)  cell plate formation

(b)  cytokinesis

(c)  mitosis

(d)  synapsis

Answer: (b)

12. Purines possess nitrogen at

(a)  1, 2, 4 & 6 position

(b)  1, 3, 5 & 7 position

(c)  1, 3, 7 & 9 position

(d)  1, 3, 6 & 8 position

Answer: (c)

13. NADP+ is

(a)  Enzyme activator

(b)  Ion carrier

(c)  Hydrogen acceptor

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

14. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at

(a)  1/2Vmax

(b)  2 Vmax

(c)  1/4 Vmax

(d)  4 Vmax

Answer: (a)

15. Which one of is the most abundant protein in the animal world?

(a)  Collagen

(b)  Insulin

(c)  Trypsin

(d)  Haemoglobin

Answer: (a)

16. The catalytic efficiency of two different enzymes can be compared by

(a)  molecule size of the enzyme

(b)  pH optimum value

(c)  Km value

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

17. Which one of the following amino acids was NOT found to be synthesized on Miller’s experiment?

(a)  Glutamic

(b)  Aspartic acid

(c)  Glycine

(d)  Alanine

Answer: (a)

18. In man which organisms cause abscesses on the skin of arms or legs?

(a)  Abcaris

(b)  Bacteria

(c)  Suinea worm

(d)  Ring worm

Answer: (b)

19. Scolidon or dog fish belongs to the group of fishes, called

(a)  cartilaginous fishes

(b)  bony fishes

(c)  running fishes

(d)  jawless fishes

Answer: (a)

20. Potyploid, derived from two different species, is called

(a)  autopolyploid

(b)  triploid

(c)  allopolyploid

(d)  monoploid

Answer: (c)

21. Pieces of plant tissue, used in tissue culture, is called

(a)  explant

(b)  somaclone

(c)  inoculant

(d)  clone

Answer: (a)

22. Ovule integument gets transformed into

(a)  seed

(b)  fruit wall

(c)  seed coat

(d)  cotyledons

Answer: (c)

23. Osteomalacia i s a deficiency disease of

(a)  infants due to protein energy malnutrition

(b)  adults due to protein energy malnutrition

(c)  adults due to vitamin D deficiency

(d)  vitamin K deficiency

Answer: (c)

24. Name the following having oxygen storage capacity.

(a)  Myoglobin

(b)  Prophase II

(c)  Anaphase I

(d)  Metaphase II

Answer: (a)

25. Movement of tongue muscle is controlled by

(a)  facial nerve

(b)  trigeminal nerve

(c)  hypoglossal nerve

(d)  vagus nerve

Answer: (c)

26. Pick the mammal with true placenta.

(a)  Kangaroo

(b)  Echidna

(c)  Platypus

(d)  Mongoose

Answer: (d)

27. Which one is NOT the method of soil conservation?

(a)  Overgazing

(b)  Mulching

(c)  Crop rotation

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

28. Which of the following is NOT an antitranspirant?

(a)  PMA

(b)  BAP

(c)  Silicon oil

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

29. Which one of the following is NOT a second messenger in hormone action?

(a)  Calcium

(b)  Sodium

(c)  Al

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

30. Which one of the following human cells do NOT contain mitochondria?

(a)  Nerve cell

(b)  Red blood cell

(c)  Liver cell

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

31. Which of the following is related to humoral immunity?

(a)  T-lymphocyte

(b)  B-lymphocyte

(c)  I-lymphocyte

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

32. Which hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)  TSH & ACTH

(b)  Ostrogen & Progesterone

(c)  FSH & LH

(d)  Vasopressin

Answer: (c)

33. Which is NOT matched correctly?

(a)  Sycon-Canal system

(b)  Ascaris-Flame cell

(c)  Star fish – Radial symmetry

(d)  Prawn – Haemocoel

Answer: (b)

34. Spawning of fishes is induced by injecting females with

(a)  Progesterone

(b)  Prostaglandin

(c)  FSH & LH

(d)  Estrogen

Answer: (c)

35. The most common method for fish preservation is

(a)  Chilling

(b)  Sun drying

(c)  Smoking

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

36. Which of the following is NOT marine fish?

(a)  Bombay Duck

(b)  Pomfret

(c)  Labeo

(d)  Mackerei

Answer: (c)

37. Which one is an edible fungus?

(a)  Aspergillus

(b)  Ustilago

(c)  Polyporus

(d)  Morchella

Answer: (d)

38. Which one is bacteria fertilizer?

(a)  Anabaena

(b)  Nostoc

(c)  Rhizobium

(d)  Phycomyces

Answer: (c)

39. Tumor enclosed in a capsule is

(a)  Malignant

(b)  Benign

(c)  Metastasis

(d)  Basophils

Answer: (b)

40. Which of the following is a structural changes in cancer cells?

(a)  Hypoplasia

(b)  Metastasis

(c)  Both (a) & (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

41. Iodine deficiency causes ______ disease

(a)  Goiter

(b)  Kwashiorkor

(c)  Scurvy

(d)  Anaemia

Answer: (d)

42. The structural and functional unit of striated muscle fibre is called

(a)  Z-band

(b)  Myofibrill

(c)  Sarcoplasm

(d)  Sarcomere

Answer: (d)

43. The monocotyledonous seed, consists of one large and shield shaped cotyledon, is known as

(a)  Coleptile

(b)  Scutellum

(c)  Aleurone layer

(d)  Coleorhiza

Answer: (b)

44. Inter fascicular cambium develops from the cells of

(a)  Medullary rays

(b)  Xylem parenchyma

(c)  Endodermis

(d)  Pericycle

Answer: (a)

45. How much frequency of ultrasound, can be beamed in human body for sonography?

(a)  15-30 MHz

(b)  30-45 MHz

(c)  45-70 MHz

(d)  1-15 MHz

Answer: (d)

46. Hybridomas are the fusion product of

(a)  abnormal antibody producing cell with myeloma

(b)  normal antibody producing cell with myeloma

(c)  sex cells with myeloma

(d)  bone cells with myeloma

Answer: (c)

47. Electron beam therapy is a kind of radiation therapy to treat

(a)  certain types of cancer

(b)  gall bladder stones by breaking them

(c)  enlarged prostate gland

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

48. The antibody dependent cytotoxicity is seen in

(a)  non-compatible blood  transfusion

(b)  local anaphylaxis

(c)  generalized anaphylaxis

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

49. Vernalization stimulates flower in

(a)  carrot

(b)  turmeric

(c)  elephant yam

(d)  ginger

Answer: (a)

50. Ornithophily refers to the pollination by which of the following?

(a)  Snails

(b)  Birds

(c)  Insects

(d)  Air

Answer: (b)

51. Hormone related with cell divisions is

(a)  NAA

(b)  IAA

(c)  Cytokinin

(d)  GA3

Answer: (c)

52. In C3 path way, the first stable compound is

(a)  PGAL

(b)  OAA

(c)  PGA

(d)  RUDP

Answer: (c)

53. In the synthesis of which of the following, DNA molecule is NOT directly involved?

(a)  mRNA molecule

(b)  protein molecule

(c)  tRNA molecule

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

54. A polygenic trait is controlled by 3 genes A, B and C. In a cross Aa BbCc, phenotypic ratio of the a offsprings was observed as 1 : 6 : x : 20 : x : 6 : 1. What is the value of x?

(a)  3

(b)  9

(c)  15

(d)  25

Answer: (c)

55. Total number of water molecule produced per molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration is

(a)  10

(b)  6

(c)  12

(d)  8

Answer: (b)

56. Both B-cells and T-cells of Immune system are produced in

(a)  spleen

(b)  lymphoid nodes

(c)  Bone narrow

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

57. Hb value for a: healthy adult male is

(a)  100 g/100 ml

(b)  11 g/100 ml

(c)  12 g/100 ml

(d)  14-15 g/100 ml

Answer: (d)

58. Deoxygenated blood from wall of heart is carried by

(a)  coronary sinus

(b)  inferior vena cava

(c)  superior vena cava

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

59. First and louder sound of heart during ventricular systole is

(a)  Lubb

(b)  Dubb

(c)  Murmur

(d)  Hissing

Answer: (a)

60. Accumulation of urea and other waste substance in the blood is called

(a)  Hemodialysis

(b)  Cystitis

(c)  Uremia

(d)  Urethritis

Answer: (c)

61. Motor neurons electrically stimulate nearby muscle fibres at

(a)  creatine phosphate

(b)  actin filament

(c)  neuromuscular junction

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

62. In an ecosystem Biotic factors affect the survival of an organism in that ecosystem. They include

(a)  competition for water

(b)  competition for shelter

(c)  co-operation to help find food

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

63. Cell division CANNOT be stopped in which phase of the cell cycle?

(a)  G1 phase

(b)  G2 phase

(c)  S-phase

(d)  Prophase

Answer: (c)

64. What type of plant is formed when colchicines is used in the process of development of Raphanobrassica?

(a)  Autotetraploid

(b)  Haploid

(c)  Triploid

(d)  Allotetraploid

Answer: (d)

65. The n on-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during

(a)  Leptotene

(b)  Diakinesis

(c)  Diplotene

(d)  Pachytene

Answer: (d)

66. Cells in Go phase of cell cycle

(a)  exit cell cycle

(b)  enter cell cycle

(c)  suspend cell cycle

(d)  terminate cell cycle

Answer: (c)

67. During oogenesis the cell that is fertilized by a sperm to become an egg is

(a)  primary spermatocyte

(b)  secondary oocyte

(c)  primary oocyte

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

68. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg will affect

(a)  fertilization

(b)  formation of zygote

(c)  pattern of cleavage

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Mathematics

1. A natural number is selected from first 20 natural numbers. The probability that  is

(a)  1/5

(b)  2/5

(c)  3/5

(d)  4/5

Answer: (d)

2. A and B are two events such that P(A)>0 and P(B) ≠ 1 then  is equal to

(a)  1 – P(A|B)

(b) 

(c)  

(d)  

Answer: (c)

3. The range of the function f(x) = 7 – xPx – 3 is

(a)  {1, 2, 3}

(b)  {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}

(c)  {1, 2, 3, 4}

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

4. Let f(x) = |x – 1|, then

(a)  f(x2) = [f(x)]2

(b)  f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y)

(c)  f(|x|) = |f(x)|

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

5. If X and Y are two sets, then X ∩ (X ∪ Y)C equals

(a)  X

(b)  Y

(c)  ϕ

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

6. The area of the region bounded by the curves y = |x – 2|; x = 1, x = 3 and x-axis is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

7. 

(a)  3/2

(b)  5/2

(c)  3

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

8. What is the last digit in the expansion of (2457)754?

(a)  3

(b)  7

(c)  8

(d)  9

Answer: (d)

9. If 3x + 27(3x) = 12, then x = ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  1 or 2

(d)  0 or 1

Answer: (c)

10. If x = 1 + √2, then x4 + 4x3 + 4x2 = ?

(a)  −1

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

11. The sum of the series  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d) 

Answer: (d)

12. The sum of any ten positive real numbers multiplied by the sum of their reciprocals is

(a)  ≥ 10

(b)  ≥ 50

(c)  ≥ 100

(d)  ≥ 200

Answer: (d)

13. If Sn denotes the sum of integer n terms of an A.P. and S2n = 3 Sn then the ratio S3n/Sn = ?

(a)  4

(b)  6

(c)  8

(d)  10

Answer: (b)

14. The value of cos2 α + cos2(α + 1200) + cos2(α – 1200) is

(a)  3/2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

15. If A = sin2 θ + cos4 θ, the for all real values at θ

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (b)

16. The principal value of  is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

17. The smallest positive root of the equation tan x = x lies in

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

18. The sum of the series  is

(a)

(b)

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (b)

19. Suppose f(x) is differential at x = 1 and  then f ʹ(1) =

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  5

(d)  6

Answer: (c)

20. If and  |W| = 1, then Z lies on

(a)  an ellipse

(b)  a circle

(c)  a straight line

(d)  a parabola

Answer: (c)

21. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity, then (1 + ω – ω2)7 =

(a)  128ω

(b)  −128ω

(c)  128ω2

(d)  −128ω2

Answer: (d)

22. If n+1C3 = 2 nC2, then the value of n =

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  5

(d)  6

Answer: (c)

23. If f : R → S, defined by f(x) = sin x – √3 cos x + 1 is onto, then the interval of S is

(a)  [0.3]

(b)  [−1, 1]

(c)  [0, 1]

(d)  [−1, 3]

Answer: (d)

24. Area of the greatest rectangle that can be inscribe in an ellipse  is

(a)  2ba

(b)  ab

(c)  √ab

(d)  a/b

Answer: (a)

25. The points (−a, −b), (0, 0), (a, b) and (a2, ab) are

(a)  collinear

(b)  vertices of parallelogram

(c)  vertices of rectangle

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

26. The area enclosed between the curve y = loge(x + e) and the coordinate axes is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

27. If the roots of the equation x2 – bx + c = 0 be two consecutive integers, then b2 – 4c =

(a)  −2

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

28. If the angle θ between the line  and the plane  , is that  then the value of λ is

(a)  5/3

(b)  −3/5

(c)  3/4

(d)  −4/3

Answer: (a)

29. A line through the point P(0, 6, 8) intersects the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 = 36 in points A and B, then PA × PB = ?

(a)  36

(b)  24

(c)  100

(d)  64

Answer: (a)

30. The third term of a geometric progression is 4. The product of first five terms is

(a)  43

(b)  45

(c)  44

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

31. If the first term minus third term of G.P. = 768 and the third term minus seventh term of the same G.P. = 240, then the product of first 21 terms is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (*)

32. If x, y, z are pth, qth and rth term respectively of an A.P. and also of a G.P. then xy – z yz – xzx – y = ?

(a)  xyz

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  ∞

Answer: (c)

33. If 2a + 3b + 6c = 0, then at least one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, lies in the interval of

(a)  (0, 1)

(b)  (1, 2)

(c)  (2, 3)

(d)  (1, 3)

Answer: (a)

34. If x + |y| = 2y, then y as a function of x is

(a)  defined for all real x

(b)  continuous at x  = 0

(c) 

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

35. If  then   is

(a)  0

(b)  ∞

(c)  1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

36. If y = aInx + bx2 + x has extreme values at x = −1 and x = 2, then

(a)  a = 2, b = −1

(b)  a = 2, b = −1/2

(c)  a = −2, b = 1/2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

37. There are 8 players from which four teams each of two players are formed. What is the probability that two specific players are in one team?

(a)  1/4

(b)  15/28

(c)  1/8

(d)  1/7

Answer: (b)

38. The number of ways of putting 10 different things in 2 boxes, such that there are not less than 2 things in any of the two boxes is

(a)  1024

(b)  1023

(c)  1013

(d)  1002

Answer: (a)

39. Four dice are rolled. The number of possible outcomes in which altleast two dice show 6 is

(a)  216

(b)  900

(c)  150

(d)  171

Answer: (c)

40. The domain of definition of the function y(x) has given by the equation 2x + 2y = 2 is

(a)  0 < x ≤ 1

(b)  0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(c)  −∞ < x ≤ 0

(d)  −∞ < x < 1

Answer: (d)

41. The number log2 7 is

(a)  an integer

(b)  a rational number

(c)  an irrational number

(d)  a prime number

Answer: (c)

42. If two circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 3)2 = r2 and x2 + y2 – 8x + 2y + 8 = 0 intersect in two distinct points, then

(a)  2 < r < 8

(b)  r < 2

(c)  r = 2

(d)  r > 2

Answer: (d)

43. If f(x) = cos (lnx), then  has the value

(a)  −1

(b)  1/2

(c)  −2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

44. For any integer n, the integer  has the value

(a)  x

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (*)

45. In triangle PQR,  if   are the roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, a ≠ 0, then

(a)  a = b + c

(b)  c = a + b

(c)  b = c

(d)  b = a + c

Answer: (b)

46. If  then the value of x is

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d)

Answer: (c)

47. For which value of x, sin[cot1(x + 1)] = cos(tan1x) ?

(a)  1/2

(b)  0

(c)  1

(d)  −1/2

Answer: (a)

48. If α and β are roots of x2 + px + q = 0 and α4 and β4 are the roots of r2 – rx + s = 0, then the equation x2 – 4qx + 2q2 – r = 0 ha always

(a)  two real roots

(b)  two positive roots

(c)  two negative roots

(d)  one positive and one negative root

Answer: (a)

49. For real value of x, the function  will assume all real values provided

(a)  a > b > c

(b)  b > a > c

(c)  a > c > b

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

50. The number of real solutions of the equation |x|2 – 3|x| + 2 = 0 is

(a)  4

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  2

Answer: (a)

51. Both the roots of the equation (x – b) (x – c) + (x – a) (x – c) + (x – a) (x – b) = 0 are always

(a)  positive

(b)  negative

(c)  real

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

52. The value of  is

(a)  6/17

(b)  7/16

(c)  16/7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

53. The value of the definite integral is

(a)  −1

(b)  2

(c)  1 + e1

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

54. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  π

(c)  π/2

(d)  π/4

Answer: (d)

55. The value of the integral 

(a)  π/4

(b)  π/2

(c)  π

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

56. 

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  1/2

(d)  −1/2

Answer: (a)

57. The complex number sin x + i cos 2x and cos x – i sin 2x are conjugate to each other for

(a)  x = πn

(b)  x = 0

(c)  

(d)  no value of x

Answer: (d)

58. The inequality |z – 4| < |z – 2| represents the region given by

(a)  Re(z) > 0

(b)  Re(z) < 0

(c)  Re(z) > 2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

59. The points Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4 in the complex plane are the vertices of a parallelogram taken in order if and only if

(a)  Z1 + Z4 = Z2 + Z3

(b)  Z1 + Z3 = Z2 + Z4

(c)  Z1 + Z2 = Z3 + Z4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

60. If  are non-coplanar unit vectors such that  then the angle between  is

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (b)

61. The number of vectors of unit length perpendicular to  is

(a)  one

(b)  two

(c)  three

(d)  infinite

Answer: (a)

62. The points with position vectors 60i + 3j, ai – 52 are collinear, if

(a)  a = −40

(b)  a = 40

(c)  a = 20

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

63. The value of 

(a)  0

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/5

(d)  1/30

Answer: (a)

64. The function  has local minimum at x = ?

(a)  0

(b)  1, 2

(c)  2, 4

(d)  3, 1

Answer: (c)

65. Which of the following functions is differentiable at x = 0 ?

(a)  cos (|x|) + |x|

(b)  cos(|x|) − |x|

(c)  sin(|x|) + |x|

(d)  sin(|x|) − |x|

Answer: (d)

66. The events A, B, C are mutually exclusive events such that 

 

The set of possible values of x are in the intervals

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

67. If and  then P(B ∩ C) =

(a) 

(b)   

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2016 With Answer Key

Go to all OUAT Previous Year Question Papers 2022, 2021, 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017, 2016, 2015, 2014, 2013, 2012,2011, 2010, 2009, 2008, 2007

2016 O.U.A.T Question with Answer

Physics

 

1. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth ρ re related by which of the following relations ? (Where G is gravitational constant and R is the radius of the earth)

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d)   

Answer: (a)

2. When a rubber ball is taken to the bottom of a sea of depth 1400 m, its volume decreases by 2%. The bulk modulus of rubber ball is [density of water is 1 g cc and g = 10 m/s2.]

(a)  7 × 108 N/m2

(b)  6 × 108 N/m2

(c)  14 × 108 N/m2

(d)  9 × 108 N/m2

Answer: (a)

3. Two cubical blocks identical in dimensions float in water in such a way that 1st block floats with half part immersed in water and second block floats with 3/4 of its volume inside the water. The ratio of densities of the blocks is

(a)  2 : 3

(b)  3 : 4

(c)  1 : 3

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (a)

4. If T is the surface tension of a fluid, the energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius R into 64 equal drops is:

(a)  6π R2T

(b)  π R2T

(c)  12π R2T

(d)  8π R2T

Answer: (c)

5. A seconds pendulum clock has a steel wire. The clock shows correct time at 25 0c. How much time does the clock lose or gain, in one week, when the temperature is increased to 35 0C?

Steel = 1.2 × 105/℃]

(a)  321.5 s

(b)  3.828 s

(c)  82.35 s

(d)  36.28 s

Answer: (d)

6. What is the dimensional formula for thermal resistance?

(a)  [M1L2T1K]

(b)  [M1L2T2K1]

(c)  [ML3T2K1]

(d)  [M1L2T3K]

Answer: (d)

7. Select the correct statement for work, heat and change in internal energy.

(a)  Heat supplied and work done depend on initial and final states

(b)  Change in internal energy depends on initial and final state only

(c)  Heat and work depend on the path between the two points

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

8. A certain amount of an ideal monoatomic gas needs 20 J of heat energy to raise its temperature by 10℃ at constant pressure. The heat needed for the same temperature rise at constant volume will be

(a)  30 J

(b)  12 J

(c)  200 J

(d)  215.3 J

Answer:(b)

9. A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat energy which works at source temperature 127℃ and sink temperature 27℃ is 26%, then

(a)  It is impossible

(b)  It is possible but less probable

(c)  It is quite probable

(d)  Data are incomplete

Answer: (c)

10. Select the appropriate property of an ideal gas

(a)  Its molecules are infinitesimally small

(b)  There are no forces of interaction between its molecules

(c)  It strictly obeys the ideal gas laws

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

11. By increasing the temperature of a gas by 6℃, its pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then initial temperature of gas is

(a)  1000 K

(b)  1500 K

(c)  2000 K

(d)  750 K

Answer: (b)

12. A boy is swinging in a swing. If he stand, the time period will

(a)  first decrease and then increase

(b)  decrease

(c)  increase

(d)  remain same

Answer: (d)

13. In a simple harmonic wave, minimum distance between particles in same phase always having same speed, is

(a)  λ/4

(b)  λ/3

(c)  λ/2

(d)  λ

Answer: (c)

14. A uniform string resonates with a tuning fork, at a maximum tension of 32 N. If it is divided into two segments by placing a wedge at a distance one-fourth of length from one end, then to resonance with same frequency the maximum value of tension for string will be

(a)  2 N

(b)  4 N

(c)  8 N

(d)  16 N

Answer: (a)

15. Two equally charged identical small balls kept some fixed distance apart exert a repulsive force F on each other. A similar uncharged ball, after touching one of them is p laced at the mid-point of line joining the two bails. Force experienced by the third ball is

(a)  4F

(b)  2F

(c)  F

(d)  F/2

Answer: (c)

16. What is the amount of charge possessed by 1 kg of electrons ?

(a)  1.76 × 1011C

(b)  1.76 × 109C

(c)  1.76 × 107C

(d)  1.76 × 105C

Answer: (a)

17. Electric charge Q, Q and −2Q respectively are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. Magnitude of the electric dipole moment of the system is

(a)

(b) 

(c)  Qa

(d)  2Qa

Answer: (b)

18. Total electric flux associated with unit positive charge in vacuum is

(a)  4πε0

(b)  1/4πε0

(c)  1/ε0

(d)  ε0

Answer: (c)

19. If an electric field is given by calculate the electric flux through a surface of area 10 units lying in yz

(a)  100 units

(b)  10 units

(c)  30 units

(d)  40 units

Answer: (a)

20. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through the same electric potential difference, the ratio of their speeds will become

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  4 : 1

Answer: (a)

21. A capacitor with plate separation d is charged to V volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across its terminals becomes

(a)  V

(b)  2V

(c)  3V/2

(d)  3V/4

Answer: (d)

22. A potential difference of 5 V is applied across a conductor of length 10 cm. If drift velocity of electrons is 2.5 × 104 m/s, then electron mobility will be

(a)  5 × 104 m2 V1 s1

(b)  5 × 106 m2 V1 s1

(c)  5 × 102 m2 V1 s1

(d)  zero

Answer: (b)

23. A square frame of side l carries a current i. The magnetic field at its centre is B. The same current is passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coils is B’. The ratio of B and B’ is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

24. Two small bar magnets are placed in a line at certain distance apart. If the length of each magnet is negligible compared to d, force between them will be inversely proportional to

(a)  d2

(b)  d

(c)  d3

(d)  d4

Answer: (b)

25. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 the angles of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then

(a)  cot2 ϕ= cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2

(b)  tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2

(c)  cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2

(d)  tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2

Answer: (b)

26. A metallic ring with a cut is held horizontally and a magnet is allowed to fall vertically through the ring, then the acceleration of this magnet is

(a)  equal to g

(b)  more than g

(c)  less than g

(d)  sometimes less and sometimes more than g

Answer: (b)

27. A copper rod of length l is rotated about one end perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity ω. The induced e.m.f. between it two ends is

(a) Bωl2

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 2 Bωl2

Answer: (c)

28. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 2 henry. If an alternating voltage of 120 V and frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current in the circuit would be nearly

(a)  0.32 A

(b)  0.80 A

(c)  0.48 A

(d)  0.16 A

Answer: (d)

29. If in a plano-convex lens, radius of curvature of convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of the lens is 30 cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will be

(a)  1.5

(b)  166

(c)  1.33

(d)  3

Answer: (c)

30. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in medium A is 2.0 × 108 ms1 and in medium B is 2.5 × 108 ms1. The critical angle for which a ray of light going from A to B suffers total internal reflection is

(a)  sin1 1/2

(b)  sin1 2/5

(c)  sin1 4/5

(d)  sin1 3/4

Answer: (c)

31. Two waves having intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 produce interference. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is equal to

(a)  10 : 8

(b)  9 : 1

(c)  4 : 1

(d)  2 : 1

Answer: (c)

32. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 107 The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringe on the same side of central maxima is

(a)  0.65 mm

(b)  1.62 mm

(c)  3.25 mm

(d)  4.88 mm

Answer: (b)

33. X-rays of wavelength 22 pm are scattered from a carbon target at an angle of 85° to the incident beam. the Compton shift for X-rays is

(a)  2.2 pm

(b)  1.1 pm

(c)  0.55 pm

(d)  4.4 pm

Answer: (a)

34. The angular speed of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is

(a)  directly proportional to n 2

(b)  directly proportional to n

(c)  inversely proportional to n3

(d)  inversely proportional to n

Answer: (c)

35. Ratio of nuclear radii of 135Cs to 40Ca is

(a)  1.40

(b)  1.50

(c)  2.750

(d)  3.375

Answer: (b)

36. The material suitable for making a solar cell is

(a)  PbS

(b)  GaAs

(c)  CdSe

(d)  Ge

Answer: (b)

37. In semiconductors. which of the following relations is correct at thermal equilibrium?

(a)  ni = ne = nh

(b)  ni2 = nenh

(c)  ni = ne/nh

(d)  ni = ne + nh

Answer: (b)

38. The T.V. transmission tower in Delhi has a h eight of 240 m. The distance up to which the broadcast can be received, (taking the radius of earth to be 6.4 × 106 m) is

(a)  100 km

(b)  60 km

(c)  55 km

(d)  50 km

Answer: (c)

39. Eddy currents are induced when

(a)  metal block is kept in a changing magnetic field

(b)  metal block is kept in a uniform magnetic field

(c)  a coil is kept in a uniform magnetic field

(d)  current is passed in a coil

Answer: (a)

40. A magnetic needle of negligible breadth and thickness compared to its length, oscillates in a horizontal plane with a period T. The period of oscillation of each part obtained on breaking the magnet into n equal parts perpendicular to the length is

(a)  T/n

(b)  T

(c)  Tn

(d)  /Tn

Answer: (c)

41. A proton and an alpha particle enter the same magnetic field which perpendicular to their velocity. If they have same kinetic energy then ratio of radii of their circular path is

(a)  1 : 4

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  2 : 1

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (b)

42. The induced e.m.f. in a coil does NOT depend on

(a)  number of turns in the coil

(b)  the rate of change of magnetic flux

(c)  time of rotation

(d)  the resistance of the circuit

Answer: (d)

43. A current of 10 A is maintained in a conductor of cross-section 1 cm2. If the number density of free electrons 9 × 1028 m3, the drift velocity of free electrons is

(a)  6.94 × 106 m/s

(b)  5.94 × 102 m/s

(c)  1.94 × 103 m/s

(d)  2.94 × 104 m/s

Answer: (a)

44. If on the x-axis electric potential decreases uniformly from 60 V to 20 V between x = −2 m to x = +2 m, then the magnitude of electric field at the origin

(a)  must be 10 V/m

(b)  may be greater than 10 V/m

(c)  zero

(d)  is 5 Vim

Answer: (a)

45. The dimensions of Planck’s constant equals to that of

(a)  Energy

(b)  Momentum

(c)  angular momentum

(d) Power

Answer: (c)

46. The focal power of a lens ha the dimensions

(a)  L

(b)  [ML2T3]

(c)  [L1]

(d)  [MLT3]

Answer: (c)

47. The position time graphs of two cars A and B are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of A and B is

(a)  1 : √2

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  √3 : 1

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (b)

48. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is

(a)  ut

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  (u + gt)t

Answer: (c)

49. The position of a body moving along x-axis at time t is given x = (t2 – 4t + 6) m. The distance travelled by body in time interval t = 0 to t = 3 s is

(a)  5 m

(b)  7 m

(c)  4 m

(d)  3 m

Answer: (d)

50. If the displacement of a particle varies with time as √x = t + 7, then

(a)  velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(b)  velocity of the particle is proportional to t2

(c)  velocity of t he particle is proportional to t

(d)  the particle moves with constant acceleration

Answer: (c)

51. The potential energy o f a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as

(a)  [ML7/2T2]

(b)  [ML11/2T2]

(c)  [M2L9/2T2]

(d)  [ML13/2T3]

Answer: (a)

52. If the percentage error in the measurement of momentum and mass of an object are 2% and 3% respectively, then maximum percentage error in the calculated value of its kinetic energy is

(a)  2%

(b)  1%

(c)  5%

(d)  7%

Answer: (d)

53. The velocities of A and B are  and  .Velocity of B as observed by A is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

54. The horizontal ranges described by two projectiles projected at angles (45° − θ) and (45° + θ) from the same point and same velocity are in the ratio

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 1

(c)  2 : 3

(d)  1 : 2

Answer: (b)

55. The resultant of two vectors at angle 150° is 10 units and is perpendicular to one vector. The magnitude of the smaller vector is

(a)  10 units

(b)  10√3 units

(c)  10√2 units

(d)  5√3 units

Answer: (b)

56. If the time of flight of a bullet over a horizontal range R is T, then the angle of projection with horizontal is

(a)  tan1(gT2/2R)

(b)  tan1(2R2/gT)

(c)  tan1(2R/g2T)

(d)  tan1(2R/gT)

Answer: (a)

57. The momentum p(in kg m/s) of a particle is varying with time t(in s) as p = 2 + 3t2. The force acting on the particles at t = 3s will be

(a)  18 N

(b)  54 N

(c)  9 N

(d)  15 N

Answer: (a)

58. A block of mass m as shown in figure is pulled by a force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is

(a)  10 N

(b)  20 N

(c)  25 N

(d)  30 N

Answer: (b)

59. A block of mass 10 kg is released on rough incline plane. Block start descending with acceleration 2 m/s2. Kinetic friction force acting on block is

(take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)  10 N

(b)  20 N

(c)  25 N

(d)  30 N

Answer: (b)

60. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is l and θ is the angle of string with vertical. The time period of revolution is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

61. KE of a body is increased by 44%. What is the percent increase in the momentum?

(a)  10%

(b)  20%

(c)  30%

(d)  40%

Answer: (b)

62. A ball of mass M moving with speed v collides perfectly in elastically with another ball of mass m at ret. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the first  ball is

(a)  Mv

(b)  mv

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

63. If radius of earth becomes n times its present value without change in mass, then duration of day becomes

(a)  24/n2

(b)  24n2

(c) 

(d)  24(1 – n2)

Answer: (b)

64. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin mass less rectangular sheet (1.2 m ×0 m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point

(a)  (0.8, 0.6) m

(b)  (0.6, 0.8) m

(c)  (0.4, 0.4) m

(d)  (0.5, 0.6) m

Answer: (c)

65. As we go from the equator to the poles, value of ‘g’

(a)  remains the same

(b)  decreases

(c)  increases

(d)  first increases and then decreases

Answer: (c)

66. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 1.96 m/s2. If it is safe to jump from a h eight of 3 m on the earth, the corresponding height on the planet will be

(a)  3 m

(b)  6 m

(c)  9 m

(d)  15 m

Answer: (d)

Chemistry-2016

 

1. The p H value of 107 M solution HCl is

(a)  equal to 1

(b)  equal to 2

(c)  less than 7

(d)  equal to 0

Answer: (c)

2. Which causes. the change in the value of equilibrium constant of any equilibria?

(a)  Adding of inert gas at constant pressure

(b)  Increasing the pressure

(c)  Adding of inert gas at constant volume

(d)  Decreasing the temperature

Answer: (d)

3. The no. of H+ in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is

(a)  1013

(b)  6.023 × 1028

(c)  6.023 × 1010

(d)  6.023 × 1013

Answer: (b)

4. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?

(a)  NaCI

(b)  CH3COONa

(c)  (NH4)2SO4

(d)  H2CO3

Answer: (b)

5. If ionic product of water is Kw = 1016 at 4℃ then a solution with pH = 7.5 at 4℃ will

(a)  turn blue litmus red

(b)  turn red litmus blue

(c)  be neutral to litmus

(d)  be alkaline

Answer: (b)

6. Phosphorous has the oxidation state +3 in

(a)  H3PO4

(b)  H3PO3

(c)  HPO3

(d)  H4P2O7

Answer: (b)

7. The ratio of number of moles of KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 required to oxidize 0.1 mole Sn2+ in acid medium, is

(a)  6 : 5

(b)  5 : 6

(c)  1 : 2

(d)  2 : 1

Answer: (a)

8. Oxidation numbers of A, B, C are +2, +5 and −2 respectively. Possible formula of compound is

(a)  A2(BC2)2

(b)  A3(BC4)2

(c)  A2(BC3)2

(d)  A2(B2C)2

Answer: (b)

9. Which is NOT the compound of sodium?

(a)  Chile salt peter

(b)  Salt petre

(c)  GIaubere’s salt

(d)  Soda ash

Answer: (b)

10. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?

(a)  CaCl2

(b)  CaOCl2

(c)  Ca(OCl)2

(d)  CaO2­Cl

Answer: (b)

11. Which allotrope of carbon leads to the formation of bucky ball?

(a)  Graphite

(b)  Diamond

(c)  Fullerene

(d)  Nano tube

Answer: (c)

12. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because

(a)  aluminium is electron rich

(b)  aluminium is having lone pair of electron

(c)  aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete its octet

(d)  aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge

Answer: (a)

13. C-O bond length is maximum in

(a)  CH3CHO

(b)  CO2

(c)  CO

(d)  CO32

Answer: (d)

14. In which of the following compound Chiral C-atom is present?

(a)  CH3CHCl2

(b)  CH3CH(OH)CH3

(c)  CH3CH(OH)COOH

(d)  CH3C(OH)2CH2COOH

Answer: (c)

15. Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having the volume of unit cell as 132 × 1024 cm3. If density is 0.92 gcm3 at a given temperature, then number of H2O molecules per unit cell is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (d)

16. The compound produce after the ozonolysis of benzene is

(a)  Glyoxal

(b)  Methanal

(c)  Ethanal

(d)  Hexanal

Answer: (a)

17. C6H5CH2CH3 can be prepared by

(a)  Wurtz reaction

(b)  Fittig reaction

(c)  Wurtz Fittig reaction

(d)  Frankland reaction

Answer: (c)

18. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCl will yield

(a)  2-chloro-1-propanol

(b)  3-chloro-2-propanol

(c)  1-chloro-2-propanol

(d)  1-chloro-1-2propanol

Answer: (c)

19. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism?

(a)  But-1-ene

(b)  But-2-ene

(c)  Prop-1-ene

(d)  Pent-1-ene

Answer: (b)

20. Which of the following crystal is represented by a

a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° ?

(a)  Orthorhombic

(b)  Monoclinic

(c)  Triclinic

(d)  Tetragonal

Answer: (c)

21. What is the relation between diamond and graphite?

(a)  Polymorphous

(b)  Isomer

(c)  Isotope

(d)  Isomorphous

Answer: (b)

22. Which of the following is NOT a strong electrolytes?

(a)  NaCl

(b)  KNO3

(c)  NH4OH

(d)  FeSO4

Answer: (c)

23. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a)  Electrons enter through cathode in an electrolytic cell.

(b)  Electrons leave through anode in an electrolytic cell.

(c)  Cations in the electrolytic cell move towards cathode and anions toward anode.

(d)  Cations are reduced at anode and anions are oxidized at cathode in an electrolytic cell.

Answer: (c)

24. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reaction as,

A2+ 2e →A              E° = 0.34 V

X → X2+ + 2e          E° = 2.37 V

The cell voltage will be

(a)  2.71 V

(b)  2.03 V

(c)  −2.71 V

(d)  −2.03 V

Answer: (b)

25. Which of the following is acidic flux?

(a)  CaO

(b)  MgO

(c)  SiO2

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

26. Extraction of zinc from zinc blend is achieved by

(a)  electrolytic reduction

(b)  roasting followed by reduction with carbon

(c)  roasting followed by reduction with another metal

(d)  roasting followed by self-reduction

Answer: (b)

27. The alloy used in dental filling contains

(a)  Ag and Sn

(b)  Ag and Sb

(c)  Hg, Ag and Sn

(d)  Hg, Ag and Sb

Answer: (c)

28. Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive?

(a)  Lysine

(b)  Glutamine

(c)  Serine

(d)  Glycine

Answer: (d)

29. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be digested by human body?

(a)  Starch

(b)  Cellulose

(c)  Glycogen

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

30. Which of the following is water soluble vitamin?

(a)  Vitamin-C

(b)  Vitamin-O

(c)  Vitamin-A

(d)  Vitamin-K

Answer: (a)

31. An example of natural biopolymer is

(a)  Teflon

(b)  Rubber

(c)  DNA

(d)  Nylon

Answer: (b)

32. Which of the following is mixed ketone?

(a)  Pentanone

(b)  Acetophenone

(c)  Benzophenone

(d)  Propanone

Answer: (b)

33. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate is obtained by the action of concentrated sodium hydroxide on benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as

(a)  Perkin reaction

(b)  Cannizzaro reaction

(c)  Sandmeyer reaction

(d)  Claisen condensation

Answer: (a)

34. Which is most reactive nucleophile in polar aprotic solvent?

(a)  F

(b)  Cl

(c)  Br

(d)  I

Answer: (a)

35. An SN3 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives

(a)  an enantiomer of the substrate

(b)  a product with opposite optical rotation

(c)  a mixture of diastereomers

(d)  a product with 100% inversion

Answer: (d)

36. Which of the following acts as a poisonous gas?

(a)  COCl2

(b)  CCl2F2

(c)  Benzene

(d)  CH3Cl

Answer: (a)

37. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene?

(a)  CO2

(b)  CCl4

(c)  CH2 = CH-Cl

(d)  Cl-CH = CH-Cl

Answer: (b)

38. Drugs can be classified on the basis of

(a)  Pharmacological effect

(b)  drug action

(c)  chemical structure

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

39. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid like

(a)  Palmitic acid

(b)  Oleic acid

(c)  Stearic acid

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

40. Which type of detergents are preferably used in liquid dish washing?

(a)  Cationic detergent

(b)  Anionic detergent

(c)  Non-ionic detergent

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

41. Biodegradable detergent should have

(a)  Phenyl side chain

(b)  Aromatic side chain

(c)  Normal unbranched side chain

(d)  Branched side chain

Answer: (c)

42. Major point of difference between antiseptic and disinfectant is

(a)  antiseptic prevents growth of micro organism

(b)  disinfectant kills micro-organism

(c)  disinfectant are not safe to be applied to living tissues

(d)  Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following is NOT a constituent of talcum powder?

(a)  Talc

(b)  Zinc sulphide

(c)  Zinc stearate

(d)  Perfume

Answer: (b)

44. Grignard reagent is suitable reagent for the preparation of which of the following from carbonyl compound?

(a)  1° alcohols

(b)  2° alcohols

(c)  3° alcohols

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

45. Phenols can be distinguished from alcohols by

(a)  FeCl3(neutral)

(b)  Fehling solution

(c)  Tollen’s reagent

(d)  2, 4-DNP

Answer: (a)

46. In Reimer – Tiemann reaction, the major product is

(a)  ortho isomer due to intra molecular H-bonding

(b)  meta isomer

(c)  para isomer due to symmetry

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

(a)  Molarity of solution is independent of temperature.

(b)  Molality of solution is independent of temperature.

(c)  Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature.

(d)  The unit of molality is mol dm3.

Answer: (b)

48. The unit of rate constant and rate of reaction are same for

(a)  First order

(b)  Zero order

(c)  Second order

(d)  Third order

Answer: (b)

49. The IUPAC name of phthalic acid is

(a)  Benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid

(b)  Benzene-1, 4-dioic acid

(c)  Cyclo-1, 3,5-trien-1, 2-dioic acid

(d)  Benzene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid

Answer: (a)

50. Which of the following has NO unit ?

(a)  Molality

(b)  Molarity

(c)  Mole Fraction

(d)  Normality

Answer: (c)

51. Concentration of glucose in blood is 0.8 gL1, the molarity of glucose in the blood should be

(a)  5.5 × 103

(b)  4.4 × 105 M

(c)  5.5 × 105 M

(d)  4.4 × 103 M

Answer: (d)

52. Which of the following is the main cause of late discovery of neutron?

(a)  Neutron in nucleus moves very fast.

(b)  Neutron is highly unstable particle.

(c)  Neutron is charge less particle.

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

53. For ‘p’ electron, the orbital angular momentum is

(a) 

(b)

(c)  h

(d)  2h

Answer: (b)

54. The partial pressure hydrogen in a flask containing 2g H2 and 32g SO2 is—— of total pressure.

(a)  1/16th

(b)  1/9th

(c)  2/3rd

(d)  1/8th

Answer: (c)

55. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27℃ to 927℃. The root mean square speed of the gas

(a)  remains same

(b) 

(c)  gets halved

(d)  gets doubled

Answer: (d)

56. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability of the gas?

(a)  H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2

(b)  H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2

(c)  CO2 < CH4­ < N2 < H2

(d)  CO2 < CH4 < H2 < N2

Answer: (b)

57. Which of the following is largest in size?

(a)  N3

(b)  O2

(c)  F

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

58. The least electronegative element has the following electronic configuration:

(a)  ns2np3

(b)  ns2np4

(c)  ns2np3

(d)  ns2np6

Answer: (c)

59. The group of elements in which the last electron is present in the anti-penultimate shell of atom is called

(a)  f-block elements

(b)  d-block elements

(c)  p-block elements

(d)  s-block elements

Answer: (b)

60. In PO43 ion, no. of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on phosphorous atom respectively are

(a)  5, 1

(b)  4, 1

(c)  3, 1

(d)  5, 0

Answer: (4, 12)

61. At 25℃ and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure?

(a)  569 ml

(b)  365 ml

(c)  265 ml

(d)  621 ml

Answer: (b)

62. The surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum?

(a)  C2H5OH

(b)  CH3OH

(c)  H2O

(d)  C6H6

Answer: (c)

63. A cylinder contains either ethylene or propylene of 12 ml of gas required 54 ml of oxygen for complete combustion. The gas is

(a)  Ethylene

(b)  Propylene

(c)  1 : 1 mixture of two gases

(d)  1 : 2 mixture

Answer: (b)

64. Calorific value of ethane, in Kj/g if the reaction is 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, ∆H = −6 Kcal

(a)  −12.4

(b)  −52

(c)  −24.8

(d)  −104

Answer: (b)

65. Exothermic reaction among the following is

(a)  combustion of N2 from NO

(b)  decomposition of H2O

(c)  conversion of diamond to graphite

(d)  dehydrogenation of ethane to ethene

Answer: (c)

66. When an ideal gas undergoing, expansion in vacuum shows

(a)  ∆U = 0

(b)  W = 0

(c)  q = 0

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

Mathematics

 

1. The number of real solution of the equation  is

(a)  1

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (c)

2. The total number of terms in the expansion of (x + y)100 + (x – y)100 after simplification is

(a)  50

(b)  51

(c)  202

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

3. Let A and B be 3 × 3 matrices. The AB = 0 implies

(a)  A = 0 and B = 0

(b)  |A| = 0 and |B| = 0

(c)  either |A| = 0 or |B| = 0

(d)  A = 0 or B = 0

Answer: (d)

4. The derivative of  w.r.t.  at x = 0 is

(a)  1/8

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/2

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

5. Three identical dice are rolled. The probability that the same number will appear on each of them is

(a)  1/6

(b)  1/36

(c)  1/18

(d)  3/28

Answer: (b)

6. If  then  is equal to

(a)  a non-zero vector

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d) 

Answer: (d)

7. If  then

(a)  

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

8. Two tangents are drawn from the point (−2, −1) to the parabola y2 = 4x. If α be the angle between these tangents, then tan α = ?

(a)  3

(b)  1/3

(c)  2

(d)  1/2

Answer: (a)

9. 

(a)  

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

10. where p and q are integers, is equal to

(a)  −π

(b)  0

(c)  π

(d)  2π

Answer: (b)

11. The value of   is ([ ] denotes the greatest integer function)

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

12. On the interval [0, 1] the function x25(1 – x)75 takes its maximum value at the point

(a)  0

(b)  1/4

(c)  1/2

(d)  1/3

Answer: (c)

13. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)  xex + c

(b) 

(c)  xex + c

(d) 

Answer: (a)

14. The area of parallelogram having diagonals  and  is

(a) 

(b)  7 sq. units

(c)  5 sq. units

(d)  1 sq. unit

Answer: ()

15. If  for x ≠ 1 and if f is continuous oat x = 1 then f(1) is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  1/e

(d)  e

Answer: (a)

16. If y = logax + logxa + logxx + logaa, then dy/dx =

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

17. The sin θ of the angle between the straight line  and the plane 2x – 2y + z = 5 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

18. Domain of the function 

(a)  [1, ∞)

(b)  (−∞, 6)

(c)  [1, 6]

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

19. If the mean of a Binomial distribution is 3 and its variance is 3/2, then the number of trials is

(a)  6

(b)  2

(c)  12

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

20. 

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  log 2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

21. The integrating factor of differential equation y log y dx = (log y – x) dy is

(a) 

(b)  log(log y)

(c)  1 + log y

(d) 

Answer: (b)

22. The value of  is

(a)  12

(b)  14

(c)  13

(d)  16

Answer: (c)

23. The area between the curve y = 1 − |x| and x – ax is equal to

(a)  1 sq. unit

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  2 sq. unit

Answer: (b)

24. The equation of tangent of the curve y = 4ex/4 at the point where the curve crosses Y-axis is equal to

(a)  3x + 4y = 16

(b)  4x + y = 4

(c)  x + y = 4

(d)  4x – 3y = −12

Answer: (a)

25. The maximum value of z = 10x + 6y subject to constraints x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, x + y ≤ 12, 2x + y ≤20 is

(a)  72

(b)  80

(c)  104

(d)  110

Answer: (c)

26. If  then k = 0

(a)  2

(b)  −2

(c)  ±2

(d)  ±4

Answer: (c)

27. Find a polynomial f(x) of degree 2 where f(0) = 8, f(1) = 12, f(2) = 18.

(a)  x2 + 3x – 8

(b)  x2 – 3x + 8

(c)  2x2 – x + 3

(d)  x2 + 3x + 8

Answer: (d)

28. Given, P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.4, P(A ∩ B) = 0.3, then  is

(a)  1/3

(b)  1/2

(c)  2/3

(d)  3/4

Answer: (c)

29. The number of complex numbers z such that |z – 1| = |z + 1| = |z – i| equals

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  ∞

(d)  0

Answer: (a)

30. The circles x2 + y2 = 4x + 8y + 5 intersect the line 3x – 4y = m at two distinct points if

(a)  −35 < m < 15

(b)  15 < m < 65

(c)  35 < m < 85

(d)  −85 < m < −35

Answer: (b)

31. If the three point (3q, 0), (0, 3p) and (1, 1) are collinear, then which one is TRUE?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

32. If yʹʹ − 3yʹ + 2y = 0 where y(0) = 1, yʹ(0) = 0 then the value of y at x = log 2 is

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  2

(d)  0

Answer: (d)

33. The solution of the differential equation xdy – ydx = 0 represents a

(a)  parabola

(b)  circle

(c)  hyperbola

(d)  straight line

Answer: (d)

34. If the angles A, B and C are in A.P., then 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

35. Value of  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

36. The sum of n terms of the following series 13 + 33 + 53 + 73+….. is

(a)  n2(2n2 – 1)

(b)  n3(n – 1)

(c)  n3 + 8n + 4

(d)  2n4 + 3n2

Answer: (*)

37. The quadratic equation x2 + 15|x| + 14 = 0 has

(a)  only positive solution

(b)  only negative solutions

(c)  no solution

(d)  both positive and negative solutions

Answer: (c)

38. The coefficient of the (r – 1)th , rth and (r + 1)th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)n are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. The pair (n, r) is

(a)  (6, 3)

(b)  (7, 3)

(c)  (5, 3)

(d)  (5, 1)

Answer: (c)

39. The number of solutions of the equations of the equation tan x + sec x = 2 cos x lying in the interval [0, 2π] is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (c)

40. If the function f(x) satisfy  then  is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  π

Answer: (d)

41. The value of  is

(a)

(b) 

(c)  ex sin x + c

(d)  ex cos x + c

Answer: (a)

42. If ax2 + 4xy + y2 + ax + 3y + 2 = 0 represents a parabola, then a is

(a)  −4

(b)  4

(c)  0

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

43. The value of (tan 70° − tan 50° + tan 10°) is

(a)  2

(b)  √3

(c)  1

(d) 

Answer: (c)

44. If a, b, c, are in A.P. then 3a, 3b, 3c are in

(a)  AP

(b)  GP

(c)  HP

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

45. Variance of the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8 is

(a)  3

(b)  8

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (d)

46. 

(a)  0

(b)  e

(c)  e1

(d)  e2

Answer: (c)

47. 7 persons to be seated in a row. Probability that 2 particular persons to sit next to each other is

(a)  3/7

(b)  2/7

(c)  4/7

(d)  5/7

Answer: (b)

48. 

(a)  π

(b)  −2π

(c)  −π

(d)  2π

Answer: (c)

49. If   and   then α + β = ?

(a)

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

50. The range of the function  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

51. If  then the locus of z = x + iy is

(a)  x − y + 1 = 0

(b)  x − y – 1 = 0

(c)  x + y + 1 = 0

(d)  x + y – 1 = 0

Answer: (d)

52. sin4 x + cos4 x + sin 2x + α = 0 is solvable if

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  −1 ≤ α ≤ 3

(d)  −3 ≤ α ≤ 1

Answer: (d)

53. The inequality  does NOT hold good for which of the following values of x ?

(a)  x < −2

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  x > 4

Answer: (b)

54. If  then the value of Z1 . Z2……∞ is

(a)  1

(b)  −i

(c)  i

(d)  −1

Answer: (d)

55. If the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are in their ratio m : n, then

(a)  mna2 = (m + n)c2

(b)  mnb2 = (m + n) ac

(c)  mnb2 = (m + n)2ac

(d)  mna2 = (m + n)2c2

Answer: (c)

56. The equation (cos p – 1)x2 + (cos p)x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots. Then p lies in

(a)  (0, 2π)

(b)  (−π, 0)

(c) 

(d)  (0, π)

Answer: (c)

57. If   then  is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  xyz

(c)  24xyz(2n – 1) (3n – 1)(4n – 1)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

58. The coefficient of xr(0 ≤ r ≤ n – 1) in the expansion of (x + 3)n – 1 + (x + 3)n 2(x+ 2) + (x + 3)n – 3(x + 2)2 + ….. … + (x + 2)n – 1 is

(a)  nCr(3r – 2r)

(b)  nCr(3n – r – 2n – r)

(c)  nCr(3n + 2n – r)

(d)  nCr(3r + 2r)

Answer: (b)

59. If all permutation of the letters of the word AGAIN are arranged as in dictionary, then fiftieth word is

(a)  NAAGI

(b)  NAGAI

(c)  NAAIG

(d)  NAIAG

Answer: (b)

60. If the system of equations x + 2y – 3z = 1, (p + 2)z = 3, (2p + 1)y + z = 2 is inconsistent then the value of p is

(a)  −2

(b)  0

(c)  2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

61. If sin1 a + sin1 b + sin1 c = π, then 

(a)  a + b + c

(b)  a2b2c2

(c)  2abc

(d)  4abc

Answer: (c)

62. If tan pθ + cos qθ = 0, then general value of θ is

(a) 

(b)

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

63. If Z1, Z2, Z3 are vertices of an equilateral triangle with Z0 its centroid, then Z12 + Z­22 + Z32 = ?

(a)  Z02

(b)  9Z02

(c)  3Z02

(d)  2Z02

Answer: (c)

64. The number of ways in which one or more balls can be selected out of 10 white, 9 green and 7 blue balls is

(a)  892

(b)  881

(c)  891

(d)  879

Answer: (d)

65. The integer k for which the inequality x2 – 2(4k – 1) x + 15k2 – 2k – 7 > 0 is valid for any real x, is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

66. If S1, S2 and S3 denote the sum of first n1, n2, n3 terms of an A.P. respectively, then the value of  is

(a)  S1 + S2 + S3

(b)  2(S1 + S2 + S3)

(c)  (n1 + n2 + n3) (S1 + S2 + S3)

(d)  0

Answer: (d)

67. p ⇒ q can also be written as

(a)  ≈ p ⋀ q

(b)  p ⇒ q ≈ q

(c)  ≈ p ⇒ q

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

68. If (sec α + tan α) (sec β + tan β) (sec γ + tan γ) = tan α tan β tan γ, then the value of (sec α – tan α) (sec β – tan β) (sec γ – tan γ) is

(a)  cot α cot β cot γ

(b)  tan α tan β tan γ

(c)  cot α + cot β + cot γ

(d)  tan α + tan β + tan γ

Answer: (a)

Biology

 

1. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be

(a)  no movement of water

(b)  equilibrium between two cells

(c)  movement of water from cell A to B

(d)  movement of water from cell B to A

Answer: (c)

2. A long day plant flowers only if exposed to alight period

(a)  more than its critical day length

(b)  less than its critical day length

(c)  equal to its critical day length

(d)  slightly less than its critical day length

Answer: (a)

3. The strand of DNA acting as template for mRNA transcription is

I. Coding strand II. non-coding strand III. sense strand

IV. anti-sense strand

Choose the correct one from the codes given below

(a)  I & II

(b)  II and IV

(c)  I and III

(d)  II and III

Answer: (c)

4. Germinal epithelium of ovary has

(a)  cuboidal cells

(b)  columnar cells

(c)  quamous cells

(d)  stratified cells

Answer: (c)

5. Some hormones are given in Column I. Match the source and function with Column II and choose the correct code.

Column I

a. Oxytocin

b. Progesterone

c. Thymus

d. Meltonin

Column II

1. Pineal gland, regulate the circadian behaviour

2. Posterior pituitary, facilitates birth

3. neck region, proliferation and regulation of T-lymphocyte

4. gonads, maintains pregnancy and uterus wall thickening

(a)  a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1

(b)  a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1

(c)  a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

(d)  a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

Answer: (a)

6. How parasympathetic neural signal is associated with heart?

(a)  Both heart and cardiac output increases.

(b)  Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases

(c)  Both heart rate and cardiac output reduce.

(d)  Heart date is increased without affecting the cardiac output.

Answer: (a)

7. DNA fingerprinting is used for the detection of criminals, paternity test etc. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?

(a)  The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprint.

(b)  Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.

(c)  The relative proportions of purine and pyrimidine in DNA

(d)  The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in the blood skin and saliva.

Answer: (b)

8. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?

(a)  First carbohydrate, next fats and lastly proteins

(b)  First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins

(c)  First carbohydrates, n ext proteins and lastly carbohydrates

(d)  First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates

Answer: (a)

9. Duodenum has characteristic Burnner’s gland which secrete two hormones called

(a)  kinase, estrogen

(b)  Secretin, cholecystokinin

(c)  prolactin, parathormone

(d)  estradiol, progesteron

Answer: (b)

10. The richest source of Vit. B12­ is

(a)  goat’s liver and spirulina

(b)  chocolate and green gram

(c)  rice and hen’s egg

(d)  carrot and chicken’s breast

Answer: (a)

11. Which one of the following mammalian cells is NOT capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?

(a)  Unstriated muscle cells

(b)  Liver cells

(c)  Red blood cells

(d)  White blood cells

Answer: (c)

12. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-tuncional, this will advarsely affect

(a)  production of somatostatin

(b)  secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands

(c)  maturation of sperms

(d)  stop movement of foods down the intestine

Answer: (d)

13. Two friends are easting together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing have been due to improper movement of

(a)  epiglottis

(b)  diaphragm

(c)  neck

(d)  tongue

Answer: (a)

14. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i – iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of normal human adult.

Respiratory capacities Respiratory volume

i. Residual volume 2500 ml.

ii. Vital capacity 3500 rnl.

iii. Inspiratory reserve 4500 ml.

Which one of the following is that correct matching of two capacities and volumes?

(a)  (ii) – 2500 ml, (iii) – 4500 ml,

(b)  (iii) – 1200 ml, (iv) – 2500 ml

(c)  -3500ml., (i) – 1200 ml.

(d)  (i) – 4500 ml., (ii) – 3500ml.

Answer: (c)

15. What is TRUE about RBC’s in humans?

(a)  They carry about 20-25 percentage of CO2

(b)  They transport 99.5% of O2.

(c)  They transport about 80% oxygen only and the rest 20% of its is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma.

(d)  They do not carry CO2 at all

Answer: (b)

16. ‘Rh factor’ is related with

(a)  space travel

(b)  blood transfusion

(c)  air pressure

(d)  blood pressure

Answer: (b)

17. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(a)  Complex Q RS-one complete pulse

(b)  Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration

(c)  Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic blood pressure

(d)  Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only

Answer: (c)

18. If due to some injury the chordate tendineae of the tricus pid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

(a)  flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

(b)  The pace maker will stop working.

(c)  blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.

(d)  flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.

Answer: (d)

19. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by

(a)  Juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells)

(b)  macula densa cells

(c)  endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)

(d)  liver cells

Answer: (d)

20. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water will have

(a)  less amino acids in his urine

(b)  more glucose in his blood

(c)  less urea in his urine

(d)  more sodium in his urine

Answer: (c)

21. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates

(a)  Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin

(b)  Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone

(c)  Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

(d)  Posterior pituitary to release vaspressin

Answer: (a)

22. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is

(a)  troponin

(b)  tropomyosin

(c)  myosin

(d)  a-actinln

Answer: (c)

23. In gymnosperm, the pollen chamber represents

(a)  a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed

(b)  a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination

(c)  an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg

(d)  the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop

Answer: (b)

24. Triploblastic unsegmented, acoelomate exhibiting bilateral symmetry and reproducing body asexually and sexually, with some parasitic arms.

The above description is the characteristic of phylum.

(a)  Annelida

(b)  Platyhelminthes

(c)  ctenophora

(d)  Cnidaria

Answer: (b)

25. Proton gradient is very important across the membrane because

(a)  building up of proton gradient release energy

(b)  building up of proton gradient increase the pH towards lumen side of thylakoid membrane

(c)  breakdown of proton gradient release CO2

(d)  breakdown of proton gradient release energy

Answer: (b)

26. In the electron transport system p[resent in the inner mitochondrial membrane, complexes I and IV are respectively.

(a)  NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2

(b)  NADH dehydrogenase and ctyochrom-C oxidase complex

(c)  NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase

(d)  NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome a3

Answer: (b)

27. In haemoglobin, which amino acid acts as a blood buffer?

(a)  Histidine

(b)  Glutamine

(c)  Aspartic acid

(d)  Lysine

Answer: (c)

28. RAS is associated to which of the following hormones?

(a)  Mineralocorticoids

(b)  Glucocorticoids

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

29. Lipids are found in acid insoluble fraction during the analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Give the reason.

(a)  It has very high molecular weight.

(b)  It is polymer.

(c)  On grinding, the biomembranes are broken down into pieces and form insoluble vesicles.

(d)  It has low molecular weight.

Answer: (c)

30. Match the following columns.

Column I                         Column II

a. Bt tobacco                         1. Vitamin-A

b. Lepidopterans                 2. High yield and pest resistance

c. Bt cotton                           3. Manduca sexta

d. Golden rice                       4. Tobacco budworm

(a)  a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

(b)  a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3

(c)  a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1

(d)  a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

Answer: (a)

31. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, B, C, D and E.

Choose the correct option identifying the lebels.

(a)  A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(b)  A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(c)  A-incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

(d)  A-coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis

Answer: (a)

32. In females, the hormone inhibin is secreted by

(a)  granulose and theca cells

(b)  granulose cells and corpus luteum

(c)  granulose and cumulus oophorous cells

(d)  granulose and zona pellucida

Answer: (b)

33. Which of the following Chargaff’s rule is incorrect?

(a)  The DNA molecule has equal A-T and G-C base pairs.

(b)  Purine (A + G) are always equal to pyrimidines (T+C).

(c)  The amount of A is always equal that of ‘T’ and the amount of ‘G’ is always equal to that of C.

(d)  The base ratio A+T/G+C varies for a given species.

Answer: (b)

34. Histones are a set of positively charged proteins which are rich in

(a)  lysine and asparagine

(b)  lysine and arginine

(c)  valine and glutamine

(d)  valine and serine

Answer: (b)

35. Select the correct option

Direction of RNA Synthesis

 

Direction of reading of the template DNA strand.
(a) 6′ → 3′

(b) 3′ → 5′

(c) 5′ → 3′

(d) 3′ → 5′

3′ → 5′

5′ → 3′

5′ → 3′

3′ → 5′

Answer: (b)

36. Volk mann’s canal connects

(a)  Osteocyte with matrix

(b)  different bones

(c)  haversian canal with matrix

(d)  haversian canal with other haversian canals.

Answer: (d)

37. Assertion: A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

Reason : Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELIZA negative cases.

(a)  Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b)  Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(c)  Assertion is true but reason is false

(d)  Both assertion and reason are false.

Answer: (b)

38. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is

(a)  0%

(b)  25%

(c)  50%

(d)  75%

Answer: (b)

39. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man?

(a)  Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon Man

(b)  Peking man, Neanderthal man, Heidelberg man, Cro magnon man

(c)  Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man

(d)  Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man

Answer: (d)

40. The linkage map of a chromosome of Drosophila has 66 units, with yellow body (y) gene at one end bobbed hair (b) gene at other end. What would be the recombination frequency between these two genes ‘Y’ and ‘b’?

(a)  100%

(b)  ≤50%

(c)  66%

(d)  >50%

Answer: (c)

41. A health disorder myxoedema that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adult leads to

I. a low metabolic rate

II. increase in body weight

III. tendency to retain water in tissues

IV. rise in body temperature

Choose the correct code:

(a)  I and IV

(b)  IV only

(c)  II and IV

(d)  I,II, III and IV

Answer: (d)

42. On which part of the brain a ‘drunk’ has the earliest effect?

(a)  Cerebrum

(b)  Pons varolii

(c)  Cerebellum

(d)  Medulla oblongata

Answer: (c)

43. If you were outside for a long time on a hot, dry day without anything to drink, which of the following would happen?

(a)  The production of thyroxin by thyroid gland would increase.

(b)  The osmotic  pressure of blood would decrease.

(c)  The re-absorption of fluids from kidney tubules would decrease.

(d)  The secretion of anty-diuretic hormone from pituitary gland would increase.

Answer: (d)

44. Acid rain is produced by excess

(a)  NO2 and SO2 from burning tossil fuels

(b)  production of NH3 by industries.

(c)  release of CO by incomplete combustion

(d)  formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following combination represents the vector of cloninq capacity of DNA from smaller to bigger?

(a)  BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid

(b)  Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid

(c)  YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid

(d)  Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC

Answer: (d)

46. Group of sporangia or sporophyll is known as

(a)  Inducium

(b)  Prothallus

(c)  Sorus

(d)  Strobilus

Answer: (c)

47. Teichoic acid is found in the cell wall of

(a)  Clostridium

(b)  Salmonella

(c)  Anabaena

(d)  Rhizobium

Answer: (a)

48. If 400 pollengrains are produced in a single monothecus anther then, what was the number of pollen grain mother cells in each of the sporangia?

(a)  200

(b)  100

(c)  50

(d)  25

Answer: (c)

49. Zygospore differs from zoospores by

(a)  being diploid

(b)  being activity motile

(c)  being sexual spore

(d)  helps in dispersal species

(e) does not undergo meiosis before germination.

(a) a, c, and d only

(b)  b, d and e only

(c)  a and c only

(d)  All except b

Answer: (d)

50. How many of t he listed character are NOT indicative Down’s Syndrome?

Big and wrinkled tongue, Gynaeco mastia,

Simple palmerease under developed feminine characters, Broad flat face Azoospermia, Congenital heart disease.

(a)  2

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

51. ‘Myotonic dystrophy’ in human is controlled by

(a)  X linked recessive gene

(b)  X linked dominant gene

(c)  autosomal dominant gene

(d)  autosomal recessive gene

Answer: (c)

52. From the following listed molecules how many are nucleosides?

Thymidylate, Guanosine, Uridine, Cytosine Guanilic acid, Adenosine, Adenylate

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d)  6

Answer: (a)

53. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)  In chlorophyceae the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll a and b.

(b)  In phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll a and b.

(c)  In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll a, d and phycoerythrin.

(d)  Both (a) and (c)

Answer: (d)

54. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as

(a)  squamous epithelium

(b)  columnar epithelium

(c)  ciliated epithelium

(d)  cubical epithelium

Answer: (b)

55. Synaptonemal complex is formed during which stage of meiosis?

(a)  Pachytene

(b)  Diplotene

(c)  Diakinesis

(d)  Zygotene

Answer: (a)

56. Which one of the following is NOT an auto immune disease?

(a)  Grave’s disease

(b)  Addison’s disease

(c)  Rheumatoid arthritis

(d)  Insomnia

Answer: (d)

57. A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be

(a)  a single stranded DNA

(b)  a single stranded RNA

(c)  either RNA or DNA

(d)  can be ss DNA but not ss RNA

Answer: (c)

58. In a strand ECG which one of the following alphabet is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?

(a)  S-Start of systole

(b)  T-Depolarisation of ventricles

(c)  P-depolarisation of the atria

(d)  R-repolarisation of ventricles

Answer: (c)

59. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into

(a)  carbondioxide and water

(b)  carbon dioxide

(c)  methane

(d)  carbondioxide and methane

Answer: (a)

60. Which of the following relations is correct?

(a)  Ψws – Ψp

(b)  Ψw = Ψm + Ψs

(c)  Ψw = Ψs + Ψp

(d)  Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp

Answer: (c)

61. Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of

(a)  ootid in the fallopian tube

(b)  secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube

(c)  primary oocyte in the graffian follicle

(d)  ogonial cell in the graffian tollicle

Answer: (c)

62. Hot spots are the area of in situ conservation. The key criteria for determining a hot spot is/are

(a)  location in developed/undeveloped cavity

(b)  vicinity to the sea

(c)  Number of endemic species and degrees of threat

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following triat is controlled by dominant autosomal genes?

(a)  Polydactyly

(b)  Huntington’s chorea

(c)  PTC (phenyl thio carbamide) tastinq

(d)  All of these

Answer: (b)

64. ——— produced by bacterium streptococcus and modified by genetic engineering is used as a clot buster from removing clots from the blood vessels of patients which have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack.

(a)  Lipase

(b)  Sterptokinase

(c)  Cyclosporine

(d)  Antibiotic streptomycin

Answer: (b)

65. Ectopic pregnancy is

(a)  abnormal growth of the foetus in the womb

(b)  foetus growing half in fallopian tube and half in uterus

(c)  implantation near the cervix

(d)  growth of the foetus outside the uterus

Answer: (d)

66. Which of the following situation will be fatal to first foetus?

(a)  If Rh+ man marries Rh+ woman

(b)  If Rh man marries Rr+ woman

(c)  If Rh+ man marries Rh woman

(d)  If Rh man marries Rh woman

Answer: (c)

67. The placenta of human beings belong to the category of

(a)  haemochorialis

(b)  syndermochorialis

(c)  endotheliochorialis

(d)  epitheliochorialis

Answer: (a)

68. The presence of arginase confirms that

(a)  urea is being produced in excess

(b)  Urea cycle may be operating

(c)  arginine is being converted into ornithine

(d)  arginine is being converted to citrulline

Answer: (b)

OUAT Entrance Test 2017

OUAT Entrance Test Pattern

The Entrance Examination will be of multiple choice question (MCQ) for 200 marks of two hours duration and the medium of Examination will be English. The Entrance Examination will be held on 04.06.2017(10.30 A.M. to 12.30 P.M.). Candidates are to answer Physics, Chemistry and either Mathematics or Biology. There is no negative marks for wrong answer. The subjects of examination and marks distribution are indicated below.

Subjects Marks
Physics 66
Chemistry 66
Mathematics/Biology 68
Total 200

Weightage to Academic Career and Entrance Examination:

Weighted score of candidates will be calculated on the basis of his/her academic
career and Entrance Examination as given below:

a) H.S.C. / equivalent 25%
b) +2 Sc. /equivalent 25%
c) Entrance Examination 50%
Total 100%
Note: 1/4th of the total mark secured in the Entrance Examination

  –
 –
 -*

*i.e. 

© Copyright Entrance India - Engineering and Medical Entrance Exams in India | Website Maintained by Firewall Firm - IT Monteur