2016 O.U.A.T Question with Answer
1. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth ρ re related by which of the following relations ? (Where G is gravitational constant and R is the radius of the earth)
2. When a rubber ball is taken to the bottom of a sea of depth 1400 m, its volume decreases by 2%. The bulk modulus of rubber ball is [density of water is 1 g cc and g = 10 m/s2.]
(a) 7 × 108 N/m2
(b) 6 × 108 N/m2
(c) 14 × 108 N/m2
(d) 9 × 108 N/m2
3. Two cubical blocks identical in dimensions float in water in such a way that 1st block floats with half part immersed in water and second block floats with 3/4 of its volume inside the water. The ratio of densities of the blocks is
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 4
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 1 : 4
4. If T is the surface tension of a fluid, the energy needed to break a liquid drop of radius R into 64 equal drops is:
(a) 6π R2T
(b) π R2T
(c) 12π R2T
(d) 8π R2T
5. A seconds pendulum clock has a steel wire. The clock shows correct time at 25 0c. How much time does the clock lose or gain, in one week, when the temperature is increased to 35 0C?
[αSteel = 1.2 × 10−5/℃]
(a) 321.5 s
(b) 3.828 s
(c) 82.35 s
(d) 36.28 s
6. What is the dimensional formula for thermal resistance?
7. Select the correct statement for work, heat and change in internal energy.
(a) Heat supplied and work done depend on initial and final states
(b) Change in internal energy depends on initial and final state only
(c) Heat and work depend on the path between the two points
(d) All of the above
8. A certain amount of an ideal monoatomic gas needs 20 J of heat energy to raise its temperature by 10℃ at constant pressure. The heat needed for the same temperature rise at constant volume will be
(a) 30 J
(b) 12 J
(c) 200 J
(d) 215.3 J
9. A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat energy which works at source temperature 127℃ and sink temperature 27℃ is 26%, then
(a) It is impossible
(b) It is possible but less probable
(c) It is quite probable
(d) Data are incomplete
10. Select the appropriate property of an ideal gas
(a) Its molecules are infinitesimally small
(b) There are no forces of interaction between its molecules
(c) It strictly obeys the ideal gas laws
(d) All of these
11. By increasing the temperature of a gas by 6℃, its pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then initial temperature of gas is
(a) 1000 K
(b) 1500 K
(c) 2000 K
(d) 750 K
12. A boy is swinging in a swing. If he stand, the time period will
(a) first decrease and then increase
(d) remain same
13. In a simple harmonic wave, minimum distance between particles in same phase always having same speed, is
14. A uniform string resonates with a tuning fork, at a maximum tension of 32 N. If it is divided into two segments by placing a wedge at a distance one-fourth of length from one end, then to resonance with same frequency the maximum value of tension for string will be
(a) 2 N
(b) 4 N
(c) 8 N
(d) 16 N
15. Two equally charged identical small balls kept some fixed distance apart exert a repulsive force F on each other. A similar uncharged ball, after touching one of them is p laced at the mid-point of line joining the two bails. Force experienced by the third ball is
16. What is the amount of charge possessed by 1 kg of electrons ?
(a) 1.76 × 1011C
(b) 1.76 × 10−9C
(c) 1.76 × 10−7C
(d) 1.76 × 10−5C
17. Electric charge Q, Q and −2Q respectively are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side a. Magnitude of the electric dipole moment of the system is
18. Total electric flux associated with unit positive charge in vacuum is
19. If an electric field is given by calculate the electric flux through a surface of area 10 units lying in yz
(a) 100 units
(b) 10 units
(c) 30 units
(d) 40 units
20. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through the same electric potential difference, the ratio of their speeds will become
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4
(d) 4 : 1
21. A capacitor with plate separation d is charged to V volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted between the plates. The potential difference across its terminals becomes
22. A potential difference of 5 V is applied across a conductor of length 10 cm. If drift velocity of electrons is 2.5 × 10−4 m/s, then electron mobility will be
(a) 5 × 10−4 m2 V−1 s−1
(b) 5 × 10−6 m2 V−1 s−1
(c) 5 × 10−2 m2 V−1 s−1
23. A square frame of side l carries a current i. The magnetic field at its centre is B. The same current is passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coils is B’. The ratio of B and B’ is
24. Two small bar magnets are placed in a line at certain distance apart. If the length of each magnet is negligible compared to d, force between them will be inversely proportional to
25. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 the angles of dip in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip then
(a) cot2 ϕ= cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2
(b) tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2
(c) cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2
(d) tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2
26. A metallic ring with a cut is held horizontally and a magnet is allowed to fall vertically through the ring, then the acceleration of this magnet is
(a) equal to g
(b) more than g
(c) less than g
(d) sometimes less and sometimes more than g
27. A copper rod of length l is rotated about one end perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity ω. The induced e.m.f. between it two ends is
(d) 2 Bωl2
28. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10 ohms and an inductance of 2 henry. If an alternating voltage of 120 V and frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current in the circuit would be nearly
(a) 0.32 A
(b) 0.80 A
(c) 0.48 A
(d) 0.16 A
29. If in a plano-convex lens, radius of curvature of convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of the lens is 30 cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will be
30. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in medium A is 2.0 × 108 ms−1 and in medium B is 2.5 × 108 ms−1. The critical angle for which a ray of light going from A to B suffers total internal reflection is
(a) sin−1 1/2
(b) sin−1 2/5
(c) sin−1 4/5
(d) sin−1 3/4
31. Two waves having intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 produce interference. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is equal to
(a) 10 : 8
(b) 9 : 1
(c) 4 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
32. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10−7 The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringe on the same side of central maxima is
(a) 0.65 mm
(b) 1.62 mm
(c) 3.25 mm
(d) 4.88 mm
33. X-rays of wavelength 22 pm are scattered from a carbon target at an angle of 85° to the incident beam. the Compton shift for X-rays is
(a) 2.2 pm
(b) 1.1 pm
(c) 0.55 pm
(d) 4.4 pm
34. The angular speed of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is
(a) directly proportional to n 2
(b) directly proportional to n
(c) inversely proportional to n3
(d) inversely proportional to n
35. Ratio of nuclear radii of 135Cs to 40Ca is
36. The material suitable for making a solar cell is
37. In semiconductors. which of the following relations is correct at thermal equilibrium?
(a) ni = ne = nh
(b) ni2 = nenh
(c) ni = ne/nh
(d) ni = ne + nh
38. The T.V. transmission tower in Delhi has a h eight of 240 m. The distance up to which the broadcast can be received, (taking the radius of earth to be 6.4 × 106 m) is
(a) 100 km
(b) 60 km
(c) 55 km
(d) 50 km
39. Eddy currents are induced when
(a) metal block is kept in a changing magnetic field
(b) metal block is kept in a uniform magnetic field
(c) a coil is kept in a uniform magnetic field
(d) current is passed in a coil
40. A magnetic needle of negligible breadth and thickness compared to its length, oscillates in a horizontal plane with a period T. The period of oscillation of each part obtained on breaking the magnet into n equal parts perpendicular to the length is
41. A proton and an alpha particle enter the same magnetic field which perpendicular to their velocity. If they have same kinetic energy then ratio of radii of their circular path is
(a) 1 : 4
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 4
42. The induced e.m.f. in a coil does NOT depend on
(a) number of turns in the coil
(b) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(c) time of rotation
(d) the resistance of the circuit
43. A current of 10 A is maintained in a conductor of cross-section 1 cm2. If the number density of free electrons 9 × 1028 m−3, the drift velocity of free electrons is
(a) 6.94 × 10−6 m/s
(b) 5.94 × 10−2 m/s
(c) 1.94 × 10−3 m/s
(d) 2.94 × 10−4 m/s
44. If on the x-axis electric potential decreases uniformly from 60 V to 20 V between x = −2 m to x = +2 m, then the magnitude of electric field at the origin
(a) must be 10 V/m
(b) may be greater than 10 V/m
(d) is 5 Vim
45. The dimensions of Planck’s constant equals to that of
(c) angular momentum
46. The focal power of a lens ha the dimensions
47. The position time graphs of two cars A and B are straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis respectively. The ratio of velocities of A and B is
(a) 1 : √2
(b) 1 : 3
(c) √3 : 1
(d) 3 : 1
48. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is
(d) (u + gt)t
49. The position of a body moving along x-axis at time t is given x = (t2 – 4t + 6) m. The distance travelled by body in time interval t = 0 to t = 3 s is
(a) 5 m
(b) 7 m
(c) 4 m
(d) 3 m
50. If the displacement of a particle varies with time as √x = t + 7, then
(a) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t
(b) velocity of the particle is proportional to t2
(c) velocity of t he particle is proportional to t
(d) the particle moves with constant acceleration
51. The potential energy o f a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as
52. If the percentage error in the measurement of momentum and mass of an object are 2% and 3% respectively, then maximum percentage error in the calculated value of its kinetic energy is
53. The velocities of A and B are and .Velocity of B as observed by A is
54. The horizontal ranges described by two projectiles projected at angles (45° − θ) and (45° + θ) from the same point and same velocity are in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 2 : 3
(d) 1 : 2
55. The resultant of two vectors at angle 150° is 10 units and is perpendicular to one vector. The magnitude of the smaller vector is
(a) 10 units
(b) 10√3 units
(c) 10√2 units
(d) 5√3 units
56. If the time of flight of a bullet over a horizontal range R is T, then the angle of projection with horizontal is
57. The momentum p(in kg m/s) of a particle is varying with time t(in s) as p = 2 + 3t2. The force acting on the particles at t = 3s will be
(a) 18 N
(b) 54 N
(c) 9 N
(d) 15 N
58. A block of mass m as shown in figure is pulled by a force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is
(a) 10 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 25 N
(d) 30 N
59. A block of mass 10 kg is released on rough incline plane. Block start descending with acceleration 2 m/s2. Kinetic friction force acting on block is
(take g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 10 N
(b) 20 N
(c) 25 N
(d) 30 N
60. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is l and θ is the angle of string with vertical. The time period of revolution is
61. KE of a body is increased by 44%. What is the percent increase in the momentum?
62. A ball of mass M moving with speed v collides perfectly in elastically with another ball of mass m at ret. The magnitude of impulse imparted to the first ball is
63. If radius of earth becomes n times its present value without change in mass, then duration of day becomes
(d) 24(1 – n2)
64. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin mass less rectangular sheet (1.2 m ×0 m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point
(a) (0.8, 0.6) m
(b) (0.6, 0.8) m
(c) (0.4, 0.4) m
(d) (0.5, 0.6) m
65. As we go from the equator to the poles, value of ‘g’
(a) remains the same
(d) first increases and then decreases
66. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 1.96 m/s2. If it is safe to jump from a h eight of 3 m on the earth, the corresponding height on the planet will be
(a) 3 m
(b) 6 m
(c) 9 m
(d) 15 m
1. The p H value of 10−7 M solution HCl is
(a) equal to 1
(b) equal to 2
(c) less than 7
(d) equal to 0
2. Which causes. the change in the value of equilibrium constant of any equilibria?
(a) Adding of inert gas at constant pressure
(b) Increasing the pressure
(c) Adding of inert gas at constant volume
(d) Decreasing the temperature
3. The no. of H+ in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is
(b) 6.023 × 1028
(c) 6.023 × 1010
(d) 6.023 × 1013
4. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis?
5. If ionic product of water is Kw = 10−16 at 4℃ then a solution with pH = 7.5 at 4℃ will
(a) turn blue litmus red
(b) turn red litmus blue
(c) be neutral to litmus
(d) be alkaline
6. Phosphorous has the oxidation state +3 in
7. The ratio of number of moles of KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 required to oxidize 0.1 mole Sn2+ in acid medium, is
(a) 6 : 5
(b) 5 : 6
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
8. Oxidation numbers of A, B, C are +2, +5 and −2 respectively. Possible formula of compound is
9. Which is NOT the compound of sodium?
(a) Chile salt peter
(b) Salt petre
(c) GIaubere’s salt
(d) Soda ash
10. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?
11. Which allotrope of carbon leads to the formation of bucky ball?
(d) Nano tube
12. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because
(a) aluminium is electron rich
(b) aluminium is having lone pair of electron
(c) aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to complete its octet
(d) aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge
13. C-O bond length is maximum in
14. In which of the following compound Chiral C-atom is present?
15. Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having the volume of unit cell as 132 × 10−24 cm3. If density is 0.92 gcm−3 at a given temperature, then number of H2O molecules per unit cell is
16. The compound produce after the ozonolysis of benzene is
17. C6H5CH2CH3 can be prepared by
(a) Wurtz reaction
(b) Fittig reaction
(c) Wurtz Fittig reaction
(d) Frankland reaction
18. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCl will yield
19. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism?
20. Which of the following crystal is represented by a
a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° ?
21. What is the relation between diamond and graphite?
22. Which of the following is NOT a strong electrolytes?
23. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Electrons enter through cathode in an electrolytic cell.
(b) Electrons leave through anode in an electrolytic cell.
(c) Cations in the electrolytic cell move towards cathode and anions toward anode.
(d) Cations are reduced at anode and anions are oxidized at cathode in an electrolytic cell.
24. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reaction as,
A2+ 2e →A E° = 0.34 V
X → X2+ + 2e E° = 2.37 V
The cell voltage will be
(a) 2.71 V
(b) 2.03 V
(c) −2.71 V
(d) −2.03 V
25. Which of the following is acidic flux?
(d) All of these
26. Extraction of zinc from zinc blend is achieved by
(a) electrolytic reduction
(b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
(d) roasting followed by self-reduction
27. The alloy used in dental filling contains
(a) Ag and Sn
(b) Ag and Sb
(c) Hg, Ag and Sn
(d) Hg, Ag and Sb
28. Which of the following amino acid is optically inactive?
29. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be digested by human body?
(d) All of these
30. Which of the following is water soluble vitamin?
31. An example of natural biopolymer is
32. Which of the following is mixed ketone?
33. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate is obtained by the action of concentrated sodium hydroxide on benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as
(a) Perkin reaction
(b) Cannizzaro reaction
(c) Sandmeyer reaction
(d) Claisen condensation
34. Which is most reactive nucleophile in polar aprotic solvent?
35. An SN3 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a compound always gives
(a) an enantiomer of the substrate
(b) a product with opposite optical rotation
(c) a mixture of diastereomers
(d) a product with 100% inversion
36. Which of the following acts as a poisonous gas?
37. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher under the name pyrene?
(c) CH2 = CH-Cl
(d) Cl-CH = CH-Cl
38. Drugs can be classified on the basis of
(a) Pharmacological effect
(b) drug action
(c) chemical structure
(d) All of these
39. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain fatty acid like
(a) Palmitic acid
(b) Oleic acid
(c) Stearic acid
(d) All of these
40. Which type of detergents are preferably used in liquid dish washing?
(a) Cationic detergent
(b) Anionic detergent
(c) Non-ionic detergent
(d) All of these
41. Biodegradable detergent should have
(a) Phenyl side chain
(b) Aromatic side chain
(c) Normal unbranched side chain
(d) Branched side chain
42. Major point of difference between antiseptic and disinfectant is
(a) antiseptic prevents growth of micro organism
(b) disinfectant kills micro-organism
(c) disinfectant are not safe to be applied to living tissues
(d) Both (A) and (B)
43. Which of the following is NOT a constituent of talcum powder?
(b) Zinc sulphide
(c) Zinc stearate
44. Grignard reagent is suitable reagent for the preparation of which of the following from carbonyl compound?
(a) 1° alcohols
(b) 2° alcohols
(c) 3° alcohols
(d) All of these
45. Phenols can be distinguished from alcohols by
(b) Fehling solution
(c) Tollen’s reagent
(d) 2, 4-DNP
46. In Reimer – Tiemann reaction, the major product is
(a) ortho isomer due to intra molecular H-bonding
(b) meta isomer
(c) para isomer due to symmetry
(d) None of these
47. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
(a) Molarity of solution is independent of temperature.
(b) Molality of solution is independent of temperature.
(c) Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature.
(d) The unit of molality is mol dm−3.
48. The unit of rate constant and rate of reaction are same for
(a) First order
(b) Zero order
(c) Second order
(d) Third order
49. The IUPAC name of phthalic acid is
(a) Benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid
(b) Benzene-1, 4-dioic acid
(c) Cyclo-1, 3,5-trien-1, 2-dioic acid
(d) Benzene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid
50. Which of the following has NO unit ?
(c) Mole Fraction
51. Concentration of glucose in blood is 0.8 gL−1, the molarity of glucose in the blood should be
(a) 5.5 × 10−3
(b) 4.4 × 10−5 M
(c) 5.5 × 10−5 M
(d) 4.4 × 10−3 M
52. Which of the following is the main cause of late discovery of neutron?
(a) Neutron in nucleus moves very fast.
(b) Neutron is highly unstable particle.
(c) Neutron is charge less particle.
(d) All of these
53. For ‘p’ electron, the orbital angular momentum is
54. The partial pressure hydrogen in a flask containing 2g H2 and 32g SO2 is—— of total pressure.
55. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27℃ to 927℃. The root mean square speed of the gas
(a) remains same
(c) gets halved
(d) gets doubled
56. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability of the gas?
(a) H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2
(b) H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2
(c) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2
(d) CO2 < CH4 < H2 < N2
57. Which of the following is largest in size?
(d) All of these
58. The least electronegative element has the following electronic configuration:
59. The group of elements in which the last electron is present in the anti-penultimate shell of atom is called
(a) f-block elements
(b) d-block elements
(c) p-block elements
(d) s-block elements
60. In PO43− ion, no. of bond pair and lone pair of electrons on phosphorous atom respectively are
(a) 5, 1
(b) 4, 1
(c) 3, 1
(d) 5, 0
Answer: (4, 12)
61. At 25℃ and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure?
(a) 569 ml
(b) 365 ml
(c) 265 ml
(d) 621 ml
62. The surface tension of which of the following liquid is maximum?
63. A cylinder contains either ethylene or propylene of 12 ml of gas required 54 ml of oxygen for complete combustion. The gas is
(c) 1 : 1 mixture of two gases
(d) 1 : 2 mixture
64. Calorific value of ethane, in Kj/g if the reaction is 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, ∆H = −6 Kcal
65. Exothermic reaction among the following is
(a) combustion of N2 from NO
(b) decomposition of H2O
(c) conversion of diamond to graphite
(d) dehydrogenation of ethane to ethene
66. When an ideal gas undergoing, expansion in vacuum shows
(a) ∆U = 0
(b) W = 0
(c) q = 0
(d) All of these
1. The number of real solution of the equation is
2. The total number of terms in the expansion of (x + y)100 + (x – y)100 after simplification is
(d) None of these
3. Let A and B be 3 × 3 matrices. The AB = 0 implies
(a) A = 0 and B = 0
(b) |A| = 0 and |B| = 0
(c) either |A| = 0 or |B| = 0
(d) A = 0 or B = 0
4. The derivative of w.r.t. at x = 0 is
5. Three identical dice are rolled. The probability that the same number will appear on each of them is
6. If then is equal to
(a) a non-zero vector
7. If then
8. Two tangents are drawn from the point (−2, −1) to the parabola y2 = 4x. If α be the angle between these tangents, then tan α = ?
10. where p and q are integers, is equal to
11. The value of is ([ ] denotes the greatest integer function)
12. On the interval [0, 1] the function x25(1 – x)75 takes its maximum value at the point
13. The general solution of the differential equation is
(a) xex + c
(c) xe−x + c
14. The area of parallelogram having diagonals and is
(b) 7 sq. units
(c) 5 sq. units
(d) 1 sq. unit
15. If for x ≠ 1 and if f is continuous oat x = 1 then f(1) is
16. If y = logax + logxa + logxx + logaa, then dy/dx =
17. The sin θ of the angle between the straight line and the plane 2x – 2y + z = 5 is
18. Domain of the function
(a) [1, ∞)
(b) (−∞, 6)
(c) [1, 6]
(d) None of these
19. If the mean of a Binomial distribution is 3 and its variance is 3/2, then the number of trials is
(d) None of these
(c) log 2
(d) None of these
21. The integrating factor of differential equation y log y dx = (log y – x) dy is
(b) log(log y)
(c) 1 + log y
22. The value of is
23. The area between the curve y = 1 − |x| and x – ax is equal to
(a) 1 sq. unit
(d) 2 sq. unit
24. The equation of tangent of the curve y = 4e−x/4 at the point where the curve crosses Y-axis is equal to
(a) 3x + 4y = 16
(b) 4x + y = 4
(c) x + y = 4
(d) 4x – 3y = −12
25. The maximum value of z = 10x + 6y subject to constraints x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0, x + y ≤ 12, 2x + y ≤20 is
26. If then k = 0
27. Find a polynomial f(x) of degree 2 where f(0) = 8, f(1) = 12, f(2) = 18.
(a) x2 + 3x – 8
(b) x2 – 3x + 8
(c) 2x2 – x + 3
(d) x2 + 3x + 8
28. Given, P(A) = 0.5, P(B) = 0.4, P(A ∩ B) = 0.3, then is
29. The number of complex numbers z such that |z – 1| = |z + 1| = |z – i| equals
30. The circles x2 + y2 = 4x + 8y + 5 intersect the line 3x – 4y = m at two distinct points if
(a) −35 < m < 15
(b) 15 < m < 65
(c) 35 < m < 85
(d) −85 < m < −35
31. If the three point (3q, 0), (0, 3p) and (1, 1) are collinear, then which one is TRUE?
32. If yʹʹ − 3yʹ + 2y = 0 where y(0) = 1, yʹ(0) = 0 then the value of y at x = log 2 is
33. The solution of the differential equation xdy – ydx = 0 represents a
(d) straight line
34. If the angles A, B and C are in A.P., then
35. Value of is
36. The sum of n terms of the following series 13 + 33 + 53 + 73+….. is
(a) n2(2n2 – 1)
(b) n3(n – 1)
(c) n3 + 8n + 4
(d) 2n4 + 3n2
37. The quadratic equation x2 + 15|x| + 14 = 0 has
(a) only positive solution
(b) only negative solutions
(c) no solution
(d) both positive and negative solutions
38. The coefficient of the (r – 1)th , rth and (r + 1)th terms in the expansion of (x + 1)n are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 5. The pair (n, r) is
(a) (6, 3)
(b) (7, 3)
(c) (5, 3)
(d) (5, 1)
39. The number of solutions of the equations of the equation tan x + sec x = 2 cos x lying in the interval [0, 2π] is
40. If the function f(x) satisfy then is
41. The value of is
(c) ex sin x + c
(d) ex cos x + c
42. If ax2 + 4xy + y2 + ax + 3y + 2 = 0 represents a parabola, then a is
43. The value of (tan 70° − tan 50° + tan 10°) is
44. If a, b, c, are in A.P. then 3a, 3b, 3c are in
(d) None of these
45. Variance of the numbers 2, 4, 6, 8 is
47. 7 persons to be seated in a row. Probability that 2 particular persons to sit next to each other is
49. If and then α + β = ?
50. The range of the function is
51. If then the locus of z = x + iy is
(a) x − y + 1 = 0
(b) x − y – 1 = 0
(c) x + y + 1 = 0
(d) x + y – 1 = 0
52. sin4 x + cos4 x + sin 2x + α = 0 is solvable if
(c) −1 ≤ α ≤ 3
(d) −3 ≤ α ≤ 1
53. The inequality does NOT hold good for which of the following values of x ?
(a) x < −2
(d) x > 4
54. If then the value of Z1 . Z2……∞ is
55. If the roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0 are in their ratio m : n, then
(a) mna2 = (m + n)c2
(b) mnb2 = (m + n) ac
(c) mnb2 = (m + n)2ac
(d) mna2 = (m + n)2c2
56. The equation (cos p – 1)x2 + (cos p)x + sin p = 0, where x is a variable, has real roots. Then p lies in
(a) (0, 2π)
(b) (−π, 0)
(d) (0, π)
57. If then is equal to
(c) 24xyz(2n – 1) (3n – 1)(4n – 1)
(d) None of these
58. The coefficient of xr(0 ≤ r ≤ n – 1) in the expansion of (x + 3)n – 1 + (x + 3)n – 2(x+ 2) + (x + 3)n – 3(x + 2)2 + ….. … + (x + 2)n – 1 is
(a) nCr(3r – 2r)
(b) nCr(3n – r – 2n – r)
(c) nCr(3n + 2n – r)
(d) nCr(3r + 2r)
59. If all permutation of the letters of the word AGAIN are arranged as in dictionary, then fiftieth word is
60. If the system of equations x + 2y – 3z = 1, (p + 2)z = 3, (2p + 1)y + z = 2 is inconsistent then the value of p is
(d) None of these
61. If sin−1 a + sin−1 b + sin−1 c = π, then
(a) a + b + c
62. If tan pθ + cos qθ = 0, then general value of θ is
63. If Z1, Z2, Z3 are vertices of an equilateral triangle with Z0 its centroid, then Z12 + Z22 + Z32 = ?
64. The number of ways in which one or more balls can be selected out of 10 white, 9 green and 7 blue balls is
65. The integer k for which the inequality x2 – 2(4k – 1) x + 15k2 – 2k – 7 > 0 is valid for any real x, is
(d) None of these
66. If S1, S2 and S3 denote the sum of first n1, n2, n3 terms of an A.P. respectively, then the value of is
(a) S1 + S2 + S3
(b) 2(S1 + S2 + S3)
(c) (n1 + n2 + n3) (S1 + S2 + S3)
67. p ⇒ q can also be written as
(a) ≈ p ⋀ q
(b) p ⇒ q ≈ q
(c) ≈ p ⇒ q
(d) None of these
68. If (sec α + tan α) (sec β + tan β) (sec γ + tan γ) = tan α tan β tan γ, then the value of (sec α – tan α) (sec β – tan β) (sec γ – tan γ) is
(a) cot α cot β cot γ
(b) tan α tan β tan γ
(c) cot α + cot β + cot γ
(d) tan α + tan β + tan γ
1. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be
(a) no movement of water
(b) equilibrium between two cells
(c) movement of water from cell A to B
(d) movement of water from cell B to A
2. A long day plant flowers only if exposed to alight period
(a) more than its critical day length
(b) less than its critical day length
(c) equal to its critical day length
(d) slightly less than its critical day length
3. The strand of DNA acting as template for mRNA transcription is
I. Coding strand II. non-coding strand III. sense strand
IV. anti-sense strand
Choose the correct one from the codes given below
(a) I & II
(b) II and IV
(c) I and III
(d) II and III
4. Germinal epithelium of ovary has
(a) cuboidal cells
(b) columnar cells
(c) quamous cells
(d) stratified cells
5. Some hormones are given in Column I. Match the source and function with Column II and choose the correct code.
1. Pineal gland, regulate the circadian behaviour
2. Posterior pituitary, facilitates birth
3. neck region, proliferation and regulation of T-lymphocyte
4. gonads, maintains pregnancy and uterus wall thickening
(a) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
(b) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(c) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(d) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
6. How parasympathetic neural signal is associated with heart?
(a) Both heart and cardiac output increases.
(b) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output reduce.
(d) Heart date is increased without affecting the cardiac output.
7. DNA fingerprinting is used for the detection of criminals, paternity test etc. What is the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
(a) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprint.
(b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments.
(c) The relative proportions of purine and pyrimidine in DNA
(d) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in the blood skin and saliva.
8. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the following organic compounds used up by the body?
(a) First carbohydrate, next fats and lastly proteins
(b) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
(c) First carbohydrates, n ext proteins and lastly carbohydrates
(d) First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates
9. Duodenum has characteristic Burnner’s gland which secrete two hormones called
(a) kinase, estrogen
(b) Secretin, cholecystokinin
(c) prolactin, parathormone
(d) estradiol, progesteron
10. The richest source of Vit. B12 is
(a) goat’s liver and spirulina
(b) chocolate and green gram
(c) rice and hen’s egg
(d) carrot and chicken’s breast
11. Which one of the following mammalian cells is NOT capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide aerobically?
(a) Unstriated muscle cells
(b) Liver cells
(c) Red blood cells
(d) White blood cells
12. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-tuncional, this will advarsely affect
(a) production of somatostatin
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
(c) maturation of sperms
(d) stop movement of foods down the intestine
13. Two friends are easting together on a dining table. One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing some food. This coughing have been due to improper movement of
14. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i – iv) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of normal human adult.
Respiratory capacities Respiratory volume
i. Residual volume 2500 ml.
ii. Vital capacity 3500 rnl.
iii. Inspiratory reserve 4500 ml.
Which one of the following is that correct matching of two capacities and volumes?
(a) (ii) – 2500 ml, (iii) – 4500 ml,
(b) (iii) – 1200 ml, (iv) – 2500 ml
(c) -3500ml., (i) – 1200 ml.
(d) (i) – 4500 ml., (ii) – 3500ml.
15. What is TRUE about RBC’s in humans?
(a) They carry about 20-25 percentage of CO2
(b) They transport 99.5% of O2.
(c) They transport about 80% oxygen only and the rest 20% of its is transported in dissolved state in blood plasma.
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all
16. ‘Rh factor’ is related with
(a) space travel
(b) blood transfusion
(c) air pressure
(d) blood pressure
17. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
(a) Complex Q RS-one complete pulse
(b) Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration
(c) Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic blood pressure
(d) Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only
18. If due to some injury the chordate tendineae of the tricus pid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?
(a) flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.
(b) The pace maker will stop working.
(c) blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.
(d) flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced.
19. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by
(a) Juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells)
(b) macula densa cells
(c) endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(d) liver cells
20. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water will have
(a) less amino acids in his urine
(b) more glucose in his blood
(c) less urea in his urine
(d) more sodium in his urine
21. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
(a) Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin
(b) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(c) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(d) Posterior pituitary to release vaspressin
22. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving ATPase activity is
23. In gymnosperm, the pollen chamber represents
(a) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are formed
(b) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored after pollination
(c) an opening in the megagametophyte through which the pollen tube approaches the egg
(d) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
24. Triploblastic unsegmented, acoelomate exhibiting bilateral symmetry and reproducing body asexually and sexually, with some parasitic arms.
The above description is the characteristic of phylum.
25. Proton gradient is very important across the membrane because
(a) building up of proton gradient release energy
(b) building up of proton gradient increase the pH towards lumen side of thylakoid membrane
(c) breakdown of proton gradient release CO2
(d) breakdown of proton gradient release energy
26. In the electron transport system p[resent in the inner mitochondrial membrane, complexes I and IV are respectively.
(a) NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2
(b) NADH dehydrogenase and ctyochrom-C oxidase complex
(c) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase
(d) NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome a3
27. In haemoglobin, which amino acid acts as a blood buffer?
(c) Aspartic acid
28. RAS is associated to which of the following hormones?
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
29. Lipids are found in acid insoluble fraction during the analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Give the reason.
(a) It has very high molecular weight.
(b) It is polymer.
(c) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken down into pieces and form insoluble vesicles.
(d) It has low molecular weight.
30. Match the following columns.
Column I Column II
a. Bt tobacco 1. Vitamin-A
b. Lepidopterans 2. High yield and pest resistance
c. Bt cotton 3. Manduca sexta
d. Golden rice 4. Tobacco budworm
(a) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(b) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
(c) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
(d) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
31. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, B, C, D and E.
Choose the correct option identifying the lebels.
(a) A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
(b) A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
(c) A-incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
(d) A-coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-Ischium, E-Pubis
32. In females, the hormone inhibin is secreted by
(a) granulose and theca cells
(b) granulose cells and corpus luteum
(c) granulose and cumulus oophorous cells
(d) granulose and zona pellucida
33. Which of the following Chargaff’s rule is incorrect?
(a) The DNA molecule has equal A-T and G-C base pairs.
(b) Purine (A + G) are always equal to pyrimidines (T+C).
(c) The amount of A is always equal that of ‘T’ and the amount of ‘G’ is always equal to that of C.
(d) The base ratio A+T/G+C varies for a given species.
34. Histones are a set of positively charged proteins which are rich in
(a) lysine and asparagine
(b) lysine and arginine
(c) valine and glutamine
(d) valine and serine
35. Select the correct option
|Direction of RNA Synthesis|
|Direction of reading of the template DNA strand.|
|(a) 6′ → 3′|
(b) 3′ → 5′
(c) 5′ → 3′
(d) 3′ → 5′
|3′ → 5′|
5′ → 3′
5′ → 3′
3′ → 5′
36. Volk mann’s canal connects
(a) Osteocyte with matrix
(b) different bones
(c) haversian canal with matrix
(d) haversian canal with other haversian canals.
37. Assertion: A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Reason : Western blotting test is employed for confirmation of ELIZA negative cases.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
38. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability that each of their children will have the disease is
39. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man?
(a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon Man
(b) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Heidelberg man, Cro magnon man
(c) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(d) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man
40. The linkage map of a chromosome of Drosophila has 66 units, with yellow body (y) gene at one end bobbed hair (b) gene at other end. What would be the recombination frequency between these two genes ‘Y’ and ‘b’?
41. A health disorder myxoedema that results from the deficiency of thyroxine in adult leads to
I. a low metabolic rate
II. increase in body weight
III. tendency to retain water in tissues
IV. rise in body temperature
Choose the correct code:
(a) I and IV
(b) IV only
(c) II and IV
(d) I,II, III and IV
42. On which part of the brain a ‘drunk’ has the earliest effect?
(b) Pons varolii
(d) Medulla oblongata
43. If you were outside for a long time on a hot, dry day without anything to drink, which of the following would happen?
(a) The production of thyroxin by thyroid gland would increase.
(b) The osmotic pressure of blood would decrease.
(c) The re-absorption of fluids from kidney tubules would decrease.
(d) The secretion of anty-diuretic hormone from pituitary gland would increase.
44. Acid rain is produced by excess
(a) NO2 and SO2 from burning tossil fuels
(b) production of NH3 by industries.
(c) release of CO by incomplete combustion
(d) formation of CO2 by combustion and animal respiration
45. Which of the following combination represents the vector of cloninq capacity of DNA from smaller to bigger?
(a) BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid
(b) Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid
(c) YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid
(d) Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC
46. Group of sporangia or sporophyll is known as
47. Teichoic acid is found in the cell wall of
48. If 400 pollengrains are produced in a single monothecus anther then, what was the number of pollen grain mother cells in each of the sporangia?
49. Zygospore differs from zoospores by
(a) being diploid
(b) being activity motile
(c) being sexual spore
(d) helps in dispersal species
(e) does not undergo meiosis before germination.
(a) a, c, and d only
(b) b, d and e only
(c) a and c only
(d) All except b
50. How many of t he listed character are NOT indicative Down’s Syndrome?
Big and wrinkled tongue, Gynaeco mastia,
Simple palmerease under developed feminine characters, Broad flat face Azoospermia, Congenital heart disease.
51. ‘Myotonic dystrophy’ in human is controlled by
(a) X linked recessive gene
(b) X linked dominant gene
(c) autosomal dominant gene
(d) autosomal recessive gene
52. From the following listed molecules how many are nucleosides?
Thymidylate, Guanosine, Uridine, Cytosine Guanilic acid, Adenosine, Adenylate
53. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) In chlorophyceae the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll a and b.
(b) In phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll a and b.
(c) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll a, d and phycoerythrin.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
54. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi are known as
(a) squamous epithelium
(b) columnar epithelium
(c) ciliated epithelium
(d) cubical epithelium
55. Synaptonemal complex is formed during which stage of meiosis?
56. Which one of the following is NOT an auto immune disease?
(a) Grave’s disease
(b) Addison’s disease
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
57. A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could be
(a) a single stranded DNA
(b) a single stranded RNA
(c) either RNA or DNA
(d) can be ss DNA but not ss RNA
58. In a strand ECG which one of the following alphabet is the correct representation of the respective activity of the human heart?
(a) S-Start of systole
(b) T-Depolarisation of ventricles
(c) P-depolarisation of the atria
(d) R-repolarisation of ventricles
59. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters change unburnt hydrocarbons into
(a) carbondioxide and water
(b) carbon dioxide
(d) carbondioxide and methane
60. Which of the following relations is correct?
(a) Ψw =Ψs – Ψp
(b) Ψw = Ψm + Ψs
(c) Ψw = Ψs + Ψp
(d) Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp
61. Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of
(a) ootid in the fallopian tube
(b) secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube
(c) primary oocyte in the graffian follicle
(d) ogonial cell in the graffian tollicle
62. Hot spots are the area of in situ conservation. The key criteria for determining a hot spot is/are
(a) location in developed/undeveloped cavity
(b) vicinity to the sea
(c) Number of endemic species and degrees of threat
(d) All of these
63. Which of the following triat is controlled by dominant autosomal genes?
(b) Huntington’s chorea
(c) PTC (phenyl thio carbamide) tastinq
(d) All of these
64. ——— produced by bacterium streptococcus and modified by genetic engineering is used as a clot buster from removing clots from the blood vessels of patients which have undergone myocardial infarction leading to heart attack.
(d) Antibiotic streptomycin
65. Ectopic pregnancy is
(a) abnormal growth of the foetus in the womb
(b) foetus growing half in fallopian tube and half in uterus
(c) implantation near the cervix
(d) growth of the foetus outside the uterus
66. Which of the following situation will be fatal to first foetus?
(a) If Rh+ man marries Rh+ woman
(b) If Rh− man marries Rr+ woman
(c) If Rh+ man marries Rh− woman
(d) If Rh− man marries Rh− woman
67. The placenta of human beings belong to the category of
68. The presence of arginase confirms that
(a) urea is being produced in excess
(b) Urea cycle may be operating
(c) arginine is being converted into ornithine
(d) arginine is being converted to citrulline