Physics

1. In the circuit shown below the readings of the ammeter and voltmeter are

(a)  4A, 10V

(b)  0.4A, 4V

(c)

(d)  4A, 4V

2. If a simple pendulum oscillates with an amplitude 50 mm and time period of 2 s, then its maximum velocity is

(a)  0.10 m/s

(b)  0.15 m/s

(c)  0.8 m/s

(d)  0.16 m/s

3. If the pressure amplitude in a sound wave is doubled, then the intensity of sound is increased by a factor of

(a)  √2

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  0.5

4. The stationary wave produced on a string is represented by the equation  where x and y are in cm and t in second. The distance between consecutive nodes is

(a)  2 cm

(b)  3 cm

(c)  4 cm

(d)  8 cm

5. y = a cos(kx + ωt) super imposes on another wave giving a stationary wave having node at x = 0. The equation of the other wave which superimposes on to it will be

(a)  −a cos(kx – ωt)

(b)  −a cos(kx + ωt)

(c)  −a sin(kx + ωt)

(d)  a cos(kx – ωt)

6. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced then required length of the string is

(a)  62.5 cm

(b)  50 cm

(c)  40 cm

(d)  37.5 cm

7. If a spring extends by x on loading, then the energy stored by the spring will be (if T is the tension in the spring and K is spring constant)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

8. If 8 be the surface tension, the work done in breaking a big drop of radius R into n drops of equal radius is

(a)  Rn23S

(b)  R(n23 – 1)S

(c)  R(n13 – 1)S

(d)  4πR2(n13 – 1)S

9. A thin glass prism (μ = 1.5) is immersed in water (μ = 1.3). If the angle of deviation in air for a particular ray be δ, then that in water will be

(a)  0.6 δ

(b)  0.5 δ

(c)  0.3 δ

(d)  0.2 δ

10. In an astronomical telescope the final image for normal vision is formed at

(a)  the focus of the eye-piece

(b)  the least distance of distinct vision

(c)  the focus of the objective lens

(d)  Infinity

11. To produce a pure spectrum on a screen with the help of a prism, which of the following is not required?

(a)  Narrow slit

(b)  Extended source of light

(c)  Colour filter

(d)  Convex lens

12. Two lenses in contact form an archromatic lens. Their focal lengths are in the 3 : 4. Ratio of their dispersive powers will be

(a)  4 : 3

(b)  1 : 3

(c)  3 : 4

(d)  3 : 1

13. In a movie hall if the distance between the projector and the screen is increased by 2%, illumination on the screen will be

(a)  increased by 4%

(b)  decreased by 4%

(c)  increased by 2%

(d)  decreased by 2%

14. Fraunhoffer’s line commonly visible in the Sun’s spectrum are example of

(a)  line emission spectrum

(b)  the absorption spectrum

(c)  band emission spectrum

(d)  band absorption spectrum

15. The wavelength of the first line of Balmer series of hydrogen atom is λ. The wavelength of the same line in doubly ionized lithium will be

(a)  λ/2

(b)  λ/9

(c)  λ/8

(d)  λ/27

16. If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°, the velocity of light in the medium is

(a)  3 × 108  m/s

(b)  1.5 × 108  m/s

(c)  6 × 108  m/s

(d)  √3 × 108  m/s

17. A radioactive element has a half-life 2 hours. In 8 hours 1 gm of radioactive material is reduced to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

18. Which of the following helps in knowing about the stability, of nucleus?

(a)  Binding energy per nucleon

(b)  Binding energy

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  Neither (A) nor (B)

19. Mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. The binding energy per nucleon for helium will be

(a)  28 MeV

(b)  7 MeV

(c)  4 MeV

(d)  1 MeV

20. When a metal with work function of 0.6 eV is illuminated with the light of 2 eV, the necessary stopping potential for the metal will be

(a)  2.6 V

(b)  3.6 V

(c)  0.8 V

(d)  1.4 V

21. If W1, W2, and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown in the gravitational field of a point mass m, find the correct relation between W1, W2 and W3.

(a)  W1 = W2 = W3

(b)  W1 > W2 > W3

(c)  W1 < W2 < W3

(d)  W2 > W1 > W3

22. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force F of 2.5 newton is applied on the block as shown in the figure,

the frictional force between the block and the floor will be

(a)  10 N

(b)  7.84 N

(c)  5 N

(d)  2.5 N

23. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by  and  respectively. The ratio of their amplitudes will be

(a)  2

(b)

(c)

(d)  1

24. A body starting from rest moves along a straight line with a constant acceleration. The variation of speed (v) with distance (S) is represented by the graph

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

25. Specific heat at constant pressure is greater than the specific heat at constant volume. The reason behind this statement is

(a)  heat is used up to increase temperature at constant pressure

(b)  heat is used by gas for expansion oat constant pressure

(c)  heat is used to increase internal energy

(d)  None of the above statements are true

26. The absolute zero is temperature at which

(a)  molecular motion ceases

(b)  water freezes quickly

(c)  all the substances exit in solid state

(d)  solid, liquid and gaseous state of a body exist simultaneously

27. The freezing point of water is marked in a faulty thermometer as 20℃ and boiling points as 150℃. A thermometer at 60℃ will be shown as

(a)  78℃

(b)  98℃

(c)  150℃

(d)  130℃

28. What is the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about an axis parallel to its diameter and at a distance R/2 from the centre?

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

29. If we dip capillary tubes of different radii r in water and water rises to different heights h in them, then

(a)  h/2= constant

(b)  h/r = constant

(c)  hr = constant

(d)  hr2 = constant

30. In old age arteries carrying blood in the human body become narrow resulting in an increase in the blood pressure. This follows from

(a)  Pascal’s Law

(b)  Stoke’s Law

(c)  Bernoull’s Principle

(d)  Archimedes Principle

31. An ideal engine exhausting heat at 77℃ is to have a 30% efficiency. It must take heat at

(a)  127℃

(b)  227℃

(c)  327℃

(d)  673℃

32. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is 4 × 103 m and the distance of the screen from the p lane of the slit is 2 m. Light of wavelength in the range 2000 Å to 8000 Å is allowed to fall on the slits. The wavelength that will be present on the screen at 5 × 103 m from the central maximum is

(a)  3500 Å

(b)  2500 Å

(c)  4500 Å

(d)  6500 Å

33. A composite slab consists of two parts of equal thickness. The thermal conductivity of one is twice that of the other. What will be the ratio of temperature difference across the two layers in the state of equilibrium ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

34. Amongst the following which quantity is not dimensionless?

(a)  Relative permeability

(b)  Relative density

(c)  Relative permittivity

(d)  Relative velocity

35. A wooden rod cannot float vertically in a pond of water because

(a)  centre of gravity lies above the metacentre

(b)  centre of gravity lies below the metacentre

(c)  density of wood is less than that of water

(d)  None of the above

36. Two rods, one of copper and the other made of aluminium, having initial length l1 and l2 are connected together to form a single rod of length l1 + l2. The coefficient of linear expansion for copper and aluminium are α1 and α2 If the length of each rod increases by the same amount when their temperature are raised by t℃, then the ratio  will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

37. A particle undergoes uniform circular motion. About which point on the plane of the circle, will the angular momentum of the particle remain conserved?

(a)  Centre of the circle

(b)  On the perimeter of the circle

(c)  Inside the circle

(d)  Outside the circle

38. Gas thermometers are more sensitive than the liquid thermometers because they

(a)  are lighter

(b)  have low specific heat

(c)  have high specific heat

(d)  have large coefficient of expansion

39. In which of the process, internal energy of system remains constant ?

(a)  Isothermal

(b)  Isochoric

(c)  Isobaric

40. What is the thermal capacity of one gram water when it is at the boiling point ?

(a)  Zero

(b)  Infinity

(c)  1 cal/K

(d)  540 cal/K

41. The percentage of fissionable mass in uranium 235 is

(a)  0.1%

(b)  0.2%

(c)  0.7%

(d)  None of these

42. A wooden log of mass M and length L is hanged vertically down by a frictionless nail. A bullet of mass m strikes with velocity v and sticks to it. Just after the collision about the nail the angular velocity of the system will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

43. The dimensional formula of emf in MKS is

(a)  ML2T2Q1

(b)  ML23T2Q2

(c)  MLT2Q1

(d)  ML1T2Q2

44. If  and given that    then angle between  will be.

(a)  75°

(b)  60°

(c)  45°

(d)  30°

45. A vector is represented by  Its length in XY plane is

(a)  √5

(b)  √10

(c)  √14

(d)  2

46. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/h in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the river in km/h is

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  √21

(d)  1

47. A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of 600 rpm. Assuming 40% efficiency the work done by the motor in one rotation will be

(a)  7.46 J

(b)  7400 J

(c)  7.46 erg

(d)  74.6 erg

48. A space craft of mass ‘m’ and moving with velocity ‘v’ suddenly breaks into two pieces of same mass ‘m’. After the explosion one of the mass ‘m’ becomes stationary. The velocity of the other part of the craft will be

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

49. If R is the radius of a planet, g is the acceleration due to gravity, then the mean density of the planet is given by

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

50. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is

(a)  2.4

(b)  1.2

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.2

51. Pressure exerted by a gas is

(a)  independent of density of the gas

(b)  inversely proportional to the density of the gas

(c)  directly proportional to the square of the density of the gas

(d)  directly proportional to the density of the gas

52. A thin concave and a thin convex lenses are in contact. The ratio of the magnitude of power of two lenses is 2/3 and focal length of combination is 30 cm, then the focal lengths of individual lenses are

(a)  75 cm, 50 cm

(b)  −75 cm, 50 cm

(c)  75 cm, −50 cm

(d)  −15 cm, 10 cm

53. A bob of mass M is suspended by a masless string of length L. The horizontal velocity V at position A is just sufficient to make it reach the point B. The angle θ at which the speed of the bob is half of t hat at A, satisfies

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

54. An alpha particle having kinetic energy of 10 MeV is moving towards a stationary nucleus of atomic n umber 50. The distance of closest approach will be

(a)  1.44 × 1015 m

(b)  14.4 × 1015 m

(c)  1.44× 1013 m

(d)  14.4 × 1016 m

55. The electrostatic potential V at any point (x, y, z) in space is given by V = 4x2

(a)  The Y and Z components of electrostatic field at any point is zero

(b)  The x-component of the electrostatic field at any points is given by

(c)  The x-component at a point (1, 0, 2) is

(d)  All the above (a), (b), (c) are correct

56. The law of equipartition of energy is applicable to the system whose constituents are

(a)  in random motion

(b)  in orderly motion

(c)  at rest

(d)  moving with constant speed

57. In a Wheatstone’s bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. The resistance of the galvanometer arm is also R. The equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is

(a)  R/2

(b)  R

(c)  2R

(d)  R/4

58. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time T1 and another heater boils the same water in time T2. If both are connected in series water boils in time

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

59. A proton is rotating along a circular path with kinetic energy K in an uniform magnetic field B. If the magnetic field is mad four times, then the kinetic energy of the rotation proton will be

(a)  16 K

(b)  8 K

(c)  4 K

(d)  K

60. A galvanometer may be converted in to ammeter or a voltmeter. In which of the following the resistance of the device so obtained will be largest?

(a)  Voltmeter of range 10 V

(b)  Voltmeter of range 1V

(c)  Ammeter of range 10 A

(d)  Ammeter of range 1 A

61. A wire of certain length carries a steady current. It is first bent to form a circular coil of one turn. The same wire is next bent to form a circular coil the three turns. The ratio of magnetic inductions at the centre of the coil in the two cases is

(a)  1 : 9

(b)  9 : 1

(c)  3 : 1

(d)  1 : 3

62. 5 m long wire carries a current 5A. It experiences a force 7.5 N when place in uniform magnetic field of intensity 2T. The angle between the magnetic field and direction of current is

(a)  90°

(b)  60°

(c)  45°

(d)  30°

63. The equation of an A.C. signal is represented by V = V0 sin ω In what time the voltage will be half of the maximum value starting from initial time t = 0.

(a)  t/12

(b)  t/8

(c)  t/6

(d)  t/4

64. In insulators

(a)  valence band is partially filled with electrons

(b)  conduction band is partially filled with electrons

(c)  conduction band is filled with electrons and valence band is empty

(d)  conduction band is empty and valence band is filled with electrons

65. In the depletion region of an unbiased p-n junction diode, there are

(a)  only electrons

(b)  only holes

(c)  both electrons and holes

(d)  None of these

66. A vertical copper disc of diameter 40 cm makes 30 revolutions per second about a horizontal axis passing through its centre. A uniform field 102 Wb/m2 acts perpendicular to the plane of the disc. Potential difference developed between the centre of the disc and rim of disc is

(a)  5.472 × 102 V

(b)  1.432 × 102 V

(c)  3.768 × 102 V

(d)  6.973× 102 V

Chemistry

1. The double helical structure of DNA is due to

(a)  phosphodiester bond

(b)  hydrogen bond

(c)  covalent bond

(d)  electrostatic force of attraction

2. According to Faraday’s second law, the mass deposited on the electrode is directly proportional to

(a)  charge of ion

(b)  atomic mass

(c)  atomic mass × charge of the ion

(d)  atomic mass / charge of the ion

3. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide and an alkyne. The bromoalkane and alkyne respectively are

(a)  BrCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ CH

(b)  BrCH2 CH2CH3 and CH3 CH2 CH2C ≡ CH

(c)  Br CH2 CH2CH2 CH2 CH3 and CH3C ≡ CH

(d)  Br CH2CH2 CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ C

4. What type of hybridization is considered on I in IF7 ?

(a)  sp3d

(b)  dsp3

(c)  sp3d3

(d)  d2sp3

5. Ethylene can be separated from acetylene by passing the mixture through

(a)  fuming H2SO4

(b)  pyrogallol

(c)  ammoniacal Cu2Cl2

(d)  charcoal powder

6. Electron is an alloy of

(a)  Mg and Zn

(b)  Fe and Mg

(c)  Ni and Zn

(d)  Al and Zn

7. The oxidant which is used as an antiseptic is

(a)  KBrO3

(b)  KMnO4

(c)  CrO3

(d)  KNO3

8. The catalyst used for olefin polymerization is

(a)  Ziegler-Natta catalyst

(b)  Wilkinson catalyst

(c)  Raney Ni catalyst

(d)  Merrifield resin

9. In which of the following reactions new C-C bond is not formed ?

(a)  Cannizzaro reaction

(b)  Wurtz reaction

(c)  Aldol reaction

(d)  Friedel Craft reaction

10. In a borax bead test, the brown colour is due to

(a)  Cr

(b)  Co

(c)  Mn

(d)  Fe

11. Shape of carbon dioxide is

(a)  tetrahdedral

(b)  trigonal

(c)  bent

(d)  linear

12. Lunar caustic is

(a)  AgCl

(b)  AgNO3

(c)  NaOH

(d)  KNO3

13. Tollens reagent can be used to detect

(a)  (CH3)2CHOH

(b)  CH3COCH3

(c)  CH3CH2CHO

(d)  CH3OCH3

14. Which amine of the following will not respond to carbylamines test?

(a)  Ethylamine

(b)  Methylamine

(c)  Dimethylamine

(d)  Phenylamine

15. Which base is found only in the nucleotide of RNA ?

(b)  Uracil

(c)  Guanine

(d)  Cystosine

16. The purest coal is

(a)  anthracite

(b)  bituminous

(c)  peat

(d)  lignite

17. Seaweed is an important source of

(a)  Cl2

(b)  I2

(c)  F2

(d)  Br2

18. Which of the following is not a lewis acid ?

(a)  BF3

(b)  AlCl3

(c)  SnCl4

(d)  CCl4

19. Cannizzaro reaction is not given by

(a)  trietylacetaldehyde

(b)  acetaldehyde

(c)  benzaldehyde

(d)  formaldehyde

20. German silver is

(b)  an alloy of silver

(c)  an alloy of Cu

(d)  a silvery white paint

21. Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline solution of sulphide ions produces purple coloration due to formation of

(a)  Na[Fe(H2O)5NOS]

(b)  Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

(c)  Na3[Fe(CN)5NOS]

(d)  Na4[Fe(H2O2)5NOS]

22. Baeyer’s reagent is

(a)  alkaline KMnO4 solution

(b)  acidified KMnO4 solution

(c)  neutral KMnO4 solution

(d)  aqueous Br2 solution

23. Which of the following is the hardest substance ?

(a)  Steel

(b)  Graphite

(c)  Silicon

(d)  Diamond

24. An important mineral for Mg is

(a)  malachite

(b)  cassiterite

(c)  carnalite

(d)  galena

25. It is possible to distinguish between optical isomers by

(a)  IR spectroscopy

(b)  mass spectroscopy

(c)  melting pint determination

(d)  polarimetry

26. Which of the following is used in radiocarbon dating?

(a)  C12

(b)  C11

(c)  C13

(d)  C14

27. The number of d-electrons in Cr[(H2O)6]3+ ion is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  5

28. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of following orbitals ?

(a)  sigma-sigma

(b)  sigma-pi

(c)  pi-pi

(d)  pi-d

29. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

(a)  4-bromo-3-cyanophenol

(b)  2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile

(c)  2-cyano-4-hyroxybromobenzene

(d)  6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile

30. Among the following compounds, the most acidic is

(a)  p-nitrophenol

(b)  p-hydroxybenzoic acid

(c)  o-hydroxybenzoic acid

(d)  p-toluic acid

31. The bond energy (Kcal mol1) of C-C single bond is approximately

(a)  1

(b)  10

(c)  100

(d)  1000

32. In the reaction

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

33. In self-reduction, the reducing species is

(a)  S

(b)  O2

(c)  S2

(d)  SO3

34. Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Fe3+, Ni2+, Zn2+, Pb2+, Cu2+ ions in an acidified aqueous solution precipitates

(a)  Pb2+, Cu2+

(b)  Fe3+, Ni2+

(c)  Ni2+, Cu2+

(d)  Zn2+, Pb2+

35. On increasing the temperature of the source and sink of an engine working in a Carnot’s cyclic process, the efficiency of the engine

(a)  decreases

(b)  increases

(c)  remains unaltered

(d)  may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the working substance

36. For the reaction 2A + B → Products, doubling the initial concentration o f both the reactants increases the rate by a factor of 8 and doubling the concentration of B alone doubles the rate. The order of the reaction with respect to A and B are respectively

(a)  one and two

(b)  two and one

(c)  one and one

(d)  two and two

37. An example of thermosetting plastic is

(a)  PVC

(b)  Nylon

(c)  Polythene

(d)  Bakelite

38. Which of the following is not a green house gas ?

(a)  Carbon dioxide

(b)  water vapour

(c)  Sulphur dioxide

(d)  Ozone

39. Minamata disease is related to

(a)  Pb

(b)  As

(c)  Cd

(d)  Hg

40. To prepare a 100 ml. standard solution of 0.01 N strength of oxalic acid (C2H2O4 ∙ 2H2O), the amount of oxalic acid required is

(a)  0.126 g

(b)  0.63 g

(c)  0.063 g

(d)  0.0063 g

41. Heavy water

(a)  contains dissolved Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions

(b)  contains dissolved Ca2+ ions only

(c)  is water with maximum density at 4℃

(d)  is made up of 1H2 and 8O16 atoms

42. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3] is

(a)  +2

(b)  +4

(c)  +1

(d)  +3

43. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4] are

(a)  geometrical isomers

(b)  optical isomers

(d)  ionization isomers

44. In which of the following molecule hydrogen bridge bond is present?

(a)  Water

(b)  Hydrogen peroxide

(c)  Formaldehyde

(d)  Diborane

45. The bond order of NO molecule is

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  2.5

(d)  1.5

46. CO2 i s isostructural with

(a)  C2H2

(b)  HgCl2

(c)  NO2

(d)  NH3

47. Complete the following equation.

92U238 + – – – – – → 94PU241 + 0n1

(a)  0n1

(b)  1D2

(c)  1H1

(d)  2He4

48. The equilibrium constant (K) of a reaction may be written as :

(a)  K = exp(−∆G/RT)

(b)  K = exp(−∆G0/RT)

(c)  K = exp(−∆A/RT)

(d)  K = exp(−∆H0/RT)

49. For the reaction 2CO + O2 ↔ 2CO2, the relation between Kp and kc is

(a)  Kp = Kc

(b)  Kp = KcRT

(c)  Kp > Kc

(d)  Kp = Kc/RT

50. Among the following compounds which is paramagnetic ?

(a)  C2

(b)  N2

(c)  CO

(d)  O2

51. The state of hybridization and structure of XeF4 is

(a)  sp3, tetrahedral

(b)  dsp2, square  planar

(c)  sp3d2, square planar

(d)  sp3d2, octahedral

52. For a process of vaporization at constant temperature and pressure, the correct set of thermodynamic parameter is

(a)  ∆G > 0, ∆S = 0

(b)  ∆G = 0, ∆S = 0

(c)  ∆G < 0, ∆S > 0

(d)  ∆G = 0, ∆S > 0

53. For a certain first order reaction t1/2 = 100 sec. The rate constant for the reaction is

(a)  6.93 × 102 s1

(b)  6.93 × 103 s1

(c)  6.93 × 102 s1

(d)  6.93 × 103 s1

54. ZnO is white when cold while it is yellow when hot, due to

(a)  Nonstoichiometric crystal defect

(b)  Schottky defect

(c)  Frenkel defect

(d)  impurity

55. The IUPAC nomenclature of the complex [Pt(NH3)6][PtCl4] is

(a)  Hexaamineplatinum (II) tetrachloroplatinum(II)

(b)  Hexaammoniumplatinum(II)  tetra-chloroplatinate(II)

(c)  Hexaammineplatinum(II) tetrachlorineplatinate(II)

(d)  Hexaammineplatinum(II) tetrachloroplatinate(II)

56. The shape and magnetic properties of complexes [NiCl4]2, [Ni(CN)4]2, Ni(CO)4 respectively are

(a)  tetrahedral & paramagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic

(b)  tetrahedral & paramagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic, tetrahedral & diamagnetic

(c)  tetrahedral & paramagnetic, tetrahedral & diamagnetic tetrahedral & diamagnetic

(d)  square planar & paramagnetic, square3 planar & diamagnetic, square planar & diamagnetic

57. The amount of N­2 liberated at STP on dissociation of 8 gm of NH4NO2 is

(a)  3.8 litre

(b)  22.4 litre

(c)  4 litre

(d)  2.8 litre

58. How many electrons have the total charge of 1 coulomb ?

(a)  6.023 × 1023

(b)  6.023 × 1023

(c)  6.24 × 1018

(d)  1.602 × 1019

59. Copper reacts with concentrated HNO2 to give

(a)  NO2

(b)  NO

(c)  N2O

(d)  N2

60. Milk is a colloid where dispersed phase is

(a)  solid and dispersion medium is liquid

(b)  liquid and dispersion medium is solid

(c)  liquid and dispersion medium is liquid

(d)  solid and dispersion medium is solid

61. When ammonia is passed over heated cupric oxide the gas produced is

(a)  N2O

(b)  NO

(c)  NO2

(d)  N2

62. 1 ml. of an HCl solution of pH 5 is diluted to 1 litre. The pH of the r esulting solution is

(a)  8

(b)  6.9

(c)  5

(d)  7

63. In a saturated solution of CaF2, the concentration of F ion is 0.0067 g/litre. Find out the solubility product of CaF2.

(a)  2.19 × 107

(b)  0.00228

(c)  5.78 × 105

(d)  3.2 × 1011

64. The reason for non-ideality of real gases is due to

(a)  intermolecular force of attraction

(b)  a finite volume of the gas molecules that reduces the effective volume of the container

(c)  intermolecular force of attraction and a finite volume of the gas molecules that reduces the effective volume of the container

(d)  intermolecular force of attraction

65. Which of the following orders regarding ionization energy is correct ?

(a)  N < O < F

(b)  N > O > F

(c)  N < O > F

(d)  N > O < F

Mathematics

1. If  then

(a)  a = 1, b = c

(b)  a = 1, c = 1

(c)  b = 1, c = a

(d)  b = 2, c = 2a

2. If a force  is acting at the point P(1, −1, 3) then the moment of   about the point Q(2, −1, 3) is

(a)

(b)

(c)  12

(d)  17

3. If  are three non-zero vectors such that  then the value of  is

(a)  greater than zero

(b)  less than zero

(c)  equal to zero

(d)  3

4. If 15Pr–1 : 16Pr – 2 ­= 3 : 4, then r is equal to

(a)  8

(b)  14

(c)  12

(d)  10

5. The number of triangles can be drawn through n given points on a circle is

(a)  nC3

(b)  (n(C3 – n)

(c)  n

(d)  n – 3

6. A polygon has 54 diagonals. Number of sides of this polygon is

(a)  12

(b)  15

(c)  16

(d)  9

7. is equal to

(a)  −2

(b)  −1/2

(c)  1/2

(d)  5/2

8.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

9. is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

10. The number of ways 6 rings of different types can be had in four fingers, is

(a)  64

(b)  46

(c)  6P4

(d)  6C4

11. is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

12. is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  2

(d)     0

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  2

(d)     0

13. then f ‘(x) is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

14. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x – x2 and the straight line y = −x is

(a)  9/2

(b)  35/6

(c)  43/6

(d)  13/4

15. The area bounded by the curve y = x sin x and the x-axis between x = 0 and x = 2π is

(a)  2π

(b)  3π

(c)  4π

(d)  π

16. The solution of the equation  is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

17. The solution of (x + y) dx + (y – x)dy= 0 is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

18. The solution of  is

(a)  2y sin x – cos 2x = c

(b)  2y sin x +  cos 2x = c

(c)  2y = sin x cos 2x + c

(d)  2y sin x = c cos 2x

19. If (x2 – ay) – (ax – y2) dy = 0 and y(0) = 0, then

(a)  x3 + y3 + 3axy = 0

(b)  x3 + y3 – 3axy = 0

(c)  x3 + y3 + 3axy(x + y) = 0

(d)  x3 – y3 – 3axy = 0

20. If the straight line x + y = a is tangent to the ellipse  then the value of a is

(a)  ±6

(b)  ±10

(c)  ±5

(d)  ±25

21. The equation of normal to the curve 2y = (3 – x2) at x = 1, is

(a)  x + y = 0

(b)  x + y + 1 = 0

(c)  x – y + 1 = 0

(d)  x – y = 0

22. The locus of the mid-points of the portion of the line x cos θ + y sin θ = a intercepted between the axes, is

(a)  x2 + y2 = 4a2x2y2

(b)  a2(x2 + y2) = 4x2y2

(c)  x2 + y2 = a2

(d)  x2 + y2 = 4a2

23. The distance between the lines 4x + 3y = 9 and 8x + 6y = 15, is

(a)  3

(b)  0.3

(c)  0.6

(d)  6

24. The angle between the pair of lines x2(cos2θ – 1) + y2 sin2 θ – xy sin2 θ = 0, is

(a)  π/3

(b)  π/4

(c)  2π/3

(d)  π/2

25. The value of K for which the circles x2 + y2 – 4x – Ky – 12 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 6x + 4y – 12 = 0 cut orthogonally, is

(a)  K = 3

(b)  K = 4

(c)  K = 6

(d)  K = −2

26. If (2, 0) is the vertex and y-axis the directrix of a parabola, then the focus is

(a)  (2, 0)

(b)  (−2, 0)

(c)  (4, 0)

(d)  (−4, 0)

27. The eccentricity of the hyperbola 9x2 – 16y2 = 144, is

(a)  5/4

(b)  9/7

(c)  11/2

(d)  16/9

28. The foot of the perpendicular from the point (7, 14, 5) to the plane 2x + 4y – z = 2, is

(a)  (1, 2, 8)

(b)  (2, 1, 5)

(c)  (7, 2, 8)

(d)  (1, 14, 8)

29. If P(−1, 4, −3) i s one end of a diameter PQ of the sphere x2 + y2 + z2 – 3x – 2y + 2z – 15 = 0, then the coordinates of Q, are

(a)  (−2, 4, −1)

(b)  (−4, 2, 1)

(c)  (4, 2, −1)

(d)  (4, −2, 1)

30. A coin is tossed 5 times. The probability that the tail appears an odd number times, is

(a)  3/5

(b)  1/3

(c)  1/2

(d)  2/15

31. If A and B are two events such that P(A) > 0 and P(B) ≠ 1, then  is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

32. The maximum value of z = 5x1 + 7x2, subject to x1 + x2 ≤ 4, 3x1 + 8x2 ≤ 24, 10x1 + 7x2 ≤ 35, x1, x2 ≥ 0, is

(a)  17.5

(b)  25.1

(c)  24.8

(d)  21

33. A company produces 2 types of hats. Every hat A requires twice as much labour time as the second hat B. If the company produces only hat B, then it can produce a total of 500 hats a day. The market limits daily sales of hat A and B to 150 and 250 respectively. The profit on hat A and B are Rs. 8 and Rs. 5 respectively. The optimal solution by graphical method is

(a)  (120, 220)

(b)  (125, 250)

(c)  (220, 100)

(d)  (130, 230)

34. The length of a minute pointer of a watch is 12 cm. The distance travelled by the pointer in 40 minutes, is

(a)  20π cm

(b)  4 π/3cm

(c)  10 cm

(d)  None of these

35. The value of sin 50° − sin 70° + sin 10° is

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  0

(d)  1/4

36. Let R be the set of all real numbers. Then

(a)  (R, +) as well as (R, ×) is a group

(b)  (R, +) is a group but (R, ×) is not a group

(c)  (R, ×) is a group but (R, +) is not a group

(d)  None of these

37. Let G be the set of all 2 × 2 matrices over the field or real numbers. Then

(a)  (G, ×) is an abelian group

(b)  (G, ×) is a non-abelian group

(c)  (G, ×) is not a group

(d)  None of these

38. Let G be a group of order n and a ∈ G such that O(a) = m. Then

(a)  m > n

(b)  m ≥ n

(c)  m ≤ n

(d)  m = n

39. The order of the permutation  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d)  3

40. Let V be a vector space over the field F. Let 0 ≠ α ∈ V and 0 ≠ a ∈ Then

(a)  a1 as well as α1 exist

(b)  a1 exists but α1 does not exist

(c)  α1 exists but a1 does not exist

(d)  None of these

41.

(a)  ±(3 + 4i)

(b)  ±(3 – 4i)

(c)  ±(4 + 3i)

(d)  ±(4 − 3i)

42. i104 + i100 + i114 + i110 is equal to

(a)  0

(b)  −1

(c)  i

(d)  −i

43. For any complex number z, the minimum value of |z| + |z – 1| is

(a)  1/2

(b)  3/2

(c)  0

(d)  1

44. The complex number (sin x + i cos 2x) and (cos x – i sin 2x) are conjugate to each other for

(a)  x = 0

(b)  x = nπ

(c)

(d)  no value of x

45. If A and B are two matrices such that A + B and AB are both defined.

(a)  both are null matrices

(b)  both are identity matrices

(c)  both are square matrices of the same order

(d)  None of these

46. If  then for every positive integer n, An is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

47. The matrix  is nilpotent of index

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  4

(d)  6

48. If A is a symmetric matrix, then A3 is

(a)  symmetric

(b)  skew-symmetric

(c)  scalar

(d)  None of these

49. If  and f(x) = 2x2 – 4x + 5, then f(A) is equal to

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

50. If A is a 3-rowed square matrix, then |adj(adj(A)| is equal to

(a)  |A|6

(b)  |A|3

(c)  |A|4

(d)  |A|2

51. If the points (x1, y1), (x2, y2) and (x3, y3) are collinear, then the rank of the matrix  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  less than 3

52. The eigvenvalues of a Skew-Hermitian matrix are

(a)  real or zero

(b)  purely imaginary or zero

(c)  of unit modulus

(d)  None of these

53. If  and (aI2 + bA)2 = A, then

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

54. If ω is an imaginary cube root of unity, then the value of  is

(a)  1

(b)  ω

(c)  ω2

(d)  0

55. If a, b, c be positive real numbers, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  positive

(c)  negative

(d)  a perfect square

56. The value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  abc

(c)  a2b2c2

(d)  4a2b2c2

57. For the positive numbers x, y, z the numerical value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  log x + log y + log z

(d)  log(x + y + z)

58. If |A| = 2 and A is a 2 × 2 matrix, the value of det[adj {adj(adj A2)}] is

(a)  4

(b)  16

(c)  64

(d)  128

59. The existence of the unique solution of the system x + y + z = b, 2x + 3y – z = 6, 5x – y + az = 10 depend on

(a)  b only

(b)  a only

(c)  a and b

(d)  neither a nor b

60.

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  e

(d)  1/e

61.

(a)  −2

(b)  4

(c)  8

(d)  −8

62.

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d)  Does not exist

63. If f(x) = |x|3, then f ‘(0) = is

(a)  0

(b)  1/2

(c)  −1

(d)  +1

64.

(a)  0

(b)  1/2

(c)  1

(d)  3/2

65. If   then  at x = 0 is

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  x

(d)  y

66. If Rolle’s theorem holds for f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + kx + 5 on [1, 3] with  the value of k is

(a)  −3

(b)  3

(c)  7

(d)  11

67. Let f(x) = x(x – 1) (x – 2) be define in  . Then, the value of c of the mean value theorem is

(a)  0.16

(b)  0.20

(c)  0.24

(d)  None of these

68. The position vectors of the points A, B, C are  and  respectively. These points

(a)  form an isosceles triangle

(b)  form a right angle

(c)  are collinear

(d)  form a scalene triangle

Biology

1. A diploid cell contains in its nucleus

(a)  an even number of chromosomes

(b)  an odd number of chromosomes

(c)  on copy of each homologous chromosome

(d)  either an even or an odd number of chromosomes

2. Which of the following is not a disease ?

(a)  Cystic fibrosis

(b)  Thalassaemia

(c)  Haemophilia

(d)  Cretinism

3. Genetic map is one that

(a)  shows the stages during the cell division

(b)  shows the distribution of various species

(c)  establishes site of the genes on a chromosome

(d)  establishes the various stages of the gene evolution

4. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of oil spills is a species of

(a)  Pseudomonas

(b)  Trichoderma

(c)  Xanthomonas

(d)  Bacillus

5. Which one of the following is commonly used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop plants?

(a)  Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(b)  Penicillium expansum

(c)  Trichoderma harzianum

(d)  Meloidogyne incognita

6. Which one of the following plants is monoecious ?

(a)  Cycas

(b)  Papaya

(c)  Marchantia

(d)  Pinus

7. MHC-II may be found on all of the following expect

(a)  B-cells

(b)  cytotoxic T-cells

(c)  presentation cells

(d)  body cells for self-recognition

8. Resin and turpentine are obtained from

(a)  Cycas

(b)  Pinus

(c)  Abies

(d)  Cedrus

9. The nerve chord of chordate is

(a)  hollow

(b)  solid

(c)  ventral

(d)  black

10. Which of the following characters differentiate birds and mammals ?

(a)  Metanephric kidney

(b)  7-cervical vertebrae

(c)  Parental care

(d)  One arotic arch

11. Sacromere is distance between

(a)  two I-bands

(b)  A and I bands

(c)  two Z-lines

(d)  Z and A bands

12. Which organ forms antibodies ?

(a)  Thyroid

(b)  Liver

(c)  Kidney

(d)  Tonsil

13. Which of the following is called pacemaker ?

(a)  SA Node

(b)  SV Node

(c)  AV Node

(d)  None of these

14. Blackening of urine when exposed to air is a metabolic disorder in human beings. This is due to

(a)  Phenylalanine

(b)  tyrosine

(c)  valine replacing glutamine

(d)  homogentisic acid

15. Phenylketonuria is a genetic disorder of

(a)  trisomic condition

(b)  monosomic condition

(c)  autosomal dominant gene

(d)  autosomal recessive gene

16. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of

(a)  lymphocytes

(b)  RBCs

(c)  platelets

(d)  leucocytes

17. The limbs of a insect and the leg of a bird are

(a)  analogous

(b)  homologous

(c)  degenerate

(d)  analogous and homologous

18. Which of the following is not a part of Darwin’s theory of evolution ?

(a)  Genetic drift

(b)  Natural Selection

(c)  Survival of the fittest

(d)  Struggle for existence

19. Sum total of genes in a population is

(a)  genotype

(b)  gene flow

(c)  genetic constitution

(d)  gene pool

20. Randon genetic drift in a population probably results from

(a)  highly genetically variable individuals

(b)  interbreeding within the population

(c)  constant slow mutation rate

(d)  large population size

21. Drawin’s theory states that

(a)  characters are acquired through inheritance

(b)  species change morphologically with time

(c)  nature select organisms, which can adapt

(d)  evolution is due to effect of environment

22. Glucocorticoids are produced by the

(a)  thyroid

(b)  pituitary

23. Basic unit of classification is

(a)  family

(b)  genus

(c)  species

(d)  None of these

24. System of classification used by Linnaeus was

(a)  Natural system

(b)  Artificial system

(c)  Phylogenetic system

(d)  Asexual system

25. AIDS is due to

(a)  deficiency of T4 lymphocytes

(b)  bacterial infection

(c)  deficiency of riboflavin

(d)  high blood pressure

26. Viroids are

(a)  infectious nucleoproteins

(b)  infectious nucleic acids

(c)  infectious proteins

(d)  infectious lipoproteins

27. Litmus yielding lichen is known as

(a)  Rocella tinctaria

(b)  Lecanora esculenta

(d)  Centroria islandica

28. Interferons are produced in response to infection of

(a)  fungi

(b)  tapeworms

(c)  viruses

(d)  bacteria

29. Virus envelope is known as

(a)  capsid

(b)  virion

(c)  nucleoprotein

(d)  core

30. Interferons are

(a)  specific type immunoglobulins

(b)  proteins released by cells in response to viral infections

(c)  protein molecules which render unattached cells less susceptible to viral attack

(d)  Both (B) & (C)

31. Transduction was first studied in

(a)  Escherichia

(b)  Rhizobium

(c)  Salmonella

(d)  Pneumococcus

32. Which of the following is the food poisoning and as forming rod bacterium ?

(a)  Clostidium

(b)  Salmonella

(c)  E. Coli

(d)  Shigella

33. The grown of a tree is faster during

(a)  autumn

(b)  winter

(c)  summer

(d)  spring

34. Which of the hormone inhibits FSH production in female mammal ?

(a)  estrogen

(c)  thyrotoxin

(d)  testosterone

35. The most common plant hormone IAA was first isolated from

(a)  human urine

(b)  avena coleoptile

(c)  fungus fusarium

(d)  corn germ oil

36. Closure of leaflets of Mimosa pudica is an example of

(a)  thigmotactic movement

(b)  thigmotropic movement

(c)  turgor movement

(d)  None of these

37. Photochemical smog is caused by a light mediated reaction between

(a)  NO2 unburnt hydro carbons

(b)  NO2 and O3

(c)  SO2 and unburnt hydro carbons

(d)  SO2 and O3

38. Cochineal insects are useful for

(a)  wed control

(b)  cerbicide

(c)  pesticide

(d)  cactus control

39. Tiger is not a resident of in which one of the following national park ?

(a)  Gir

(b)  Jim Corbett

(c)  Ranthambore

(d)  Sundarban

40. Full form of the IRRI is

(a)  International Rice Research Institute

(b)  Intra Rice Research Institute

(c)  Inter Rice Research Institute

(d)  International Raw Rice Institute

41. Epiphytes are most abundant in a

(a)  tropical rain forest

(b)  temperate deciduous forest

(c)  thron woodland

(d)  scrub land

42. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems has very little primary productivity ?

(a)  River

(b)  Estuary

(c)  Lake

(d)  Marsh

43. What is deficient in the patient of Haemophilia A ?

(a)  AHF (Anti Haemophilic Factor)

(b)  Thrombin

(c)  Thrombokinase

(d)  PTC (Plasma Thrmboplastin Component)

44. A benign tumor is more likely to become malignant when

(a)  the tumor cells no longer respond to growth factor signals

(b)  the rate of cell division slows down

(c)  it reaches a certain size

(d)  several tumor suppressor genes are inactivated by mutations

45. Which of the following plants yields a fibre called sunn hemp ?

(a)  Boehmeria

(b)  Helecteres isora

(c)  Cannabis sativa

(d)  Crotalaria juncea

46. Pesticides include

(A) insecticides only

(B) insecticides, nematocides and rodenticides

(C) insecticides, fungicides, nematocides, rodenticides and herbicides

(D) herbicides and insecticides product of the body of honey bee ?

47. Phylogenetic system of classification refers to the grouping of plants on the basis of

(a)  all morphological characters

(b)  evolutionary trends

(c)  increasing complexities

(d)  floral similarities

48. Floral diagram fails to indicate

(a)  position of ovary on the thalamus

(b)  epiphylly & epipetally

(c)  cohesion of stamens and carpels

(d)  aestivation of placentation

49. Asteraceae is now known as

(a)  Cruciferae

(b)  Gramineae

(c)  Umbelliferae

(d)  Compositae

50. Obligate parasites are those which

(a)  can survive only in the presence of a living host

(b)  normally lead a parasitic life but under changed circumstances can lives as saprophytes

(c)  can survive only on artificial medium

(d)  None of the above

51. Early blight of potato is caused by

(a)  Phytopthora infestans

(b)  Alternaria solani

(c)  Ustilago tritici

(d)  Colletotrichum falcatum

52. Symbiotic association between fungus and root of higher plant is

(a)  Puffball

(b)  Orchid

(c)  Lichen

(d)  Mycorrhiza

53. Africa ‘sleeping sickness’ in human is used by

(a)  Giardia intestinalis

(b)  Trichomonas vaginalis

(c)  Trypanosoma gambiense

(d)  Leismania donovani

54. The shivering of malaria occurs when

(a)  the signet ring is formed

(b)  schizonts are on reticulo endothelial cells

(c)  schizonts enter the RBC

(d)  merozoites are liberated from RBC with toxin

55. The bacteria (Clostridium botutinum) that cause botulism are

(a)  obligate aerobes

(b)  facultative anaerobes

(c)  obligate anaerobes

(d)  facultative aerobes

56. Plasmids found in the cells of bacteria are molecules of

(a)  DNA

(b)  RNA

(c)  protein

(d)  DNA bound by histones

57. Who developed vaccine first time?

(a)  Edward Jenner

(b)  Louis Pasteur

(c)  John Salk

(d)  J. Lister

58. Which is the first stable product of CO2 fixation in C3 plants ?

(a)  Ribulose phosphate

(b)  PGA

(c)  Glucose

(d)  Starch

59. Emersion effect is associated with

(a)  respiration

(b)  salt absorption

(c)  photosynthesis

(d)  transpiration

60. The light reactions of photosynthesis supply the calvin cycle with

(a)  light energy

(b)  CO2 and ATP

61. Site of respiration in plants is

(a)  ribosome

(b)  chloroplast

(c)  mitochondria

(d)  lysosomes

62. The end product of citric acid cycle is

(a)  pyruvic acid

(b)  citric acid

(c)  CO2 + H2O

(d)  ethanol

63. Synthesis of ATP in mitochondria requires

(a)  oxygen

(b)  pyruvic acid

(d)  FMN

64. Respiratory quotient is maximum when the respiratory substrate is

(a)  glucose

(b)  fat

(c)  malic acid

(d)  protein

65. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disorder located on chromosome

(a)  17

(b)  16

(c)  12

(d)  11

66. In a metacentric chromosome, the centromere is located

(a)  between one end and the middle of the chromosome

(b)  near one end of the chromosome

(c)  at or near the m idle of the chromosome

(d)  any where along the length of chromosome