JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2009 With Answer Key

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009


1. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β-particles are

(a)   the electrons present inside the nucleus

(b)   the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus

(c)   the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms

(d)   the electrons orbiting around the nucleus

Answer: (b)

2. The maximum number of possible interference maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double-slit experiment, is

(a)   infinite

(b)   five

(c)   three

(d)   zero

Answer: (b)

3. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same radius as that of B but uncharged, is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

(a)   F/4

(b)   3F/4

(c)   F/8

(d)   3F/8

Answer: (d)

4. In gamma ray emission from a nucleus

(a)   both the neutron number and the proton number change

(b)   there is no change in the proton number and the neutron number

(c)   only the neutron number changes

(d)   only the proton number changes

Answer: (b)

5. A particle starting from the origin (0, 0) moves in a straight line in the (x, y) plane. Its coordinates at a later time are (√3, 3). The path of the particle makes with the x-axis an angle of

(a)   30°

(b)   45°

(c)   60°

(d)   0°

Answer: (c)

6. A wheel has angular acceleration of 30 rad/s2 and an initial angular speed of 2.00 rad/s. In a time of 2 s it has rotated through the angle (in radian) of

(a)   6

(b)   10

(c)   12

(d)   4

Answer: (b)

7. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 Ω and its scale is graduated for a current upto 100 A. After an additional shunt has been connected to this ammeter it becomes possible to measure currents upto 750 A by this meter. The value of shunt resistance is

(a)   20 Ω

(b)   2 Ω

(c)   0.2 Ω

(d)   2 kΩ

Answer: (b)

8. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R with constant speed v. The time period of the motion

(a)   depends on v and not on R

(b)   depends on both R and v

(c)   is independent of both R and v

(d)   depends on R and not on v

Answer: (c)

9. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux ϕ linked with the primary coil is given by ϕ0 + 4t, where ϕ is in weber, t is time in second and ϕ0 is constant, the o utput voltage across the secondary coil is

(a)   90 V

(b)   120 V

(c)   220 V

(d)   30 V

Answer: (b)

10. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 104 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index of material will be

(a)   1.40

(b)   1.50

(c)   3.00

(d)   1.33

Answer: (c)

11. A car moves from X to Y with a uniform speed vu and returns to Y with a uniform speed vd. The average speed for this round trip is





Answer: (a)

12. A particle executes simple harmonic oscillation with an amplitude a. The period of oscillation is T. The minimum time taken by the particle to travel half of the amplitude from the equilibrium position is

(a)   T/4

(b)   T/8

(c)   T/12

(d)   T/2

Answer: (c)

13. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity v. If μ is the coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

(a)   v/gμ

(b)   gμ/v

(c)   g/v

(d)   v/g

Answer: (a)

14. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5λ and λ respectively. At t = 0 they have the same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be (1/e)2 after a time interval

(a)   1/4λ

(b)   4λ

(c)   2λ

(d)   1/2λ

Answer: (d)

15. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately

(a)   30%

(b)   50%

(c)   90%

(d)   10%

Answer: (c)

16. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated magnetic moment μ is given by

(a)   qvR/2

(b)   qvR2

(c)   qvR2/2

(d)   qvR

Answer: (a)

17. A steady current of 1.5 A flows through a copper voltameter for 10 min. If the electrochemical equivalent of copper is 30 × 10−5 gC−1, the mass of copper deposited on the electrode will be

(a)   0.40 g

(b)   0.50 g

(c)   0.67 g

(d)   0.27 g

Answer: (d)

18. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B. If V and B are kept constant, the ratio  will be proportional to

(a)   1/R

(b)   1/R2

(c)   R2

(d)   R

Answer: (b)

19. Three resistances P, Q, R each of 2 Ω and an unknown resistance S form the four arms of a Wheatstone’s bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6 Ω is connected in parallel to S the bridge gets balanced. What is the value of S?

(a)   2 Ω

(b)   3 Ω

(c)   6 Ω

(d)   1 Ω

Answer: (b)

20. Two satellites of earth, S1 and S2, are moving in the same orbit. The mass of S­1 is four times the mass of S2. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a)   The time period of S1 is four times that of S2

(b)   The potential energies of earth and satellite in the two cases are equal

(c)   S1 and S2 are moving with the same speed

(d)   The kinetic energies of the two satellites are equal

Answer: (c)

21. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency?

(a)   Zero

(b)   0.5%

(c)   5%

(d)   20%

Answer: (a)

22. A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance 2 Ω is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in

(a)   0.05 s

(b)   0.1 s

(c)   0.15 s

(d)   0.3 s

Answer: (b)

23. The refractive index of glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let D1 and D2 be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism of this glass, then

(a)   D1 < D2

(b)   D1 = D2

(c)   D1 can be less than or greater than D2 depending upon the angle of prism

(d)   D1 > D2

Answer: (a)

24. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

(a)   −0.5 J

(b)   −1.25 J

(c)   1.25 J

(d)   0.5 J

Answer: (b)

25. A mass of M kg is suspended by a weight less string. The horizontal force that s required to displace it until the string makes an angle of 45° with the initial vertical direction is

(a)   Mg(√2 + 1)

(b)   Mg√2

(c)   Mg/√2

(d)   Mg(√2 – 1)

Answer: (d)

26. A force of  acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point (1, −1) is





Answer: (c)

27. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, Mp and Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is

(a)   (MO – 8Mp) c2

(b)   (MO – 8Mp – 9Mn) c2

(c)   MOc2

(d)   (MO – 17Mn) c2

Answer: (b)

28. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of

(a)   1000

(b)   10000

(c)   10

(d)   100

Answer: (d)

29. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter ?

(a)   Temperature

(b)   Pressure

(c)   Work

(d)   Volume

Answer: (c)

30. A charged oil drop is suspended in uniform m field of 3 × 104 V/m so that it neither falls nor rises. The charge on the drop will be (Take the mass of charge = 9.9 × 10−15 kg and g = 10 m/s2)

(a)   3.3 × 10−18 C

(b)   3.2 × 10−18 C

(c)   1.6 × 10−18 C

(d)   4.8 × 10−18 C

Answer: (a)

31. Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuit, in terms of dimension of mass M, of length L, of time T and of current I, would be

(a)   [ML2T−3T−1]

(b)   [ML2T−2]

(c)   [ML2T−1I−1]

(d)   [ML2T−3I−2]

Answer: (d)

32. An alpha nucleus of energy  bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be  proportional to

(a)   v2

(b)   1/m

(c)   1/v4

(d)   1/Ze

Answer: (b)

33. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress on kilo mole of a gas adiabatically and in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7°C. The gas is

(R = 8.3 J mol−1 K−1)

(a)   diatomic

(b)   triatomic

(c)   a mixture of monoatomic and diatomic

(d)   monoatomic

Answer: (a)

34. Diwali rocket is ejecting 50 g of gases/s at a velocity of 400 m/s. The accelerating force on the rocket will be

(a)   22 dyne

(b)   20 N

(c)   20 dyne

(d)   100 N

Answer: (b)

35. A frame made of metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the frame of metallic wire is reduced by 50%, the energy of the soap film will be changed by

(a)   100%

(b)   75%

(c)   50%

(d)   25%

Answer: (c)

36. Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure temperature upto 500°C. This is done by

(a)   maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the stem of the thermometer

(b)   filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column

(c)   filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column

(d)   filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury column

Answer: (b)

37. In a laboratory four convex lenses L1, L2, L3 and L4 of focal lengths 2, 4, 6 and 8 cm, respectively are available. Two of these lenses form a telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power 4. The objective and eye lenses are respectively

(a)   L2, L3

(b)   L1, L4

(c)   L1, L2

(d)   L4, L1

Answer: (d)

38. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane perpendicular to the principal axis. If the power of the original lens is 4D, the power of a cut lens will be

(a)   2D

(b)   3D

(c)   4D

(d)   5D

Answer: (a)

39. For a metallic wire, the ratio V/i (V = applied potential difference and i = current flowing) is

(a)   independent of temperature

(b)   increases as the temperature rises

(c)   decreases as the temperature rises

(d)   increases or decreases as temperature rises depending upon the metal

Answer: (b)

40. The potential energy of a molecule on the surface of a liquid compared to one inside the liquid is

(a)   zero

(b)   lesser

(c)   equal

(d)   greater

Answer: (d)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009


1. Which of the following is not correct?

(a)   Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and HOCl

(b)   NH3 is less stable than PH3

(c)   NH3 is a weak reducing reagent compared to PH3

(d)   Nitric oxide in solid state exhibits diamagnetic property

Answer: (b)

2. SiO2 is reacted with sodium carbonate. What is the gas liberated?

(a)   CO

(b)   O2

(c)   CO2

(d)   O­3

Answer: (c)

3. The compound formed at anode in the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of potassium acetate, are

(a)   C2H6 and CO2

(b)   C2H4 and CO2

(c)   CH4 and H2

(d)   CH4 and CO2

Answer: (a)

4. Which of the following is not correct regarding the elecolytic preparation of H2O2?

(a)   Lead is used as cathode

(b)   50% of H2SO­4 is used

(c)   Hydrogen is liberated at anode

(d)   Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation

Answer: (c)

5. Which of the following is correct?

(a)   The pH of one litre solution containing 0.49 g of H2SO4 is 2.0

(b)   The conjugate base of H2S is S2−

(c)   BF3 is a Lewis base

(d)   Phenolphthalein is colourless in basic medium

Answer: (a)

6. Which of the following is correct?

(a)   Catalyst undergoes permanent chemical change

(b)   Particle size of solute in true solution is 10−3 m

(c)   Starch solution is a hydrosol

(d)   Hydrolysis of liquid ester in the presence of mineral acid is an example of heterogeneous catalysis reactions

Answer: (c)

7. In an oxidation-reduction reaction, MnO4 ion is converted to Mn2+. What is the number of equivalents of KMnO4 (mol. wt. = 158) present in 250 mL of 0.04 M KMnO4 solution ?

(a)   0.02

(b)   0.05

(c)   0.04

(d)   0.07

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following reagents converts both acetaldehyde and acetone to alkanes?

(a)   Ni/H2

(b)   LiAlH4

(c)   I2/NaOH

(d)   Zn-Hg/conc. HCl

Answer: (d)

9. The heat of formation of CO(g) and CO2(g) are ∆H = −110 and ∆H = −393 kJ mol−1 What is the heat of reaction (∆H) (in kJ mol−1) for the following reaction ?

(a)   −504

(b)   −142.5

(c)   −283

(d)   504

Answer: (c)

10. What is the wavelength (in m) of a particle of mass 6.62 × 10−29 g moving with a velocity o f 103 ms−1 ?

(a)   6.62 × 10−4

(b)   6.62 × 10−3

(c)   10−5

(d)   105

Answer: (c)

11. What is the electrode potential (in V) of the following electrode at 25°C?

Ni2+ (0.1 M) | Ni(s)

(Standard reaction potential of Ni2+ |Ni is 

(a)   −0.28 V

(b)   −0.34 V

(c)   −0.82 V

(d)   −0.22 V

Answer: (a)

12. What is the equation for the equilibrium constant (K­c) for the following reaction?





Answer: (c)

13. Which of the following can give a Grignard reagent when reacted with magnesium in dry ether?

(a)   C2H6

(b)   C2H5Cl

(c)   C2H5OH

(d)   C2H5CN

Answer: (b)

14. Which of the following is not correct?

(a)   Al reacts with NaOH and liberate H2

(b)   AlCl3 is a Lewis acid

(c)   Al is used in the manufacture of electrical cables

(d)   NaOH is used during Hall’s process of purification of bauxite

Answer: (d)

15. A 0.5 g/L solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic compound. What will be the molecular weight of that organic compound ?

(a)   300

(b)   600

(c)   900

(d)   200

Answer: (c)

16. t-butyl chloride preferably undergo hydrolysis by

(a)   SN1 mechanism

(b)   SN2 mechanism

(c)   Any of (a) and (b)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

17. Oxidation state of oxygen in F2O is

(a)   +1

(b)   −1

(c)   +2

(d)   −2

Answer: (c)

18. To dissolve argentite ore which of the following is used?

(a)   Na[Ag(CN)2]

(b)   NaCN

(c)   NaCl

(d)   HCl

Answer: (b)

19. If 50% of a radioactive substance dissociates in 15 min, then the time taken by substance to dissociate 99% will be

(a)   50 min

(b)   100 min

(c)   99 min

(d)   150 min

Answer: (c)

20. H – O – H bond angle in H2O is 104.5° and not 109° 28’ because of

(a)   lone pair-lone pair repulsion

(b)   lone pair-bond pair repulsion

(c)   bond pair-bond pair repulsion

(d)   high electronegativity of oxygen

Answer: (a)

21. The reaction,

C6H5CHO + CH3COOC2H5 → C6H5CH = CHCOOC2H5, is called

(a)   Benzoin condensation

(b)   Claisen condensation

(c)   Cannizaro’s reaction

(d)   Perkin reaction

Answer: (b)

22. The best method to separate the mixture of ortho and para nitrophenol (1 : 1) is

(a)   vaporization

(b)   colour spectrum

(c)   distillation

(d)   crystallization

Answer: (c)

23. Iodofrom gives a precipitate with AgNO3 on heating but chloroform does not because

(a)   C – I bond in iodoform is weak and C – Cl bond in chloroform is strong

(b)   chloroform is covalent

(c)   iodoform is ionic

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (a)

24. What are the values of n1 and n2 respectively for Hβ line in the Lyman series of hydrogen atomic spectrum 44 ?

(a)   3 and 5

(b)   2 and 3

(c)   1 and 3

(d)   2 and 4

Answer: (c)

25. The homologue of ethyne is

(a)   C2H2

(b)   C2H6

(c)   C3H8

(d)   C3H4

Answer: (d)

26. A 0.1 aqueous solution of a weak acid is 2% ionized. If the ionic product of water is 1 × 10−4, the [OH] is

(a)   5 × 10−12 M

(b)   2 × 10−3 M

(c)   1 × 10−14 M

(d)   None of these

Answer: (a)

27. Which of the following does not have coordinate bond?

(a)   SO2

(b)   HNO­3

(c)   H2SO3

(d)   HNO2

Answer: (c)

28. The total number of orbitals in the fifth energy level is

(a)   5

(b)   10

(c)   18

(d)   25

Answer: (d)

29. The most probable velocity (in cm/s) of hydrogen molecule at 27°C will be

(a)   19.3 × 104

(b)   17.8 × 104

(c)   24.93 × 109

(d)   17.8× 108

Answer: (b)

30. In III group precipitation, NH4Cl is added before adding NH4OH to

(a)   decrease conc. of OH

(b)   prevent interference of PO43−

(c)   increase conc. of Cl

(d)   increase conc. of OH ion

Answer: (a)

31. Steel is heated to below red heat and then cooled slowly. The process refers to

(a)   hardening

(b)   annealing

(c)   tempering

(d)   nitriding

Answer: (b)

32. What is the wave number of 4th line in Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum?

(R = 1,09,677 cm−1)

(a)   24, 630 cm−1

(b)   24,360 cm−1

(c)   24,730 cm−1

(d)   24,372 cm−1

Answer: (d)

33. 2 g N2O4 is heated in a 1 L vessel till equilibrium state is established

N2O4(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g)

In equilibrium state 50% N2O4 was dissociated, equilibrium constant will be

(mol. wt. of N2O4 = 92)

(a)   0.1

(b)   0.4

(c)   0.3

(d)   0.2

Answer: (d)

34. Disperse phase and dispersion medium in butter are respectively

(a)   solid and liquid

(b)   liquid and solid

(c)   liquid and liquid

(d)   solid and solid

Answer: (b)

35. Which of the following carbonates decomposes readily at low temperatures?

(a)   NaCO3

(b)   K2CO3

(c)   Li2CO3

(d)   Rb2CO3

Answer: (c)

36. The atomic number of an element ‘M’ is 26. How many electrons are present in M-shell of the element in its M3+ state ?

(a)   11

(b)   15

(c)   14

(d)   13

Answer: (d)

37. In which of the following pairs, both molecules possess dipole moment?

(a)   CO2, SO2

(b)   BCl3, PCl3

(c)   H2O, SO2

(d)   CO2, CS2

Answer: (c)

38. Which one of the following reactions is called Rosenmund reaction?

(a)   Aldehydes are reduced to alcohols

(b)   Acids are converted to acid chlorides

(c)   Alcohols are reduced to hydrocabons

(d)   Acid chlorides are reduced to aldehydes

Answer: (d)

39. During, acetylation of amines, what is replace by acetyle group ?

(a)   Hydrogen atom attached to nitrogen atom

(b)   One or more hydrogen atoms attached to carbon atom

(c)   One or more hydrogen atoms attached to nitrogen atom

(d)   Hydrogen atoms attached to either carbon atom or nitrogen atom

Answer: (c)

40. Which is used in alcoholic beverages?

(a)   Methanol

(b)   Ethanol

(c)   Phenol

(d)   Glycerol

Answer: (b)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009


1. The trisomy for 21st chromosome is called

(a)   Down’s syndrome

(b)   Turner’s syndrome

(c)   Sickle cell anaemia

(d)   Klinefelter’s syndrome

Answer: (a)

2. Which of the following is the largest gland in an adult man ?

(a)   Thymus

(b)   Liver

(c)   Thyroid

(d)   Pancreas

Answer: (b)

3. In Pheretima, septa are absent between which segments?

(a)   3/4 and 9/10

(b)   4/5 and 8/9

(c)   5/6 and 7/8

(d)   7/8 and 6/7

Answer: (a)

4. During emergency which of the following hormone is secreted?

(a)   Aldosterone

(b)   Thyroxine

(c)   Adrenalin

(d)   Calcitonin

Answer: (c)

5. In cockroach, larval and nymphal characters are maintained by

(a)   ecdysone

(b)   salivary glands

(c)   parotid gland

(d)   juvenile hormone

Answer: (d)

6. Which of the following is a transparent tissue?

(a)   Tendon

(b)   Fibrous cartilage

(c)   Hyaline cartilage

(d)   All of these

Answer: (c)

7. Rh factor is present in

(a)   all vertebrates

(b)   all mammals

(c)   all reptiles

(d)   man and rhesus monkey only

Answer: (d)

8. In rabbit, end of a long bone is connected in another by

(a)   tendon

(b)   ligaments

(c)   muscle

(d)   cartilage

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other cell types in sponges ?

(a)   Thesocytes

(b)   Pinacocytes

(c)   Cnidocytes

(d)   Archaeocytes

Answer: (d)

10. Thigmotaxis is not shown by

(a)   Paramecium

(b)   Amoeba

(c)   Ascaris

(d)   Hydra

Answer: (c)

11. Which is correctly matched?

(a)   Apiculture – Honey bee

(b)   Pisciculture – Silk moth

(c)   Sericulture – Fish

(d)   Aquaculture – Mosquito

Answer: (a)

12. Animals having a built in thermostat to maintain constant body temperature are known as

(a)   biothermic

(b)   poikilothermic

(c)   oligothermic

(d)   homeothermic

Answer: (d)

13. The intermediate host of Schistosoma is

(a)   snail

(b)   mosquito

(c)   housefly

(d)   sheep

Answer: (a)

14. The vitamin which is essential for blood clotting is

(a)   vitamin-A

(b)   vitamin-B

(c)   vitamin-C

(d)   vitamin-K

Answer: (d)

15. The female genital pore of Pheretima posthuma located upon the segment

(a)   14th

(b)   16th

(c)   18th

(d)   15th

Answer: (a)

16. Polyp phase is absent in

(a)   Hydra

(b)   Aurelia

(c)   Physalia

(d)   Obelia

Answer: (b)

17. In frong heart, there are cardiac muscles which consists of fibres called

(a)   Purkinje fibres

(b)   myonemes

(c)   telodendria

(d)   columnae carnae

Answer: (a)

18. Malpighian tubules are

(a)   excretory organs of insects

(b)   excretory organs of frog

(c)   respiratory organs of insects

(d)   endocrine glands of insects

Answer: (a)

19. LH and FSH are collectively called

(a)   oxytocin

(b)   somatotropins

(c)   luteotropic

(d)   gonadotropins

Answer: (d)

20. Which of the following provides most evident proof evolution?

(a)   Fossils

(b)   Morphology

(c)   Embryo

(d)   Vestigial organs

Answer: (a)

21. In Mollusca, eye is present over a stalk, called

(a)   ostracum

(b)   operculum

(c)   ommatophores

(d)   osphradium

Answer: (c)

22. Turbellarians are free living

(a)   nematodes

(b)   cestodes

(c)   flat worms

(d)   trematodes

Answer: (c)

23. The characteristic larva of phylum-‘Coelenterata’ is

(a)   planula

(b)   cysticercus

(c)   rhabdiform

(d)   wriggler

Answer: (a)

24. In rabbit, head of epididymis present at the head of the testis is called

(a)   vas deferens

(b)   cauda epididymis

(c)   gubernaculum

(d)   caput epididymis

Answer: (d)

25. In blood,CO2 in transported majorly as

(a)   sodium carbonate

(b)   carboxyhaemoglobin

(c)   bicarbonate

(d)   CO2 as such

Answer: (c)

26. Animals undergoes inactive stage during winter, is known as

(a)   aestivation

(b)   hibernation

(c)   adaptation

(d)   acclimatization

Answer: (b)

27. Kupffer cells are present in

(a)   liver

(b)   small intestine

(c)   pancreas

(d)   thyroid gland

Answer: (a)

28. The embryo at 16 celled stage is known as

(a)   morula

(b)   gastrula

(c)   blastula

(d)   blastomere

Answer: (a)

29. Contractile vacuole in protozoan Amoeba is meant for

(a)   respiration

(b)   excretion

(c)   locomotion

(d)   osmoregulation

Answer: (d)

30. Which of the following is important for muscle contraction and nerve impulse transmission?

(a)   Ca2+ ions

(b)   Mg2+ ions

(c)   Both (a) and (b)

(d)   Fe2+ ions

Answer: (a)

31. Which one is component of Ornithine cycle?

(a)   Ornithine, citrulline and alanine

(b)   Ornithine, citruline and arginine

(c)   Amino acid are not used

(d)   Ornithine, citrulline and fumaric acid

Answer: (b)

32. Chromosome complement with 2n – 1 is called

(a)   monosomy

(b)   nullisomy

(c)   trisomy

(d)   tetrasomy

Answer: (a)

33. Which of the following is not vestigial in man?

(a)   Tail vertebrae

(b)   Nails

(c)   Nictitating membrane

(d)   Vermiform appendix

Answer: (b)

34. Small fish get stuck near the bottom of a shark and derives its nutrition from it. This kind of association is called as

(a)   antibiosis

(b)   commensalism

(c)   predation

(d)   parasitism

Answer: (b)

35. The group of Anamniota includes

(a)   reptiles and birds

(b)   birds and mammals

(c)   fishes an amphibians

(d)   reptiles and mammals

Answer: (c)

36. The excretory material of bony fish is

(a)   urea

(b)   protein

(c)   ammonia

(d)   amino acid

Answer: (a)

37. The leucocytes contain which of the following in large quantity?

(a)   Basophils

(b)   Neutrophils

(c)   Eosinophils

(d)   Monocytes

Answer: (b)

38. During inspiration, the diaphragm

(a)   expands

(b)   shows no change

(c)   contracts and flattens

(d)   relaxes to become dome-shaped

Answer: (c)

39. The function of pineal body is to

(a)   lighten the skin colours

(b)   control sexual behaviour

(c)   regulates the period of puberty

(d)   All of the above

Answer: (d)

40. Synsacrum of flowl consists of about

(a)   29 vertebrae

(b)   3 vertebrae

(c)   16 vertebrae

(d)   single vertebrae

Answer: (c)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009


1. Jumping genes in maize were discovered by

(a)   Hugo de Vries

(b)   Barbara McClintock

(c)   T H Morgan

(d)   Mendel

Answer: (b)

2. Streptomycin is obtained from

(a)   Streptomyces griseus

(b)   S. aureofaciens

(c)   S. venezuelae

(d)   S. ramosus

Answer: (a)

3. Indusium is found in

(a)   algae

(b)   ferns

(c)   moss

(d)   Cycas

Answer: (b)

4. The vacuole is lined by a membrane called

(a)   tonoplast

(b)   jacket

(c)   cell membrane

(d)   tonoplasm

Answer: (a)

5. Agar-agar is obtained from

(a)   Chlorella

(b)   Spirogyra

(c)   Ulothrix

(d)   Gelidium

Answer: (d)

6. DNA element with ability to change position is called

(a)   cistron

(b)   transposon

(c)   intron

(d)   recon

Answer: (b)

7. Initiation codon is

(a)   UUU

(b)   UGA

(c)   AUG

(d)   UAG

Answer: (c)

8. DNA multiplication is called

(a)   translation

(b)   replication

(c)   transduction

(d)   transcription

Answer: (b)

9. Duramen is present in

(a)   inner region of secondary wood

(b)   part of sap wood

(c)   outer region of secondary wood

(d)   region of pericycle

Answer: (a)

10. In plants, water supply is due to

(a)   osmosis

(b)   imbibition

(c)   guttation

(d)   adhesion force

Answer: (d)

11. Most of the economically important fibre yielding plants belong to family

(a)   Malvaceae

(b)   Solanaceae

(c)   Cruciferae

(d)   Poaceae

Answer: (a)

12. Paraffin wax is

(a)   ester

(b)   acid

(c)   monohydric alcohol

(d)   cholesterol

Answer: (a)

13. Which is always present in photochemical smog?

(a)   O3

(b)   CO2

(c)   SO2

(d)   CH4

Answer: (a)

14. In cell cycle, during which phase, chromosomes are arranged in equatorial plate?

(a)   Metaphase

(b)   Anaphase

(c)   Telophase

(d)   Prophase

Answer: (a)

15. The soil which is transported by wind is known as

(a)   colluvial

(b)   eolian

(c)   aluvial

(d)   glacial soil

Answer: (b)

16. Spindle fibre is made up of

(a)   tubulin

(b)   humulin

(c)   intermediate filament

(d)   flagellin

Answer: (a)

17. Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession?

(a)   Hydrosere

(b)   Lithosere

(c)   Psammosere

(d)   Xerosere

Answer: (b)

18. In Pinus, male cone bears a large number of

(a)   ligules

(b)   anthers

(c)   micro-sporophylls

(d)   mega-sporophylls

Answer: (c)

19. Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment is

(a)   vernalization

(b)   cryobiology

(c)   photoperiodism

(d)   prunning

Answer: (a)

20. Decomposers are

(a)   autotrophs

(b)   autoheterotrophs

(c)   organotrophs

(d)   heterotrophs

Answer: (c)

21. Cleavage polyembryony occurs in

(a)   Pinus

(b)   Mini Cycas

(c)   Cycas

(d)   Ephedra

Answer: (a)

22. Edible part of mushroom is

(a)   basidiocarp

(b)   secondary mycelium

(c)   primary mycelium

(d)   tertiary mycelium

Answer: (a)

23. Calyptra is derived from

(a)   archegonia

(b)   capsule

(c)   antheridia

(d)   columella

Answer: (a)

24. ‘Clamp connections’ are observed in

(a)   Basidiomycetes

(b)   Zygomycetes

(c)   Ascomycetes

(d)   Oomycetes

Answer: (a)

25. What is the main cause for the extinction of  some species in tropical forest?

(a)   Deforestation

(b)   Afforestation

(c)   Pollution

(d)   Soil erosin

Answer: (a)

26. Most accepted theory for ascent of sap is

(a)   capillarity theory

(b)   root pressure theory

(c)   pulsation theory

(d)   transpiration pull

Answer: (d)

27. Which of the following is not the feature of gymnosperms?

(a)   Parallel venation

(b)   Perennial plants

(c)   Distinct branches (long and short branches)

(d)   Xylem with vessels

Answer: (d)

28. The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as

(a)   bottle neck effect

(b)   edge effect

(c)   junction effect

(d)   Pasteur effect

Answer: (b)

29. In which form does the food transported in plants?

(a)   Sucrose

(b)   Fructose

(c)   Glucose

(d)   Lactose

Answer: (a)

30. In Cycas, pollination takes place in

(a)   3 celled stage

(b)   4 celled stage

(c)   2 celled stage

(d)   1 celled stage

Answer: (a)

31. The bioassay of auxin is

(a)   avena curvature test

(b)   callus formation

(c)   culture of fungus

(d)   seed dormancy

Answer: (a)

32. A eukaryotic gene contains two kinds of base sequences. Which of these plays an important role in protein synthesis?

(a)   Introns

(b)   Exons

(c)   Both (a) and (b)

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

33. L-shaped chromosomes are also called

(a)   acrocentric

(b)   telocentric

(c)   sub-metacentric

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

34. Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams?

(a)   Angiosperms

(b)   Gymnosperms

(c)   Pteridophytes

(d)   Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

35. A bacterium divides after every 35 min., if a culture containing 105 cells per mL is grown, then cell concentration per mL after 175 min. will be

(a)   175 × 105

(b)   125 × 105

(c)   48 × 105

(d)   32 × 105

Answer: (d)

36. Which of the following theory gives the latest explanation for the closure of stomata?

(a)   ABA theory

(b)   Munch theory

(c)   Starch glucose theory

(d)   Active K+ transport theory

Answer: (d)

37. Biological concept of species is mainly based on

(a)   reproductive isolation

(b)   morphological features only

(c)   methods of reproduction only

(d)   morphology and methods of reproduction

Answer: (a)

38. In the treatment of waste water discharge, which treatment stage involves biological treatment?

(a)   Primary treatment

(b)   Secondary treatment

(c)   Tertiary treatment

(d)   Reverse osmosis stage

Answer: (b)

39. Nucellus forms which of the following part of fruit?

(a)   Seed coat

(b)   Perisperm

(c)   Seed

(d)   Raphe

Answer: (b)

40. If root of a flowering plant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has how many chromosomes?

(a)   24

(b)   12

(c)   4

(d)   8

Answer: (b)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2009


Directions (Q. 1-5) : In each of the following questions, chose the alternative which best express the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

1. A pipe dream

(a)   A pleasant dream

(b)   A bad dream

(c)   An impracticable plan

(d)   A foolish idea

Answer: (c)

2. To give up the ghost

(a)   To die

(b)   To make false appearance

(c)   To terrify others by acting in suspicious manner

(d)   To leave useless pursuits

Answer: (a)

3. To disabuse one’s mind

(a)   To conceal something

(b)   To remove a misapprehension

(c)   To banish from one’s mind a thought

(d)   To proceed cautiously so as to avoid risks and dangers

Answer: (b)

4. To wrangle over an ass’s shadow

(a)   To act in a foolish way

(b)   To quarrel over trifles

(c)   To waste time fron petty things

(d)   To do something funny

Answer: (b)

5. To be at daggers drawn

(a)   To be frightened

(b)   To be ready to face danger

(c)   To threaten one

(d)   To be bitter enemy

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. 6-10) : Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank

6. According to corporate circles, Datta is pushing through the merger to create a financially ________ company in the processed foods business, the group’s thrust area for the 1990s.

(a)   straight

(b)   powerful

(c)   leading

(d)   acceptable

Answer: (b)

7. A man who is well-bred and honourable in-variably shows ____ for the feelings of other people.

(a)   complacence

(b)   concern

(c)   consideration

(d)   contempt

Answer: (c)

8. You will have to face some practical problems when you start _____ this plan.

(a)   prosecuting

(b)   projecting

(c)   prescribing

(d)   proscribing

Answer: (b)

9. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to _____ accidents.

(a)   winsome

(b)   urban

(c)   gruesome

(d)   minor

Answer: (c)

10. The more your action and thought are allied and ______, the happier you grow.

(a)   invincible

(b)   divergent

(c)   integrated

(d)   unravelled

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

11. Around the world, painful terminal diseases/(P), the question of human death/(Q), people are wrestling with /(R), especially in the face of/(S)

(a)   R S Q P

(b)   P Q R S

(c)   R Q S P

(d)   P S Q R

Answer: (c)

12. The specific, ability requirements of the job/(P), depend on the /(Q), required for adequate job performance/(R), intellectual or physical abilities/(S)

(a)   P Q R S

(b)   S R Q P

(c)   P R Q S

(d)   S Q R P

Answer: (b)

13. Freedom is the restricted kind in the sense/(P) , the rich and poor woman/(Q), that a wide gulf separates /(R), which a modern woman enjoys/(S)

(a)   P S R Q

(b)   S R Q P

(c)   R Q P S

(d)   S P R Q

Answer: (d)

14. In life, some rules are /(P), as in business / (Q), they seem almost instinctive / (R), learnt so early that/ (S)

(a)   R S P Q

(b)   Q P S R

(c)   R P S Q

(d)   Q S P R

Answer: (b)

15. Kapil, left in an aeroplane/ (P), after reading a sailing magazine/ (Q), had decided / (R), to build his own boat nine years earlier/ (S)

(a)   P R Q S

(b)   R S Q P

(c)   R Q P S

(d)   P S R Q

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the italicized part are given. Choose the one which improves the italicized part. If none of the substitutions improves the italicized part, your answer is (d).

16. I would gladly accompany your sister if you had asked me.

(a)   would have gladly accompanied

(b)   was to have gladly accompanied

(c)   will gladly accompany

(d)   No improvement

Answer: (a)

17. The indecisive man was readily persuaded to change his mind again.

(a)   was persuaded ready

(b)   was ready to persuade

(c)   was ready persuaded

(d)   No improvement

Answer: (d)

18. He enjoys to tell stories to children.

(a)   how to tell stories

(b)   telling stories

(c)   to narrate stories

(d)   No improvement

Answer: (b)

19. It is unreasonable to distort the statement of a man simply because he does not agree with your opinions.

(a)   discourage

(b)   denounce

(c)   bend

(d)   No improvement

Answer: (d)

20. Would you find me absent, please don’t forget to leave a message behind.

(a)   As

(b)   Should

(c)   Unless

(d)   No improvement

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most nearly the same in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.

21. The rancous shouts of the audience forced the management to call off the show.

(a)   unpleasant

(b)   loud

(c)   harsh

(d)   harmful

Answer: (c)

22. At the Hardy house there was great consternation when Aunt Gertrude saw Joe helping Frank up the stairs.

(a)   surprise

(b)   panic

(c)   gaity

(d)   anxiety

Answer: (a)

23. Methods of spreading the family planning message have been as fecund as they have been abortive.

(a)   fruitful

(b)   failing

(c)   peculiar

(d)   false

Answer: (a)

24. Now the fury of the demonstrators turned against the machines.

(a)   asperity

(b)   passion

(c)   rage

(d)   acrimony

Answer: (c)

25. Everyone who has worked for him hammers home that point because they feel that it is widely unappreciated.

(a)   hints

(b)   stresses

(c)   strikes

(d)   directs

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.

26. Here debonair manners were noticed by everyone present in the city.

(a)   stiff

(b)   cheerless

(c)   courteous

(d)   pleasant

Answer: (b)

27. Like poverty, affluence can sometimes create its own problems.

(a)   sorrow

(b)   indigence

(c)   exuberance

(d)   opulence

Answer: (b)

28. It is surprising to find her condoning such an act.

(a)   disparaging

(b)   condemning

(c)   disliking

(d)   forbidding

Answer: (b)

29. He proved utterly capricious in his dealings with his friends.

(a)   helpful

(b)   steadfast

(c)   understanding

(d)   obstinate

Answer: (c)

30. As long as he remained in that office, he maintained his

(a)   predominance

(b)   poverty

(c)   subordination

(d)   chaos

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. 31-35) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

31. Medical study of the skin and its diseases

(a)   Dermatology

(b)   Orthopaedics

(c)   Venereology

(d)   Homeopathy

Answer: (a)

32. Code of diplomatic etiquette and precedence

(a)   Formalism

(b)   Statesmanship

(c)   Protocol

(d)   Hierachy

Answer: (c)

33. The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old

(a)   Oncology

(b)   Geriatric

(c)   Obsertics

(d)   Endocrinol

Answer: (b)

34. One who promotes the idea of absence of government of any kind, when every man should be a law unto himself

(a)   Anarchist

(b)   Belligerent

(c)   Iconoclast

(d)   Agnostic

Answer: (a)

35. Design made by putting together coloured pieces of glass of stones

(a)   Oleograph

(b)   Mosaic

(c)   Tracery

(d)   Relief

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 36-40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Most of us use the products of science-railways, aeroplanes, electricity, wireless and thousands of others-without thinking how they came into existence. We taken them for granted, as if we were entitled to them as a matter of right. And we are very proud of the fact that we live in an advanced age and are ourselves so very ‘advanced’. Now, there is no doubt that our age is a very different one from previous ages and I think it is perfectly correct to say that it is far more advanced. But that is a different thing from saying that we as individuals or groups are more advanced. It would be the height of absurdity to say that because an engine-driver can run an engine and Plato or Socrates could not, the engine-driver is more advanced than, or is superior to Plato or Socrates. But it would be perfectly correct to say that the engine itself is a more advanced method of locomotion than Plato’s chariot was.

36. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a)   An engine-driver is cleverer than Plato or Socrates.

(b)   Plato or Socrates is in way inferior to the engine-driver.

(c)   Plato and Socrates surpassed the engine-driver in every respect.

(d)   The engine-driver cannot be compared to Plato or Aristotle.

Answer: (b)

37. In this passage the author mentions Plato and/or Socrates to emphasise that

(a)   they are/were men of great scholarship.

(b)   people as individuals in the modern age are not more advanced than their predecessors.

(c)   the engine is a better mode of locomotion than Plato’s chariot.

(d)   Plato and Aristotle had greater respect for learning

Answer: (b)

38. According to the author, the present age is far more advanced than

(a)   all the previous ages in some respect.

(b)   the age of Socrates and Aristotle in some respects.

(c)   some of the previous ages in all respects.

(d)   all the previous ages in all respects.

Answer: (a)

39. Many of us make use of machines

(a)   with very little knowledge of their mechanism

(b)   without any knowledge of their historical significance.

(c)   with full knowing of their genesis.

(d)   without knowing how they were invented.

Answer: (d)

40. People today are very proud because they live

(a)   in a philosophically advanced age.

(b)   in a materially advanced age.

(c)   in a scientifically advanced age.

(d)   in a spiritually advanced age.

Answer: (c)