# JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2008 With Answer Key

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

PHYSICS

1. For inelastic collision between two spherical rigid bodies

(a)  the total kinetic energy is conserved

(b)  the total mechanical energy is not conserved

(c)  the linear momentum is not conserved

(d)  the linear momentum is conserved

Answer: (d)

2. We consider a thermodynamic system. If ∆U represents the increase in its internal energy and W the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true ?

(a)  ∆U = −W in an adiabatic process

(b)  ∆U = W in an isothermal process

(c)  ∆U = −W in an isothermal  process

(d)  ∆U = W in an adiabatic process

Answer: (a)

3. Aerofils are so designed that the speed of air

(a)  on top side is more than on lower side

(b)  on top side is less than on lower side

(c)  is same on both sides

(d)  is turbulent

Answer: (a)

4. The time of reverberation of a room A is one second. What will be the time (in seconds) of reverberation of a room, having all the dimensions double of those of room A ?

(a)  2

(b)  4

(c)  1/2

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

5. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium, because, in the second medium

(a)  the frequency is different

(b)  the coefficient of elasticity is different

(c)  the speed is different

(d)  the amplitude is smaller

Answer: (c)

6. Which of the following circular rods, (given radius r and length l) each made of the same material and whose ends are maintained at the same temperature will conduct most heat?

(a)  r = 2r0; l = 2l0

(b)  r = 2r0; l = l0

(c)  r = r0; l = l0

(d)  r = r0; l = 2l0

Answer: (b)

7. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is

(a)  2

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/√2

(d)  √2

Answer: (b)

8. 300 J of work is done in sliding a 2 kg block up an inclined plane of height 10 m. Taking g = 10 m/s2, work done against friction is

(a)  200 J

(b)  100 J

(c)  zero

(d)  1000 J

Answer: (b)

9. Interference was observed in an interference chamber when air was present. Now, the chamber is evacuated and if the same light is used, a careful observation will show

(a)  no interference

(b)  interference with  bright band

(c)  interference with dark bands

(d)  interference in which breadth of the fringe will be slightly increased

Answer: (d)

10. When a charged particle moving with velocity  is subjected to a magnetic field of induction  the force on it is non-zero. This implies that

(a)  angle between  is necessarily 90°

(b)  angle between  can have any value other than 90°

(c)  angle between  can have any value other than zero and 180°

(d)  angle between  is either zero or 180°

Answer: (c)

11. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in second) the distance x (in metre) of the particle from O is given by x = 40 + 12t – t3

How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?

(a)  24 m

(b)  40 m

(c)  56 m

(d)  16 m

Answer: (c)

12. Which one of the following statements is true?

(a)  Both light and sound waves in air are transverse

(b)  The sound waves in air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse

(c)  Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal

(d)  Both light and sound waves can travel in vacuum

Answer: (b)

13. When power is drawn from the secondary coil of the transformer, the dynamic resistance

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  remains unchanged

(d)  changes erratically

Answer: (a)

14. Pressure of an ideal gas is increased by keeping temperature constant. What is the effect on kinetic energy of molecules?

(a)  Increase

(b)  Decrease

(c)  No change

(d)  Can’t be determined

Answer: (c)

15. What maximum frequency can be reflected from ionosphere?

(a)  5 MHz

(b)  6 GHz

(c)  5 kHz

(d)  500 MHz

Answer: (a)

16. A telescope has focal length of objective and eye-piece as 200 cm and 5 cm respectively. What is magnification of telescope?

(a)  40

(b)  80

(c)  50

(d)  0.01

Answer: (a)

17. A small disc of radius 2 cm is cut from a disc of radius 6 cm. If the distance between their centres is 3.2 cm, what is the shift in the centre of mass of the disc?

(a)  0.4 cm

(b)  2.4 cm

(c)  1.8 cm

(d)  1.2 cm

Answer: (a)

18. Hydrogen bomb is based upon

(a)  fission

(b)  fusion

(c)  chemical reaction

(d)  transmutation

Answer: (b)

19. What is not true for equipotential surface for uniform electric field?

(a)  Equipotential surface is flat

(b)  Equipotential surface is spherical

(c)  Electric lines are perpendicular to equipotential surface

(d)  Work done is zero

Answer: (b)

20. A closed organ pipe of length 20 cm is sounded with tuning fork in resonance. What is the frequency of tuning fork? (v = 332 m/s)

(a)  300 Hz

(b)  350 Hz

(c)  375 Hz

(d)  415 Hz

Answer: (d)

21. The displacement of particle is given by

What is its acceleration?

(a)  2a2/3

(b)  −2a2/3

(c)  a2

(d)  Zero

Answer: (b)

22. The area of the acceleration-displacement curve of a body gives

(a)  impulse

(b)  change in momentum per unit mass

(c)  change in KE per unit mass

(d)  total change in energy

Answer: (c)

23. The speed of earth’s rotation about its axis is ω. Its speed is increased to x times to make the effective acceleration due to gravity equal to zero at the equator. Then x is

(a)  1

(b)  8.5

(c)  17

(d)  34

Answer: (c)

24. Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10−11 The accelerating voltage for electrons in X-ray machine should be

(a)  < 124 kV

(b)  > 124 kV

(c)  between 60 kV and 70 kV

(d)  = 100 kV

Answer: (a)

25. In photoelectric effect, the electrons are ejected from metals if the incident light has a certain minimum

(a)  wavelength

(b)  frequency

(c)  amplitude

(d)  angle of incidence

Answer: (b)

26. A capacitor having capacitance 1 μF with air, is filled with two dielectrics as shown. How m any times capacitance will increase?

(a)  12

(b)  6

(c)  8/3

(d)  3

Answer: (b)

27. A leaf which contains only green pigments, is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.6328 μm. It would appear to be

(a)  brown

(b)  black

(c)  red

(d)  green

Answer: (b)

28. The operation of a nuclear reactor is said to be critical, if the multiplication factor (k) has a value

(a)  1

(b)  1.5

(c)  2.1

(d)  2.5

Answer: (a)

29. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 Ω is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 Ω. If the total currents is 1 A, the part of it passing through the shunt will be

(a)  0.25 A

(b)  0.8 A

(c)  0.2 A

(d)  0.5 A

Answer: (b)

30. Flash light equipped with a new set of batteries, produces bright white light. As the batteries wear out

(a)  the light intensity gets reduced with no change in its colour

(b)  light colour changes first to yellow and then red with no change in intensity

(c)  it stops working suddenly while giving white light

(d)  colour changes to red and also intensity gets reduced

Answer: (d)

31. If alpha, beta and gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength?

(a)  Alpha rays

(b)  Beta rays

(c)  Gamma rays

(d)  None, all have same wavelength

Answer: (d)

32. When you make ice cubes, the entropy of water

(a)  does not change

(b)  increases

(c)  decreases

(d)  may either increase or decrease depending on the process used

Answer: (c)

33. Half-lives of two radioactive substances A and B are respectively 20 min and 40 min. Initially the samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 min the ratio of remaining number of A and B nuclei is

(a)  1 : 16

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  1 : 4

(d)  1 : 1

Answer: (c)

34. Given that  where y and x are measured in metre. Which of the following statements is true?

(a)  The unit of λ is same as that of x and A

(b)  The unit of λ is same as that of x but not of A

(c)  The unit of c is same as that of 2π/λ

(d)  The unit(ct – x) is same as that of 2π/λ

Answer: (a)

35. A projectile is thrown in the upward direction making an angle of 60° with the horizontal direction with a velocity of 147 ms−1. Then the time after which its inclination with the horizontal is 45°, is

(a)  15 s

(b)  10.98 s

(c)  5.49 s

(d)  2.745 s

Answer: (c)

36. A motor cycle is going on an overbridge of radius R. The driver maintains a constant speed. As the motor cycle is ascending on the overbridge, the normal force on it

(a)  increases

(b)  decreases

(c)  remains the same

(d)  fluctuates erratically

Answer: (a)

37. If we throw a body upwards with velocity of 4 m/s, at what height does its kinetic energy reduce to half of the initial value?

(Take g = 10 ms−2)

(a)  4 m

(b)  2 m

(c)  1 m

(d)  0.4 m

Answer: (d)

38. Two glass plates are separated by water. If surface tension of water is 75 dyne/cm and area of each plate wetted by water is 8 cm2 and the distance between the plates is 0.12 mm, then the force applied to separated the two plates is

(a)  102 dyne

(b)  104 dyne

(c)  105 dyne

(d)  106 dyne

Answer: (c)

39. Which of the following is true for rays coming from infinity?

(a)  Two images are formed

(b)  Continuous image is formed between focal points of upper and lower lens

(c)  One image is formed

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

40. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is being brought closer to a vertical conducting plane along the perpendicular direction. The direction of the induced current in the conducting plane will be

(a)  horizontal

(b)  vertical

(c)  clockwise

(d)  anticlockwise

Answer: (c)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Chemistry

1. Plaster of paris is

(a)

(b)  CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O

(c)  CaSO4 ∙ H2O

(d)  CaSO4 ∙ 4H2O

Answer: (a)

2. The most stable compound is

(a)  LiF

(b)  LiCl

(c)  LiBr

(d)  LiI

Answer: (a)

3. Heavy water is

(a)  CaSO4

(b)  water contain CaSO4, MgSO4

(c)  D2O

(d)  water contain CaCO3

Answer: (c)

4. When copper reacts with hot and conc.H2SO4, gives

(a)  H2

(b)  N2

(c)  O2

(d)  SO2

Answer: (d)

5. BaO2 and ozone react to produce

(a)  Ba

(b)  BaO3

(c)  BaO

(d)  Ba(OH)3

Answer: (c)

6. Heisenberg uncertainty principle can be explained as

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (b)

7. A gas mixture contains O2 and N2 in the ratio of 1 : 4by weight. The ratio of their number of molecules is

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  3 : 16

(d)  7 : 32

Answer: (d)

8. Bleaching powder is obtained by treating Cl2 with

(a)  Ca(OH)2

(b)  CaO

(c)  CaCO3

(d)  CaCl2

Answer: (a)

9. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle with mass 1 kg and velocity 100 m/s is

(a)  6.6 × 10−33 m

(b)  6.6 × 10−36 m

(c)  3.3 × 10+33 m

(d)  3.3 × 10−36 m

Answer: (b)

10. The volume of a gas measured at 27°C and 1 atm pressure is 10 L. To reduce the volume to 2 L at 1 atm pressure, the temperature required is

(a)  60 K

(b)  75 K

(c)  150 K

(d)  225 K

Answer: (a)

11. The number of moles of oxygen obtained by the electrolytic decomposition of 108 g water is

(a)  2.5

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  7.5

Answer: (b)

12. The change in entropy for the fusion of 1 mole of ice [mp of ice = 273 K, molar enthalpy of fusion for ice = 6.0 kJ mol−1]

(a)  11.73 JK−1 mol−1

(b)  18.84 JK−1 mol−1

(c)  21.97 JK−1 mol−1

(d)  24.47 JK−1 mol−1

Answer: (c)

13. Which does not give a precipitate with AgNO3 solution ?

(a)  [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

(b)  [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2

(c)  [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl

(d)  [Co(NH3)­3Cl3]

Answer: (d)

14. Total volume of atoms present in a face centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer: (a)

15. Pure silicon doped with phosphorus is a metallic conductor

(a)  metallic conductor

(b)  insulator

(c)  n-type semiconductor

(d)  p-type semiconductor

Answer: (c)

16. Neutron is discovered by

(a)  Chadwick

(b)  Rutherford

(c)  Yukawa

(d)  Dalton

Answer: (a)

17. What is X in the following nuclear reaction?

7N14 + 1H18O15 + X

(a)  0n1

(b)  −1e0

(c)  +1e0

(d)  γ

Answer: (d)

18. Solubility product PbCl2 at 298 K is 1 × 10−6. At this temperature solubility of PbCl2 in mol/L is

(a)  (1 × 10−6)1/2

(b)  (1 × 10−6)1/3

(c)  (0.25 × 10−6)1/3

(d)  (2.5 × 10−6)1/2

Answer: (c)

19. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is

(a)  0

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  10

Answer: (b)

20. Gold number is associated with

(a)  amount of gold

(b)  protective colloids

(c)  purple cassius

(d)  electrophoresis

Answer: (b)

21. Noble gases are used in discharge tubes to give different colours. Reddish-orange glow is due to

(a)  Ar

(b)  Ne

(c)  Xe

(d)  Kr

Answer: (b)

22. The set representing the correct order for first ionization potential is

(a)  K > Na > Li

(b)  Be > Mg > Ca

(c)  B > C > N

(d)  Ge > Si > C

Answer: (b)

23. Dry ice is

(a)  solid CO2

(b)  solid camphor

(c)  solid SO2

(d)  solid NO2

Answer: (a)

24. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to

(a)  covalent character

(b)  hydrogen bonding character

(c)  oxygen bonding character

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

25. Stereoisomers differ in

(a)  configuration

(b)  conformation

(c)  they do not differ

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

26. IUPAC name of the following compound

(a)  N, N-dimethylcyclopropane caboxamide

(b)  N-methylcyclopropanamide

(c)  cyclopropionamide

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

27. The product of the following reaction is

2CH3­MgBr + CH2O →

(a)  CH3OH

(b)  C2H5OH

(c)  CH4

(d)  C2H6

Answer: (b)

28. Freon used as refrigerant is

(a)  CF2 = CF2

(b)  CH2F2

(c)  CH4

(d)  C2H6

Answer: (c)

29. Lucas reagent is

(a)  anhy. ZnCl2 and NH3

(b)  anhy. ZnCl2 and CaCl2

(c)  anhy. ZnCl2 and conc. HCl

(d)  anhy. ZnCl2 and HCl gas

Answer: (c)

30. The enzyme which can catalyze the conversion of glucose to ethanol is

(a)  zymase

(b)  invertase

(c)  maltase

(d)  diastase

Answer: (a)

31. When dihydroxy acetone reacts with HIO4, the product is/are

(a)  HCHO

(b)  HCOOH

(c)  HCHO and HCOOH

(d)  HCHO and CO2

Answer: (d)

32. Which of the following does not reduce Fehling’s solution?

(a)  Benzaldehyde

(b)  Formic acid

(c)  Glucose

(d)  Fructose

Answer: (d)

33. Sodium formate on heating gives

(a)  oxalic acid and H2

(b)  sodium oxalate and H2

(c)  sodium oxalate

(d)  CO2 and caustic soda

Answer: (b)

34. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives

(a)  n-propyl alcohol

(b)  isopropyl alcohol

(c)  acetaldehyde

(d)  acetone

Answer: (c)

35. Hydrolysis of phenyl isocyanide forms

(a)  benzoic acid

(b)  formic acid

(c)  acetic acid

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

36. Styrene can be purified by

(a)  simple distillation

(b)  fractional distillation

(c)  steam distillation

(d)  vacuum distillation

Answer: (d)

37. Which of the following is not reducing sugar?

(a)  Glucose

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Sucrose

Answer: (d)

38. The monomer of Teflon is

(a)  CHF = CH2

(b)  CF2 = CF2

(c)  CHCl  = CHCl

(d)  CHF = CHCl

Answer: (b)

39. The hybridization state of carbon in fullerene is

(a)  sp

(b)  sp2

(c)  sp3

(d)  sp3d

Answer: (b)

40. A fruity smell is produced by the reaction of C2H5OH with

(a)  CH3COCH3

(b)  CH3COOH

(c)  PCl5

(d)  CH3CHO

Answer: (b)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Zoology

1. Moulting hormone is secreted by

(a)  corpora cardiacum

(b)  corpora allata

(c)  neurosecretory hormone

(d)  prothoracic gland

Answer: (d)

2. Movements by pseudopodia of Amoeba are due to change in

(a)  Pressure

(b)  atmosphere

(c)  temperature

(d)  viscosity

Answer: (d)

3. From outer to inside the sequence of three bones present in the middle ear of mammals is

(a)  malleus, stapes and incus

(b)  stapes, malleus and incus

(c)  malleus, incus and stapes

(d)  incus, malleus and stapes

Answer: (c)

4. The reabsorption of water in the kidney is under the control of

(a)  LH

(b)  ADH

(c)  STH

(d)  ACTH

Answer: (b)

5. Yersinia pestis is responsible for

(a)  syphilis

(b)  whooping cough

(c)  plague

(d)  leprosy

Answer: (c)

6. Protein present in silk fibre is

(a)  casein

(b)  keratin

(c)  elastin

(d)  fibroin

Answer: (d)

7. Ovulation takes place in a month between

(a)  11-14 day

(b)  14-16 day

(c)  15-28 day

(d)  21-26 day

Answer: (b)

8. In sea anemone, the symmetry is

(a)  radial

(b)  bilateral

(c)  spherical

(d)  absent

Answer: (a)

9. Compound squamous epithelium is found in

(a)  stomach

(b)  intestine

(c)  trachea

(d)  pharynx

Answer: (d)

10. Solenocytes are associated with

(a)  respiration

(b)  digestion

(c)  excretion

(d)  nutrition

Answer: (c)

11. The cavity of diencephalon is known as

(a)  I ventricle

(b)  II ventricle

(c)  III ventricle

(d)  iter

Answer: (c)

12. Which vitamin should not be stored?

(a)  Calciferol

(b)  Retinol

(c)  Niacin

(d)  Ascorbic acid

Answer: (d)

13. Connecting link between annelids and molluscs is

(a)  Neophilina

(b)  Peripatus

(c)  Periplaneta

(d)  Limulus

Answer: (a)

14. Shell of mollusks is derived from

(a)  foot

(b)  mantle

(c)  ctenidia

(d)  placoid

Answer: (b)

15. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in

(a)  house lizard

(b)  flying fish

(c)  pigeon

(d)  tadpole of frog

Answer: (c)

16. A man of ‘A’ blood group marries a woman of ‘AB’ blood group. Which type of progeny would indicate that man is heterozygous?

(a)  O

(b)  B

(c)  A

(d)  AB

Answer: (b)

17. Balbiani rings are the structural features of

(a)  allosomes

(b)  polytene chromosomes

(c)  autosomes

(d)  Lampbrush chromosomes

Answer: (b)

18. Presence of tail in a child is an example of

(a)  atavism

(b)  divergent evolution

(c)  convergent evolution

(d)  mutation

Answer: (a)

19. Action potential is generated by

(a)  Na+

(b)  K+

(c)  Ca+

(d)  Cl

Answer: (a)

20. Aqueous and vitreous humour are divided by

(a)  lens

(b)  iris

(c)  retina

(d)  optic nerve

Answer: (a)

21. Indian rhinoceros are protected in

(a)  Gir Forest

(b)  Kaziranga National Park

(c)  Bandipur National Park

(d)  Ranthambore National Park

Answer: (b)

22. Mitotic spindle have main protein

(a)  tubulin

(b)  myosin

(c)  tropomyocin

(d)  dynein

Answer: (a)

23. Accessory sexual character in female is promoted by

(a)  androgen

(b)  progesterone

(c)  estrogen

(d)  testosterone

Answer: (c)

24. X-linked recessive gene is

(a)  always expressed in male

(b)  always expressed in female

(c)  lethal

(d)  sub lethal

Answer: (a)

25. Ligament is mainly made up of

(a)  reticulin

(b)  elastin

(c)  myosin

(d)  collagen

Answer: (d)

26. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by

(a)  gastrin

(b)  secretin

(c)  enterogasteron

(d)  enterokinase

Answer: (b)

27. Crossing over occurs in

(a)  zygotene

(b)  leptotene

(c)  pachytene

(d)  diplotene

Answer: (c)

28. Mesozoic era is Golden period of

(a)  reptiles

(b)  Mollusca

(c)  fishes

(d)  amphibians

Answer: (a)

29. Hamburger shift is also known as

(a)  bicarbonate shift

(b)  chloride shift

(c)  potassium shift

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

30. “Bundle of His” are

(a)  nervous tissue supplied to ventricles

(b)  nervous tissue supplied to heart

(c)  muscular tissue supplied to ventricle

(d)  muscular tissue supplied to heart

Answer: (c)

31. Cell theory was proposed by

(a)  Virchow

(b)  Schleiden and Schwann

(c)  Robert Hooke

(d)  B McClintock

Answer: (b)

32. Who for the first time developed electron microscope?

(a)  Knoll and Ruska

(b)  Rudolf and Kolliker

(c)  Robert Hooke

(d)  Swanson

Answer: (a)

33. Repressor protein is produced by

(a)  regulator gene

(b)  operator gene

(c)  structural gene

(d)  promoter gene

Answer: (a)

34. Autonomic nervous system affects

(a)  reflex actions

(b)  sensory organs

(c)  internal organ

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

35. Schizogony occurs in

(a)  RBC of human

(b)  intestine of parasite

(c)  liver of human

(d)  liver of parasite

Answer: (c)

36. Gases found in primitive atmosphere are

(a)  CH4, NH3, H2, H2O (vapour form)

(b)  CH4, NH3, CO2, H2O

(c)  CH4, H2O, CO2

(d)  CH4, O2, CO2

Answer: (a)

37. Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are

(a)  nurse cell

(b)  reproductive cell

(c)  receptor cell

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

38. After a deep inspiration and maximum expiration, the capacity of lungs is known as

(a)  vital capacity

(b)  tidal volume

(c)  IRV

(d)  ERV

Answer: (a)

39. Which one is the sweetest sugar ?

(a)  Glucose

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Sucrose

(d)  Maltose

Answer: (b)

40. Species can be identified on the basis of

(a)  interbreed

(b)  species diversity

(c)  reproductive isolation

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

Botany

1. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes belong to the kingdom

(a)  Monera

(b)  Protista

(c)  Animalia

(d)  Fungi

Answer: (a)

2. Water bloom is generally caused by

(a)  green algae

(b)  blue-green algae

(c)  bacteria

(d)  Hydrilla

Answer: (b)

3. Which one of the following is a saprophytic bryophyte?

(a)  Riccia fluitans

(b)  Buxbaumia aphylla

(c)  Funaria hygrometrica

(d)  Sphagnum

Answer: (b)

4. A genophore is made up of

(a)  a single double stranded DNA

(b)  a single stranded DNA

(c)  RNA and histones

(d)  histones and non-histones

Answer: (a)

5. Iodine is obtained from

(a)  Laminaria

(b)  Chlorella

(c)  Polysiphonia

(d)  Porphyra

Answer: (a)

6. Covered smut of barley is caused by

(a)  Ustilago hordei

(b)  Tilletia caries

(c)  Ustilago nuda

(d)  Colletotrichum falcatum

Answer: (a)

7. Root hair absorbs water from soil through

(a)  turgor pressure

(b)  ion exchange

(c)  osmosis

(d)  DPD

Answer: (c)

8. In CAM plants, CO2 acceptor is

(a)  RuBP

(b)  PEP

(c)  OAA

(d)  PGA

Answer: (b)

9. Which one of the following is a natural growth inhibitor?

(a)  NAA

(b)  ABA

(c)  IAA

(d)  GA

Answer: (b)

10. Apical dominance is caused by

(a)  auxin

(b)  gibberellin

(c)  kinetin

(d)  ABA

Answer: (a)

11. Growth of pollen tube towards emryo sac is

(a)  geotropism

(b)  thigmotaxis

(c)  chemotaxis

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

12. Ozone depletion in stratosphere would result in

(a)  forest fires

(b)  global warming

(c)  skin cancer incidence

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

13. Which of the following is a test cross ?

(a)  Tt × tt

(b)  TT × tt

(c)  Tt × Tt

(d)  tt × tt

Answer: (a)

14. 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic and genotypic ratio is found in

(a)  complementary genes

(b)  blending inheritance

(c)  multiple alleles

(d)  pseudo alleles

Answer: (b)

15. The back bone of RNA consists of which of the following sugar?

(a)  Deoxyribose

(b)  Ribose

(c)  Sucrose

(d)  Maltose

Answer: (b)

16. Stop codons are

(a)  AUG, GUG

(b)  UAA, UGA, UAG

(c)  UAC, UGG

(d)  AGU, AGA, UAC

Answer: (b)

17. A lake with nutrients is called

(a)  trophic

(b)  euphotic

(c)  oligotrophic

(d)  eutrophic

Answer: (d)

18. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral?

(a)  Chlorosis

(b)  Etiolation

(c)  Shortening of internodes

(d)  Necrosis

Answer: (b)

19. Retrovirus have genetic material

(a)  DNA only

(b)  RNA only

(c)  DNA or RNA only

(d)  either DNA or RNA only

Answer: (b)

20. DCMU

(a)  inhibits PS-I

(b)  inhibits PS-II

(c)  destroy chloroplast

(d)  inhibits oxidative phosphorylation

Answer: (b)

21. According to Kyoto protocol the major nations abide to reduce concentration of green house gases by

(a)  2008

(b)  2010

(c)  2012

(d)  2018

Answer: (c)

22. Ginger is an underground stem. It is distinguished from root because

(a)  it lacks chlorophyll

(b)  it stores food

(c)  it has nodes and internodes

(d)  it has xylem and vessels

Answer: (c)

23. During DNA replication in prokaryotes DNA is anchored to

(a)  chromosome

(b)  mesosome

(c)  nucleolus

(d)  ribosome

Answer: (b)

24. The mineral present in cell wall is

(a)  Na

(b)  Ca

(c)  K

(d)  Mg

Answer: (b)

25. Male gamete in angiosperm is produced by

(a)  generative cell

(b)  microspore cell

(c)  vegetative cell

(d)  tube cell

Answer: (a)

26. Meristematic tissue in vascular bundle is

(a)  phellem

(b)  procambium

(c)  interfascicular cambium

(d)  fascicular cambium

Answer: (d)

27. Study of Ecology of population is called

(a)  Autecology

(b)  Synecology

(c)  Ecotype

(d)  Demecology

Answer: (d)

28. Which of the following plant is LDP?

(a)  Xanthium

(b)  Soybean

(c)  Wheat

(d)  Tobacco

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following is used as a best genetic vector in plants?

(a)  Bacillus thurengiensis

(b)  Agrobacterium tumifaciens

(c)  Pseudomonas putida

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

30. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis of Beadle and Tatum was experimentally proved on

(a)  Saccharomyces

(b)  Neurospora crassa

(c)  Lathyrus odoratus

(d)  Claviceps

Answer: (b)

31. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?

(a)  Thymine

(b)  Uracil

(c)  Guanine

(d)  Cytosine

Answer: (c)

32. Which organelle is present in higher number in secretory cells?

(a)  Dictyosome

(b)  ER

(c)  Lysosome

(d)  Vacuole

Answer: (a)

33. Bio-indicators are used for

(a)  oxygen demand

(b)  air pollution

(c)  mineral present

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

34. What happened when we inoculated Rhizobium in wheat field?

(a)  No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)

(b)  A lot of increase in production (nitrogen content of soil increases)

(c)  Fertility of soil decreases

(d)  Fertility of soil increases

Answer: (a)

35. Nitrifying bacteria are able to

(a)  convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble forms

(b)  convert ammonia to nitrate

(c)  ammonia to nitrogen

(d)  nitrate to nitrogen

Answer: (b)

36. RNA is not found in

(a)  chromosome

(b)  plasmalemma

(c)  nucleolus

(d)  ribosome

Answer: (b)

37. Systema Naturae was written by

(a)  Linnaeus

(b)  Aristotle

(c)  Hippocrates

(d)  Darwin

Answer: (a)

38. Number of chromosomes in an angiospermic plant is 14, then the number of chromosomes in synergid cells will be

(a)  14

(b)  7

(c)  28

(d)  21

Answer: (b)

39. Phytochrome is present in

(a)  vascular cryptogam

(b)  prokaryotes

(c)  flowering plants

(d)  algae

Answer: (c)

40. Vessels and companion cells are found in

(a)  angiosperm

(b)  pteridophytes

(c)  bryophytes

(d)  thallophytes

Answer: (a)

JIPMER MBBS Entrance Exam – 2008

General English

Directions (Q. 1-5) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

1. To throw dust in one’s eyes

(a)  To show false things

(b)  To make blind

(c)  To harm someone

(d)  To deceive

Answer: (d)

2. To be rolling in money

(a)  Wasting a lot of money

(b)  Very rich

(c)  Borrowing money liberally

(d)  Spending more than his income

Answer: (b)

3. To get into hot waters

(a)  To be impatient

(b)  To suffer a huge financial loss

(c)  To get into trouble

(d)  To be in a confused state of mind

Answer: (c)

4. To save one’s face

(a)  To hide oneself

(b)  To oppose

(c)  To evade disgrace

(d)  To say plainly

Answer: (c)

5. To wash one’s dirty linen in public

(a)  To criticize one’s nature in public

(b)  To quarrel in the open

(c)  To do some ugly work in public

(d)  To discuss dirty and scandalous matters of personal nature in the presence of strangers

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. 6-10) : Choose the correct alternative to fill in the blank.

6. There was so much ………. material in the speech that it was difficult to know what the speaker wanted to say.

(a)  banal

(b)  extraneous

(c)  superficial

(d)  variegated

Answer: (c)

7. Our flight was ……….. from Jaipur to Agra airport.

(a)  deflected

(b)  shifted

(c)  diverted

(d)  reverted

Answer: (c)

8. His ……….. handling resulted in all that destruction and damage.

(a)  inept

(b)  skilful

(c)  sophisticated

(d)  uncouth

Answer: (a)

9. Rabindranath Tagore was a ……… writer of his times.

(a)  true

(b)  fantastic

(c)  profound

(d)  prolific

Answer: (c)

10. The manager tried hard to ………….. his men to return to work before declaring a lockout.

(a)  motivate

(b)  persuade

(c)  encourage

(d)  permit

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 11-15) : In each of the following questions, rearrange the parts P, Q, R and S to make a proper sentence.

11. Little

(P) that he had been let down

(Q) stood by all these years

(R) did he realize

(S) by a colleague whom he had

(a)  QSPR

(b)  QPSR

(c)  RPSQ

(d)  RSQP

Answer: (c)

12. It has been established that

(P) Einstein was

(Q) although a great scientist

(R) Weak in arithmetic

(S) right from his school days

(a)  QPRS

(b)  QPSR

(c)  RQPS

(d)  SRPQ

Answer: (a)

13. The statement

(P) therefore you must listen carefully

(Q) what the speaker has said

(R) in order to understand

(S) will be made just once

(a)  RSPQ

(b)  SPQR

(c)  SPRQ

(d)  SRQP

Answer: (c)

14. Towards midnight

(P) so that the sky was lighted with

(Q) and the clouds drifted away

(R) the rain ceased

(S) the incredible lamp of stars

(a)  RPQS

(b)  RQPS

(c)  SPQR

(d)  SQPR

Answer: (b)

15. Without books

(P) no cultured society is possible

(Q) no fresh ideas are possible

(R) and

(S) without fresh ideas

(a)  PRSQ

(b)  QRSP

(c)  RSPQ

(d)  RSQP

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 16-20) : In each of the following questions, a part of the sentence is italicized. Below each sentence, three possible substitutions for the italicized part are given. Choose the one which improves the italicized part. If none of the substitutions improves the italicized part, your answer is (d)

16. Tell your leader that I grant him permission of stay in my kingdom.

(a)  for stay

(b)  about staying

(c)  to stay

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (c)

17. I was delighted to see him fully recover.

(a)  he full recovered

(b)  him fully recovered

(c)  his fully recovery

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (b)

18. While we would like that all Indian children to go to school, we need to ponder why they do not.

(a)  all Indian children

(b)  that all the Indian children

(c)  if all the children of India

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (a)

19. Scarcely had he left when his friend came.

(a)  He had scarcely left

(b)  He had left scarcely

(c)  He scarcely had left

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (d)

20. Dewan has driven almost thrice so far as Mr. Gupta has.

(a)  as far

(b)  as far as

(c)  as much as

(d)  No improvement

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. 21-25) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is most  nearly the same in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.

21. The prisoner has been languishing in the jail for the last many years.

(a)  enjoying

(b)  avoiding

(c)  suffering

(d)  convicted

Answer: (c)

22. Some people adopt excellent manners only to camouflage their real character.

(a)  project

(b)  hide

(c)  misrepresent

(d)  reveal

Answer: (b)

23. The venerated the old teacher.

(a)  humiliated

(b)  teased

(c)  respected

(d)  let go

Answer: (c)

24. Nobody has yet seen the peregrination of heavenly beings on earth.

(a)  visit

(b)  arrival

(c)  travelling

(d)  casting glance on

Answer: (c)

25. He did not make any attempt to placate

(a)  please

(b)  pacify

(c)  serve

(d)  satisfy

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. 26-30) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word given in italics in the sentence.

26. My uncle is very wealthy, but rather parsimonious in his habits.

(a)  extravagant

(b)  generous

(c)  careless

(d)  strict

Answer: (a)

27. I am somewhat skeptical about his claim.

(a)  optimistic

(b)  convinced

(c)  credulous

(d)  hopeful

Answer: (b)

28. His writings have been much eulogised by Indian scholars.

(a)  condemned

(b)  flouted

(c)  disapproved

(d)  disparaged

Answer: (a)

29. The boy was accused of theft.

(a)  liberated

(b)  impeached

(c)  exonerated

(d)  sentenced

Answer: (c)

30. This is not ideology but pragmatic language teaching.

(a)  impractical

(b)  improper

(c)  imperfect

(d)  impossible

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. 31-35) : In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

31. A man who is having the qualities of woman

(a)  Loquacious

(b)  Celibate

(c)  Effeminate

(d)  Epicurean

Answer: (c)

32. A word no longer in use

(a)  Exotic

(b)  Primitive

(c)  Obsolete

(d)  Ancient

Answer: (c)

33. A person who enters without any invitation

(a)  Burglar

(b)  Intruder

(c)  Thief

(d)  Vandal

Answer: (b)

34. The period between two reigns

(a)  Lapse

(b)  Interregnum

(c)  Anachronism

(d)  Intermission

Answer: (b)

35. Poem in short stanzas narrating a popular story

(a)  Ballet

(b)  Epic

(c)  Ballad

(d)  Sonnet

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. 36-40) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Journalism combines writing with news gathering and interpretation. While the journalist’s work obviously varies from newspaper to newspaper and from magazine to magazine, all journalists are as much research workers, as they are writers. They cannot write their news or feature stories, unless they locate it and research them first. They must be able to read the in-between lines of the main source-news and interpret that. A great many stories hunt the journalist, who rejects most of them. he carefully sorts and sifts those, taking only a relatively very small proportion of news, may be, coming from an unexpected source. A successful journalist may gather news to the tune of 100 percent but he can use them for his profession only 3-5 percent. He must be able to see or forecast to himself, the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of tomorrow or the day after, from the news of today; because newspapers want advance news or advance warning to give a good, exclusive and exhaustive coverage to anything of interest. But a real ‘scoop’ is a very rare event. And bogus scoops also bring disrepute to the newspaper.

36. According to the passage, a journalist’s work includes

(a)  writing

(b)  news gathering

(c)  sorting out the news

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

37. What, according to the passage, is the common characteristic of all journalists?

(a)  They all write for the newspapers

(b)  They all have to first probe into the news they gather

(c)  They all make an adventure to find a worthy news

(d)  They all can forecast future news

Answer: (b)

38. What is most important for a journalist?

(a)  He must be able to interpret the news correctly

(b)  He must know how to sort out the news

(c)  He must be able to write effectively

(d)  He must know how to gather the right news

Answer: (a)

39. What does the passage say about successful journalists?

(a)  They reject a major portion of the gathered news

(b)  They can use a relatively small portion of the news

(c)  Their news come from unexpected sources

(d)  They present advance news

Answer: (b)

40. What is the basic requisite for exclusive and exhaustive coverage of newspaper?

(a)  Forecast of tomorrow’s news from today’s news

(b)  Collecting the news of a ‘real scoop’

(c)  Selection of a small portion of the gathered news

(d)  Effective style of writing

Answer: (a)