UGC NET Exam December 2014 Environmental Science Paper-3 Question Paper With Answer Key

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

Paper – III

Note : This paper contains seventy five (75) objective type questions of two (2) marks each. All questions are compulsory.

1. Which of the following ranges of scale lengths represents meso-scale motions inatmosphere ?

(A) 30 km – 400 km

(B) 500 m – 10 km

(C) 1 km – 2 km

(D) 100 m – 1 km

Ans: (A)

2. Rayleigh scattering in the atmosphere is caused by

(A) molecules larger than the wavelength

(B) molecules equal to the size of wavelength

(C) molecules whose size is much smaller than the wavelength

(D) molecules and particles of all sizes

Ans: (C)

3. Wind rose is a

(A) graphical representation of wind velocity vector over a period of time in a polar diagram.

(B) graphical representation of wind velocity vector in a spherical coordinate system over a period of time.

(C) graphical representation of horizontal and vertical wind speeds over a period of time in polar diagram.

(D) graphical representation of instantaneous wind velocity at a particular time. 

Ans: (A)

4. The key groups of organic molecules that help in chelation of metal ions are

I. – COOH

II. – SH

III. – CH3

IV. – CHO

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) I only

(B) I and II only

(C) II, III and IV only

(D) I, II and IV only

Ans: (D)

5. Geostrophic winds are the result of the balance between

(A) coriolis force and pressure gradient force

(B) coriolis force and centrifugal force

(C) pressure gradient force and frictional force

(D) pressure gradient force and centrifugal force

Ans: (A)

6. A possible mechanism for photochemical smog inhibition is to add compounds like diethylhydroxylamine (DEHA) as it reacts with

(A) hydrocarbon

(B) nitrogen dioxide

(C) PAN

(D) hydroxyl radicals

Ans: (D)

7. In the determination of sulphur dioxide by p-rosaniline method, the end product is

(A) p-rosaniline sulfonic acid

(B) methyl p-rosaniline

(C) p-rosaniline methyl sulfonic acid

(D) sulfo methyl p-rosaniline

Ans: (C)

8. Number of molecuels present in 10 ml of proline is

(A) 6.023 × 1023

(B) 6.023 × 1020

(C) 6.023 × 1018

(D) 6.023 × 1017

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

9. Nitrogenous biochemical oxygen demand refers to the quantity of O2 needed to convert

Ans: (C)

10. Beer-Lambert’s law defines

(A) The degree of absorption of monochromatic light by a homogeneous medium

(B) Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

(C) Atomic emission spectrophotometry

(D) Gas chromatography

Ans: (A)

11. Chemically phytochelatins are

(A) Proteins

(B) Polysaccharides

(C) Lipids

(D) Polypeptides

Ans: (D)

12. Mixture of organic pollutants X and Y were separated using paper chromatography and the Rf values obtained for X and Y were 0.75 and 0.25, respectively. Which relationship holds good for the solubility of these pollutants in mobile phase ?

(A) X > Y

(B) X < Y

(C) X = Y

(D) X + Y = 1

Ans: (A)

13. Overall reaction of Winkler’s method is

This equation indicates :

(A) One mole of O2 is equivalent to one mole of thiosulphate.

(B) One mole of O2 is equivalent to two moles of thiosulphate.

(C) One mole of O2 is equivalent to three moles of thiosulphate.

(D) One mole of O2 is equivalent to four moles of thiosulphate.

Ans: (D)

14. Return of an ecosystem to a condition prior to disturbance refers to as

(A) Rehabilitation

(B) Restoration

(C) Rejuvenation

(D) Reclaimation

Ans: (B)

15. Assertion (A) : Shade loving species show better natural regeneration under highly disturbed condition.

Reason (R) : Heliophilic species needs more exposure to light for better natural regeneration.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (D)

16. Which one of the following enzymes work under strict anaerobic conditions to fix atmospheric nitrogen ?

(A) Nitrate reductase

(B) Nitrite reductase

(C) Transaminase

(D) Nitrogenase

Ans: (D)

17. Predatory strategy followed by an alligator for hunting is

(A) Chase

(B) Stalk

(C) Ambush

(D) Camouflage

Ans: (C)

18. In a tropical peat forest, the carbon storage (tonnes/ha) is typically in the range

(A) 3000 – 6000

(B) 13000 – 16000

(C) 300 – 600

(D) 300 – 1600

Ans: (A)

19. Which one of the following bacterial species convert 

(A) Nitrosomonas

(B) Nitrobacter

(C) Rhizobium

(D) Azospirillum

Ans: (B)

20. Assertion (A) : Living system adapted to low temperatures invariably show higher unsaturated to saturated fatty acid in membrane lipids.

Reason (R) : Fluidity of membranes is directly proportional to unsaturated to saturated fatty acids in membrane lipids.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

21. Which of the following(s) are produced during fermentation ?

I. Ethanol

II. Citrate

III. Lactate

IV. Succinate

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) I only

(B) I and II only

(C) I and III only

(D) II and IV only

Ans: (C)

22. Salinity of the ocean varies from 2.0 % to 4.2 % in

(A) Red Sea and Gulf of Kachchh

(B) Black Sea and Omura Bay

(C) Baltic Sea and Persian Gulf

(D) Mediterranean Sea and Bay of Fundy

Ans: (C)

23. Uranium in Indian agricultural soils is mainly contributed by

(A) Weathering of Uranium rich minerals

(B) Excess addition of NPK fertilizers

(C) Excess addition of pesticides

(D) Excess addition of fungicides

Ans: (B)

24. Loamy sand contains

(A) > 80 % silt and > 80 % clay

(B) 10 % silt and 5 % clay

(C) 15 to 30 % silt and 10 to 15 % clay

(D) > 80 % silt and < 20% clay

Ans: (C)

25. Spectral reflectance of leaf is highest for which band ?

(A) Blue

(B) Green

(C) Near infrared

(D) Middle infrared

Ans: (C)

26. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the given codes :

Ans: (C)

27. Indian Microwave Remote Sensing Satellite is

(A) RISAT

(B) Resourcesat

(C) IRS

(D) Bhaskara

Ans: (A)

28. Mount Etna in Sicily and Mauna Loa in Hawaiian Islands are the most noteworthy examples of

(A) shield volcanoes

(B) plug dome

(C) strato volcanoes

(D) pyroclastic cones

Ans: (A)

29. Match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the given codes :

Ans: (B)

30. Which of the following fuels has the highest HHV carbon intensity ?

(A) Natural gas

(B) Oil

(C) Bituminous coal

(D) Nuclear fuel

Ans: (C)

31. If fission of 1 atom of U235 produces 200 MeV energy, how much energy will be produced by 1 metric ton of U235 ?

(A) 4.1 × 107 MJ

(B) 8.2 × 107 MJ

(C) 1.23 × 108 MJ

(D) 2 × 105 MJ

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

32. The Green Climate Fund recently set up to help poor countries adapt to climate impacts envisages financial support to the extent of (in $ per year)

(A) 100 bn

(B) 30 bn

(C) 10 bn

(D) 3 bn

Ans: (A)

33. Which of the following biomass conversion processes produces biogas from crop residues ?

(A) Anaerobic digestion

(B) Fermentation

(C) Pyrolysis

(D) Aerobic digestion

Ans: (A)

34. Which among the following is superior carbon fixer per unit area for bioenergy generation ?

(A) Trees

(B) Shrubs

(C) Blue-green algae

(D) Crops

Ans: (C)

35. Energy flow in ecosystem is governed by

(A) First law of thermodynamics

(B) Second law of thermodynamics

(C) Planck’s law

(D) Kirchoff’s law

Ans: (A)

36. Average number of carbon in diesel ranges between

(A) C18 – C24

(B) C10 – C16

(C) C4 – C6

(D) C25 – C30

Ans: (B)

37. Knocking effect in the gasoline cannot be reached by one of the following additives :

(A) (C2H5)4Pb

(B) BTX

(C) Kerosene

(D) n-Butane

Ans: (ALL OPTIONS ARE CORRECT)

38. Radioactive mineral available in the Indian coastal region is

(A) Rutile

(B) Monazite

(C) Apatite

(D) Magnetite

Ans: (B)

39. Thermal pollution in the coastal region is caused by

i. Atomic power plants

ii. Thermal power plants

iii. Industrial plants

iv. Tourism industry

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) i, ii, iii only

(B) i & ii only

(C) iii & iv only

(D) ii & iii only

Ans: (B)

40. Assertion (A) : Metallic contaminants are toxic to the microorganism.

Reason (R) : Heavy metal tends to precipitate in the form of phosphatic compounds and decrease soil fertility.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

41. A point source of sound produces a noise of 70 dB at a distance of 20 m from it. What will be the noise level at 80 m from it ?

(A) 35 dB

(B) 64 dB

(C) 58 dB

(D) 52 dB

Ans: (C)

42. Stratospheric ozone absorbs UV radiations principally in the wavelength range

(A) 320 – 400 nm

(B) 230 – 320 nm

(C) < 290 nm

(D) 180 – 240 nm

Ans: (B)

43. If Γd, Γs and Grepresent dry adiabatic, saturated adiabatic lapse rate and environmental lapse rate, respectively, the condition for unstable atmosphere is

(A) Γ > Γd

(B) Γ < Γd

(C) Γ < Γs

(D) Γ < Γs < Γd

Ans: (A)

44. At initial time (t0) number of E. coli per ml was 10. If generation time is 30 minutes, what would be number of cells per ml after a duration of 4 hours ?

(A) 256

(B) 2560

(C) 240

(D) 300

Ans: (B)

45. Emission inventories involved in urban air quality assessment include parameters on

i. SO2, NOx, particulate matter pollutants

ii. Industry, traffic, domestic sources

iii. Fuel type, gasoline, wood as energy carrier

Choose the correct answer from codes given below :

Codes :

(A) i & ii only

(B) ii & iii only

(C) i & iii only

(D) i, ii & iii

Ans: (D)

46. Assertion (A) : Leopold matrix can be expanded or contracted.

Reason (R) : Leopold matrix is a checklist designed to show possible interactions between developmental activities and set of environmental characteristics.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

47. In Battele environment evaluation system the total parameter importance units is lowest for

(A) Ecology

(B) Environmental Pollution

(C) Aesthetics

(D) Human interest

Ans: (C)

48. ISO 14040 is

(A) Environmental Management : Life cycle assessment principle and framework.

(B) Environmental Management – environmental assessment of sites and organization.

(C) Guidelines for environmental audit – general principle.

(D) Environmental Management – vocabulary.

Ans: (A)

49. Given below are stages within each tier of risk assessment :

i. identification of consequences

ii. hazard identification

iii. probability assessment

iv. assessment of consequences as well as significance of risk

v. magnitude assessment for consequences

Which one of the following code represent correct sequences ?

(A) ii, i, v, iii, iv

(B) i, ii, iii, iv, v

(C) iii, ii, iv, v, i

(D) iv, ii, i, iii, v

Ans: (A)

50. Ecolabels are indicators of

i. Acceptable level of environmental impact of a product.

ii. Environmental performance of a product.

iii. Claims of environmental friendliness of a product.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) i, ii, iii

(B) i, ii only

(C) i only

(D) ii only

Ans: (B)

51. Ecosystem diversity can be best studied using the

(A) Topographical maps

(B) Geoinformatics

(C) Geodesy

(D) Geology

Ans: (B)

52. Biennial assessment of forest cover in India is done by

(A) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Dehradun

(B) Forest Research Institute, Dehradun

(C) Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal

(D) Forest Survey of India, Dehradun

Ans: (D)

53. Soil moisture using remote sensing techniques is determined best in

(A) Optical region

(B) Thermal region

(C) Microwave region

(D) Infrared region

Ans: (C)

54. Which one of the following statements is not connected to ISO 14000 series of Environmental Management ?

(A) Promotes eco-labelling of the product

(B) It is based on the recommendation of TC-207 committee

(C) Make the environmental audit mandatory

(D) Promotes human rights and women empowerment

Ans: (D)

55. As per colour coding of plastic bags for biomedical wastes, match the List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Ans: (C)

56. Given below is a list of natural disasters :

i. Hudhud cyclone

ii. Chernobyl nuclear plant disaster

iii. Tsunami in Indian Ocean

iv. Bhopal gas tragedy

Which is the correct chronological sequence for the above events in the codes given below ?

Codes :

(A) iii, i, ii, iv

(B) ii, iii, i, iv

(C) iv, ii, iii, i

(D) i, ii, iii, iv

Ans: (C)

57. Benchmarking in environmental management refers to

(A) Potential risk assessment.

(B) Reporting of environmental performance.

(C) Assessment of organization’s business processes against the best-in-class operations to improve the performance.

(D) Setting of environmental standards to be followed by environmental managers.

Ans: (C)

58. Basel convention is related to

(A) Control of ozone depletion.

(B) Control of water pollution.

(C) Transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal.

(D) Environmental auditing.

Ans: (C)

59. Concept of intergenerational equity on natural resources refers to

(A) Legal obligations of present generation to future generations.

(B) Moral obligation of the present generation to future generation.

(C) Equitable responsibility of pollution generating industries.

(D) Prudent use of resources inherited from previous generation.

Ans: (B)

60. Which among the following is not correct in regard to the sources of nitrate in the soils ?

i. Microbial breakdown of soil organic matter, organic manure and plant residues.

ii. Fertilizers which add nitrate and that formed by microbial oxidation of NH+ 4 from ammonium fertilizers or urea.

iii. Addition from the atmosphere.

iv. Pesticides containing nitrogen atoms.

Choose the correct answer from the following codes :

Codes :

(A) i

(B) ii

(C) iii

(D) iv

Ans: (D)

61. Which one of the following protozoan is related to water borne disease ?

(A) Spumella sp.

(B) Entamoeba histolytica

(C) Paramoecium

(D) Plasmodium vivax

Ans: (B)

62. Match the List – I with List – II, choose the correct answer from the given codes :

Ans: (B)

63. The differences between crude birth rate and crude death rate in a population is called

(A) Population momentum

(B) Demographic transition rate

(C) Net migration rate

(D) Rate of natural increase

Ans: (D)

64. Which set of stoichiometric coefficient correctly balance the equation ?

a. H2O2 + b. KMnO4 + c. H2SO4 → d. K2SO4 + e. MnSO4 + f. H2O + g. O2

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

Ans: (B)

65. Assertion (A) : The hypothesis testing can proceed on the basis of null hypothesis.

Reason (R) : If null hypothesis is true probabilities to different possible sample result can be assigned to it.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (A)

66. The advantage of Leslie matrices are

I. Stable age distribution is not required for valid population projections.

II. Can derive finite rate of population change.

III. Requires large amount of data on population structure.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) I and III only

(B) I only

(C) I and II only

(D) II and III only

Ans: (C)

67. Important characteristics of χ2 test are

I. As a non-parametric test, it is based on frequencies.

II. It is not useful for estimation and to test hypothesis.

III. Can be applied to a complex contingency table.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) I and II only

(B) I and III only

(C) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

Ans: (D)

68. The quantity of 0.2% solution needed to prepare 1000 mL of 10 ppm solution is

(A) 5 mL

(B) 10 mL

(C) 20 mL

(D) 200 mL

Ans: (A)

69. Which one of the following international events was not related to climate change ?

(A) UN framework convention on climate change, 1992.

(B) Montreal Protocol, 1987

(C) Stockholm conference on “Human and Environment”, 1972

(D) Kyoto Protocol, 1997

Ans: (C)

70. Which of the following has the lowest Ozone depletion potential ?

(A) HCFC – 22

(B) HCFC – 123

(C) Halon – 1211

(D) CFC – 12

Ans: (B)

71. Assertion (A) : Rain water harvesting, primarily aims at artificial recharge of ground water to uplift the ground water table.

Reason (R) : Under rain water harvesting, the primary aim is to let the rain water infiltrate into the underground aquifer.

In the context of the two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Ans: (B)

72. For environmental mass awareness, Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched in the year

(A) 1988

(B) 2003

(C) 1992

(D) 1998

Ans: (C)

73. Disaster Management Act in India came into existence in the year

(A) 2003

(B) 2005

(C) 1998

(D) 2006

Ans: (B)

74. Which one of the following is most reactive oxygen species ?

(A) 1O2

(B) 

(C) H2O2

(D) 

Ans: (D)

75. If we move through the group I elements from top to bottom we first encounter Lithium, Sodium and Potassium. If we move further which elements we will encounter in sequence ?

(A) Caesium, Calcium, Rubidium

(B) Rubidium, Caesium, Francium

(C) Rubidium, Caesium, Rhodium

(D) Magnesium, Rubidium, Francium

Ans: (B)