Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot Examination-2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

RRB Allahabad Assistant Loco Pilot Examination-2013

1. A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the top of his head. In order to see his entire height, right from toe to had, he uses a plane mirror kept at a distance of 1 m from him. The minimum length of the plane mirror required is

(a)   180 cm

(b)   90 cm

(c)   85 cm

(d)   170 cm

Answer: (b)

2. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting a

(a)   high resistance in series

(b)   high resistance in parallel

(c)   low resistance in series

(d)   low resistance in parallel

Answer: (a)

3. What is increased in a step-down transformer?

(a)   Voltage

(b)   Power

(c)   Current

(d)   Current density

Answer: (d)

4. Which one of the following is most abundant metallic element?

(a)   Aluminium

(b)   Iron

(c)   Gold

(d)   Silver

Answer: (a)

5. Which one of the following elements is used as a catalyst in the dehydration of vegetable oils?

(a)   Pt

(b)   Na

(c)   Ru

(d)   P

Answer: (a)

6. Permanent hardness of water may be removed by the addition of

(a)   potash alum

(b)   lime

(c)   sodium carbonate

(d)   potassium permanganate

Answer: (c)

7. The field of view is maximum when image is formed by reflection at

(a)   plane mirror

(b)   convex mirror

(c)   concave

(d)   cylindrical mirror

Answer: (b)

8. The plane surface of a plano-convex lens is silvered. Focal length of lens is f. After silvering, it will behave is

(a)   plane mirror

(b)   convex mirror of focal length 2f

(c)   concave mirror of focal length f/2

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

9. A plano-convex lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5. The radius of curvature of its convex surface is R. Its focal length is

(a)   R/2

(b)   R1

(c)   2R

(d)   1.5R

Answer: (c)

10. A galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by connecting a

(a)   low resistance in parallel

(b)   low resistance in series

(c)   high resistance in parallel

(d)   high resistance in series

Answer: (a)

11. In transformer, core is made of soft iron to reduce

(a)   eddy current losses

(b)   magnetic flux losses

(c)   copper losses

(d)   hysteresis

Answer: (d)

12. In a transformer, 220 AC voltage is increased to 220 V. If the number of turns in the secondary are 2000, then the number of turns in the primary will be

(a)   20

(b)   100

(c)   50

(d)   200

Answer: (d)

13. First organic compound which was prepared in laboratory is

(a)   methane

(b)   urea

(c)   formaldehyde

(d)   water

Answer: (b)

14. Purest form of iron is

(a)   cast iron

(b)   pig iron

(c)   steel

(d)   wrought iron

Answer: (b)

15. Temporary hardness of water can be removed

(a)   by passing CO2

(b)   by passing SO2

(c)   by adding Ca(OH)2

(d)   by adding NaCl

Answer: (c)

16. At a particular height, the velocity of an ascending body is u. The velocity at the same height while the body falls under gravity is

(a)   u

(b)   u2

(c)   2u

(d)   u/2

Answer: (a)

17. A force of 100 N acts on a huge mass of 100 kg for 0.1 s. Change in momentum will be

(a)   100 kg m/s

(b)   10 kg m/s

(c)   1 kg m/s

(d)   0.1 kg m/s

Answer: (b)

18. Two bodies having masses in the ratio 2 : 3 fall freely under gravity from heights 9 : 16. The ratio of their linear momenta on touching the ground is

(a)   2 : 9

(b)   3 : 16

(c)   1 : 2

(d)   3 : 2

Answer: (c)

19. Maximum work will be done if the angle between force applied and displacement produced is

(a)   zero

(b)   45°

(c)   90°

(d)   180°

Answer: (a)

20. An artificial satellite is revolving around earth. The physical quantity which is conserved is

(a)   angular momentum

(b)   torque

(c)   moment of inertia

(d)   total energy

Answer: (a)

21.  If the speed of light in glass is 2.00 × 108 m/s, the speed in water will be

(a)   2.67 × 108 m/s

(b)   2.25 × 108 m/s

(c)   1.78 × 108 m/s

(d)   1.50 × 108 m/s

Answer: (b)

22. The reason for shining of air bubble in water is

(a)   diffraction of light

(b)   dispersion of light

(c)   scattering of light

(d)   total internal reflection

Answer: (d)

23. The emf of a primary cell is 2 V. When it is short-circuited, it gives a current of 4 A. Its internal resistance is

(a)   2.0 Ω

(b)   5.0 Ω

(c)   0.5 Ω

(d)   8.0 Ω

Answer: (c)

24. A choke coil has

(a)   low inductance and high resistance

(b)   high inductance and low resistance

(c)   high inductance and high resistance

(d)   low inductance and low resistance

Answer: (b)

25. Which one of the following is most stable for cores of transformer?

(a)   Steel

(b)   Brass

(c)   Copper

(d)   Soft iron

Answer: (c)

26. An element which is not found in nature is

(a)   Pt

(b)   K

(c)   Zn

(d)   Pm

Answer: (d)

27. The phenomenon utilized in an optical fibre is

(a)   refraction

(b)   interference

(c)   polarization

(d)   total internal reflection

Answer: (d)

28. Kirchoff’s second law is based on the law of conservation of

(a)   charge

(b)   momentum

(c)   angular momentum

(d)   energy

Answer: (d)

29. The effective resistance between points A and B is

(a)   60 Ω

(b)   40 Ω

(c)   20 Ω

(d)   10 Ω

Answer: (d)

30. A 100% efficient transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 25 turns in its secondary coil. If the current in the secondary coil is 4 A, then the current in the primary coil is

(a)   16 A

(b)   8 A

(c)   4 A

(d)   1 A

Answer: (d)

31. Distant objects can be seen with the help of

(a)   cronometer

(b)   telescope

(c)   microscope

(d)   telephone

Answer: (b)

32. The velocity of light was measured by

(a)   Romer

(b)   Galileo

(c)   Newton

(d)   Kepler

Answer: (a)

33. Silk worms are feed on

(a)   insects

(b)   mulberry leaves

(c)   grasses

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

34. Silk is produced by

(a)   egg of silkworm

(b)   pupa of silkworm

(c)   larva of silkworm

(d)   insect itself

Answer: (c)

35. Sound waves are

(a)   longitudinal

(b)   transverse

(c)   partly longitudinal and partly transverse

(d)   sometimes longitudinal and sometimes transverse

Answer: (a)

36. Temperature of the body measures

(a)   hotness of the body

(b)   amount of heat contained in the body

(c)   degree of hotness of the body

(d)   the average energy of molecules of the object

Answer: (c)

37. A substance which alters the rate of reaction is called

(a)   activator

(b)   initiator

(c)   promoter

(d)   catalyst

Answer: (d)

38. In an isothermal expansion of ideal gas

(a)   W = 0

(b)   ∆E = 0

(c)   ∆V = 0

(d)   q = 0

Answer: (b)

39. Quantity of light entering the eyes is controlled by

(a)   retina

(b)   eye-lids

(c)   iris

(d)   eye-lens

Answer: (c)

40. The escape velocity of a projectile from the surface of the earth is approximately

(a)   11.3 kms1

(b)   11.2 kms1

(c)   11.5 kms1

(d)   11.4 kms1

Answer: (b)

41. Which of the following bond is most polar?

(a)   C―S

(b)   C―F

(c)   C―O

(d)   C―Br

Answer: (b)

42. BaO is a/an

(a)   amphoteric oxide

(b)   neutral oxide

(c)   acidic oxide

(d)   basic oxide

Answer: (d)

43. Mirror formula is true only when

(a)   object is placed infront of the mirror

(b)   aperture of the mirror is small

(c)   rays of light are always parallel to the principal axis

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (b)

44. Sodium salt of fatty acid is

(a)   soap

(b)   detergent

(c)   cake

(d)   vinegar

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following is a compound?

(a)   Air

(b)   Oxygen

(c)   Ammonia

(d)   Mercury

Answer: (c)

46. Absolute zero is the temperature equal

(a)   27°C

(b)   −273.16°C

(c)   273.16°C

(d)   room temperature

Answer: (b)

47. The molecular weight of CO2 is maximum at

(a)   STP

(b)   273°C and 2 atm

(c)   127°C and 1 atm

(d)   0°C and 2 atm

Answer: (c)

48. Waves inside a gas are

(a)   longitudinal

(b)   transverse

(c)   partly longitudinal and partly transverse

(d)   Neither longitudinal nor transverse

Answer: (a)

49. The hybridization of [Ni(CN)4]2 ion is

(a)   dsp2

(b)   sp2

(c)   sp3

(d)   sp3d2

Answer: (a)

50. Gypsum is added to Portland cement to

(a)   accelerate the process of setting

(b)   harden it

(c)   retard the process of setting

(d)   improve hydratability of cement

Answer: (c)

51. The Lakshadweep islands are situated in

(a)   Indian Ocean

(b)   Arabian Sea

(c)   Bay of Bengal

(d)   None of these

Answer: (b)

52. Old-written material, which cannot be read easily, can be read by

(a)   cosmic rays

(b)   ultraviolet rays

(c)   infrared rays

(d)   None of these

Answer: (c)

53. Who considered teaching as tripolar process?

(a)   Green

(b)   Dewey

(c)   Smith

(d)   Tagore

Answer: (c)

54. The Constitution of India does not mention the post of

(a)   the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(b)   the Deputy Prime Minister

(c)   the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(d)   the Deputy of Speaker of the State Legislative Assemblies

Answer: (b)

55. The sweetest sugar is

(a)   sucrose

(b)   glucose

(c)   fructose

(d)   lactose

Answer: (c)

56. The Nobel Prize of Economics was instituted in 1967, but was first awarded in

(a)   1967

(b)   1988

(c)   1969

(d)   1970

Answer: (c)

57. ‘A star which appears blue’ is

(a)   cooler than the moon

(b)   hotter than the sun

(c)   as hot as the sun

(d)   cooler than the sun

Answer: (b)

58. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)   Planning Commission is a constitutional body

(b)   The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the Planning Commission

(c)   The Minister of Planning is always necessarily the Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission

(d)   The draft plan is prepared by the National Development Council

Answer: (b)

59. Speed of sound is greater in solids than in liquids because

(a)   the atoms in solids are regularly arranged

(b)   the atoms in liquids are loosely packed

(c)   the solids have high elasticity

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

60. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is

(a)   zinc

(b)   copper

(c)   aluminium

(d)   iron

Answer: (c)

61. Which of the following is skin disease?

(a)   Anaemia

(b)   Pellagra

(c)   Osteomalacia

(d)   Rickets

Answer: (b)

62. Which of the following is not associated with the UNO?

(a)   ILO

(b)   WHO

(c)   Security Council

(d)   ASEAN

Answer: (d)

63. The first woman to climb Mount Everest was

(a)   Marie Jose Perec

(b)   Florence Griffith Joyner

(c)   Junko Tabei

(d)   Jackie Joyner Kersee

Answer: (c)

64. China has hosted the

(a)   XXIX Olympic Games

(b)   XXVIII Olympic Games

(c)   XXVII Olympic Games

(d)   XXX Olympic Games

Answer: (a)

65. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by

(a)   Edward Stone

(b)   Le Corbusier

(c)   Edwin Lutyens

(d)   Tarun Dutt

Answer: (c)

66. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of

(a)   Calcutta

(b)   Lahore

(c)   Allahabad

(d)   Madras

Answer: (b)

67. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India?

(a)   AD 1950

(b)   AD 1945

(c)   AD 1947

(d)   AD 1962

Answer: (d)

68. Who is the author of Prithviraj Raso?

(a)   Chandabardai

(b)   Gunadhya

(c)   Amir Khusro

(d)   Samdeva

Answer: (a)

69. Pandyas were centred in

(a)   Madurai

(b)   Tanjore

(c)   Andhra Pradesh

(d)   Kaveripattan

Answer: (a)

70. The Gandhara school of art depicted

(a)   Indo-Greek art

(b)   Indo-Roman art

(c)   Indo-European art

(d)   Indo-African art

Answer: (a)

71. The uppermost layer of the earth is

(a)   the core

(b)   the crust

(c)   the mantle

(d)   the inner core

Answer: (b)

72. Volcanic material deposited on the surface of the earth is known as

(a)   Hinduism

(b)   Jainism

(c)   Buddhism

(d)   Sikhism

Answer: (a)

73. Lord Mahavira was the last of the Tirthankaras of

(a)   Hinduism

(b)   Jainism

(c)   Buddhism

(d)   Sikhism

Answer: (b)

74. Shakuntalum was written by

(a)   Kalidasa

(b)   Bhasa

(c)   Ashvgosha

(d)   Kamban

Answer: (a)

75. “An address to the working class” was drafted by

(a)   Karl Peters

(b)   Bebeuf

(c)   Karl Marx

(d)   Stalin

Answer: (c)

76. Imperialism means

(a)   capture of colonies through war

(b)   subjugation/domination

(c)   economic control

(d)   wars

Answer: (b)

77. How many times have been proclamation of National Emergency?

(a)   One

(b)   Two

(c)   Three

(d)   Four

Answer: (c)

78. Akbar established ‘Mansab System’ in the year

(a)   AD 1560

(b)   AD 1565

(c)   AD 1575

(d)   AD 1580

Answer: (b)

79. The concept of ‘Sulh-i-Kul’ was based on

(a)   Islamic Shariat

(b)   Hinduism

(c)   Doctrine of Wahdatul Wujud

(d)   None of the above

Answer: (c)

80. The Vice President is elected for a term of

(a)   5 yr

(b)   6 yr

(c)   4 yr

(d)   No such limit

Answer: (a)

81. Who has the power of declare the war of peace in India?

(a)   The President

(b)   The Vice President

(c)   The Parliament

(d)   The Prime Minister

Answer: (a)

82. Akbar opened the Ibadat-Khana at Fatehpur Sikri for non-muslim scholars in the year

(a)   AD 1575

(b)   AD 1577

(c)   AD 1578

(d)   AD 1579

Answer: (c)

83. ‘Silver Tanka’ and ‘Copper Jital’ were introduced by

(a)   Qutubuddin Aibak

(b)   Iltutmish

(c)   Balban

(d)   Alauddin Khilji

Answer: (b)

84. Many of the active volcanoes are situated in

(a)   Atlantic ocean

(b)   Pacific ocean

(c)   Indian ocean

(d)   Arctic ocean

Answer: (b)

85. Where was the first cotton mill established in India?

(a)   Surat

(b)   Mumbai

(c)   Ahmedabad

(d)   Coimbatore

Answer: (b)

86. he Ryatwari Settlement was primarily introduced by the British Government in

(a)   Madras and Bombay

(b)   The Ganga Yamuna Doab

(c)   United Provinces

(d)   Bengal and Bihar

Answer: (a)

87. During the Revolt of 1857, the revolutionaries in Jagdishpur were led by

(a)   Ajimulla Khan

(b)   Kunwar Singh

(c)   Khan Bahadur Khan

(d)   Tantya Tope

Answer: (b)

88. Raja Ram Mohan Roy brought in a new wave of thinking to India. It was

(a)   questioning

(b)   experimenting

(c)   rationalism and reasoning

(d)   thinking

Answer: (c)

89. Mahadev Govind Ranade founded the

(a)   Arya Samaj

(b)   Brahmo Samaj

(c)   Prarthana Samaj

(d)   Theosophical Society

Answer: (c)

90. The name of the spiritual Guru of Shivaji was

(a)   Dadaji Kondadeva

(b)   Ramdas

(c)   Tukaram

(d)   Eknath

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91 and 92) In each of the following questions, some series are given. You have to find the missing number from the given alternatives.

91. 4, 7, 11, 18, 29, 47, ………. 123, 199

(a)   76

(b)   70

(c)   84

(d)   102

Answer: (a)

92. 2, 6, 12, 20, …………… 42, 56, 72, 90

(a)   20

(b)   21

(c)   30

(d)   12

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 93 and 94) In each of the following questions some words are given a specific code. You have to find a suitable answer for the word or group of letters from the given alternatives.

93. In a certain code, INSTITUTION is written as NOITUTITSNI. How is PERFECTION written in that code?





Answer: (d)

94. In a certain code, GIGANTIC is written as GIGTANCI. How is MIRACLES written in that code?





Answer: (b)

95. One morning after sunrise, Gopal was standing facing a pole. The shadow of the pole fell exactly to his right. Which direction was the facing?

(a)   South

(b)   East

(c)   West

(d)   Data inadequate

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96 and 97) Find the missing character in the following questions.


(a)   117

(b)   36

(c)   32

(d)   26

Answer: (b)


(a)   19

(b)   23

(c)   25

(d)   31

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100) Read the following information carefully and then answer the question that follow.

Six girls A, B, K, D, E and P are standing in a row. B is between D and P. A does not stand net to either P or D. K does not stand next to D. E stands between A and K.

98. P stands between

(a)   B and K

(b)   E and A

(c)   D and B

(d)   A and K

Answer: (a)

99. Who occupy the extreme ends of the row?

(a)   D and E

(b)   D and A

(c)   A and P

(d)   B and E

Answer: (b)

100. K stands between

(a)   P and B

(b)   P and D

(c)   P and E

(d)   E and A

Answer: (c)

101. The population of a town is 198000. It increases by 7% in the 1st year and decreases by 5% in the 2nd year. What is the population of the town at the end of 2 yr?

(a)   211860

(b)   201267

(c)   222453

(d)   198900

Answer: (b)

102. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

3  7  13  ?  31  43

(a)   18

(b)   19

(c)   23

(d)   21

Answer: (d)

103. If x + y = 20 and xy = 84; what is the value of (x)2 + (y)2?

(a)   232

(b)   400

(c)   128

(d)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

104. In how many different ways can the letters of the word ‘ABILITY’ be arranged?

(a)   5040

(b)   720

(c)   1260

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

105. The difference between a two-digit number and the number obtained by interchanging the two digits of the number is 9. The sum of the two digits of the number is 15. What is the product of the two digits of the two digit number?

(a)   54

(b)   72

(c)   56

(d)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

106. Vinita bought a watch with 24% discount on the selling price. If the watch cost her Rs 779. What is the original selling price of the watch?

(a)   Rs 1000

(b)   Rs 950

(c)   Rs 1040

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

107. Shyam invests an amount of Rs 5690 at the rate of 5% per annum for 3 yr. What approximate amount of compound interest will be obtain at the end of 3 yr?

(a)   Rs 854

(b)   Rs 799

(c)   Rs 843

(d)   Rs 897

Answer: (d)

108. Samantha, Jessica and Roseline begin to jog around a circular stadium. The complete their revolutions in 84 s, 56 s and 63 s respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point?

(a)   336

(b)   504

(c)   252

(d)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (b)

109. Asmita invests an amount of Rs 9535 at the rate of 4% per annum to obtain a total amount of Rs 11442 on simple interest after a certain period. For how many years did she invest the amount to obtain the total sum?

(a)   10

(b)   2

(c)   5

(d)   4

Answer: (c)

110. The cost of 3 kg of sugar is Rs 195. The cost of 17 kg of rice is Rs 544 and the cost of 21 kg of wheat is Rs 336. What is the total cost of 21 kg of sugar, 26 kg of rice and 19 kg of wheat?

(a)   Rs 1461

(b)   Rs 1306

(c)   Rs 1500

(d)   None of these

Answer: (d)

111. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?

(a)   700

(b)   686

(c)   775

(d)   846

Answer: (c)

112. The product of two consecutive even number is 16128. Which is the larger number?

(a)   132

(b)   128

(c)   124

(d)   126

Answer: (b)

113. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst A, B and C in the respective ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 and another sum of money is to be divided between E and F equally. If F get Rs 1050 less than A, how much amount did B receive?

(a)   Rs 750

(b)   Rs 2000

(c)   Rs 1500

(d)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

114. Find the average of the following sets of scores.

178, 863, 441, 626, 205, 349, 462, 820

(a)   505

(b)   441

(c)   349

(d)   493

Answer: (d)

115. The difference between 38% of a number and 24% of the same number is 135.10. What is 40% of that number?

(a)   394

(b)   370

(c)   378

(d)   386

Answer: (d)

116. 16 men can complete a piece of work in 8 days. In how many days can 12 men complete the same piece of work?

(a)   10



(d)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (c)

117. Kishan has some hens and some cows. If the total number of animal heads are 59 and the total number of feet are 190. How many cows does Kishan have?

(a)   36

(b)   32

(c)   23

(d)   Cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

118. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 160%, the resultant fraction is 7/13. What is the original fraction?

(a)   7/15

(b)   2/15

(c)   8/15

(d)   5/7

Answer: (a)

119. If (41)2 is added to the square of a number the answer, so obtained is 7454. What is the number?

(a)   76

(b)   63

(c)   81

(d)   82

Answer: (a)

120. What is the least number to be added to 4700 to make it a perfect square?

(a)   74

(b)   69

(c)   76

(d)   61

Answer: (d)