OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

OUAT Joint Entrance Exam Previous Year-2017

Physics

 

1. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of a the earth, the gain in potential energy of an object of mass m raised from the earth’s surface to a height equal to the radius R of the earth is

(a)  mgR/4

(b)  mgR/2

(c)  mgR

(d)  2 mgR

Answer: (d)

2. A body floats in water with 40% of its volume outside water. When the same body floats in an oil, 60% of its volume remains outside oil. The relative density of oil is

(a)  0.9

(b)  1.0

(c)  1.2

(d)  1.5

Answer: (d)

3. If the Earth were to suddenly contract to 1/nth of its present radius without any change in its mass, the duration of the new day will be nearly

(a)  24 n hr.

(b)  24 hr.

(c)  24/n2 mgR

(d)  24 n2 hr.

Answer: (c)

4. Two temperature scales A and B are related by  At which temperature two scales have the same reading ?

(a)  −42°

(b)  42°

(c)  12°

(d)  −40°

Answer: (c)

5. The resistances across A and B in the figure below will be

(a)  3R

(b)  R

(c)  R/3

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

6. Air inside a closed container is saturated with water vapour. The air pressure is p and the saturated vapour pressure of water is  If the mixture is compressed to one half of its volume by maintaining temperature constant, the pressure becomes

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

7. What happens when the prongs of a vibrating tuning fork are immersed in water ?

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the waves propagating outwards?

(a)  The velocity decreases.

(b)  The amplitude increases.

(c)  The frequency decreases.

(d)  The wavelength increases.

Answer: (d)

8. Steel has Young’s modulus 21 × 1011 dyne/cm2 and density 7.8 gm/cc. The velocity of sound through steel is

(a)  350 m/s

(b)  700 m/s

(c)  5000 m/s

(d)  5189 m/s

Answer: (a)

9. The coefficient of cubical expansion of sulphur is 0.000223 per ° A piece of sulphur is found to displace 48 cc of water at 0°C. It will displace the volume of water at 35°C

(a)  48.374 cc

(b)  48.743 cc

(c)  49.374 cc

(d)  49.743 cc

Answer: (b)

10. The equation of displacement of two waves are given as  and  then what is the ratio of their amplitude?

(a)  1 : 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 : 1

(d)  1 : 4

Answer: (b)

11. An iron rod of length 100 cm and 10 cm2 cross-section is heated from 0°C to 100° If it is not allowed to bend or expand, what force is developed in it ? Given that Y – 1012 dyne/cm2 and α = 105/°C

(a)  108 dyne

(b)  109 dyne

(c)  1010 dyne

(d)  1011 dyne

Answer: (c)

12. A thin glass bulb is sealed at 27°C, the internal pressure being 1 atmosphere. The maximum internal pressure the blub can withstand is 95 cm of mercury. At the temperature at which the bulb will burst,

(a)  101°C

(b)  102°C

(c)  374°C

(d)  375°C

Answer: (d)

13. A string in a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 800 Hz. If a frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced, the required length of string is

(a)  37.5 cm

(b)  40 cm

(c)  50 cm

(d)  62.5 cm

Answer: (b)

14. An ideal mono-atomic gas of given mass is heated at constant pressure. In this process, the fraction of supplied that energy used for the increase of t he internal energy of the gas is

(a)  3/8

(b)  3/5

(c)  3/4

(d)  2/5

Answer: (b)

15. Water is flowing in streamline motion through a horizontal tube. The pressure at a point in the tube is p where the velocity of flow is v. At another point, where the pressure is p/2, the velocity of flow is [density of water = ρ]

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

16. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold [density = 19.5 g/cm3] is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid [density = 1.5 g/cm3], find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver [density = 10.5 g/cm3] of the same size in the same liquid.

(a)  0.133 m/s

(b)  0.1 m/s

(c)  0.2 m/s

(d)  0.4 m/s

Answer: (a)

17. A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X-Y axes as shown in figure below. The work done in taking a charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

18. Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance 5 cm and are uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in the equilibrium condition, ratio of the magnitude of electric fields at the surfaces of sphere A and B is

(a)  1 ; 2

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  1 :4

(d)  4 : 1

Answer: (c)

19. Five equal resistances, each of resistance R, are connected as shown in figure below. A battery of V volt is connected between A and B. The current flowing in FC will be

(a)  3V/R

(b)  V/R

(c)  V/2R

(d)  2V/R

Answer: (b)

20. The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current I is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

21. An electric dipole is placed at an angle 30° to a non-uniform electric field. The dipole will experience a

(a)  translational force only in a direction normal to the direction of the field

(b)  torque as well as a translational force

(c)  torque only

(d)  translational force only in the direction of the field

Answer: (b)

22. An electric bulb marked as 50 W – 200 V is connected across a 100 V supply. The present power of the bulb is

(a)  37.5 W

(b)  25 W

(c)  12.5 W

(d)  10 W

Answer: (c)

23. In the figure below, the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 μ The effective capacitance between A and B is

(a) 

(b)  −3 μF

(c)  6 μF

(d)  5 μF

Answer: (d)

24. The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is x. When both the current and radius I s doubled the ratio will be

(a)  x/8

(b)  x/4

(c)  x/2

(d)  2x

Answer: (b)

25. The decimal equivalent of the binary number (11010.101)2 is

(a)  9.625

(b)  25.262

(c)  26.525

(d)  26.265

Answer: (b)

26. In a common emitter configuration, a transistor has β = 50 and input resistance 1 kΩ. If the peak value of ac. input is 0.01 V then the peak value of collector current is

(a)  0.01 μA

(b)  0.25 μA

(c)  100 μA

(d)  500 μA

Answer: (b)

27. 3 moles of a mono-atomic gas (γ = 5/3) is mixed with 1 mole of a diatomic gas (γ = 7/3). The value of γ for the mixture will be

(a)  9/11

(b)  11/7

(c)  12/7

(d)  15/7

Answer: (b)

28. Some water drops of radius r each coalesce to form a big drop of radius R. The rise in temperature is given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

29. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

(a)  All reversible cycles have same efficiency.

(b)  Reversible cycle has more efficiency than an irreversible one.

(c)  Carnot cycle is a reversible one.

(d)  Carnot cycle has the maximum efficiency in all cycles.

Answer: (b)

30. In which of the process, internal energy of system remains constant?

(a)  Adiabatic

(b)  Isochoric

(c)  Isobaric

(d)  Isothermal

Answer: (a)

31. In Young’s double slit experiment, an interference pattern is obtained on a screen by a light of wavelength 6000 Å coming from the coherent sources S1 and S2. At certain point P on the screen third fringe is formed. Then the path difference S1P – S2P is microns is

(a)  0.75

(b)  1.5

(c)  3.0

(d)  4.0

Answer: (b)

32. In compound microscope the intermediate image is

(a)  virtual, inverted and magnified

(b)  real, inverted and diminished

(c)  virtual, erect and magnified

(d)  real, inverted and magnified

Answer: (d)

33. In the following circuit the output Y becomes zero for the inputs

(a)  A =1, B = 0, C = 0

(b)  A = 0, B= 0, C = 0

(c)  A = 1, B = 1, C = 1

(d)  A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

Answer: (d)

34. In n – p – n transistor the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the collector, then

(a)  emitter current is 9 mA

(b)  emitter current is 11.1 mA

(c)  base current is 0.1 mA

(d)  base current is 0.01 mA

Answer: (c)

35. The r.m.s. value of the electric field of the light coming from the sun is 720 N/C. The average total energy density of the electromagnetic wave is

(a)  6.37 × 109 J/m3

(b)  81.35 × 1012 J/m3

(c)  3.3 × 103 J/m3

(d)  4.58 × 106 J/m3

Answer: (a)

36. A bar magnet of magnetic moment pm is divided into two equal parts by cutting parallel to its length. The magnetic moment of either piece will be

(a)  pm/4

(b)  pm/2

(c)  pm

(d)  2pm

Answer: (c)

37. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n1 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 2 to an orbit with level n2 = 1, the emitted radiation has a wavelength given by

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

38. In frequency modulation

(a)  the amplitude of modulated wave varies as frequency of carrier wave

(b)  the frequency of modulated wave varies as amplitude of the modulating wave

(c)  the amplitude of modulated wave varies as amplitude of carrier

(d)  the frequency of modulated wave varies as frequency of modulating wave

Answer: (b)

39. Audio signal CANNOT be transmitted because

(a)  the signal has more noise

(b)  the signal cannot be amplified for distance communication

(c)  the transmitting antenna length is very small to design

(d)  the transmitting antenna length is very large and impracticable

Answer: (d)

40. Which of the following is NOT electromagnetic in nature?

(a)  X-rays

(b)  Gamma rays

(c)  Cathode rays

(d)  Microwaves

Answer: (c)

41. A ray of light enters from a denser medium into the rarer medium. The speed of light in the rarer medium is twice that in denser medium. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection to take place ?

(a)  30°

(b)  45°

(c)  60°

(d)  75°

Answer: (a)

42. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens when immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be

(a)  10 cm

(b)  2.5 cm

(c)  5 cm

(d)  7.5 cm

Answer: (b)

43. The least distance of vision of a longsighted person is 60 cm. By using a spectacle lens, this distance is reduced to 12 cm. The power of the lens is

(a)  +5.0 D

(b)  +(20/3)D

(c)  −(10/3)D

(d)  +2.0 D

Answer: (b)

44. A thin prism (μ = 1.5) in the position of minimum deviation deviates the monochromatic light ray by 10°, the refracting angle of prism is

(a)  10°

(b)  20°

(c)  30°

(d)  45°

Answer: (a)

45. If the work function of a metal is 4.2 eV, the cut off wave length is

(a)  8000 Å

(b)  7000 Å

(c)  1472 Å

(d)  2950 Å

Answer: (c)

46. A nucleus raptures into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius) ?

(a)  21/3 : 1

(b)  1 : 21/3

(c)  31/2 : 1

(d)  1 : 31/2

Answer: (c)

47. What is de Broglie wavelength of the alpha particle accelerated through a potential difference V ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

48. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because

(a)  atoms are ionized at high temperature

(b)  molecules break up at high temperature

(c)  nuclei break up at the high temperature

(d)  kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei

Answer: (a)

49. A radioactive substance decays to 1/16th of its initial activity in 40 days. The half life of the radioactive substance expressed in days is

(a)  2.5

(b)  5

(c)  10

(d)  20

Answer: (b)

50. Given that M is the mass suspended from a spring of force constant k. The dimensional formula for  is same for that of

(a)  frequency

(b)  time period

(c)  velocity

(d)  wave length

Answer: (b)

51. The side of a cubical block when measured with a vernier caliper is 2.50 cm. The vernier constant is 0.01 cm. The maximum possible error in the area of the side of the block is

(a)  ±0.01 cm2

(b)  ±0.02 cm2

(c)  ±0.05 cm2

(d)  ±0.10 cm2

Answer: (c)

52. The time (t) and displacement (x) are related as t = ax2 + bx. What is the acceleration of the particle at the origin of the coordinate axes ?

(a)  −2ab3

(b)  −2ab

(c)  −2a/b3

(d)  −2a/b

Answer: (c)

53. Consider three vectors  and  A vector  of the from  (where and are numbers) is perpendicular to  . The ratio of α and β is

(a)  1 : 1

(b)  2 : 1

(c)  −1 : 1

(d)  3 : 1

Answer: (a)

54. A particle located at x = 0 at a time t = 0, starts moving along the positive X-direction with a velocity v that varies as v = α√x. The displacement of the particle varies with time as

(a)  t

(b)  t1/2

(c)  t3

(d)  t2

Answer: (d)

55. In the stable equilibrium position, a body has

(a)  maximum potential energy

(b)  minimum potential energy

(c)  minimum kinetic energy

(d)  neither maximum nor minimum potential energy

Answer: (d)

56. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from L to 4L in 4 second. The magnitude of this torque will be

(a)  L

(b)  4L

(c)  3L/4

(d)  12L

Answer: (c)

57. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times that of rigidity modulus. Its Poisson’s ratio is

(a)  2.4

(b)  1.2

(c)  0.4

(d)  0.2

Answer: (d)

58. The range of projection is maximum. If the range is R. what is the maximum h height?

(a)  2R

(b)  R

(c)  R/2

(d)  R/4

Answer: (c)

59. The instantaneous height y and the horizontal distance x covered by a particle are as follows y = bt2 and x = ct2. What is the speed of the particle one second after the firing ?

(a)  2(b + c)

(b)  2(b – c)

(c)  2(b2 + c2)1/2

(d)  2(b2 − c2)1/2

Answer: (c)

60. An automobile engine of mass N accelerates and a constant power p is applied by the engine. The instantaneous speed of the engine will be

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

61. A long spring when stretched by x cm has a potential energy U. On increasing the stretching to ‘nx’ the potential energy stored in the spring will be

(a)  n2U

(b)  U/n2

(c)  U/n

(d)  nU

Answer: (a)

62. A body initially at rest explodes and breaks into three fragments in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3. The two pieces of equal mass fly off perpendicular to each other with a velocity of 30 ms1. What is the velocity of the heavier fragment?

(a)  10√2 ms1

(b)  10.5 ms1

(c)  11.4 ms1

(d)  10.95 ms1

Answer: (d)

63. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.50. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 × 103, then the percentage change in volume is

(a)  0.6

(b)  0.4

(c)  0.2

(d)  zero

Answer: (d)

64. A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed. If the direction of rotation is reversed and the speed is doubled, then

(a)  the direction of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(b)  the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is doubled

(c)  the direction of centripetal acceleration remains unchanged

(d)  the magnitude of centripetal acceleration is halved

Answer: (c)

65. A ring and a disc of different masses are rotating with the same kinetic energy. If we apply a retarding torque τ on the ring it stops after making n revolution. After how many revolution will the disc stop if the retarding torque on it is also τ ?

(a)  n/2

(b)  n

(c)  2n

(d)  4n

Answer: (a)

66. The ratio of radii of two spheres of the same mass, having the same moment of inertia about their diameters, one hollow and other solid is

(a)  9 : 25

(b)  25 : 9

(c)  √5 : √3

(d)  √3 : √5

Answer: (d)

Chemistry

67. Reaction of ethyl formate with excess of CH3MGl followed by hydrolysis gives

(a)  n-Propyl alcohol

(b)  Ethanal

(c)  Propanal

(d)  Isoproppylalcohol

Answer: (d)

68. The reaction of an ester ROOR’ with an alcohol R’’OH is presence of an acid gives

(a)  R’COOR’’

(b)  R’COOH

(c)  RCOOR’’

(d)  R’’COOR

Answer: (b)

69. In the diazotization of aniline with the sodium nitrate and hydrochloric acid, the excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to

(a)  suppress the concentration of free aniline

(b)  suppress the hydrolysis of phenol

(c)  ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid

(d)  neutralize the base liberated

Answer: (d)

70. Benzene diazonium chloride on reaction with phenol in weakly basis medium gives

(a)  diphenyl ether

(b)  p-Hydroxyazobenzene

(c)  Chlorobenzene

(d)  Benzene

Answer: (b)

71. Which is correct statement ?

(a)  Starch is polymer of α-glucose.

(b)  Amylose is a component of cellulose.

(c)  Proteins are composed of only one type of amino acid.

(d)  In cyclic structure of furanose, there are four carbons and one oxygen atom.

Answer: (d)

72. The number of chiral carbons in β-D(+)- glucose is

(a)  three

(b)  four

(c)  five

(d)  six

Answer: (c)

73. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of

(a)  electrostatic attraction

(b)  hydrogen bonding

(c)  Van der Waal’s forces

(d)  dipole-dipole interaction

Answer: (b)

74. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6 g Na2CO3 will be

(a)  6.02 × 1022

(b)  12.04× 1022

(c)  1.806 × 1023

(d)  31.80 × 1028

Answer: (b)

75. If 30 ml of H2 and 20 ml of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction?

(a)  10 ml of H2

(b)  5 ml of H2

(c)  10 ml of O2

(d)  5 ml of O2

Answer: (d)

76. 2. 76 of silver carbonate (At. Mass = 108) on being heated strongly yields at residue weighing

(a)  2.16 g

(b)  2.48 g

(c)  2.32 g

(d)  2.64 g

Answer: (a)

77. What mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 of silver chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if the law of conservation of mass is TRUE?

(a)  7.15 g

(b)  17.0 g

(c)  3.3 g

(d)  4.88 g

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following polymers is used for making switch board, heater handle ?

(a)  Polythene

(b)  Rubber

(c)  PET

(d)  Bakelite

Answer: (d)

79. Isoprene is the monomeric unit of which of the following polymers ?

(a)  Dacron

(b)  Natural rubber

(c)  Bakelite

(d)  Polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (b)

80. Indium doped Silicon is an _______ semiconductor.

(a)  p-type

(b)  n-type

(c)  p-n-type

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

81. Schottky defect is due to missing of

(a)  anion form lattice

(b)  catin from lattice

(c)  cation and anion both form lattice

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

82. Out of the following compounds, which one would have a zero dipole moment ?

(a)  1, 1-Dichloroethylene

(b)  cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene

(c)  trans-1, 2-Dichloroethylene

(d)  None of these compounds

Answer: (b)

83. 1-Chlorobutance on reaction with alcoholic potash gives

(a)  1-Butene

(b)  1-Butanol

(c)  2-Butene

(d)  2-Butanol

Answer: (a)

84. Among the following compounds, the strongest acid is

(a)  HC ≡ CH

(b)  C6H6

(c)  C2H6

(d)  CH­3OH

Answer: (a)

85. Identify the correct statement below concerning the structure of CH3 = C = CH2.

(a)  The molecular is planar.

(b)  One of the three carbon atoms is in an sp3 hybridized state.

(c)  The molecule is non-planar with the two CH2 groups being in planar perpendicular to each other.

(d)  All the carbon atoms are sp-hybridized.

Answer: (c)

86. Which of the following is correct regarding the –I-effect of the substituents ?

(a)  −NR2 < − OR < − F

(b)  −NR2 > − OR < − F

(c)  −NR2 < − OR > − F

(d)  −NR2 > − OR > − F

Answer: (a)

87. Which of the following is NOT a Ca ore?

(a)  Gypsum

(b)  Magnesite

(c)  Dolomite

(d)  Carnallite

Answer: (d)

88. Among KO2, AlO2, BaO2 and NO2, unpaired electron is present in

(a)  NO2 + and BaO3

(b)  KO2 and AlO2

(c)  KO2 only

(d)  BaO2 only

Answer: (b)

89. pH of water is 7. When a substance Y is dissolved in water, the pH becomes 13. the substance Y is a salt of

(a)  weak acid and weak base

(b)  strong acid and strong base

(c)  strong acid and weak base

(d)  weak acid and strong base

Answer: (d)

90. Which of the following sulphides has the lowest solubility product ?

(a)  FeS

(b)  MnS

(c)  PbS

(d)  ZnS

Answer: (c)

91. In a mixture of a weak acid and salt, the ratio of the concentration of acid to salt is increased ten-fold. The pH of the solution

(a)  decreases by one

(b)  decreases by one tenth

(c)  increases by one

(d)  increases by ten-fold

Answer: (b)

92. The solubility of CaCO3 in water is 3.05 × 104 moles/litre. Its solubility product will be

(a)  6.1 × 104

(b)  9.3

(c)  3.05 × 104

(d)  9.3 × 108

Answer: (d)

93. Which of the following solution will have pH close to 1.0 ?

(a)  100 ml of (M/10) HCl + 100 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(b)  55 ml of (M/10)HCl + 45 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(c)  10 ml of (M/10) HCl + 90 ml of (M/10) NaOH

(d)  75 ml of (M/5) HCl + 25 ml of (M/5) NaOH

Answer: (c)

94. One mole of N2O4(g) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmospheric pressure. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2(g). The resultant pressure is

(a)  1.2 atm

(b)  2.4 atm

(c)  2.0 atm

(d)  1.0 atm

Answer: (b)

95. A(g) + 3B(g) ⇌ The initial concentration of A is equal to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal KC = ?

(a)  0.08

(b)  0.8

(c)  8

(d)  80

Answer: (a)

96. For a weak acid with α as its degree of dissociation, the value of dissociation constant is given by (C is concentration of acid in mole per litre)

(a)  Ka = Cα

(b)  Ka = Cα2

(c)  Ka = C2α

(d)  Ka = C2α2

Answer: (b)

97. A litre of solution containing 0.1 mole of CH3COOH and 0.1 mole of CH3COONa provide a buffer of pH 4.74. Calculate the pH of the solution after the addition of 0.02 mole of NaOH. Ka = 1.8 × 105

(a)  4.92

(b)  4.03

(c)  8.56

(d)  5.32

Answer: (a)

98. Calculate the pH of 0.625 M solution of CH3COONa (K­a value of CH3COOH is 1.754 × 105).

(a)  8.25

(b)  9.28

(c)  10.2

(d)  11.26

Answer: (b)

99. The dissociation constant Kb, the hydrolysis constant Kh and ionic product Kw are related to each other by the relation

(a)  Kw/Kb = Kh

(b)  Kw/Kh = Kb

(c)  Kw = Kh × Kh

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

100. In Hittorf method of determination of transport numbers we make use of a(n)

(a)  H-tube

(b)  V-tube

(c)  U-tube

(d)  L-tube

Answer: (a)

101. The mass in grams of copper will be deposited from a solution of Cu2+ by a current of 2.50 A in 2 hours, is

(a)  23.7

(b)  0.187

(c)  1.65

(d)  5.93

Answer: (b)

102. Which of the following sets contains only isoelectronic ions ?

(a)  Na+ , Ca2+, Ga3+, Al3+

(b)  K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl

(c)  P3, Sc3+, Cl, K+

(d)  Na+, Al3+, Mg2, Cl

Answer: (d)

103. The value of Van der Waals constant a for the glass N2, O2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.39, 1.36, 4 and 2.25 dm6 atm mol2 The most easily liquefiable gas is

(a)  N2

(b)  O2

(c)  NH3

(d)  CH­4

Answer: (b)

104. A gas would show maximum deviation from ideal behavior at

(a)  150°C, 2 atm

(b)  10°C, 1 atm

(c)  75°C, 0.5 atm

(d)  −100°C, 5 atm

Answer: (d)

105. Of the following pairs, each of 0.1 m solution, the isotonic solution at the same temperature will be

(a)  glucose and KCI

(b)  MgCl2 and NaCl

(c)  urea and ZnSO4

(d)  Na2SO4 and Ca(NO3)2

Answer: (b)

106. A gaseous mixture contains 56g N2, 44g CO2 and 16g CH4. The total pressure of the mixture is 720 mm Hg. What is the partial pressure of CH4.

(a)  160 mm

(b)  394 mm

(c)  180 mm

(d)  225 mm

Answer: (a)

107. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atoms was made by

(a)  Heisenberg

(b)  Bohr

(c)  Plank

(d)  Einstein

Answer: (c)

108. Which of the following complexes is non-conducting ?

(a)  CoCl3 . 3NH3

(b)  CoCl3 . 6NH3

(c)  CoCl3 . 4NH3

(d)  CoCl3 . 5NH3

Answer: (b)

109. The IUPAC name Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the IUPAC name is

(a)  sodium pentacyanonitrate

(b)  sodium pentacyanonitrosylferous (II)

(c)  sodium pentacyanonitrosylferrate (II)

(d)  disodium pentacyanonitrosyferrate (II)

Answer: (d)

110. A catalyst increase the rate of reaction because it

(a)  increases the activation energy

(b)  lowers the energy barrier for reaction

(c)  decreases the collision diameter

(d)  increases the temperature coefficient

Answer: (a)

111. Inert pair effect is exhibited by

(a)  Pb

(b)  B

(c)  Si

(d)  Al

Answer: (a)

112. The isotope used for dating archaeological finding is

(a)  1H3

(b)  6C14

(c)  8O18

(d)  92U235

Answer: (b)

113. Isomers which can be interconverted through rotation around a single bond are

(a)  conformers

(b)  diastereomers

(c)  enantiomers

(d)  positional isomers

Answer: (c)

114. The reagent used for separation of acetaldehyde and acetophenone is

(a)  NaHSO3

(b)  C6H5NHNH2

(c)  NH2OH

(d)  NaOH-I2

Answer: (b)

115. Number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is

(a)  6

(b)  7

(c)  16

(d)  17

Answer: (b)

116. One mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally to ten times its original volume. The change in entropy is

(a)  0.1 R

(b)  2.303 R

(c)  10.0 R

(d)  100.0 R

Answer: (d)

117. Which one of the following statements is FALSE?

(a)  Work is a state function.

(b)  Temperature is a state function

(c)  Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified.

(d)  Work appears at the boundary of the system.

Answer: (c)

118. The enthalpy of vaporization of liquid water using the date

H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O(l), ∆H = −285.77 kJ/mol

H2(g)+ 12O2(g) H2O (g) ∆H = −241.84 kJ/mol

(a)  +43.93 kJ/mol

(b)  −43.93 kJ/mol

(c)  +527.61 kJ/mol

(d)  −527.61 kJ/mol

Answer: (a)

119. An aqueous solution of 6.3g oxalic acid dehydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is

(a)  10 ml

(b)  20 ml

(c)  40 ml

(d)  4 ml

Answer: (b)

120. Equimolar solutions in the same solvents have

(a)  same boiling point but different freezing point

(b)  same freezing point but different boiling point

(c)  same boiling point but same freezing point

(d)  different boiling point and different freezing point

Answer: (a)

121. The freezing point of equimolar aqueous solution will be highest for

(a)  C6H5NH3Cl

(b)  Ca(NO3)2

(c)  La(NO3)2

(d)  C6H12O6

Answer: (a)

122. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+| Fe and Sn2+| Sn electrodes are −44 and −0.14V respectively for the cell reaction :

Fe2+ + Sn → Fe + Sn2+, the standard emf is

(a)  +0.30 V

(b)  −0.58 V

(c)  +0.58 V

(d)  −0.30 V

Answer: (a)

123. Equivalent conductance of NaCl, HCl and C2H5­COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 ohm1 cm2 The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is :

(a)  201.28 ohm1 cm2

(b)  390.71 ohm1 cm2

(c)  698.28 ohm1 cm2

(d)  540.48 ohm1 cm2

Answer: (b)

124. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt bridge’ because

(a)  velocity of K is greater than that of NO3

(b)  velocity of of K is less than that of NO3

(c)  velocity of both K and NO3 are nearly the same

(d)  KNO3 is highly soluble in water

Answer: (d)

125. Zn(s) + Cl2 (1 atm) → Zn2+ + 2Cl. The E° of the cell is 2.12 V. To increase E

(a)  Zn2 concentration should be increased

(b)  Zn2 concentration should be decreased

(c)  Cl concentration should be increased

(d)  partial pressure of Cl2 should be decreased

Answer: (d)

126. Alums purify muddy water by

(a)  dialysis

(b)  adsorption

(c)  coagulation

(d)  forming a true solution

Answer: (c)

127. Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(a)  Emulsion-Card

(b)  Foam-Mist

(c)  Aerosol-Smoke

(d)  Solid sol-Cake

Answer: (c)

128. The coagulating power of an electrolyte for arsenious sulphide sol decreases in the order

(a)  Na > Al > Ba2−

(b)  Al3 > Ba2+ > Na2−

(c)  Na > Al > Ba2−

(d)  Na > Ba2− > PO43−

Answer: (b)

129. The electronic configuration of gadolinium (At. No. 64) is

(a)  [Xe]4f85d06s2

(b)  [Xe]4f75d16s2

(c)  [Xe]4f35d56s2

(d)  [Xe]4f65d26s2

Answer: (b)

130. Which of the following does NOT react with AgCl ?

(a)  Na2SO3

(b)  NH4OH

(c)  NaNO3

(d)  Na2CO3

Answer: (b)

131. The number of moles of KMnO4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite in an acidic solution is

(a)  2/5

(b)  3/5

(c)  4/5

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

132. Which of the following is NOT an actinide?

(a)  Curium

(b)  Californium

(c)  Uranium

(d)  Terbium

Answer: (d)

Mathematics

133. Find the values of x for which the functions f(x) = 3x2 – 1 and g(x) = 3 + x are equal.

(a)  1, 4/3

(b)  1, −4/3

(c)  −1, −4/3

(d)  −1, 4/3

Answer: (d)

134. Which of the following is correct?

(a)  sin 1° > sin 1

(b)  sin 1° < sin 1

(c)  sin 1° = sin 1

(d) 

Answer: (b)

135. For specifying a straight line, how many geometrical parameters should be known ?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

136. Which of the following functions are strictly increasing on R ?

(a)  x3 – 6x2 + 12x – 9, x ∈ R

(b)  x3 – 6x2 – 9, x ∈ R

(c)  x3 – 6x2 + 12, x ∈ R

(d)  −x3 – 6x2 – 12x – 9, x ∈ R

Answer: (a)

137. The area enclosed between the curves y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y is

(a)  16/3

(b)  8

(c)  22/3

(d)  16

Answer: (a)

138. The area of triangle formed by the tips of vectors  is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

139. Consider the matrices X4 × 3, Y4 × 3, and P2 × 3. The order of [P(XTY)−1PT]T will be

(a)  (2 × 2)

(b)  (3 × 3)

(c)  (4 × 3)

(d)  (3 × 4)

Answer: (a)

140. The sets A and B are having elements 10 and 8. n(A ∩ B) = 2, then n(A ∪ B) is

(a)  16

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  20

Answer: (a)

141. Range of cosec1 (x) is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

142. If tan A = 1/2, tan B = 1/3 then tan(2A + B) is equal to

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

143. Equations of diagonals of the square formed by the lines x = 0, y = 0, x = 1 and y = 1 are

(a)  y = x, y + x = 1

(b)  y = x, y + x = 2

(c)  y = 2x, y + 2x = 1

(d)  2y = x, y + x = 1/3

Answer: (a)

144. Find the absolute maximum value of 

(a)  4/3

(b)  3/4

(c)  1/2

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

145. If tan y dx + sec2 y tan x dy = 0, then

(a) 

(b)  (sin x) (tan y) = c

(c)  cos x = c

(d) 

Answer: (b)

146. Distance of the point (α, β, γ) from x-axis is

(a)  |β|

(b)  |α|

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

147. For what values of α and β, the following simultaneous equations have infinite number of solutions ?

x + y + z = 5, x + 3y + 3z = 9, x + 2y + αz = β

(a)  2, 7

(b)  3, 8

(c)  8, 3

(d)  7, 2

Answer: (a)

148. Which of the following is correct ?

(a)  If A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C then A ⊄ C

(b)  If A ⊂ B and B ⊂ C then A ⊂ C

(c)  If A ⊄ B and B ⊄ C then A ⊄ C

(d)  If X ∈ A and A ⊄ B then x ∈ B

Answer: (b)

149. Range of 

(a)  [1/5, 1]

(b)  [1/5, 1/3]

(c)  [1/3, 1]

(d)  [1/5. 1/3]

Answer: (c)

150. cos 2ϕ cos 2θ + sin2(θ – ϕ) – sin2(θ + ϕ) is equal to

(a)  sin 2(θ + ϕ)

(b)  sin 2((θ − ϕ)

(c)  cos 2(θ + ϕ)

(d)  cos 2(θ − ϕ)

Answer: (c)

151. The distance between the lines y = mx + c1, and y = mx + c2 is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  0

Answer: (b)

152. The general solution of the differential equation  is

(a)  x – cy + 5 = 0

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

153. The plane 2x – 3y + 6x = 11 makes angle sin1 α with x-axis. The value of α is

(a)  √3/4

(b)  √2/2

(c)  12/7

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

154. In how many ways can the word MANAGEMENT be rearranged ?

(a)  226800

(b)  453600

(c)  113400

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

155. If i2 = −1 then sum of I + i2 + i3 + i4 + ….. to 1000 terms is

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  −1

(d)  +1

Answer: (b)

156. 

(a)  1

(b)  0

(c)  ∞

(d)  −∞

Answer: (a)

157. Mean of first n natural number is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

158. Equation of the circle with center on the y-axis and passing through the origin and the point (2, 3) is

(a)  x2 + y2 + 13y = 0

(b)  3x2 + 3y2 + 13x + 3 = 0

(c)  6x2 + 6y2 – 13x = 0

(d)  x2 + y2 + 13x + 3 = 0

Answer: (a)

159. The order and degree of the differential equation  are

(a)  4, 2

(b)  1, 4

(c)  2, 4

(d)  1, 2

Answer: (c)

160. The feasible region is

(a)  a convex set

(b)  the optimal solution

(c)  always unbounded for minimization problem

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

161. Out of 4 officers and 10 clerks in a business firm, a committee consisting of 2 officers and 3 clerks is to be formed. In how many ways can this be done if one particular clerk must be on the committee ?

(a)  216

(b)  416

(c)  36

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

162. The value of in + in+1 + in+2 + in+3 (where √−1, n ≥ 1)

(a)  1

(b)  −1

(c)  0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

163. then the value of n is

(a)  3

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (c)

164. The variance for the following date : 6, 7, 10, 12, 13, 4, 8, 12 is

(a)  9.25

(b)  9.15

(c)  8.25

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

165. The area of the circle centered at (1, 2) and passing through (4, 6) is

(a)  5π

(b)  10π

(c)  25π

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

166. Without repetition of the numbers, four digit numbers are formed with the numbers 0, 2, 3, 5. The probability of such a number divisible by 5 is

(a)  1/5

(b)  4/5

(c)  1/30

(d)  5/9

Answer: (b)

167. If ω is cube root of unity then  is

(a)  1

(b)  ω2

(c)  ω

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

168. If 

(a)  sin x

(b) 

(c)  cos x

(d) 

Answer: (b)

169. 3A2F in hexadecimal represents

(a)  14895

(b)  14880

(c)  15150

(d)  15151

Answer: (c)

170. If e is the eccentricity of the ellipse  then

(a)  b2 = a2 (1 – e2)

(b)  a2 = b2 (1 – e2)

(c)  a2 = b2(e2 – 1)

(d)  d2 = a2(e2 – 1)

Answer: (b)

171. 6 boy and 6 girls sit in a row t random. The probability that all the girls sit together is

(a)  1/432

(b)  12/431

(c)  1/132

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

172. Principal argument of (−2 −2i) is

(a)  −3π/4

(b)  3π/4

(c)  π/4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

173. If n < 1 then  exists when

(a)  x = −1

(b)  x = 1

(c)  x = 0

(d)  x ≠ 0

Answer: (d)

174. Which of the following is unary operation ?

(a)  Addition

(b)  Multiplication

(c)  Square root

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

175. The distance between the foci of a hyperbola is 16 and its eccentricity is √2 Its equation is

(a)  x2 – y2 = 32

(b)  x2 – y2 = 23

(c)  2x2 – y2 = 32

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

176. α, β be two roots of ax2 + bx + c = 0, then the value of  is

(a)  0

(b)  −2

(c)  2

(d)  1

Answer: (d)

177. If ex – y = xy, then 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

178. When 1100010 is divided by 0101 what will be the decimal remainder ?

(a)  5

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

179. The length of the latus rectum of the ellipse 3x2 + y2 = 12 is

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  8

(d)  4/√3

Answer: (c)

180. If b3 + a2c + ac2 = 3 abc, then the relation between two roots of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is

(a)  α = β2 or β = α2

(b)  α = 2β or β = 2α

(c)  α2 – β2 = 0

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

181. 

(a)  |x|

(b)  x2

(c) 

(d)  1

Answer: (c)

182. a ≠ b but a2 = 5a – 3 and b2 = 5b – 3, then find a equation whose roots are a/b and b/a.

(a)  3x2 – 19x + 3 = 0

(b)  x2 – 19x + 1 = 0

(c)  3x2 – 19x + 2 = 0

(d)  x2 + 19x + 1 = 0

Answer: (b)

183. n ∈ N then n(n + 1) and n(n + 1) (n + 5) both are divisible by

(a)  5, 4, 2

(b)  2, 3, 6

(c)  3, 4, 5

(d)  5, 3, 2

Answer: (b)

184. If x is a tautology and Y is any other formula, then (X V Y) is a

(a)  Tautology

(b)  Contradiction

(c)  Well-formed formula

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

185. Which of the following is ODD function ?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4xy + 3 = 0

Answer: (b)

186. Principal value of cot1 (−1) = ?

(a)  3π/4

(b)  π/4

(c)  −π/4

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

187. Which of the following curves are symmetrical about x-axis only ?

(a)  5x2 + 7y – 6 = 0

(b)  y2 = x + 9

(c)  xy = 1

(d)  x2 + y2 – 4xy + 3 = 0

Answer: (b)

188. The sides of an equilateral triangle are increasing at rate of 2 cm/sec. The rate at which the area increases, when side is 10 cm, is

(a)  10 cm2/s

(b)  √3 cm2/s

(c)  10√3 cm2/s

(d) 

Answer: (c)

189. 

(a)  x5 + c

(b) 

(c)  6x6 + c

(d)  x6 + c

Answer: (b)

190. If the position vector  of the point (5, n) is such that  then what is the value of n ?

(a)  ±12

(b)  0

(c)  ±1

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

191. How many solutions does the following system of linear equations have ?

−x + 5y = −1, x – y = 2, x + 3y = 3

(a)  Infinitely many

(b)  Two distinct solutions

(c)  Unique solution

(d)  No solution

Answer: (a)

192. Consider the following propositional statements :

P1 : (((A ∧ B) → C)) ≡ ((A → C) ∧ (B → C))

P2 : (((A ∨ B) → C)) ≡ ((A → C) ∨ (B → C))

Which one of the following is TRUE?

(a)  P1 is the tautology, but not P­2

(b)  P2 is a tautology, but not P1

(c)  P1 and P2 are are both tautologies

(d)  Both P1 and P2 are not tautologies

Answer: (c)

193. If 

Determine [f(x), where [ ] represents the greatest integer function.

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

194. The value of tan 75° − cot 75° = ?

(a)  2√3

(b)  2 + √3

(c)  2 – √3

(d)  1

Answer: (a)

195. Identify the curve x2 + y2 + 6x – 2y + 10 = 0.

(a)  Parabola

(b)  Ellipse

(c)  Pair of straight lines

(d)  A unique point

Answer: (c)

196. What is the value of 

(a)  0

(b)  1/6

(c)  1/3

(d)  1

Answer: (b)

197. 

(a)  log 2 + 1

(b)  2 log 2 + 1

(c)  log (2e)

(d)  log (4/e)

Answer: (d)

198. Find a vector of magnitude 9, which is perpendicular to both the vectors 

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

199. Let A, B, C, D be n × n matrices, each with non-zero determinant. If ABCD = I, then B1 = ?

(a)  D1C1A1

(b)  CDA

(c)  ADC

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

200. Which of the following is NOT correct?

(a)  A – (B ∪ C) = (A – B) ∩ (A – C)

(b)  A ∪ (B – C) = (A ∪ B) – (A ∪ C)

(c)  A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

Biology

133. The greatest threat to genetic diversity in agricultural crops is

(a)  extensive mixed cropping

(b)  introduction of high yielding varieties

(c)  extensive use of fertilizers

(d)  extensive use of insecticides and pesticides

Answer: (a)

134. Structural lipids of cell membrane are

(a)  simple lipids

(b)  chromolipids

(c)  steroid

(d)  phospholipids

Answer: (d)

135. Longest phase of meiosis is

(a)  Prophase I

(b)  Prophase II

(c)  Anaphase I

(d)  Metaphase II

Answer: (a)

136. Insulin is a polymer of

(a)  glucose

(b)  galactose

(c)  fructose

(d)  arabinose

Answer: (a)

137. Kupffer’s cells are

(a)  Phagocytic

(b)  Actin

(c)  Myosin

(d)  Fibrin

Answer: (a)

138. In which stage of the first meiotic division two sister chromatids are formed?

(a)  Leptotene

(b)  Zygotene

(c)  Pachytene

(d)  Diplotene

Answer: (b)

139. In the absence of acrosome, the sperm CANNOT

(a)  get energy

(b)  penetrate the egg

(c)  swim

(d)  get food

Answer: (b)

140. In genetic code, 61 codons code for 20 different types of amino acids. This is called

(a)  colinearity

(b)  commaless

(c)  degeneracy

(d)  non-ambiguity

Answer: (d)

141. In C4 pathway, the CO2 fixation in mesophyll cells is carried out by the enzyme

(a)  Rubisco

(b)  PEP carboxylase

(c)  Pyruvate decarboxylase

(d)  Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Answer: (b)

142. In a tissue culture media, the resource of the phytohormone is

(a)  agar agar

(b)  glucose

(c)  micronutrients

(d)  coconut milk

Answer: (d)

143. Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed in the

(a)  proximal tubule

(b)  distal tubule

(c)  collecting duct

(d)  loop of Henle

Answer: (a)

144. Fertilization occurs in

(a)  uterus

(b)  ureter

(c)  vagina

(d)  fallopian tube

Answer: (d)

145. An animals which has both exoskeletal and endoskeletal structures is

(a)  tortoise

(b)  frog

(c)  jelly fish

(d)  fresh water mussel

Answer: (a)

146. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea pod were chosen by Mendel?

(a)  7

(b)  5

(c)  3

(d)  9

Answer: (a)

147. Gametophyte is the dominant phase in the lifecycle of

(a)  Hibiscus

(b)  Nephrolepis

(c)  Cycas

(d)  Funaria

Answer: (c)

148. Gastrula has a pore which is known as

(a)  Gonophore

(b)  Blastopore

(c)  Oospore

(d)  Zoospore

Answer: (b)

149. In the absence of the enterokinase, the digestion of _______ would be affected in our intestine.

(a)  amino acid

(b)  albumin

(c)  starch

(d)  maltose

Answer: (a)

150. Mitotic stages are NOT observed in

(a)  Cosmarium

(b)  E. coil

(c)  Saccharomyces

(d)  Chlorella

Answer: (b)

151. Which stage of material parasite is infective to man ?

(a)  Gametocyte

(b)  Merozoite

(c)  Cryptomerozoite

(d)  Sporozoite

Answer: (d)

152. Which one of the following reaction is an example of oxidative decarboxylation?

(a)  Conversion of succinate to fumerate

(b)  Conversion of fumerate to malate

(c)  Conversion of private to acetyl CoA

(d)  Conversion of citrate to isocitrate

Answer: (d)

153. Spindle fibre is made up of

(a)  Humulin

(b)  Intermediate filament

(c)  Flagellin

(d)  Tubulin

Answer: (d)

154. Restriction enzymes are used to cut

(a)  single stranded RNA

(b)  double stranded DNA

(c)  single stranded DNA

(d)  double stranded RNA

Answer: (c)

155. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the

(a)  nature of the substrate

(b)  amount of carbon dioxide released

(c)  amount of oxygen utilized

(d)  nature of enzymes involved

Answer: (a)

156. The name of Smt. Thimmakka is associated with the

(a)  planting and conservation of avenue trees

(b)  agitations against hydroelectric project

(c)  ‘Appiko’ movement

(d)  conservation of fauna and flora of the western ghats

Answer: (a)

157. When a fresh water profozoan is placed in marine water

(a)  the contractile vacuole disappears

(b)  the contractile vacuole increases in size

(c)  a number of contractile vacuoles appear

(d)  the contractile vacuole remains unchanged

Answer: (b)

158. Which of the following is a mineralocorticold?

(a)  Testosterone

(b)  Progesterone

(c)  Adrenalin

(d)  Aldosterone

Answer: (d)

159. Which one of the following is polysaccharide ?

(a)  Glycogen

(b)  Sucrose

(c)  Lactose

(d)  Maltose

Answer: (a)

160. Which one of the following is an example of chlorophyllous thallophyte ?

(a)  Volvarialla

(b)  Spirogyra

(c)  Nephrolepis

(d)  Gnetum

Answer: (b)

161. Hybridoma technique was first discovered by

(a)  Kohler and Milstein

(b)  Robert Koch

(c)  ‘D’ Herelle

(d)  Land Steiner

Answer: (a)

162. Approximately what percentage of human genome encodes protein ?

(a)  2%

(b)  25%

(c)  90%

(d)  99%

Answer: (c)

163. Cycas belongs to the class

(a)  Gentopsida

(b)  Cycadopsida

(c)  Coniferopsida

(d)  Sphenopsida

Answer: (b)

164. Which group is meant for Endemic species of birds?

(a)  Nilgiri-pipit, Rofous, babbler, Lesser-Florican

(b)  Lesser-Florican, Nilgiri wood pigeon, Malabar parakeet

(c)  Malabar parakeet, Niligiri pipit, Rofoous babbler

(d)  Flycatcher, Jungle babbler, Nilgiri pipit

Answer: (b)

165. Species diversity is responsible for which phenomena?

(a)  Process of Evolution

(b)  Speciation

(c)  For alternative types (allele) of gene

(d)  For stability and normal function of ecosystem

Answer: (b)

166. Flax fibre is obtained from

(a)  Cannabis sativa

(b)  Crotalaria juncea

(c)  Cocs nucifera

(d)  Linum usitatissimum

Answer: (d)

167. An embryo may sometimes develop from cell of an embryo sac other than egg is called

(a)  apospory

(b)  parthenogenesis

(c)  parthenocarpy

(d)  apogamy

Answer: (c)

168. The roots which develop from any portion of the plant EXCEPT the radical are known as

(a)  tap roots

(b)  stilt roots

(c)  fibrous roots

(d)  adventitious roots

Answer: (d)

169. Angiosperms differ from gymnosperms

(a)  being ever green

(b)  being smaller size

(c)  having compounds leaves

(d)  having ovules enclosed in ovary

Answer: (d)

170. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of

(a)  infants due to protein energy malnutrition

(b)  adults due to protein energy malnutrition

(c)  adults due to vitamin D deficiency

(d)  infants due to vitamin K deficiency

Answer: (c)

171. The function of vitamin K is in

(a)  regulation of C and P metabolism

(b)  carbohydrate metabolism

(c)  blood clotting

(d)  respiration

Answer: (c)

172. Liver is characterized b presence of

(a)  Glisson’s capsule

(b)  Kupffer’s cells

(c)  Both (A) and (B)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

173. Vertebral column is derived from

(a)  Dorsal nerve cord

(b)  Ventral nerve cord

(c)  Notochord

(d)  Outgrowth

Answer: (c)

174. Cosmoplites stordidus is the pest of

(a)  sugarcane

(b)  jowar

(c)  banana

(d)  cotton

Answer: (c)

175. The sterile male technique comes under _______ control.

(a)  chemical

(b)  mechanical

(c)  biological

(d)  autocidal

Answer: (c)

176. _______ is the resinous material collected from trees.

(a)  Royal jelly

(b)  Honey

(c)  Propolis

(d)  Venom

Answer: (c)

177. When colony is in danger worker bee performs

(a)  circular dance

(b)  wriggle dance

(c)  DVAV

(d)  alarm dance

Answer: (b)

178. Number of flower visited per minute is called as

(a)  Foraging rate

(b)  Foraging speed

(c)  Foraging flow

(d)  Foraging

Answer: (a)

179. Mammary glands are modified

(a)  Sebaceous glands

(b)  Sudorfic glands/ Sweat

(c)  Cultaneous glands

(d)  Scant glands

Answer: (a)

180. Hair, nails, hoofs and horns are formed with the help of protein, known as

(a)  Keratin

(b)  Globulin

(c)  Chitin

(d)  Histone

Answer: (a)

181. The poison glands of poisonous snake are modified

(a)  Buccal glands

(b)  Palantine glands

(c)  Salivery glands

(d)  Lacrymal glands

Answer: (b)

182. Sex-linked genes refers to

(a)  present in a particular sex

(b)  controlling secondary sexual characters

(c)  controlling both primary and secondary sexual characters

(d)  present on sex chromosomes

Answer: (d)

183. Clover-leaf model of tRNA was proposed

(a)  Khorana

(b)  Lederberg

(c)  Nirenberg

(d)  Holley

Answer: (d)

184. Spirulina belongs to

(a)  Xanthophyceae

(b)  Cyanophaceae

(c)  Rhodophyceae

(d)  Pheophyceae

Answer: (c)

185. By the statement ‘survival of the fittest’, Darwin meant that

(a)  the strongest of all species survives

(b)  the most intelligent of the species survives

(c)  the cleverest of the species survives

(d)  the most adaptable of the species to changes survives

Answer: (d)

186. BT brinjal is an example of transgenic crops. In this, BT refers to

(a)  Bacillus tuberculosis

(b)  Biotechnology

(c)  Betacarotene

(d)Bacillus thuringiensis

Answer: (d)

187. Which one of the following is related to humoral immunity?

(a)  Platyhelminthes

(b)  Annelida

(c)  Mollusca

(d)  Echinodermata

Answer: (b)

188. Which one of t he following animal phyla does NOT possess a coelom?

(a)  Platyhelminthes

(b)  Annelida

(c)  Mollusca

(d)  Echinodermata

Answer: (a)

189. Which of the following would be in insignificant amount in xylem sap ?

(a)  Nitrates

(b)  Phosphates

(c)  Water

(d)  Sugar

Answer: (d)

190. Which of the following two hormones are essential for induced breeding of fishes?

(a)  TSH and ACTH

(b)  Oestrogen and Progesterone

(c)  FSH and LH

(d)  Vassopressin and oxytocin

Answer: (d)

191. Which of the following in the correct pathway for propagation of cardiac impulse ?

(a)  SA node-AV node – Bundle of His – Purkinje fibers

(b)  AV node – Bundle of His – SA node – Purkinje fibers

(c)  SA node – Purkinje fibers – AV node – Bundle of His

(d)  Purkinje fibers – AV node – SA node – Bundle of His

Answer: (a)

192. When DNA replication starts

(a)  the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides of two strands break

(b)  the phosphodiester bonds between the adjacent nucleotide break

(c)  the bonds between the nitrogen base and deoxyribose sugar break

(d)  the leading strand produces okiazaki fragments

Answer: (d)

193. What is a genophore ?

(a)  DNA in prokaryotes

(b)  DNA and RNA in prokaryotes

(c)  DNA and protein in prokaryotes

(d)  RNA in prokaryotes

Answer: (b)

194. Transpiration facilitates

(a)  opening of stomata

(b)  absorption of water by roots

(c)  excretion of minerals

(d)  electrolyte balance

Answer: (a)

195. The types of ribosomes found in prokaryotic cell are

(a)  100 S

(b)  80 S

(c)  60 S

(d)  70 S

Answer: (d)

196. The space between the plasma membrane and the cell wall of a plasmolyzed cell surrounded by a hypertonic solution is occupied by the

(a)  hypotonic solution

(b)  isotonic solution

(c)  hypertonic solution

(d)  water

Answer: (b)

197. The single horned Rhinoceros is protected at

(a)  Kaziranga National Park

(b)  Kanha National Park

(c)  Rajiv Gandhi National Park

(d)  Anashi National Park

Answer: (a)

198. The part of the brain where the centre for hunger and thirs is located is

(a)  Cerebrum

(b)  Hypothalamus

(c)  Cerebellum

(d)  Medulla Oblongata

Answer: (c)

199. The rosette habit of cabbage can be changed by application of

(a)  IAA

(b)  GA

(c)  ABA

(d)  Ethaphon

Answer: (a)

200. The presence of corollary corona, sagittate anthers and dumb-bell shaped stigma are the characteristic features of

(a)  Hibiscus rosa-sinensis

(b)  Musa paradisiaca

(c)  Ravenala madagascariensis

(d)  Catheranthus roseus

Answer: (c)