IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017
IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. A rift on a gigantic ice shall has grown more ………… in the past few months than it has …………. the past five years, and the consequences could be disastrous.

(a)  rapidly; over

(b)  slowly; from

(c)  fast; in

(d)  sluggishly; under

(e)  briskly; on

Answer: (a)

2. Contrary to the usual ………… of air travel, wherein July is the lean month, this year’s air travel data presents a ………… picture.

(a)  style; similar

(b)  trend; different

(c)  pattern; poor

(d)  Statistic; solid

(e)  fad; drastic

Answer: (b)

3. The new material, when incorporated ……. windows or sunroofs, can …….. the incoming heat and light from the Sun, thereby cutting electricity costs.

(a)  at; forfeit

(b)  to; manage

(c)  in; control

(d)  for; change

(e)  of; regulate

Answer: (c)

4. Initially preferred by many as a winter …………., velvet has, over the years, assumed great versatility and can now be worn …….. the year.

(a)  dress, along

(b)  clothing, across

(c)  thread, for

(d)  fabric, throughout

(e)  suit, out

Answer: (d)

5. Recently, the local municipal corporation of the city has made the ………. of yoga mandatory in all the schools that come ………… its purview.

(a)  outcome, within

(b)  duty, on

(c)  essence, for

(d)  custom, off

(e)  practice, under

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Education in most of the developing world is shocking. Half the children in South Asia and a third of those in Africa who complete four years of schooling cannot read  properly. In India, 60% of six-to-14-year-olds cannot read at the level of a child who has finished two years of schooling.

Most government have proposed to provide universal primary education and to promote secondary education. But even when public schools exist, they often fail to do so.

Results of the survey conducted in this respect by the World Bank depicted worrisome results. In rural Indian schools, a quarter of teachers was absent. In Africa, the teacher-absenteeism rates ranged between15-25%. Pakistan recently discovered that it had over 8000 non-existent state schools, 17% of the total, Sierra Leone spotted 6000’ ghost’ teachers, nearly a fifth the number on the State payroll.

Powerful teachers’ union are part of the problem, They often see jobs as hereditary sinecures, the State-education budget as a revenue stream to be milked and any attempt to monitor the quality of education as an intrusion. The union can be fearsome enemies, so governments leave them to run schools in the interests of teachers rather than pupils.

The failure of State education, combined with the shift in emerging economies from farmin to jobs that need at least a modicum of education, has caused a private-school boom. According to the World Bank, across the developing world, a fifth of primary-school pupils are enrolled in private schools twice, as many as 20 years ago. So many private schools are unregistered that the real figure is likely to be much higher. A census in Lagos found 12000 private schools, four times as many as on government records. Across Nigeria, 26% of primary-age children were in private schools in 2010, up from 18% in 2004. In India in 2013, 29% were, up from 19% in 2006. In Liberia and Sierra Leone, around 60% and 50% respectively of secondary schools enrollments are private.

By and large, politicians and educationalists are unenthusiastic. Governments see education as the State’s job. Teacher’s union dislike private schools because they pay less and are harder to organize in NGOs tend to be ideologically opposed to the private sector. The UN special rapporteur on education has said that ‘for-profit education should not be allowed in order to safeguard the noble cause of education.’ This attitude harms those whom educationalists claim to serve children.

The boom in private education is excellent news for them and their countries, for three reasons. First, it is bringing in money-not just from parents, but also from investors, some in search of a profit. Most private schools in the developing world are single operators that charge a few dollars a month, but chains are now emerging.

Bridge International Academies, for instamce, has 400 nursery and primary schools in Kenya and Uganda which teach in standardized classrooms that look rather like stacked shipping containers. It plans to expand into Nigeria and India. Mark Zuckenberg, Facebook’s founder. Bill Gates and the International Finance Corporation, the World Bank’s private-sector arm, are among its investors, Chains are a healthy development, because they have reputation to guard. Second, private schools are often better value for money than State ones. Measuring this is hard, since the children who go to private schools tend to be better off and therefore likely to perform better.

But a rigorous four-year study of 6000 pupils in Andhra Pradesh, in southern India, suggested that private pupils perform better in English and Hindi than public-school pupils and at a similar level in mathematics and Telugu, the local language, The private schools achieved these results at a third of the cost of the public schools. Lastly, private schools are innovative. Since, technology has great (though as yet mostly unrealized) potential in education, this could be important. Bridge gives teachers tablets linked to a central system that provides teaching materials and monitors their work. Such robo-teaching may not be ideal, but it is better than lessons without either materials or monitoring.

Critics of the private sector are right that it has problems. Quality ranges from top-notch international standard to not much more than cheap child care. But the alternative is often a public school that is worse ….. or no school at all.

6. As mentioned in the passage, the boom in education sector, brought in by the private education, is welcomed because

(A) It provides a platform for bringing in innovative practices.

(B) If focuses on education children on a large scale.

(C) It encourages investment from all stakeholders.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  Both A and C

(d)  Only C

(e)  Both B and C

Answer: (c)

7. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a)  Private schools in Africa function better as compared to those in Sierra Leone.

(b)  Keeping track of the number of mushrooming private schools is easy in the developing world.

(c)  The education sector in Liberia is  mainly dominated by public schools.

(d)  Standalone education institutions are better managed as compared to chains of schools.

(e)  None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (c)

8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the world ‘Safeguard’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Threaten

(b)  Shield

(c)  Misfortune

(d)  Violent

(e)  Default

Answer: (a)

9. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Unenthusiastic’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Illogical

(b)  Passionate

(c)  Apathetic

(d)  Kind

(e)  Distressed

Answer: (b)

10. The data with respect to the failure of public schools

(a)  depicted the real picture of the education sector in the developed world.

(b)  identified loopholes in the existing pedagogy followed by most public schools.

(c)  brought to the fore the fact that teachers must undergo constant training.

(d)  highlighted the fact that a good number of schools and teachers existed only on paper.

(e)  emphasized the point that absenteeism from school was a problem that existed only in the developing world.

Answer: (d)

11. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘ hereditary sinecures’ as used in the passage for jobs?

(a)  These can be acquired only on the basis of merit.

(b)  These are inherited by female members of the family and passed on from generation to generation.

(c)  These are acquired with minimum effort and involve little or no work.

(d)  These are married by insecurities.

(e)  These are not at all lucrative.

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Milked’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Saved

(b)  Exploited

(c)  Expressed

(d)  Outsourced

(e)  Managed

Answer: (b)

13. As mentioned in the passage, teachers’ unions pose a threat to the education system because

(A) they have a strong network of student volunteers.

(B) they always think about betterment of students at the cost interests of teachers.

(C) they follow controversial methods of teaching.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  Both A and B

(d)  Only C

(e)  None of the given A, B & C

Answer: (e)

14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Modicum’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Minimum

(b)  Strategy

(c)  Medium

(d)  Abundance

(e)  Relief

Answer: (a)

15. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

(a)  Exploring methods to implement education models from the western world.

(b)  Provisions for making teacher unions an integral part of the education system.

(c)  Exploring the role played by the technology to better the education sector in the developed world.

(d)  Concerns surrounding the education system in the developing world.

(e)  Critically analyzing the loopholes in the private sector.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

(A) Conversion of forests into agricultural land is weakening India’s monsoon.

(B) This is because forests are a source of transpiration, which adds to rainfall.

(C) It contributes to around 25% of the total precipitation in the later stages of the monsoon.

(D) The latter cannot do the same, thereby resulting in a weak monsoon.

(E) Now, transpiration is the process by which trees channel moisture from the soil into the air.

(F) However, deforestation replaces deep-rooted plants with shallow-rooted vegetation.

16. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (a)

17. Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  D

(b)  E

(c)  C

(d)  B

(e)  A

Answer: (d)

18. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  F

(c)  D

(d)  C

(e)  A

Answer: (d)

19. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  F

Answer: (e)

20. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  F

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given be low should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.

21. The drought preceding winter has played spoilsport with regard to the sowing of winter crops such as wheat, pulses and oilseeds.

(a)  playing spoilsport

(b)  are  being playing spoilsports

(c)  has been spoilt

(d)  to p lay spoilsport

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

22. Evidence indicates that businesses are holding off on investment as they await clearly about this country’s future relationship with the European Union.

(a)  they wait for clarity

(b)  clearly waiting

(c)  their waiting clearly

(d)  to wait for clarity

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

23. Over the past three years, the government has been urging civil servants to open bank accounts to which they pay transferred directly.

(a)  they are paid

(b)  their paying to be

(c)  their paying can be

(d)  it has been paid

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

24. Scientists at an American University have discovered a fabric that keeps the skin 2 degrees cooler which will be good for the wearer serve to reduce energy bills.

(a)  by serving reduced

(b)  and also serve to reduce

(c)  to serve reduce

(d)  by serving a reduction

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

25. Newly created a vaccine from scratch is a huge undertaking, but in the case of Ebola, several vaccines were already on the shelf, thanks to the work of the army.

(a)  Creating a new

(b)  Creation from a new

(c)  To create newly

(d)  The new creation

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

26. As per the World Giving index, India came down in the rankings from 93 in 2013 to 106 in 2014 demonstration an overall reduction in Indian philanthropy.

(a)  that reducing overall

(b)  how to reduce overall

(c)  that an overall reduction of

(d)  if there is overall a reduction

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

27. The company has been testing self-driving cars on the roads of the capital for months and will soon begin offering customers request chances rides in one.

(a)  a chance request

(b)  to request chance

(c)  a chance to request

(d)  requesting a chance

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

28. They became much involved in the rescue and relief work that they refused to be evacuated.

(a)  so involved with

(b)  very involved

(c)  more involved with

(d)  too involved that

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

29. The appreciate the social transformations that took place in Europe between 1815 and World War I, it is importantly considered its towns and cities evolved.

(a)  considered of importance that

(b)  to be considered importantly

(c)  important to consider how

(d)  considered how important

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

30. When a country became richer, they tend to move away from the use of cash on grounds of security, convenience and cost.

(a)  When rich countries

(b)  Until rich country becomes richer

(c)  A country which is rich

(d)  As countries become richer

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, your answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

31. For almost three decades, central bankers/have agreed that one of the best way/ to stabilize an economy is/to aim for a specific ‘inflation target’.

(a)  For almost three decades, central bankers

(b)  have agreed that one of the best way

(c)  to stabilize an economy is

(d)  to aim for a specific ‘inflation target’

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

32. Consulting firms estimates that about $1540 billion / of the world’s IT budget of $34 trillion will be spent/ on cloud computing this year alone/ a number which is expected to grow tenfold by next year.

(a)  Consulting firms estimates that about $1540 billion

(b)  of the world’s IT budget of $34 trillion will be spent

(c)  on cloud computing this year alone

(d)  a number which is expected to grow tenfold by next year

(e)  No error

Answer: (a)

33. In this state, a mere/ 50% of the food been consumed/ is grown locally, compared/ to 81% in the other States.

(a)  In this state, a mere

(b)  50% of the food been consumed

(c)  is grown locally, compared

(d)  to 81% in the other States

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

34. After years of economic stagnation/ and questionable lending,/ bad loans at Italian banks/ have pile up.

(a)  After years of economic stagnation

(b)  and questionable lending

(c)  bad loans at Italian  banks

(d)  have pile up

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

35. The main reason for Britain’s success/ at the Olympics was/ the efficient allocation of fund toward/ equipment, facilities and training for athletes.

(a)  The main reason for Britain’s success

(b)  at the Olympics was

(c)  the efficient allocation of fund toward

(d)  equipment, facilities and training for athletes

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

36. Over thirty years ago, Chile created/ a pension system in which workers/ had to save for their own retirement by paying/ 10% of its earning into individual accounts.

(a)  Over thirty years ago, Chile created

(b)  a pension system in which workers

(c)  had to save for their own retirement by paying

(d)  10% of its earning into individual accounts

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

37. The cement industry is one of/ the world’s most polluting industries/ and it accounts 5% of/ manmade carbon dioxide emissions each year.

(a)  The cement industry is one of

(b)  the world’s most polluting industries

(c)  and it accounts 5% of

(d)  manmade carbon dioxide emissions each year

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

38. Under the ‘Dodd-Frank’ Act, a law aimed/ mainly at tightening the regulation of companies,/ firms in the United States had to be able/ to show how the minerals used in their products are formed.

(a)  Under the ‘Dodd-Frank’ Act, a law aimed

(b)  mainly at tightening the regulation of companies

(c)  firms in the United States had to be able

(d)  to show how the minerals used in their products are formed

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

39. Launching a satellite into space/ remained a risky and hideously/ expensive proposition, only taken/ up by governments and a few companies.

(a)  Launching a satellite into space

(b)  remains a risky and hideously

(c)  expensive proposition, only taken

(d)  up by governments and a few companies

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

40. Under the terms of the policy,/ a payment has been triggered only/ if more than 1.39 million people/ are affected by the drought.

(a)  Under the terms of the policy

(b)  a payment has been triggered only

(c)  if more than 1.39 million people

(d)  are affected by the drought

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In the given passage,, there are blanks, each of which  has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Brazil’s Tourism Ministry is (41) a 6% increase in the number of tourists visiting the country (42) the next year, following the end of the Rio Olympics. The number is an estimate based on the (43) from the last three Olympic host cities-Athens, Beijing and London. Now that the curtain has been (44) and that the host country has taken its final bow. Brazil (45) released a glowing self-assessment of its performance based (46) the survey results from its international visitors. Rio (47) five lakh visitors (48) the games, with 88% of foreigners saying that they intend to come back to Brazil. However, when it (49) to security, public transport, infrastructure and prices, satisfaction levels fall (50) the ‘good’ category.

41.

(a)  negotiating

(b)  announcing

(c)  predicting

(d)  generating

(e)  approving

Answer: (c)

42.

(a)  on

(b)  over

(c)  from

(d)  off

(e)  at

Answer: (c)

43.

(a)  searching

(b)  highlight

(c)  citing

(d)  findings

(e)  discoveries

Answer: (d)

44.

(a)  drawn

(b)  fallen

(c)  risen

(d)  there

(e)  picked

Answer: (b)

45.

(a)  have

(b)  had

(c)  has

(d)  were

(e)  was

Answer: (c)

46.

(a)  unto

(b)  on

(c)  for

(d)  in

(e)  off

Answer: (b)

47.

(a)  stopped

(b)  felt

(c)  resided

(d)  brought

(e)  received

Answer: (e)

48.

(a)  during

(b)  on

(c)  without

(d)  by

(e)  down

Answer: (a)

49.

(a)  goes

(b)  falls

(c)  comes

(d)  moves

(e)  leaves

Answer: (c)

50.

(a)  above

(b)  down

(c)  besides

(d)  under

(e)  out

Answer: (b)

Part II Reasoning

51. Among five people – A, B, C, D and E, each scoring different marks, only one person scored less marks than B. D scored more than B, but less than A. A did not score the highest. Who scored the second highest?

(a)  E

(b)  Cannot be determined

(c)  A

(d)  C

(e)  D

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 52-54) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A is 14 m East of B. C is 6 m South of A. P is 4 m West of C. Point C is the midpoint of Points P and H, such that Points P, C and H form a straight line. Q is 6 m South of Point H.

52. Kunal walks 10 m towards North from Point H, takes a left turn, and walks for 4 m. How far will he be from Point C?

(a)  2 m

(b)  10 m

(c)  4 m

(d)  6 m

(e)  7 m

Answer: (b)

53. If A is 2 m to the North of L and R is 4 m West of Q, how far is Point L from Point R?

(a)  4 m

(b)  12 m

(c)  7 m

(d)  10 m

(e)  9 m

Answer: (d)

54.In which direction is B with respect to H?

(a)  North-East

(b)  South-East

(c)  North-West

(d)  North

(e)  West

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 55-59) Study the following information and answer the given questions

Nine friends- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X live on nine different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered nine. T lives on an odd numbered floor below the floor numbered five. Only three people live between T and V. Only one person lives between X and V. V lives above X. Q lives on an odd numbered floor immediately below P. Q does not  live on the floor numbered five. the number of persons living between X and P is equal to the number of people living between T and S. W lives on an even numbered floor above R.

55. S is related to the floor numbered seven and R is related to the floor numbered three in a certain way, same as X is related to which of the following floor numbers?

(a)  Seven

(b)  Nine

(c)  Five

(d)  Eight

(e)  Four

Answer: (e)

56. U lives on which of the following floor numbers?

(a)  Five

(b)  Four

(c)  Nine

(d)  Three

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

57.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a)  UP

(b)  VW

(c)  XR

(d)  PR

(e)  QS

Answer: (d)

58. How many persons live below the floor on which W lives?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  More than three

(d)  Three

(e)  None

Answer: (d)

59. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  Only three people live between S and V.

(b)  None of the given statements is true

(c)  Q lives immediately above T.

(d)  Less than three persons live above R.

(e)  U lives on the floor numbered nine.

Answer: (e)

60. How m any such pairs of digits are there in the number 71864392 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetic series?

(a)  More than three

(b)  None

(c)  Three

(d)  One

(e)  Two

Answer: (a)

61. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on their positions of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  RQT

(b)  NPL

(c)  FHD

(d)  KMI

(e)  WYU

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 62-66) Study the following information to answer the given questions

Nine persons B, C, D, E, L, M, N, O and P are seated in a straight line facing North with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order.

As many people sit to the left of E as to the right of E. Only one person sits between E and O. L sits third to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of O. Neither P nor D sits at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only three persons sits between B and C. B is not an immediate neighbour of E. the number of people sitting between B and E is double as that between E and N.

62. Who sits third to the right of B?

(a)  E

(b)  O

(c)  N

(d)  L

(e)  No one as B sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

Answer: (a)

63. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  C, E

(b)  M, D

(c)  O, C

(d)  B, L

(e)  D, B

Answer: (e)

64. Which of the following is true with respect to M as per the given arrangement?

(a)  M sits second to the left of O.

(b)  M is an immediate neighbour of L

(c)  More than two people sit between D and M.

(d)  None of the given options is true

(e)  M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

Answer: (e)

65. Who amongst the following sit exactly between L and P?

(a)  E, N

(b)  M, O

(c)  B, N

(d)  C, O

(e)  D, E

Answer: (c)

66. In which of the given pairs of people, is odd number of people sitting between them?

(a)  E, M

(b)  B, M

(c)  L, C

(d)  L, P

(e)  P, O

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-71) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Gaurav watches seven movies viz. Gladiator, Bravheart, Titanic, Inception, Chinatown, Avatar and Passion on seven different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Thus on one day he watches only one movie. Gaurav watches Inception on Friday. He watches only one movie between Inception and Titanic. He watches only three movies between Titanic and Gladiator. he watches only two movies between Titanic and Chinatown. Gaurav watches Avatar immediately before the day he watches Titanic. He watches Passion on one of the days after he watches Aavatar.

67. How many movies does Gaurav watch between Braveheart and Passion?

(a)  None

(b)  Three

(c)  One

(d)  Two

(e)  Four

Answer: (d)

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  Wednesday-Avatar

(b)  Friday-Braveheart

(c)  Thursday-Titanic

(d)  Saturday-Inception

(e)  Sunday-Chinatown

Answer: (b)

69. Which of the following is true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  Gaurav watches Inception on the day immediately after the day on which he watches Braveheart.

(b)  None of the given statements are true.

(c)  Gaurav watches only two movies between Avatar and Chinatown.

(d)  Gaurav watches Passion on Wednesday.

(e)  Gaurav watches Gladiator on Sunday.

Answer: (e)

70. On which day of the week does Gaurav watch Avatar?

(a)  Saturday

(b)  Sunday

(c)  Tuesday

(d)  Wednesday

(e)  Thursday

Answer: (c)

71. Which movie does Gaurav watch on Monday?

(a)  Chinatown

(b)  Gladiator

(c)  Titanic

(d)  Braveheart

(e)  Passion

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-76) In these questions. relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s) are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusions are true

72. Statements T = V ≤ R < B, T ≤ D

Conclusions I. D ≥ R       II. B ≤ T

Answer: (d)

73. Statements R < O ≥ E; Y = O > C

Conclusions I. Y > R       II. E < C

Answer: (a)

74. Statements P > R = S ≥ Q; M ≤ R

Conclusions I. M < P       II. Q ≤ M

Answer: (a)

75. Statements H < M ≥ I > N = C ≥ R

Conclusions I. C < H       II. M > R

Answer: (b)

76. Statements R < O ≥ E; Y ≥ O > C

Conclusions I. Y = E       II. Y > E

Answer: (c)

77. In a certain code language, ‘give me call’ is coded as ‘jo kl mx’ and ‘call for me’ is coded as ‘mx jo st’. How will ‘for’ be coded as in the given code language? (Note: all codes are two letter codes only)

(a)  Either ‘mx’ or ‘jo’

(b)  Either ‘jo’ or ‘kj’

(c)  kj

(d)  mx

(e)  st

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 78-82) In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions number I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if only conclusion II follows

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows

(d) if neither conclusion I or II follows

(e) if both conclusions follow

78. Statements No horse is a goat. Some goats are deers.

Conclusions I. No horse is a deer.

II. At least some horses are deers.

 

Answer: (a)

79. Statements Some trees are branches. Some braches are roads. No road is a sky.

Conclusions I. No tree is a sky.

II. Some branches are definitely not skies.

Answer: (a)

80. Statements All plates are spoons. All spoons are glasses. Some glasses are mugs.

Conclusions I. All plates being mugs is a possibility.

II. All glasses are plates.

Answer: (d)

81. Statements All plates are spoons. All spoons are glasses. Some glasses are mugs.

Conclusions I. Some mugs are spoons.

II. No mug is a spoon.

Answer: (d)

82. Statements Some trees are branches. Some branches are roads. No road is a sky.

Conclusions I. All roads are trees.

II. All skies are branches.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

K and M are the children of G. G is married to R. S is the sister of G. A is the only son of R. P is the son of K.

83. How is M related to P?

(a)  Father

(b)  Uncle

(c)  Aunt

(d)  Grandmother

(e)  Brother-in-law

Answer: (c)

84. How is S related to R?

(a)  Sister-in-law

(b)  Daughter-in-law

(c)  Niece

(d)  Daughter

(e)  Grandmother

Answer: (a)

85. If S does not have any sister, then how is G related to P?

(a)  Uncle

(b)  Grandfather

(c)  Father-in-law

(d)  Aunt

(e)  Grandmother

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that four of them sit at the corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting at the corners are facing the centre and the ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing outside. (i.e. opposite to the centre)

O sits in the middle f one of the sides. Only two people sit between O and R. T sits to the immediate right of R. T and S face the same direction. N sits to the immediate left of S. P is an immediate neighbour of N. M sits third to the right of P.

86. What is the positions of P with respect to T?

(a)  Third to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Immediate left

(d)  immediate right

(e)  Second to the right

Answer: (e)

87. Which of the following pairs represents the people sitting between O and the one sitting to the immediate right of P, when counted from the left of O?

(a)  N, S

(b)  R, N

(c)  S, M

(d)  T, Q

(e)  R, T

Answer: (c)

88. How many people sit between T and M when counted from the right of T?

(a)  More than three

(b)  Two

(c)  One

(d)  Three

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

89. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(a)  None of the given statements is true.

(b)  Q is an immediate neighbour of T.

(c)  S sits at one of the corners of the table.

(d)  Only two people sit between M and Q.

(e)  R and N face opposite directions

Answer: (b)

90. Who sits third to the left of O?

(a)  R

(b)  M

(c)  P

(d)  N

(e)  S

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are seating around a circular table. Some of them are facing inside & others are facing outside. Opposite direction means if one is facing inside the centre, second one face outside the centre and Vice versa.

Three people are seating between F and D and both face opposite direction to each other. E is seating second to right of both D and F and face opposite direction as F faces. C is seating third to right of E  who is not opposite to B. G is neighbour of both E and D, and seating second to right of B, who is not a neighbour of E. G is third to left of A, who is third to right of both H and G. B face towards the centre and is seating second to left of C.

91. If all the friends are seating according to alphabetical order in anti clock wise direction, starting from A, how many friends remain at same position (excluding A)?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  Four

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

92. If D interchanged his position with H and, F interchanged his position with G, who sits immediately right of H in new arrangement?

(a)  F

(b)  G

(c)  E

(d)  A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

93. Who is sitting third to the left of B?

(a)  H

(b)  C

(c)  A

(d)  F

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

94. How many persons are facing away from the centre?

(a)  H, B

(b)  C, G

(c)  F, D

(d)  E, A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

95. Who among the following pairs are facing same direction and seating opposite to each other?

(a)  H, B

(b)  B, G

(c)  F, D

(d)  E, A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the given information to answer the given questions.

Ten friends are sitting on twelve seats in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In Row 1: A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing South and in Row 2: P, Q, R, S and T are sitting and all of them are facing North. One seat is vacant in each row. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

All of them like different colors – Red, Green, Black, Yellow, White, Blue, Brown, Purple, Pink and Grey, but not necessarily in the same order.

There are two seats between Q and the vacant seat. Q does not like White, Red and Purple. E is not an immediate neighbor of C. B likes Grey. Vacant seat of row 1 is not opposite to S and is also not at any of the extreme ends of Row-1. The one who likes Black sits opposite to the one, who sits third to the right of the seat, which is opposite to S. C is not an immediate neighbor of D. T, who likes neither White nor Blue, does not face vacant seat. D faces R. The vacant seats are not opposite to each other. Two seats are there between E and B. The one who sits third right of the seat, on which the person who likes brown is sitting. S sits third to the right of seat on which R sits and likes Yellow. the one who likes Pink faces the one who likes Yellow. The persons who like Red and Purple are adjacent to each other. The vacant seat in row 1 is not adjacent to D. Q sits at one of the extreme ends. E neither likes Pink nor faces the seat which is adjacent to the one who likes Blue. The one who likes Yellow. The persons who likes Green doesn’t face the person who likes Purple.

96. How many persons are sitting between T and the one who likes Yellow colour?

(a)  None

(b)  One

(c)  Two

(d)  Three

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

97. Which of the following faces the vacant seat of Row-2

(a)  The one who like White colour

(b)  A

(c)  D

(d)  The one who like Grey colour

(e)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

98. Who is sitting at the immediate left of person who likes Purple colour?

(a)  T

(b)  The one who likes black colour

(c)  D

(d)  The one who likes Green colour

(e)  The one who likes Grey colour

Answer: (a)

99. Who amongst the following sits at the extreme end of the row?

(a)  R, Q

(b)  E, S

(c)  T, C

(d)  C, D

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

100. If Q is made to sit on vacant seat of his row, then how many persons are there between the persons who sit opposite to Q now and who sat opposite to Q previously?

(a)  Two

(b)  Three

(c)  Four

(d)  None

(e)  One

Answer: (a)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your  knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the  possible answer.

Give answer

(a) if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement II alone is not sufficient.

(b) if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the statement I alone is not sufficient.

(c) if both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question

(d) if either the statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(e) if answer cannot be obtained from the statements I and II together but need even more data.

101. What is the area of the circle?

(I) Perimeter of the circle is 88 cms.

(II) Diameter of the circle is 28 cms.

Answer: (d)

102. What is the rate of interest?

(I) Simple Interest accrued on an amount of Rs25000 in two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs 250.

(II) Simple Interest accrued in 10 years is equal to the principal.

Answer: (d)

103. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns?

(I) Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4.

(II) There are five rows of trees in the field.

Answer: (e)

104. What is the speed of the current?

(I) A man can swim a distance of 9 km in  downstream

(II) While coming back upstream it takes him 3 hours to cover the same distance.

Answer: (c)

105. What is the minimum passing percentage in a test?

(I) Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than Raman.

(II) Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks.

Answer: (c)

106. What is the value of x2 + y + z?

(I) 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = z

(II) 3x + 3y + 2z = 34 and 2x + 5y+ 6z = 72

Answer: (c)

107. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?

(I) Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg.

(II) Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight.

Answer: (a)

108. What is Subodh’s marks in Physics?

(I) The average marks of Subodh in History, Geography and Chemistry are 75.

(II) His average marks in History, Geography and Physics are 78.

Answer: (e)

109. What is the population of the city A?

(I) The ratio of the population of males and females in city A is 27 : 23 and the difference between their population is 100000.

(II) The population of city A is 80% of that of city B. The difference of population of city A and city B is 312500.

Answer: (a)

110. How many students did participate in elocution?

(I) The students who participate in dancing were 150% were than that who participated in elocution.

(II) 150 students participated in dancing.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Study the following graph carefully and answer the given question below it.

111. Expenditure of company B in 2009 and 2010 are Rs 12 lakh and Rs 14.5 lakh respectively. What was the total income of company B in 2009 and 2010 together?

(a)  Rs 39.75

(b)  Rs 37.95

(c)  Rs 38.75

(d)  Rs 38.55

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

112. Ratio of expenditure of company A and B in 2012 was 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their incomes in 2012?

(a)  21 : 26

(b)  13 : 14

(c)  14 : 13

(d)  26 : 21

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

113. Total expenditure of company A in all the years together was 82.5 lakhs. What was the total income of the company A in all the years together?

(a)  1.23 crores

(b)  98.75 crores

(c)  99.85 crores

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

114. If the expenditure of company A and B in 2013 were equal and the total incomes of the two companies was Rs 5.7 lakh. What was the total expenditure of the two companies in 2013?

(a)  4 lakh

(b)  2 lakh

(c)  4.2 lakh

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

115. If the income of company B in 2010 and 2011 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively. What was the respective ratio of expenditure of that company in these two years?

(a)  20 : 29

(b)  9 : 10

(c)  29 : 45

(d)  10 : 29

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the given questions.

116. Number of girls enrolled in dancing form are what percent of total number of students enrolled in the school? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(a)  12.83

(b)  14.12

(c)  11.67

(d)  10.08

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

117. How many boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together?

(a)  750

(b)  610

(c)  485

(d)  420

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

118. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in swimming to the number of boys enrolled in Craft?

(a)  47 : 49

(b)  23 : 29

(c)  29 : 23

(d)  49 : 47

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

119. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Craft and Drawing together?

(a)  480

(b)  525

(c)  505

(d)  495

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

120. What is the appropriate percentage of boys in the school?

(a)  34%

(b)  56%

(c)  42%

(d)  50%

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-130) In each of the question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and

Give answer

(a) x < y        (b) x > y      (c) x ≥ y     (d) x ≤ y

(e) relationship between x and y cannot be established or x = y

121 (I) 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0 (II) 15y2 + 8y + 1= 0

Answer: (d)

122. (I) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 (II) 4y2 + 27y + 35= 0

Answer: (e)

123. (I) 2x2 + 5x + 3 = 0 (II) y2 + 9y + 14 = 0

Answer: (b)

124. (I) 88x2 – 19x + 1 = 0 (II) 132y2 – 23y + 1 = 0

Answer: (c)

125. (I) 6x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 (II) 20y2 – 31y + 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

126. (I) 6x2 + 23x + 20 = 0 (II) 6y2 + 31y + 35 = 0

Answer: (e)

127. (I) x2 = 81 (II) y2 – 18y + 81 = 0

Answer: (d)

128. (I) 4x2 + 20x + 21 = 0 (II) 2y2 + 17y + 35 = 0

Answer: (b)

129. (I) x2 – 14x + 48 = 0 (II) y2 + 6 = 5y

Answer: (b)

130. (I) 38x2 – 3x – 11 = 0 (II) 28y2 + 32y + 9 = 0

Answer: (c)

131. Two men P and Q start a journey from same place speed at a speed of 3 km/h and 3 1/2 km/h respectively. If they move in the same direction then, what is the distance between them after 4 hours?

(a)  3 km

(b)  2 1/2 km

(c)  2 km

(d)  3 1/2 km

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 132-135) What will come in place of question marks in the given questions?

132. 

(a)  5√5

(b)  (125)3

(c)  25

(d)  5

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

133. 

(a)  10

(b)  8

(c)  512

(d)  324

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

134. 

(a)  36 + 44√(7)

(b)  6

(c)  216

(d)  36

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

135. 

(a)  6320

(b)  6400

(c)  6350

(d)  6430

(e)  6490

Answer: (c)

136. 28 39 63  102  158  ?

(a)  232

(b)  242

(c)  233

(d)  244

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

137. 7 16 141  190  919  ?

(a)  1029

(b)  1019

(c)  1020

(d)  1030

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

138. 12 17 32  57  92  ?

(a)  198

(b)  195

(c)  137

(d)  205

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

139. 19 25 45  87  159  ?

(a)  254

(b)  279

(c)  284

(d)  269

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

140. 83 124 206  370  698  ?

(a)  1344

(b)  1324

(c)  1364

(d)  1334

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-147) Study the table carefully and answer the given questions.

141. What is the difference between the number of academic books published by publishing house M and P?

(a)  450

(b)  640

(c)  540

(d)  504

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

142. How many books were given to each distributor by publisher Q if each publisher gets equal number of books?

(a)  1806

(b)  1068

(c)  1608

(d)  1308

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

143. What is the average number of non-academic books published by publishers R and S?

(a)  18750

(b)  18850

(c)  19950

(d)  18950

(e)  19990

Answer: (c)

144. If the total number of books publishers P, Q and R is increased by 30% and the total number of books published by remaining publishers be decreased by 20%, what will be the new average of books published by all the publishers?

(a)  33418

(b)  33318

(c)  32518

(d)  33618

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

145. What is the total number of books distributed by publishers O and Q?

(a)  26702

(b)  27324

(c)  55026

(d)  54026

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

146. Meena kumara goes to a shop and buys a saree, costing Rs 5225 including sales tax of 12%. The shopkeeper gives her a discount, so that the price is decreased by an amount equivalent to sales tax. The price is decreased by (nearest value)

(a)  Rs 615

(b)  Rs 650

(c)  Rs 560

(d)  Rs 580

(e)  Rs 680

Answer: (c)

147. Phanse invests an amount of Rs 24200 at the rate of 4% per annum for 6 years to obtain a simple interest. later he invests the principal amount as well as the amount obtained as simple interest for another 4 years at the same rate of interest. What amount of simple interest will be obtain at the end of the last 4 years?

(a)  Rs 4800

(b)  Rs 4850.32

(c)  Rs 4801.28

(d)  Rs 4700

(e)  Rs 4870.32

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 148-149) These questions are based on the following information

There are three different cable channels namely ahead, luck and bang. In a survey, it was found that85% of viewers, respond to bang, 20% to luck and 30% of ahead. 20% of viewers respond exactly two channels and 5% to none.

148. What percentage of the viewers responded to all three?

(a)  10%

(b)  12%

(c)  14%

(d)  16%

(e)  11%

Answer: (a)

149. Assuming 20% respond to ahead and bang and 16% respond to bang and luck. What is the percentage of viewers who watch only luck?

(a)  20%

(b)  10%

(c)  16%

(d)  18%

(e)  14%

Answer: (e)

150. A milkman mixes 20 L of water with 80 L of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk?

(a)  2 : 3

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  1 : 3

(d)  2 : 1

(e)  3 : 4

Answer: (a)

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