National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate 2008 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate Question Paper-2008

General Ability Test

Directions (Qs. Nos. 1-25): Study the following questions carefully to answer these questions.

1. Which silhouette out of all the listed below is not suitable for a Women Tennis Player?

(A) Pleated short skirt

(B) A long straight skirt with a slit

(C) A divided skirt

(D) A flared short skirt

Answer: (B)

2. For a saree drape, which one of these is not an ideal fabric?

(A) Crepe

(B) Denim

(C) Silk

(D) Chiffon

Answer: (B)

3. D & G is known as :

(A) Dolls & Girls

(B) Dolls & Guys

(C) Dolce & Gabbana

(D) Denims & Guys

Answer: (C)

4. Which one of these famous Indian women is a well known fashion designer?

(A) Ayesha Dharker

(B) Puja Nayyar

(C) Shreya Ghosal

(D) Sharon Lowen

Answer: (B)

5. Which one of the listed terms is not a stain removing technique for fabrics?

(A) Sponging

(B) Tanning

(C) Flushing

(D) Tamping

Answer: (B)

6. Detrait is famous for which one of the following Industries?

(A) Textile

(B) Food Processing

(C) Automobiles

(D) Locomotives

Answer: (C)

7. FDCI was formed in the year:

(A) 1998

(B) 2000

(C) 2004

(D) 1968

Answer: (C)

8. What is the mandatory requirement for starting Import-Export business?

(A) To have Import-Export classification number

(B) To have Import-Export code number

(C) To have Import-Export identity number

(D) To have Import-Export category number

Answer: (C)

9. The term “FOB” means:

(A) Free on bulk

(B) Full ocean bill

(C) Freight on board

(D) Free on board

Answer: (D)

10. Give full form of ‘APEDA’:

(A) Agriculture Proceeds Export Development Authority

(B) Apparel Products Export Development Authority

(C) American Processed Foods Export Development Authority

(D) Agriculture & Processed Food Products Export Development Authority

Answer: (D)

11. Trade in which merchandize is exchanged directly with other merchandize without use of money is:

(A) free exchange

(B) goods against goods

(C) direct deal

(D) barter

Answer: (D)

12. Which ministry negotiates on behalf of India in WTO discussions?

(A) Commerce & Industry

(B) External Affairs

(C) Overseas Indian Affairs

(D) Finance

Answer: (A)

13. Which of these countries did not host GATT/WTO meeting?

(A) Mexico

(B) Uruguay

(C) New Delhi

(D) Dubai

Answer: (C)

14. Wood is the main raw material for the manufacture of:

(A) Paint

(B) Paper

(C) Ink

(D) Gun powder

Answer: (B)

15. Emerald is _____ in color.

(A) violet

(B) yellow

(C) deep green

(D) Prussian Blue

Answer: (C)

16. The ratio of Pure gold in 18 carat gold?

(A) 60%

(B) 75%

(C) 80%

(D) 100%

Answer: (B)

17. Which of the following fibres is least prone to fire?

(A) Royan

(B) Nylon

(C) Cotton

(D) Trycott

Answer: (C)

18. Which among the following is animal fibre?

(A) Cotton

(B) Royan

(C) Nylon

(D) Wool

Answer: (D)

19. Monetary Policy is regulated by?

(A) Money leader

(B) Central Bank

(C) Govt. Policy

(D) Private enterpenic

Answer: (B)

20. Which one of these is not an Element of Design?

(A) Color

(B) Line

(C) Bias

(D) Shape

Answer: (C)

21. MRP means:

(A) Maximum Retal Price

(B) Minimum Retal Price

(C) Maximum Revenue Per Price

(D) Marginal Revenue Price

Answer: (A)

22. Textile industry in India employs around – people.

(A) 36 Million

(B) 50 Million

(C) 20 Million

(D) 10 Million

Answer: (A)

23. IPO is an acronym for:

(A) Immediate Public Offer

(B) Instant Payment Offering

(C) Initial Public Offering

(D) Immediate Pay Order

Answer: (C)

24. ATC stands for:

(A) Arrangement between Textile Companies.

(B) Agreement on Textile and Clothing.

(C) Agreement on Trade and Cooperation.

(D) Arrangement for Trade and Compensation.

Answer: (B)

25. Trade in textiles and clothing came fully under WTO from:

(A) January 2004

(B) December 2005

(C) January 2005

(D) July 2004

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-29): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both  important and directly related to the question. ‘Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to trivial aspect of the question.

  Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered I, II and III. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.

26. Statement:

Should the Govt. supply free text books upto Std. X to all the students in the Govt. run schools in India?

Arguments:

(I) No, many students of these schools come from rich families and they should not be given free books.

(II) Yes, this will considerably reduce the percentage of school dropouts as many parents cannot afford the burden of buying books.

(III) No, the prices of books prescribed upto Std. X are otherwise very low and there is no need to distribute books free of cost to the students.

(A) Only I and II are strong.

(B) Only II and III are strong.

(C) Only I and III are strong.

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

27. Statement:

Should the Govt. privatize all the coal mines in the country?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this will result in optimum mining as the private companies are in a position to bring in experts from other countries to maximize the output.

(II) No, the coal mines are our country’s wealth and we should not allow them to go to the private hands.

(III) Yes, the coal mines in India are in very bad shape and the Govt. is unable to manage them efficiently.

(A) Only II and III are strong.

(B) Only I and II are strong.

(C) Only II and III are strong.

(D) All of the above

Answer: (A)

28. Statement:

Should all the Engineering Graduates passing out of Govt. colleges be compulsorily made to work in Government organization/public sector undertakings?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, these students have used huge resources of the Govt. and they should pay back by serving in Govt./public sector undertakings.

(II) Yes, otherwise these students will join the multinational companies and earn huge sums of money leading to loss of Govt. resources.

(III) No, each individual has a right to choose his/her job and serving in Govt./public sector undertakings should not be made mandatory.

(A) None is strong.

(B) Only III is strong.

(C) Only I and III are strong.

(D) Only either I or III and II are strong.

Answer: (D)

29. Statements:

Should the Government allow foreign construction companies in setting up of nuclear power plants?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, the foreign construction companies are technically superior than the construction companies in our country and therefore they will be able to build better installations.

(II) Yes, we need to construct such facilities with the help of foreign construction companies which have experience of building such installations in a time bound manner to avoid unnecessary delay.

(III) No, nuclear power installations are sensitive in nature and are integrated to the safety and security of our country and therefore we should not allow the foreigners to have access to such installations.

(A) All are strong.

(B) Only I and II are strong.

(C) Only III is strong.

(D) Only II is strong.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 30-31): Study the information below to answer these questions.

A, B, C, D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also B cannot be at the third place.

30. Which of the following must be false?

(A) A is at the first place

(B) A is at the second place

(C) A is at the third place

(D) A is at the fourth place

Answer: (A)

31. If A is not at the third place then C has :

(A) the first place only

(B) A is at the second place

(C) A is at the third place

(D) A is at the fourth place

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 32-33): Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.

  A boy is asked to put in a basket one mango when ordered ‘One’, one orange when ordered ‘Two’, one apple when ordered ‘Three’ and is asked to take out from the basket one mango and an orange when ordered ‘Four’.

A sequence of orders is given as:

1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3 2 3 4

32. How many total oranges were in the basked at the end of the above sequence?

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 3

(D) 2

Answer: (D)

33. How many total fruits will be in the basket at the end of the above order sequence?

(A) 9

(B) 8

(C) 11

(D) 10

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 34-36): Study the information below and answer the questions based on it.

The plan above shows an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies an office to the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F’s office is further down the corridor than A’s, but on the same side.

34. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (C)

35. Whose office faces A’s office?

(A) B

(B) C

(C) D

(D) E

Answer: (D)

36. D was heard telling someone to go further down the corridor to the last office on the right. To whose room was the trying to direct that person?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) F

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 37-38): Title of an article is given against each of these questions.

Mark answer as

(A) if it pertains to Politics

(B) if it pertains to Sociology

(C) if it pertains to Science and Technology

(D) if it pertains to Sports

37. Cases of Female infanticide still prevalent in India.

Answer: (B)

38. Researchers debate : Homeopathy a placebo or a healer?

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42): Below in each question are given two statement (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements. Mark answer as

(1) if statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.

(2) if statement (B) is the cause and statement

(3) if both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.

(4) if both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.

39. (A) The prices of cement have increased manifold during the past few

(B) Government has decided to provide tax break for five years to the new cement manufacturing factories to be set up in near future.

Answer: (A)

40. (A) This year majority of the X Std. Students of the local school opted Sanskrit as the third language.

(B) Last year majority of X Std. students of the local school opted French as the third language.

Answer: (D)

41. (A) The prices of vegetables have increased substantially during the past few weeks.

(B) Government had reduced the prices of petroleum products about a month back.

Answer: (C)

42. (A) Large number of people rushed to the Super Bazar on Sunday.

(B) The Super Bazer offered heavy discounts for a very large number of merchandise on Sunday.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-46) : In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by two conclusions I and II You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be of variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Mark answer as

(A) if only Conclusion II follows.

(B) if either Conclusion I or II follows.

(C) if either Conclusion I nor II follows.

(D) if both Conclusions I and II follow.

43. Statements:

Some pins are magnets. Some magnets are scales. Some scales are trucks. All trucks are buses.

Conclusions:

(I) Some trucks are pins.

(II) No truck is pin.

Answer: (B)

44. Statements:

All jungles are trees. All trees are roads. All roads are houses. All houses are buildings.

Conclusions:

(I) All trees are houses.

(II) Some buildings are roads.

Answer: (D)

45. Statements:

All tablets are packets. No packet is bag. Some bags are toys. All toys are puppets.

Conclusions:

(I) Some puppets are tablets.

(II) Some puppets are bags.

Answer: (A)

46. Statements:

Some desks are tables. Some tables are chairs.

Some chairs are benches. Some benches are cots.

Conclusions:

(I) Some chairs are desks.

(II) Some cots are tables.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-48): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Digit in the numbers are to be coded as follows:

Digit : 2        5        7        1        3        6        9        8        4        0

Code : P        D       M      R       F       L       J        Z       H       K

The following conditions are to be applied :

(i) If the first digit is even and the last digit is odd, each of the even digits in the number is to be coded as ‘A’.

(ii) If the first digit is add and the last digit is even, each of the odd digits in the number is to be coded as ‘B’.

(iii) If ‘0’ is the last digit of the number, it is to the coded as ‘X’.

(iv) If first and the last digits either both are even or both are odd, then both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

(v) ‘0’ is neither even nor odd.

Applying the above conditions, find out the correct code for the number in each question and indicate your answer accordingly.

47. 586342

(A) DAAFAA

(B) BZLBHP

(C) BZLFHB

(D) ALAHP

Answer: (B)

48. 639487

(A) AFJAAM

(B) BFJBBM

(C) AFJHZA

(D) BFJHZB

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 49-50): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

M, V, K, D, T, J and R are seven friends studying in different classes – IIIrd. IVth, Vth, VITh, VIIth, VIIIth and IXth standards. Each of them has different favourite colours – yellow, blue, red, white, black, green and violet. J likes red and studies in class Vth. R likes violet and studies in class IIIrd, M studies in class VIIIth and does not like green and yellow. K likes white and does not study in VIIth and IVth. D studies in VIth and likes black. T does not study in IVth. V does not like green.

49. In which standard does ‘V’ study?

(A) IVth

(B) IXth

(C) VIIIth

(D) Data inadequate

Answer: (A)

50. What is M’s favourite colour?

(A) Red

(B) Yellow

(C) Green

(D) Blue

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statement numbered I and II given below it. Decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and mark answer as :

(A) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) if the data either in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) if the data in both the Statements I and II are sufficient to answer the question.

51. On which day of the week was Joseph born?

(I) Joseph’s birthday was one day after his sister’s birthday.

(II) Joseph was born on the  third day of the week.

Answer: (B)

52. M, P, D, K and R are sitting around a circle facing at the centre. Who is to the immediate right of P?

(I) D is sitting between M and R.

(II) K is not the immediate left of R.

Answer: (B)

53. How is D related to M?

(I) D has two sisters K and N.

(II) K’s father is brother of M.

Answer: (B)

54. How is ‘go’ written in a certain code language?

(I) ‘go home now’ is written as ‘ja ho na’ in that code language.

(II) ‘come home now’ is written as ‘pa na ho’ in that code language.

Answer: (B)

55. What is Samir’s rank from the top in a class of 40 students?

(I) Nikhil who is five ranks below Samir is tenth from the bottom.

(II) Suresh who is six ranks above Samir is twentieth from the top.

Answer: (C)

56. The Kingfisher Swimsuit calendar is modeled on the lines of the exclusive calendar published by:

(A) Chanel

(B) Michelin

(C) Yves St. Laurent

(D) Pirelli

Answer: (D)

57. In fashion parlance ready to wear garments are known as:

(A) Diffusion

(B) Pret a Proter

(C) Couture

(D) Basics

Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following is not an accessory?

(A) Corset

(B) Belt

(C) Handbag

(D) Hat

Answer: (A)

59. The Endi, Muga and Pat varieties of silk are native to the state of:

(A) Karnataka

(B) Assam (Asom)

(C) W. Bengal

(D) Bihar

Answer: (B)

60. ‘Leheriya’ is a:

(A) Traditional tie and dye art

(B) Manipuri Shawl

(C) Himachali Headgear

(D) Kodava Costume

Answer: (A)

61. The famous Bamboo Dance of Mizoram is called:

(A) Chai Lam

(B) Wangala

(C) Cheraw

(D) Buddhism

Answer: (C)

62. The Indian Constitutions has ___ articles.

(A) 395

(B) 370

(C) 410

(D) 405

Answer: (A)

63. Jet lite is the label under which Jet Airways is operating _____ erstwhile airline.

(A) East West Airlines

(B) Modiluft

(C) Air Deccan

(D) Sahara

Answer: (D)

64. The next Olympic Games are scheduled in the year 2008 in the city of:

(A) Sydney

(B) Beijing

(C) Barcelona

(D) Toronto

Answer: (B)

65. Hosiery fabrics are made using the process of:

(A) Spinning

(B) Carding

(C) Knitting

(D) Weaving

Answer: (D)

66. Sunda Trench lies in :

(A) Atlantic Ocean

(B) Pacific Ocean

(C) Indian Ocean

(D) Antarctic Ocean

Answer: (C)

67. Originally denim was colored using:

(A) Aniline dyes

(B) Azo dyes

(C) Indigo

(D) Sulphate dyes

Answer: (C)

68. The ‘Angrakha’ is a type of:

(A) Head gear

(B) Dhoti

(C) Kurta

(D) Loin cloth

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 69-70) : Study the information below and answer questions based on it.

  Four families decided to attend the marriage ceremony of one of their colleagues. One family has no kids, while the others have atleast one kid each. Each family with kids has atleast one kid attending the marriage. Given below is some information about the families, and who reached when to attend the marriage.

  The family with 2 kids came just before the family with no kids.

  Shanthi who does not have any kids reached just before Sridevi’s family.

  Sunil and his wife reached last with their only kid.

  Anil is not the husband of Joya.

  Anil and Raj are fathers.

  Sridevi’s and Anita’s daughter go to the same school

  Joya came before Shanthi and met Anita when she reached the venue.

  Raman stays the farthest from the venue.

  Raj said his son could not come because of his exams.

69. Name the correct pair of husband and wife?

(A) Raj and Shanthi

(B) Sunil and Sridevi

(C) Anil and Sridevi

(D) Raj and Anita

Answer: (C)

70. Whose family is known to have more than one kid of certain?

(A) Raman’s

(B) Raj’s

(C) Anil’s

(D) Sunil’s

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) : Read the passage carefully. The passage is followed by one statement each against these questions.

Evaluate each statement and mark answer as

(A) if the statement is a Major Objective in making the decision : one of the goals sought by the decision-maker.

(B) if the statement is a Major Factor in making the decision : as aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the passage, the fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.

(C) if the statement is a Minor Factor in making the decision : a less important element bearing on or affecting a Major Factor, rather than a Major Objective, directly.

(D) if the statement is a Major Assumption in making the decision : a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factors and alternatives.

PASSAGE

Early in 1953, the soft drink world began to watch au interesting experiment : the introduction, of soft drinks in cans. Grocery outlets up to that time had enjoyed about one-half of all sales, but it was felt that if the new package was successful, local bottling plants might give way to great central plants, possibly operated by companies with established names in the grocery fields, with shipments being made in carload lots. Local bottlers faced a great decision. If the change were to prove permanent, they should perhaps hasten to add can-filling machines lest they lose their market. Coca- Cola, Canada Dry, White Rock, and many other bottlers experimented with the new plan. An eastern chain put out privately branded cans.

A basic limitation was the cost factor of about three cents per can, whereas bottle cost was put 4 fraction of a cent, since a bottle averaged about twenty-four round trips. It was known, however, that at that time about one third of all bear sales were made in cans and, furthermore, that other beverages had paved the way for consumer acceptance of a canned product. Beer prices were normally from three to four times those of soft drinks.

Many leaders in the industry felt that it might well be that consumer advertising emphasizing the convenience of using a non-returnable package might offset both habit and the extra cost to the consumer. One of the principal bottling companies undertook a large-scale market research project   to find useful guides to future action.

71. Introduction of soft drinks in cans.

Answer: (B)

72. Results of the market research project.

Answer: (A)

73. Cost of soft drinks in cans.

Answer: (C)

74. Inappropriateness of cans for more than a single use prior to scrapping.

Answer: (D)

75. Power of consumer advertising to eliminate resistance to canned soft drinks.

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80): Below is given a passage followed by inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its  degree of truth of falsity. Mark Answer as

(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’ , i.e.it properly follows from the statement of facts given.

(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given

(C) if the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.

(D) if the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.

Despite the vast untapped export potential, the funding of sericulture development in the country has been found to be a very major stumbling block. Therefore, it is necessary that a scheme for providing free flow of credit to all those who are engaged in sericulture including silk weaving may be drawn up.

  Further, taking into account the emerging trends, to the- Indian Silk industry from global players like -Korea and China, and also the serious challenges posed by the ongoing changes in the multi-fibre agreement and complete integration with GATT, it is necessary to formulate a new national silk policy. Another working group has to be constituted to evolve a long term import and

export policy.

76. The formulation and implementation of long term import and export policy will only help Indian Silk Industry.

Answer: (B)

77. Extending free flow of credit may help Indian Silk Industry in some way.

Answer: (A)

78. Silk industries in China and Korea are totally supported by respective governments.

Answer: (B)

79. Indian Silk Industry had been facing very tough challenge from China and Korea.

Answer: (C)

80. So far there has been no National Silk Policy in India.

Answer: (D)

81. We tend to think that there’s such a thing as time, but ask any physicist, “Is time a thing or a notion? Does time really exist, or is it just a concept to explain the experience of change in our environment?” An eminent quantum physicist once said, “No experiment hut ever been done that” proves the existence of time, ‘Time is not a thing; it is an idea. Physicists no longer use the word time, they use the term space-time continuum because they know that time is a relative phenomenon; it’s not absolute. The earth spinning on its axis and hurtling around the sun at thousands of miles per hour creates our experience of time. But time is an illusion; it’s an internal dialogue we use to explain our experience or of perception of change and relationship.

What is time?

(A) Time is the thing created by passage of events.

(B) Time is the distance travelled by the movements of the hand of the clock.

(C) Time is absolute.

(D) Time is a an idea created by the space between two events.

Answer: (D)

82. When the government of a state performs its function of administering a country, the function is called governance of public governance. Good public governance is supposed to exist if three objectives are achieved out of the governance agenda. First, there should be equality of low and effective implementation of laws. Second, there should be opportunity for every individual to realize his/her full human potential and third, there should be effective productivity and no waste in any and every sector.

What is governance?

(A) When the executive of the state is functioning, it is said to perform the functioning, it is said to perform the function of governance.

(B) When the council of ministers of the state is acting, it is governance.

(C) When the parliament meets, it is part of the governance.

(D) When the government of a state purposes to function of administrating a country, the function is called governance.

Answer: (D)

83. Thereafter, USA fully supported the approval of NPT (Non-Proliferation Treaty) which effectively blocked new entrants to the nuclear club. After initial hesitation. China also joined the NPT in 1992. After India’s nuclear test in I 97 4, the US did put pressure on India and objected to fuel supplies to the Tarapur Plant, which India built with the US assistance. Bur Russia offered help to India in this regard. Why did USA threaten to cut off supplies for Tarapur Plant?

(A) To compel India to close down Tarapur Plant.

(B) To pressurize India to arrange supplies from our countries.

(C) To urge India to develop its own resources on its own soil.

(D) To press India to become a member of NPT.

Answer: (D)

84. On India’s pan, India is required to separate its civilian and military nuclear facilities in a planned manner and put those designated as civilian, under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards in perpetuity. Under the accord, India has agreed to put l4 of its 22 power reactors under safeguards in phased manner by 2014. Negotiations between India and the US over the so-called bilateral 123 Agreement for peaceful nuclear co-operation are grounded over certain provisions of the Hyde-Act. However, as per Article 2(i)of the l23Agreement, the implementation of this agreement shall be governed by the national Laws of the two countries and in case of the US, the Hyde Act. What is the prime cause to bring about a statement in finalization of 123 Agreement with the US?

(A) Certain provisions of the Hyde-Act.

(B) Objections raised by the IAEA.

(C) Disagreement by the BJP.

(D) Reluctance on the part of the Indian government.

Answer: (A)

85. One study has predicted that sensex will increase by l5% to 20% in the next one year. Some experts consider it quite optimistic, but it is possible under certain conditions. Market levels, after all, are not determined by text book led experiments conducted in vacuum; rather by complex chemistry ‘of fad, sentiment, perception, ownership, liquidity and fundamental value. Environmental changes also impact and these are totally unpredictable at the start of any year.

Which of the following conclusions best summarizes the passage above?

(A) With some effort market trends can be predicted.

(B) Sensex mainly depends upon environmental changes.

(C) Sensex can give surprises at any time.

(D) Sentiments and perception often guide changes in the Sensex.

Answer: (D)

86. Estimates show that the revenue loss of public sector oil marketing companies could touch Rs. 70,000 crore in the current financial year if the prices remained unchanged. There are concerns about the mounting subsidy bill on account of fertilizers, food and petroleum. If the subsidies do not reach the poor, what objective is achieved? We spend so much on subsidy in the name of equality with neither equality objectives nor efficiency objectives being met.

Which of the following conclusions best summarises the above passage?

(A) Revenue losses of oil marketing companies are really alarming.

(B) We can control prices if we adopt suitable measures.

(C) We tend to worry excessively about equality objectives

(D) We need to rationalize our expenditure on subsidies.

Answer: (C)

87. An efficiency expert made the following suggestion to the manager of a shirt factory. “Purchase larger spools of sewing thread. With more thread to a spool, your operators will not need to stop production as often to change spools. This will. reduce your labour costs.”

The efficiency expert apparently assumes that:

(A) thread wound on larger spools is not as strong as thread wound on smaller spools.

(B) sewing machines do not break down and do not require routine maintenance.

(C) workers in the factory are paid by the h our rather than on a piecework basis.

(D) machine operators are not allowed to leave their machines during the work period.

Answer: (B)

88. A major insurance company reported that approximately 80 per cent of all traffic accidents never result in an insurance claim So we can conclude that about 80 per cent of all losses due to theft-also go unreported.

The argument above assumes that:

(I) Statistics of automobile insurance claims are applicable to claims for theft losses.

(II) Traffic accidents represent a more serious danger to the individual than do thefts.

(III) The average dollar value of a traffic accident claim is equal to the average dollar value of a theft-loss claim.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II only

Answer: (D)

89. The continuing and increasing reliance on computers represents a serious threat to the privacy of the individual. Recently, we have seen numerous examples of teenage and other hackers breaking the security codes of stores and banks and obtaining sensitive financial information about customers.

The argument above depends upon which of the following assumptions?

(I) People who obtain sensitive financial information about others will not share it.

(II) It is not possible to develop a security system for a computer that cannot be broken.

(III) Computers are not more efficient than other systems of record-keeping.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II only

Answer: (D)

90. Some of the most popular television advertisements are those employing humour. But as an advertising technique, humour has its drawbacks. Studies have shown that, while many viewers of, humorous advertisements vividly recall the commercials, far fewer recall the name of the product being promoted. This casts doubt on the ability of humorous. Commercials, no matter how funny or enjoyable, do increase product sales.

Which of the following is implied by the passage above?

(A) Humorous commercials tend to reduce the credibility of products in the eyes of viewers.

(B) Though enjoyable, humorous commercials are often less memorable than serious commercials.

(C) The most important criterion of a successful advertisements is its ability to increase product sales.

(D) Humorous commercials may alienate almost as many viewers as they entertain.

Answer: (C)

91. For the purposes of this study, ten qualities of a liveable city were chosen, including a low crime rate, cleanliness, cultural attractions, and other amenities. For each city in the study, scores from 1 (lowest) to 10 (highest) were assigned for each of the ten qualities. The ten scores for each city were then summed, yielding a total liveability score for each city. We hope the resulting ratings will help you in choosing your next place of residence.

The passage above makes which of the following assumptions?

(I) It is possible to assign an accurate numerical score to each of a city’s amenities.

(II) Each of the ten qualities of a liveable city is equally important.

(III) Most people enjoy some degree of personal choice in where they reside.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) I and II only

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-95) : For these questions below is ‘given a passage followed by inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon .its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answer as

(A) if you think the inference is definitely true.

(B) if you think the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.

(C) if you think the data are inadequate.

(D) if you think the inference is definitely false.

PASSAGE

The Election commission has imposed controls on three types of expenses : deployment of vehicles, publicity and payment to the voters – by activating the People’s Representative Act and evolving a code of conduct for parties and candidates. First, the ceiling on election expenses (fixed in 1984) was raised by three rimes to make it realistic in the light of the huge costs involved to conduct campaigns in a larger constituency. (The ceiling of Rs. 50,000, which was fixed in 1984, was found to be too low to conduct a campaign in a constituency which has a population between 75,000 and seven lakhs spread over 200-500 sq km). This has helped many candidates stick to the ceiling and also present realistic accounts.

92. The ceiling on election expenses now stands at Rs. 1.5 lakh.

Answer: (A)

93. Candidates are required to present accounts of their spending in an election.

Answer: (B)

94. Some candidates have been paying to the voters in order to get votes.

Answer: (B)

95. Almost no candidate has been sticking to the ceiling on expenses fixed by the Election Commission.

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it.

  Given here are the conditions to become the members of a Resort Country Club. A person must

(1) be in the age group of 18-50 years as on August 3, 1993.

(2) be drawing a minimum salary of Rs. 1 lakh per annum.

(3) own a house.

(4) not have a family of more than four members including himself.

(5) have exhibited excellence in any field of arts and sports.

However, if a person

(6) satisfies all the conditions except (3) above, the case may be referred to the Club Secretary.

(7) Satisfies all the conditions excepts (4) above, but draws a salary of more than Rs. 2 lakh per annum, the case may be referred to the Club President.

  On the basis of the above conditions and the information provided for each person in the questions given below, decide which of the following courses of action should be taken regarding each candidate.

Mark answer as

(A) if the person is eligible to be a member

(B) if the person cannot be allowed the membership

(C) if the case is to be referred to the Club Secretary

(D) if the case is to be referred to the Club President.

96. Sanjeev Rana, ttr I.A.S. Officer, draws a salary of Rs. 6,500 per month. His date of birth is 19th June, 1964. He holds a certificate of being the best volleyball player in his college. He lives with his wife and a daughter. He stays in government accommodation.

Answer: (C)

97. Ashok Taneja, a bachelor, lives in private house owned by him with his parents and grandparents (all alive). He is a senior Manager in a private firm drawing a salary of above Rs. 2 lakh per annum. He has won the State Singles’ Trophy in badminton. He is 25 years of age.

Answer: (A)

98. Radha Kapoor, living with her husband, is a senior official in a company receiving Rs. 10,000 per month. She completed l0 years of service in the company on 9th January, 1992.

Answer: (B)

99. Kantinath completed 32 years in April 1991. He stays in his own house along with his wife and three Sons. Ho works as a Supervisor in a company and draws Rs. 1,12,000 per annum. He has exhibited excellence in the field of arts.

Answer: (B)

100. Vipin Chandra, who is 35 years old, works as a superintendent in a fertilizer plant. He lives as tenant with his wife and two sons. He draws a monthly salary of Rs. 8,700. He holds a certificate of merit in modern art.

Answer: (B)

Managerial Ability Test

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-2) : Seven villages A, B, C, D, E, F and G are situated as follows:

E is 2 km to the west of B

F is 2 km to the north of A

C is 1 km to the west of A

D is 2 km to the south of G

G is 2 km to the east of C

D is exactly in the middle of B and E

1. Which two villages are the farthest from one another?

(A) F and E

(B) G and E

(C) D and C

(D) F and B

Answer: (D)

2. How far is E and F (in km) as the crow flies?

(A) 5

(B) √26

(C) 4

(D) √20

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 3-4) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

(i) In a joint family of seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G, there are two married couples.

(ii) G is a housewife and her husband is a lawyer.

(iii) C is wife of B.

(iv) A is an engineer and grand-daughter of G.

(v) D is father-in-law of C, a doctor, and father of E, a professor.

(vi) F is son of B and brother of A.

3. Who is a lawyer in the family?

(A) B

(B) F

(C) D

(D) Data inadequate

Answer: (C)

4. How is F related to C?

(A) Son

(B) Brother

(C) Daughter

(D) Data inadequate

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 5-6): Two quantities are given, one in column A and one in column B.

Determine a relationship between the quantities and mark your answer as

(1) if the quantity in column A is greater than the quantity in column B.

(2) if the quantity in column B is greater than the quantity in column A.

(3) if the quantities are equal.

(4) if the comparison cannot be determined from the information that is given.

5.

Column A

Semi-circumference of a circle with radius 10 cm.

Column B

Circumference of a circle with radius 5 cm.

Answer: (C)

6.

Column A

Area of a rectangular strip 157 cm long and 2 cm wide.

Column B

Area of a circle with radius 10 cm.

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-9): Each of these questions is followed by two statements, labelled (A) and (B). Using the data given in the statements mark your answer as

(1) if statement (A) ALONE is sufficient but statement (B) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

(2) if statement (B) ALONE is sufficient but statement (A) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

(3) if BOTH statements (A) and (B) TOGETHER are sufficient to answer the question, but NEITHER statement ALONE is sufficient.

(4) if statement (A) and (B) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient to answer the question and additional data specific to the problem is needed.

7. Is C an odd number?

(A) The reciprocal of C is greater than 0.1 and less than 0.12.

(B) 2C is an even number.

Answer: (A)

8. If both circles O and OI have radii of 6, what is the ratio of the shaded area of semicircle O to the shaded area of semicircle O?

(A) MO = ON

(B) PQ = 2QR

Answer: (C)

9. How many minutes does not clock lose a day?

(A) The clock reads 6 : 00 when it is really 5 : 48.

(B) The clock goes 40 seconds fast each hour.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 10-11): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions that follow.

B % 4 T U # A # R * 7 9 V M 2 $ N 9 K P I 8 H I W E @ D

10. If the positions of the first twelve elements of the above arrangement are reversed, which of the following will be the eighth to the left of the fifteenth from the right-and?

(A) #

(B) 5

(C) A

(D) R

Answer: (C)

11. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?

4UA    R7M  $9I?

(A) [email protected]

(B) [email protected]

(C) KNM

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

12. In a certain code ACQUIRE is written as EIRUQAC, how is DENSITY written in that code:

(A) YTISNDE

(B) YITSNED

(C) YTISNED

(D) YITSNDE

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 13): Select the option to replace the question mark in the problem figure table.

13. 

(A) P

(B) N

(C) H

(D) I

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 14-17): Read the information given below to answer these questions.

  A metro line is being laid in major city. The task requires specialized crane operators for different parts of the job. The six operators available are Raju, Sohan, Tahir, Uppal, Varun and Wajid. Each phase will take one day and will be done by single operation. No operator will work two days in a row though each operator may do more than one phase of the job. Both Raju and Sohan can handle any phase of the job.

  Tahir can work only on days immediately following days on which Sohan has worked

  Uppal can work only the days that Tahir can.

  Varun can work on the third and fifth days of the job.

  Wajid can work on the fourth day of the job,

14. Which of the following is true?

(I) Raju could do up to the three phases of the job.

(II) Sohan could do up to three phases of the job.

(III) Tahir could do no more than two phases of the job.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) All of them

Answer: (A)

15. If Sohan works the first day of the job, which of the following is/are true?

(I) Only Tahir and Uppal can work the second day.

(II) Tahir, Uppal or Raju could work the second day.

(III) Raju, Sohan or Wajid could work the third day.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) III only

(D) All of them

Answer: (B)

16. If Raju works the first day, which of the following is/are true?

(I) Sohan must work the second day.

(II) Sohan cannot work the third day.

(III) Only Tahir, Uppal or Varun can work on the third day.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) None of them

Answer: (B)

17. If Raju works on both the first and third day, which of the following most accurately describes the possibilities on the fourth day?

(A) Only Sohan is eligible to work

(B) Only Raju, Sohan, Tahir or Wajid are eligible to work

(C) Only Sohan or Wajid are eligible to work

(D) Only Raju, Sohan or Wajid one eligible to work

Answer: (B)

18. In a certain code BEND is written as ‘6392’ and RAIN is written as ‘5149’. How is DARE written in that code?

(A) 2153

(B) 2351

(C) 2315

(D) 2135

Answer: (A)

19. In a certain code GOAL is written as AGLO and BEAR is written as ABRE. How is SEND written in that code?

(A) NSDE

(B) NDES

(C) DENS

(D) SNED

Answer: (A)

20. Let x = 2 ln cot t and y = tan t + cot t. Then  has the value:

(A) cos 2t

(B) 2 cost2 t

(C) 2 sin2 t

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

21. What is the first stage in program development?

(A) Specification and design

(B) System Analysis

(C) Testing

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B)

22. The First IBMPC did not have any:

(A) Disk drive

(B) RAM

(C) ROM

(D) PORT

Answer: (A)

23. Which of the following is/are a text editor?

(A) Microsoft WordPad

(B) Microsoft Word

(C) Microsoft Excel

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (D)

24. Which is used for manufacturing chips?

(A) Bus

(B) Control unit

(C) Semi-conductors

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C)

25. A programming code that can cause some unexpected and usually undesirable event, such as lost or damaged files is called a:

(A) virus

(B) bug

(C) recursive function

(D) subroutine

Answer: (A)

26. The normal to the curve x = a (1 + cos θ) y = a sin θ at ‘θ’ always passes through the fixed point:

(A) (a, 0)

(B) (0, a)

(C) (a, a)

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

27. The degree of the differential equation of all tangent lines to the parabola y2 = 4ax is:

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

28. The area of the triangle formed by the positive x-axis and the normal and tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 4 at (1, √3) is :

(A) 2√3

(B) √3

(C) 1/√3

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

29. 

(A) e4

(B) e2

(C) e2

(D) e4

Answer: (A)

30. The equations of the tangents to the curve, (1 + x2)y = 1 at the points of its intersection with the curve (x + 1) y = 1 are given by:

(A) x + 2y = 1, y = 1

(B) x + 2y = 2, x = 1

(C) x + 2y = 2, y = 1

(D) x + 2y = 1, x = 1

Answer: (C)

31. If f(9) = 9 and f'(9) = 4. then  equals:

(A) 1

(B) 4

(C) 9

(D) 36

Answer: (B)

32. The value of the integral  is given by:

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

Answer: (A)

33. Area between the curve y = 4 + 3x – x2 and x axis in square units is:

(A) 125/2

(B) 125/3

(C) 125/4

(D) 125/6

Answer: (D)

34. A speaks truth in 60% of the cases and B in 90% of the cases. The percentage of cases they are likely to contradict each other in stating the same fact is:

(A) 36%

(B) 48%

(C) 42%

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

35. The probability that a man can hit a target is 3/4. He tries 5 times. The probability that he will hit the target at least three times is:

(A) 291/356

(B) 312/456

(C) 459/512

(D) 471/502

Answer: (C)

36. The probability of getting the sum as a prime number when two dice are thrown together is:

(A) 1/2

(B) 7/12

(C) 5/132

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

37. A group of 10 items has mean 6. If the mean of 4 of these is 7.5, then the mean of the remaining items is:

(A) 6.5

(B) 5.5

(C) 4.5

(D) 5.0

Answer: (D)

38. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

(A) Mean

(B) Range

(C) Median

(D) Mode

Answer: (D)

39. The quartile deviation of daily wages of 7 persons which are Rs. 12, 7, 15, 10, 17, 17, 25 is

(A) 3.5

(B) 7

(C) 9

(D) 14.5

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40-42): In each of the following questions, choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom is italics.

40. The involvement of teachers in the scheme of education proves to be a mare’s nest.

(A) a false invention

(B) a noble thing

(C) a successful idea

(D) a timely step

Answer: (A)

41. His letters to his ward speak volumes for his forbearance and good sense.

(A) speak ill of

(B) serve as strong testimony to

(C) show indications of

(D) are intended to impress

Answer: (D)

42. Some people now wonder whether we just pay lip service or genuinely subscribe to democracy.

(A) pay oral tribute

(B) attach no value

(C) remain indifferent

(D) show only outward respect

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-46): In each of the following questions, out of the given group of words, choose the mis-spelt one.

43.

(A) Denunciation

(B) Acceleration

(C) Magnificent

(D) Gravitation

Answer: (C)

44.

(A) Inflammable

(B) Inaugurate

(C) Incandescent

(D) Illustrate

Answer: (D)

45.

(A) Pagent

(B) Paroxysm

(C) Pillory

(D) Pipette

Answer: (A)

46.

(A) Etiquete

(B) Ethnic

(C) Ethereal

(D) Eulogize

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-49): In the following questions. find out which part of the sentence has an error. If there is no error, make your answer as ‘No error’.

47. The interviewer asked the candidate/

               (A)

to what district/ he came from/ No error.

        (B)                 (C)                (D)

Answer: (B)

48. There is no question/ of my failing/

           (A)                  (B)

in the examination. / No error.

             (C)                   (D)

Answer: (C)

49. He could not plan his strategy / until he knew/

                            (A)                             (B)

who his opponents could be. / No error.

                  (C)                          (D)

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-60): Read the passages below to answer these questions.

PASSAGE 1

  Global Climate change pundits have for long been blowing hot and cold over melting ice caps’ rising ocean levels and unusually hot summers on the one hand and receding deserts, shrinking biodiversity and colder winters on the other. Climatologists are’ however’ unanimous in their opinion that regional variation: notwithstanding, the Earth as whole is becoming warmer – and largely clue to the increase human activity And yet, as a continent, Antarctica would seem to be tucking the trend. Recent reports quoting American scientists from the South Pole say that while temperatures’ in every other continent have risen over the past century, Antarctica has become appreciably colder over the past 35 years and continues to cool, becoming the only one of Earth’s seven continents to react differently to global warming. The world’s average temperature over the last 100 years has risen by 0.06°C a decade and the average actually went up to 0.1 9°C between 1979 and 1998. In the Antarctic, on the other hand, temperatures fell on an average, by 0.7°C a decade. Traditional theories of climate change have held that the effects of global warming ought to be magnified at the Poles. Nonetheless, recent research points out that while the-Arctic is indeed getting warmer, the Antarctic is definitely getting cooler. This will mean that previous estimates of rising sea levels that included the melting ice caps of both the North and South poles will have to be suitably revised. So what is the mystery behind the cooling of the white continent?

  Since most of the inhabited and industrialized countries are clustered close to the Arctic’ polluting emissions waft across to the North Pole, creating a greenhouse effect, warming the air and loosening the ice sheets. Complex interplay of ocean currents appears to have changed temperatures, cooling the   southern ocean around the Antarctic and transforming the Pole’s temperature profile Antarctica, s harsh desert valleys are turning cooler, setting off a series of ecological consequences in the region. Meanwhile, here’s another contradiction – reports  from New Zealand describe how there is a surfeit of global warming induced break-away icebergs in the , Southern Hemisphere.

50. According to the passage, all of the following are not true, except:

(A) Traditional theories failed to calculate the effects of global warming.

(B) Fall in temperatures in the Antarctic is in accordance with the traditional theories.

(C) Effect of global warming is the maximum at the Poles.

(D) Effect of global warming on Antarctica is unexpected lines.

Answer: (D)

51. According to the passage, it can be said that:

(A) Antarctica has become colder than the other continents of the world.

(B) Antarctica has become colder than the Earth over the last 35 years.

(C) The decade growth in temperature is much higher for Antarctica than the Earth itself.

(D) The average temperature rise for the period 1979-1998 was more than the average rise in temperature over the last 100 years.

Answer: (D)

52. It can be inferred from the passage that:

(A) our knowledge and our theories about global climate change fail to explain what is happening across the globe.

(B) it is a matter of great contradiction that we failed to understand the full import of global climatic change.

(C) we could not understand the importance of global climatic change.

(D) it was difficult for us to understand the full implication of global climatic change.

Answer: (A)

53. According to the passage, factors affecting the temperature profile of Arctic of not include:

(A) ocean currents

(B) greenhouse effects

(C) atmospheric pollutions

(D) loosening of the ice sheets

Answer: (A)

54. According to the passage, the most important factor for global warming is:

(A) hot summers

(B) increased human activity

(C) shrinking biodiversity

(D) increasing pollution levels

Answer: (B)

PASSAGE 2

  Deep in our hearts, we have an intense desire to be loved. Yet, just as deeply, we know no one really understands us, and that we are separated from those around us by differences we don’t fully comprehend. The ‘Family of Man’ we long to share and belong to does not exist. We are just a bunch of desperate, lonely orphans. We should give anything to know how to be lovable. Yet, now more than ever, seemingly caring guides want to help us in our quest. A flurry of books and lectures tells us that change is mandatory for survival. While the recipes for harmony sometimes strike chords in our hearts, it is not enough to read the books are say the phrases. Only if the tools offered are actually used and do indeed make our lives better will we know that the message was correct and we understood. The majority of self-help books agrees on one thing: Change is necessary for a more fulfilling life, Some say that the answers lie in justifying fears, anger and emotional suffering by holding some one else – usually a parent or spouse – responsible. Often, another race or some other force at work in our life gets the blame for the mess in which we find ourselves. But one thing is for sure: We are not responsible. ‘They’ are. How many books, tapes and seminars does it take before the average hurting human being becomes so frustrated that he or she cries. ‘The true path must exist because all the wise people say so, but I’ll never find it.’ Life must have more to offer, something most of us are missing. Otherwise, God has a stranger sense of humour than any comedian working today, Here’s the bad news. We can all agree that this thing we call our self, our ego, our personality, is somehow the cause of all our personality, is somehow the cause of all our conflicts and negative emotions. This is the cold, hard truth. The self has no idea how to fix itself or it already would have. But not one else can fix our self. We must do it – on our own. You would have probably always suspected this – but no one would prove it because it appears to become a problem with no solution. This realization is extremely threatening, especially to those who have tried so hard to change in the past and have been unable to do so. But the good news is that you can learn to fix the self by understanding four basic principles: 1) What the self is: 2) How the self works; 3) How the self got broken; and 4) How you can fix the self. Each of use made our self and only we can fix it. Real changes begin to happen as soon as repair begins and, as you become a better mechanic, the changes will be greater and come easier.

55. What is the central idea of the passage?

(A) Flurry of books and lectures guide us to become loveable.

(B) Our personality is the cause of negative emotions and conflicts and knowing how to fix it is crucial.

(C) Change is mandatory for survival.

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

56. For what does the author bestow the responsibility to other people?

(A) For justifying human sufferings

(B) For bringing us into intricate situations

(C) For not showing the true path

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

57. What, according to the author, is required to make our life better?

(A) Changing ourselves as per the dictates of time

(B) Renouncing our negative emotions

(C) Actually using the tools offered to us in self-help books, tapes and seminars

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

58. What is the cause behind all our conflicts and negative emotions?

(A) Our self

(B) Our personality

(C) Our ego

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

59. Of what use are tapes, books and seminars for the author?

(A) They are useless as they are meant to detract us from our original path.

(B) The true path can be shown only by these media.

(C) They serve as change agents in our society.

(D) They are of use only to the extent that their principles are put to use by us.

Answer: (D)

60. Why does the author seem to insist on self-help books?

(A) They can bring change in our lives.

(B) They justify tears, anger and emotional sufferings.

(C) They help us to harmonize the chords of our heart.

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-62): In each of these questions, choose the option which would not change the meaning of the original sentence, if substituted for the italicized word.

61. A conscientious worker is always admired by his employers:

(A) obedient

(B) sincere

(C) skilful

(D) careful

Answer: (D)

62. It was very perspicacious of the judicial investigation officer to find the cause of the problem to quickly:

(A) discerning

(B) mysterious

(C) clever

(D) quick

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 63-64): In each of the following sentences, a word or phrase is italicized.

Choose the one which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the italicized word.

63. Feasibility of the project is under study:

(A) Unsuitability

(B) Impracticability

(C) Impropriety

(D) Cheapness

Answer: (B)

64. Under the circumstances, such pejorative comments should have been avoided:

(A) soothing

(B) sporting

(C) appreciative

(D) critical

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 65-67): In each of the following questions, find out which one of the words given below the sentence can most appropriately replace the group of words italicized in the sentence.

65. Ravi impressed everyone with his persuasive and fluent speech:

(A) discourse

(B) expression

(C) eloquence

(D) lecture

Answer: (C)

66. Not many people were impressed by a speech delivered without previous preparation:

(A) epilogue

(B) prologue

(C) soliloquy

(D) extempore

Answer: (D)

67. The fashion of bell-bottomed trousers has become out of date:

(A) preposterous

(B) debilitating

(C) obsolescent

(D) obstreperous

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 68-73): In each of the following sentences, a blank has been given. Choose the option to fill the blank.

68. It is difficult at this stage to forecast the ………. of results of the ongoing research on cancer.

(A) consequence

(B) importance

(C) measure

(D) magnitude

Answer: (A)

69. Everyone wants to ……….. for one’s achievements.

(A) be admired

(B) admire

(C) being admired

(D) be admiring

Answer: (A)

70. The Education Minister emphasized the need to discover and ……. each student’s ……. talents.

(A) enlarge, dormant

(B) belittle, concealed

(C) suppress, potential

(D) develop, intrinsic

Answer: (D)

71. Auther Anjali Agarwal was a rare phenomenon, a single woman who maintained and even ……….. respectable reputation while earning a living by her pen.

(A) impaired

(B) decimated

(C) avoided

(D) enhanced

Answer: (D)

72. Because Sherry is so ………, we can never predict what he will do at any moment.

(A) old

(B) immature

(C) capricious

(D) lazy

Answer: (C)

73. Paper money is merely a representation of wealth; therefore unlike gold or any other precious metal, it has no ……. value.

(A) financial

(B) fiscal

(C) inveterate

(D) intrinsic

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 74-80): Establish the relationship between the given pair of words. Choose the option which has similar relationship.

74. LONELINESS : PRIVACY ::

(A) passion : apathy

(B) composure : equanimity

(C) destiny : fateful

(D) illusory : unpredictable

Answer: (B)

75. EAT : GORGE : :

(A) drink : guzzle

(B) saunter : walk

(C) expel : admit

(D) advanced : primitive

Answer: (A)

76. ILLITERATE : EDUCATION : :

(A) naïve : experience

(B) well-mannered : rude

(C) miserly : money

(D) pristine : elegance

Answer: (A)

77. EAST : ORIENTAL : :

(A) west : occidental

(B) global : universal

(C) forest : jungle

(D) west : east

Answer: (A)

78. CAT : KITTEN : :

(A) women : baby

(B) water : valve

(C) illness : cure

(D) fertilizer : growth

Answer: (A)

79. BOTANY : PLANTS : :

(A) geology : earth

(B) stars : astronomy

(C) teacher : class

(D) disease : etiology

Answer: (A)

80. SNAKE : REPTILE : :

(A) snake : cobra

(B) bird : mammal

(C) wasp : insect

(D) lion : amphibian

Answer: (C)

81. The Aravallis represent an ancient :

(A) Fold Mountain

(B) Horst

(C) Volcano

(D) Black Mountain

Answer: (D)

82. The social distance scale was developed by:

(A) Likent

(B) La Pierre

(C) Bogardus

(D) Hovland

Answer: (C)

83. Where will the APEC Summit 08 be held:

(A) Lima

(B) Sydeny

(C) Basan

(D) Hanoi

Answer: (A)

84. ‘Mumbai Gold Cup’ is associated with the game of:

(A) Cricket

(B) Football

(C) Hockey

(D) Badminton

Answer: (A)

85. Which of the following car models is owned by General Motors?

(A) Spark

(B) Maruti

(C) Honda

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

86. Who had been profiled by the US magazine Newsweek as one of the light outstanding women leaders worldwide?

(A) Mayawati

(B) Sonia Gandhi

(C) Mamta Banarjee

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

87. With which brand of shoes would you associate, Godzilla Independence Day and Brave Heart?

(A) Woodland

(B) Reebok

(C) Lee Cooper

(D) Nike

Answer: (A)

88. Which state is famous for its ‘Bandhni’ tie andy dye technique saris:

(A) Rajastan

(B) Haryana

(C) Uttar Pradesh

(D) Punjab

Answer: (A)

89. Who amongst the following is not a member of SAARC?

(A) India

(B) Pakistan

(C) Nepal

(D) Myanmar

Answer: (D)

90. Ministerial conference of the WTO is required to meet every:

(A) 1 year

(B) 2 years

(C) 5 years

(D) 4 years

Answer: (B)

91. “Smart Money” is a term used for:

(A) Internet Banking

(B) Credit Card

(C) Cash with Bank

(D) Cash with Public

Answer: (A)

92. Railway budget 2007-08 announces 2007-08 as:

(A) a year of Safety

(B) a year of Prosperity

(C) a year of Customer Service

(D) a year of Cleanliness

Answer: (D)

93. Planning Commission was constituted on:

(A) 15th March, 1950

(B) 26th January, 1951

(C) 15th March, 1951

(D) 30th March, 1951

Answer: (A)

94. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and:

(A) 12 Judges

(B) 15 Judges

(C) 20 Judges

(D) 25 Judges

Answer: (D)

95. Which of the following countries will true host ‘2011 Cricket World Cup’?

(1) India

(2) Pakistan and Sri Lanka

(3) Bangladesh

(4) UAE

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(C) Only 1, 3 and 4

(D) Only 1 and 4

Answer: (A)

96. The temple of Konark was built by Narasimha of the:

(A) Maratha dynasty

(B) Chola Dynasty

(C) Ganga Dynasty

(D) Vijayanagr Empire

Answer: (C)

97. Human Rights Day is celebrated on:

(A) 10 December

(B) 1 December

(C) 4 December

(D) 3 December

Answer: (A)

98. Who is the author of the book, Amitabh – Tujhe Salam?

(A) Tushar Raheja

(B) Vijay Singhvi

(C) Susmita Das Gupta

(D) Shyam Mathur

Answer: (D)

99. Paris is situated on the river:

(A) Danube

(B) Seine

(C) Tiber

(D) Avon

Answer: (B)

100. International Women’s Day is celebrated very year on:

(A) January 26

(B) March 8

(C) August 26

(D) December 8

Answer: (B)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2008 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate Question Paper-2008

General Ability Test

1. Jaydeep purchased 25 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 16.50 per kg and 35 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 25.50 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture. Approximately, at what price per kg did he sell the mixture to make 25 per cent profit?

(A) Rs. 26.50

(B) Rs. 27.50

(C) Rs. 28.50

(D) Rs. 30.00

Answer: (B)

2. A can copy 75 pages in 25 hours. A and B together can copy 135 pages in 27 hours. In what time can B copy 42 pages?

(A) 21 hrs

(B) 5 hrs 36 secs

(C) 18 hrs

(D) 24 hrs

Answer: (A)

3. 25 men and 15 women can complete a piece of work in 12 days, All of them start working together and after working for I days the women stopped working, 25 men completed the remaining work in 6 days. How many days will it take for completing the entire job if only 15 women arc put on the job?

(A) 60 days

(B) 88 days

(C) 94 days

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

4. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 20 hours respectively while a third pipe C can empty the full tank in 25 hours. All the three pipes are opened in the beginning. After l0 hours C is closed. Find, in how much time will the tank be full.

(A) 12 hrs

(B) 8 hrs

(C) 10 hrs

(D) 14 hrs

Answer: (A)

5. Suresh started cycling along the boundaries of a square field from corner point A. After half an hour, he reached the corner point C, diagonally opposite to A. If his speed was 8 km per hour, the area of the field in square km is:

(A) 64

(B) 8

(C) 4

(D) Can’t be determined

Answer: (C)

6. A passcllger train leaves Calcutta at 4 PM and travels at the rate of 30 kilometres an hour, The mail train leaves Calcutta at g PM and travels on a parallel line of rails at the rate of 45 km an hour. When will the second train overtake the first?

(A) 10 hrs after the first train starts

(B) 12 hrs after the second train starts

(C) 10 hrs after the second train starts

(D) 12 hrs after the first train starts

Answer: (C)

7. The length of room is  its breadth. The cost of carpeting is at Rs. 150 per sq metre is Rs. 14,400 and the cost of white-washing the four walls at Rs. 5 per sq metre is Rs. 625. Find the length, breadth and height of the room.

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) Data inadequate

Answer: (A)

8. A and B stand in a ring with 11 other persons. If the arrangement of the 13 persons is at random, then the probability that there are exactly 3 persons, between A and B is:

(A) 1/6

(B) 2/11

(C) 3/12

(D) 4/9

Answer: (D)

9. Two boys begin together to write out a booklet containing 817 lines. The first boy starts with the first line, writing at the rate of 200 lines an hour, and the second boy starts with the last line, then writes line 816, and so on, backwards, proceeding at the rate of 150 lines an hour. At what line will they meet?

(A) 466th

(B) 465th

(C) 467th

(D) 468th

Answer: (C)

10. A man can swim downstream at 8 km/hr and upstream at 2 km/hr. The speed of the current is:

(A) 2 km/hr

(B) 1 km/hr

(C) 3 km/hr

(D) 4 km/hr

Answer: (C)

11. A mean while returning from his factory travel 2/3 of the distance by bus and 3/4 of the rest, by car rest by foot. If he travel 2 km on foot, the total distance covered by him is:

(A) 23 km

(B) 26 km

(C) 24 km

(D) 30 km

Answer: (C)

12. In a two digit number, the digit at unit place is I more than twice of digit at tens place. If digit at unit & tens place. be interchanged, then the difference between the new number and original number is less than 27 . What is the original number?

(A) 52

(B) 73

(C) 25

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

13. In q school 391 boys and 323 girls have been divided into the largest possible equal classes so’ that there are equal number of boys and girls in each class. What is the number of classes?

(A) 23 girls classes, 19 boys classes

(B) 23 boys classes, 19 girls classes

(C) 17 boys classes, 23 boys classes

(D) 23 boys classes, 17 girls classes

Answer: (B)

14. One year ago the ratio between Madhava and Gopals salary was 3 : 4 the individual ratio is between their last year’s and this year’s salaries are 4 : 5 and 2 : 3 respectively. At pre sent the total of, their salary is Rs. 4160re salary Madhava:

(A) Rs. 1600

(B) Rs. 2560

(C) Rs. 1040

(D) Rs. 3120

Answer: (A)

15. If a cartoon containing a dozen mirrors is dropped, which of the following cannot be the ratio of broken mirrors to unbroken mirrors?

(A) 2 : 1

(B) 3 : 1

(C) 3 : 2

(D) 7 : 5

Answer: (C)

16. Pradip spends 40 per cent of monthly income on food items, and 50 per cent of remaining on clothes and conveyance. he saves one third of remaining amount after spending on food, clothes and conveyances. If he saves Rs. 19,200 every year, what is his monthly income?

(A) Rs. 24,000

(B) Rs. 16,000

(C) Rs. 12,000

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

17. The average age of A and B is 20 years. If C were take place A, the average would be 19 and if C were to replace B, the average would be 21 what were the ages (in yrs.) of A, B and C?

(A) 22, 18, 20

(B) 18, 22, 20

(C) 22, 20, 18

(D) 18, 20, 22

Answer: (A)

18. The ratio of Mona’s age to the age of her mother is 3 : 11. The difference of their ages is 24 yrs. The ratio of their ages after 3 years will be:

(A) 1 : 3

(B) 2 : 3

(C) 3 : 5

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

19. A shopkeeper bought 150 calculators at the rate of Rs. 250 per calculator. He spent Rs. 2500 on transportation and packing. If the marked price of the calculator is Rs. 320 per calculator and the shopkeeper gives a discount of 5% on the marked price, then what will be the percentage profit agained by the shopkeeper?

(A) 20%

(B) 14%

(C) 15%

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

20. Alok bought 25 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 6 per kg and 35 kg of rice at the rate 7 per kg. He mixed the two and sold the mixture at the rate of Rs. 6.75/kg what was his gain or loss in this transaction?

(A) Rs. 16.00 gain

(B) Rs 16.00 loss

(C) Rs. 20.00 gain

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-23): In these questions, choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase in italics.

21. It is a moot point whether we should stop work or struggle on.

(A) all to clear

(B) a fixed belief

(C) a burning question

(D) a debatable point

Answer: (D)

22. We should give a wide berth to bad characters.

(A) keep away from

(B) publicly condemn

(C) give publicly to

(D) give your seat

Answer: (A)

23. To all intents and purposes he is a good man.

(A) Finally

(B) Practically

(C) Above all

(D) In practice

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 24-26): In each of the following questions, find out which one of the words given below the sentence can most appropriately replace the group of words italicized in the sentence.

24. Despite being in the career of singing for the last ten years, he has not been able to earn fame on account of his practice of borrowing ideas and words from others and using them as his own.

(A) adaptation

(B) pantomime

(C) imitation

(D) plagiarism

Answer: (D)

25. Every person is not allowed to enter the place where public, government or historical records are help.

(A) scullery

(B) pantry

(C) archives

(D) coffer

Answer: (C)

26. The advertisement assured the public that the medicine would give back to the users , their youthful vigour and appearance.

(A) rejuvenate

(B) restore

(C) replenish

(D) render

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 27-32) : Establish the relationship between the given pair of words. Choose the option which has similar relationship.

27. FOOTBALL : SPORT : :

(A) rhythm : poetry

(B) verse : literature

(C) dancing : ballet

(D) research : biology

Answer: (C)

28. SAILOR : LIGHTHOUSE : :

(A) snake : hiss

(B) air raid : siren

(C) car horn : driver

(D) sleeper : smoke alarm

Answer: (B)

29. SIMMER : BOIL : :

(A) glide : drift

(B) gamble : play

(C) drizzle : downpour

(D) stagnate : flow

Answer: (C)

30. MITIGATE : PUNISHMENT : :

(A) change : order

(B) place : placement

(C) monotonous : change

(D) alleviate : pain

Answer: (D)

31. SAPLING : TREE : :

(A) puppy : dog

(B) canine : feline

(C) cat : lion

(D) poodle : terrier

Answer: (A)

32. TYRE : RUBBER : :

(A) oasis : desert

(B) house : roof

(C) paper : wood

(D) pebble : boulder

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 33-35) : A sentence is split into four parts. Mark the part that has a grammatical error.

33. 

(A) If we examine the saturation aspect,

(B) the enterprise market

(C) is a short term

(D) revenue buying programmes.

Answer: (D)

34.

(A) Therefore, your taxability in India

(B) will depends on the total time

(C) spent by  your partners and employees in India

(D) in providing consultancy services.

Answer: (B)

35.

(A) India outstrips other countries

(B) in terms

(C) for employment

(D) and number of companies.

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-38): Fill in the blanks in the passage with appropriate choice.

  The one essential 36 factor in a company being able to create the right customer experience that is so necessary for its continued 37 is its people. A company will have among its employees planners. 38 and doers.

36.

(A) sustainable

(B) indispensable

(C) measurable

(D) gullible

Answer: (B)

37.

(A) implication

(B) surplus

(C) survival

(D) sermonizing

Answer: (C)

38.

(A) enablers

(B) losers

(C) majors

(D) mayors

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-41): Each question consist of a group of sentences followed by a suggested sequential arrangement. Select the best sequence that forms a coherent paragraph.

39.

(A) It is much smaller than Earth, with a diameter of only 6500 kilometers.

(B) One white dwarf, called Kupee’s Star after a famous American astronomer, is particularly well-known.

(C) Yet its mass is equal to that of the Sun.

(D) The matte insider a white dwarf is incredibly dense.

(E) It is so desne that just a thimbleful would weigh thousands of kilograms.

(A) BACDE

(B) ACBDE

(C) DBACE

(D) BACED

Answer: (A)

40.

(A) This is another kind of sign behaviour.

(B) the same basic characteristic is there automatic reaction to some stimulus.

(C) Human beings, like other animals, may be conditioned to respond in particular ways to a given stimulus.

(D) Instead the reaction is wired in by some outside force.

(E) The difference is that the stimulus reaction pattern is not waried into the animals’ nervous system by its own genetic code.

(A) CABDE

(B) ABDEC

(C) BDECA

(D) CABED

Answer: (D)

41.

(A) If you look at a number of important inventions and discoveries that have been made over the last 1,000 years you will find that most of them occurred in the last 300 years.

(B) What prevented progress being made in the previous 700 years?

(C) One reason was the mistaken belief that once a scientific model had been built, it was complete picture of the real thin

(D) Why this?

(E) Thos who doubted this ran the risk of being ridiculed by their fellow men and in some cases of even losing their lives by carrying on with their investigation.

(A) EDCBA

(B) DCBAE

(C) ABCDE

(D) BCDEA

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-46): Each question has four words marked A, B, C and D: of which two words are most nearly SAME or OPPOSITE in meaning. Choose one such pair from the alternatives given.

42. (A) desecrate (B) describe

(C) damage    (D) descent

(A) B and C

(B) C and D

(C) A and C

(D) A and D

Answer: (B)

43. (A) asinine (B) profound

(C) intelligent          (D) cruel

(A) B and C

(B) B and D

(C) A and C

(D) A and B

Answer: (C)

44. (A) vivacious (B) weird

(C) rabid       (D) fanatical

(A) A and B

(B) B and C

(C) B and D

(D) C and D

Answer: (D)

45. (A) stupendous (B) calm

(C) livid                  (D) pretentious

(A) B and D

(B) A and D

(C) A and B

(D) A and C

Answer: (A)

46. (A) shambles (B) flexible

(C) periodic   (D) organized

(A) A and D

(B) B and C

(C) A and C

(D) C and D

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 47-60): Read the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE 1

   In many underdeveloped countries, the state plays an important and increasingly varied role in economic development today. There are four general arguments, all of them related, for state participation in economic development. First, the entrance requirements in terms of financial capital and capital equipment are very large in certain industries, and the size of these obstacles will serve as barriers to entry on the part of private investors. One can imagine that these obstacles are imposing in industries such as steel production, automobiles, electronics, and parts of the textile industry. In addition, there are what Myint calls “technical indivisibilities in social overhead capital.” Public utilities, transport, and communication facilities must be in place before industrial development can occur, and they do not lend themselves to small-scale improvements. A related argument centers on the demand side of the economy. This economy is seen as fragmented, disconnected, and incapable of using inputs from other parts of the economy. Consequently, economic activity in one part of the economy does not generate the dynamism in other sectors that is expected in more cohesive economies. Industrialization necessarily involves many different sectors; economic enterprises will thrive best in an environment in which they draw on inputs from related economic sectors and, in turn, release their own goods for industrial utilization within their own economies. A third argument concerns the low-level equilibrium trap is which less developed countries find themselves. At subsistence levels, societies consume exactly what they produce. There is no remaining surplus for reinvestment. As per-capita income rises, however, the additional income will not be used for saving and investment. Instead, it will have the effect of increasing the population that will eat up the surplus and force the society to its former subsistence position. Fortunately, after a certain point, the rate of population growth will decrease; economic growth will intersect with and eventually outstrip population growth. The private sector, however, will not be able to provide the one-shot large dose of capital to push economic growth beyond those levels where population increases eat up the incremental advances. The final argument concerns the relationship between delayed development and the state. Countries wishing to industrialize today have more competitors, and these competitors occupy a more differentiated industrial terrain than previously. This means that the available niches in the international system are more limited. For today’s industrializers, therefore, the process of industrialization cannot be haphazard affair, nor can the pace, content, and direction be left solely to market forces. Part of the reason for strong state presence, then, relates specifically to the competitive international environment in which modern countries and firms must operate.

47. What does the author suggest about the “technical indivisibilities in social overhead capital”?

(A) It leads to rapid technological progress.

(B) It enhances the development effects of private sector investment.

(C) It is barrier to private investment.

(D) It can prevent development from occurring.

Answer: (D)

48. According to the passage, the “low-level equilibrium trap” in underdeveloped countries results from:

(A) the tendency for societies to produce more than they can use.

(B) intervention of the state in economic development.

(C) the inability of market forces to overcome the effects of population growth.

(D) the fragmented and disconnected nature of the demand side of the economy.

Answer: (C)

49. According to the author, a strong state presence is necessary:

(A) to ensure the livelihood of workers.

(B) to provide the capital needed to spur economic growth.

(C) to provide food for everyone.

(D) to ensure that people have more than what is necessary for subsistence.

Answer: (B)

50. In the passage, the word ‘cohesive’ means:

(A) naturally and logically connected.

(B) modern and competitive.

(C) containing many cohorts or groups.

(D) containing many different sectors.

Answer: (A)

51. In the passage, the word ‘imposing’ means:

(A) something that obtrudes on others.

(B) something that strikes a pose.

(C) something huge.

(D) to act with a delusive effect.

Answer: (C)

PASSAGE 2

The past decade has upset many preconceptions  about development and this, more than anything else, makes it difficult to be overly definite about what the next decade has in Store, But there are a few things that one e an assert with  some confidence. First, education, health and productive employment are crucial both for growth and for equity. We have tended to assume that all of these are the consequences of rapid economic growth and that only growth can generate the resources required for these purposes. But, increasingly, it appears that these are better seen as the causes rather than as consequences of development. Virtually every case of Successful development involves a prior improvement in literacy, technical skills, health status and access to productive work. Second, technological competence is the most important resource endowment and it explains a far larger proportion of growth in output and trade than more conventional factors like natural resources or capital accumulation. The competence required is not just in research. In fact technological dynamism in the factory and the farm is more important than the presence of large research establishment. Third, the environmental imperative can no longer be ignored. Today, as an international issue, it is second only to disarmament. Nationally, the development consequences of environmental neglect are increasingly obvious.

  In the Indian context, there are at least two further factors which reinforce the above propositions. The first is population growth. Given the pace of expansion of the population and the workforce, human resource development acquires an added urgency. Population growth is also one but not necessarily the most important factor. Which underlines environmental stress in rural and urban we cannot carve out an independent position in the global system without building up a substantial capacity for self-reliant growth. The acquisition of technical competence is crucial for this purpose.

  Until now we have tended to treat human resource development, technology issues and environment as subsidiary to the main task of planning. The thrust has been on: Quantitative ‘ expansion of infrastructure and production with a focus on production targets like tonnes of steel, kWh of electricity etc., capacity targets like road length, rail kilometerage; and coverage targets like number of schools and students, number of’ villages electrified etcetera, catching up with known technologies – Fuller use of natural resources – Maximum mobilization of financial resources.

52. According to the passage, we have so far p laced more emphasis on which of the following?

(A) Optimum use of available natural resources

(B) Increased number of basic facilities and meeting number of targets

(C) Maximum utilization of available finances

(D) Following known technologies

Answer: (B)

53. According to the author, which of following factors support 9s) and strengthen(s) his point of view?

(A) Necessity for carrying out growth on the basis of our own strength.

(B) Increased emphasis on production and coverage targets.

(A) Only A

(B) Only B

(C) Either A or B

(D) Both A and B

Answer: (A)

54. According to the author, which of the following cannot be viewed as a cause of development?

(A) Betterment in health services

(B) Increase in underemployment

(C) Speedy economic growth

(D) Enhancement in technical skills

Answer: (B)

55. According to the author, at the national level, with passage of time, the effects of which of the following are being felt?

(A) Expansion of workforce of high quality

(B) Lack of attention and action for protecting environmental wealth

(C) Reduction in growth rate of population

(D) Progressive degradation of technological competence in urban areas.

Answer: (B)

PASSAGE 3

I suppose the vitality of a group, an individual or a society is measured by the extent to which it possesses courage and, above all, creative imagination. If that creative imagination is lacking, our growth becomes more and more  stunted, which is a sign of decay. What then is happening today? Are we trying to improve in this respect or are we merely functioning somewhere on the surface without touching the reality which is afflicting the world and which may result in political conflict, economic warfare or World War?

  So, when there are discussions on the concept of man as visualized in the Eastern ideal or the western ideal, they interest me greatly from a historical point of view and from a cultural point of view, although I have always resisted this idea of dividing the world into the Orient and the occident. I do not believe in such divisions. There have, of course, been differences in racial and national outlook and in ideals but to talk of the East and the West as such has little meaning. The modern west, meaning thereby a great part of Europe and the Americas, has, more especially during the last 200 years or so,  developed a particular type of civilization which is based on certain traditions derived from Greece and Rome. It is, however, the tremendous industrial growth that has made the west what it is. I can see the difference between an industrialized and a non-industrialized country, I think the difference, say, between India and Europe in the Middle Ages, would not have been very great and would have been comparable to the difference between any of the great countries of Asia today. I feel that we think roughly because we are  misled in our approach. Differences have crept in and been intensified by this process of industrialization and mechanization, which has promoted material well-being tremendously and which has been a blessing to humanity. At the same time, it is corroding the life of the mind and thereby encouraging a process of self-destruction. I am not, for the moment, talking or thinking about wars and the like. We have been in history  races come up and gradually fade away, in Asia, in Europe and other places. Are we witnessing the same thing today?

  It may be that this will not take effect in our life-time. In the past anyway, one great consolation was that things happened only in one particular quarter of the world. If there was a collapse in one part of the world, the other part carried on. Now, the whole world hangs together in life and death so that if this, civilization fades away or collapses it will take particularly the whole world down with it. No part of it will be left to survive, as it could in olden rimes. During the so-called Dark Ages of Europe, there were bright periods in Asia, in china, in India, in the Middle East and elsewhere. In the old days, if progress was limited, disaster was also limited in extent and intensity. Today, when we have arrived at a period of great progress, we have also arrived at a period great disaster and it is a little difficult for us to choose a middle which would enable us to achieve a little progress and, at the same time, to limit the scope of disaster. That is the major question. A person who has to carry a burden of responsibility is greatly troubled by the practical aspects of this question. Am I right in saying that the mental life of the world is in a process of deterioration, chiefly because the environment that has been created by the Industrial Revolution does not give time or opportunity to individuals to think? I do not deny that today there are many great thinkers but it is quite likely that they might be submerged in the mass of unthinking humanity. We are dealing with and talking a great deal about democracy and I have little doubt that democracy is the best of all the various methods available to us for the governance of human beings. At the same time, we are seeing today − by today I mean the last two decades or so – the emerence of democracy in a somewhat uncontrolled form, When we think of democracy, we normally think of it in the rather limited sense of the 19th century or the early 20th century use of the term, Owing to the remarkable technological growth, something has happened since then and meanwhile democracy has also spread. The result is that we have vast masses of human beings brought up by the Industrial Revolution, who are not encouraged or given an opportunity to think much. They live a life which, from the point of view of physical comfort, is incomparably better than it has been in any previous generation, but they seldom have a chance to think. And yet in a democratic system, it is this vast mass of human beings that will ultimately govern or elect those who govern.

56. Which one of the following statements is true according to the passage?

(A) Decadence stunts the faculty of imagination.

(B) Our attempts to grow are becoming more and more stunted.

(C) Vitality and courage endanger creative imagination.

(D) We are not attempting seriously enough to encourage the growth of creative imagination.

Answer: (D)

57. According to the author, the present is characterized by:

(A) localized progress.

(B) great scope for disaster.

(C) self destructive tendencies.

(D) material progress.

Answer: (D)

58. The problem facing us, as per the passage, is the choice between:

(A) spirituality and materialism.

(B) creativity and economic growth.

(C) extent of progress and scope of disaster.

(D) physical comfort and vitality.

Answer: (C)

59. According to the passage, which one of the following statements is true of modern democracy?

(A) It has engendered technological progress.

(B) It is a product of modern materialism.

(C) It stifles the individuality of human beings.

(D) It is largely constituted of individuals who do not think.

Answer: (D)

60. We can conclude from the passage that:

(A) economic growth will have to be slowed down to give people time to think.

(B) an environment that supports progress and human individuality must be created.

(C) the price of progress is very high.

(D) industrialization has proved to be a curse to humanity.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-63): Each of the following questions has two statements labelled as A and B. Mark the answer as:

(A) if statement A by itself is sufficient to answer the question.

(B) if statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.

(C) if both the statement A and B taken together are sufficient to answer the question but neither statement by itself is sufficient.

(D) if statement A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question and more data is required to soved the problem

61. If x, y and z are even integers and 2 < x < y < z, what is the value of y?

(A) z < 10

(B) x < 6

Answer: (D)

62. At ABC Corporation, for a resolution to become policy, a quorum of at least half of the 20 directors must pass the resolution by at least a two-third majority. Did resolution X pass or fail at a meeting of the Board of Directors?

(A) Ten directors voted for the resolution.

(B) Seven directors voted against the resolution.

Answer: (C)

63. A rectangular aquarium provides 36 square centimeters of water surface area per fish. How many fish are there in the aquarium?

(A) The edges of the aquarium have lengths of 60, 42 and 30 centimeters.

(B) The aquarium is filled to a depth of 40 centimeters.

Answer: (D)

64. Ad line ‘Express Yourself’ is connected with:

(A) BSNL

(B) Hutch

(C) Reliance Mobile

(D) Airtel

Answer: (D)

65. WTO headquarters are located in:

(A) New York

(B) Tokyo

(C) London

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

66. Which of the following offered a rival bid for the steel company Corus before the Tatas acquired a controlling stake in 2007?

(A) Arcelor

(B) CSN

(C) Thyssen Krupp

(D) Severstal

Answer: (B)

67. To which city did New Delhi lose the bid to host the 2014 Asian Games?

(A) Seoul

(B) Incheon

(C) Beijing

(D) Nagasaki

Answer: (B)

68. Which two counties share the same name for their currency – pound?

(A) Britain and Egypt

(B) Britain and Singapore

(C) Britain and Israel

(D) Britain and Malta

Answer: (A)

69. Which country has the largest number of Post offices?

(A) India

(B) Japan

(C) China

(D) France

Answer: (A)

70. LG is a big name in electronics. What does LG stand for?

(A) Lucky Goldstar

(B) Lucky Gnome

(C) Lotus Goldstar

(D) Lotus Gnome

Answer: (A)

71. What is the high profile median campaign being run by the ministery of tourism called?

(A) Enchanting India

(B) Exotic India

(C) Amazing India

(D) Incredible India

Answer: (D)

72. With which Indian company has wal-mart entered into an agreement to Start a Chain to supermarket stores?

(A) Reliance (Mukesh Ambani)

(B) Reliance (Anil Ambani)

(C) Tata

(D) Bharti

Answer: (D)

73. The famous rock garden located in which city?

(A) Shimla

(B) Lucknow

(C) Chandigarh

(D) Jaipur

Answer: (C)

74. Which city is known as the Forbidden City?

(A) Shanghai

(B) San Francisco

(C) New York

(D) Lhasa

Answer: (D)

75. Match the following:

(1) WHO       (a) Science

(2) FAO        (b) Labour

(3) UNESCO (c) Health

(4) FCO         (d) Food & agriculture

(A) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – c; 4 – d

(B) 1 – c; 2 – d; 3 – a; 4 – b

(C) 1 – b; 2 – c; 3 – d; 4 – a

(D) 1 – a; 2 – d; 3 – c; 4 – b

Answer: (B)

76. Match the following:

(1) Tirumala-Tirupathi

(2) Somnath

(3) Manali

(4) Shravanbelagola

(a) Gujarat

(b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Karnataka

(d) Himachal Pradesh

(A) 1 – c; 2 – d; 3 – a; 4 – b

(B) 1 – b; 2 – a; 3 – d; 4 – c

(C) 1 – d; 2 – c; 3 – b; 4 – a

(D) 1 – a; 2 – b; 3 – c; 4 – d

Answer: (B)

77. Wild life Institute of India is located at:

(A) New Delhi

(B) Shimla

(C) Dehradun

(D) Bhopal

Answer: (C)

78. Which city is referred to as ‘Silicon Valley of India’?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Chennai

(C) Hyderabad

(D) Bangalore

Answer: (D)

79. The Standard time of India is:

(A) 5½ hrs ahead of G.M.T

(B) 4½ hrs behind G.M.T.

(C) 4 hrs ahead of G.M.T.

(D) 5½ hrs behind G.M.T.

Answer: (A)

80. The railway budget of 2007-08 has the annual plan of approximately:

(A) Rs. 20,000 crore

(B) Rs. 28,000 crore

(C) Rs 31,000 crore

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

81. Who has been awarded the Man Booker Prize for 2007?

(A) Indra Sinha

(B) Anne Barker

(C) Mohsin Hamid

(D) Nicole Barker

Answer: (B)

82. Who is the managing director of Delhi Metro Railway Corporation?

(A) B. B. Joshi Lt. Governor of Delhi

(B) Sam Pitroda

(C) Chairman of the Indian railway board.

(D) E. Shreedharan.

Answer: (D)

83. The 2007 Durand Cup has been won by:

(A) Churchill brothers

(B) Central Railways

(C) Mahindra United

(D) Air India

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 84-88) : In the following questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions, marked I and II. Read the statement and the given conclusions and mark your answer as:

(A) if only conclusion I is true.

(B) if only conclusion II is true.

(C) if none of the given conclusions is true.

84. Statement:

All doctors are intelligent. Some women are doctors.

Conclusions:

(I) All intelligent people are women.

(II) Some women are intelligent.

Answer: (B)

85. Statement:

All teachers in my school are courteous. Bimla is not courteous.

Conclusions:

(I) Bimla is not a teacher in my school.

(II) Bimla must learn to be courteous.

Answer: (A)

86. Statement:

Electricity consumption in every house has doubled in the last five years.

Conclusions:

(I) Electricity rates have become cheaper.

(II) There is much development in the country.

Answer: (B)

87. Statement:

A neurotic is a non-stupid person who behaves stupidly.

Conclusions:

(I) Neuroticism and stupidity go hand in hand.

(II) Normal persons behave intelligently.

Answer: (A)

88. Statement:

Jade plant has thick leaves and it requires little water.

Conclusion:

(I) All plants with thick leaves require little water.

(II) Jade plants may be grown in places where water is not in abundance.

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 89-91): Read the following information and answer the given questions.

  Seven students P, Q, R, S, T, U and V take a series of tests. No two students get the same marks. V always scores more than P. P always scores more than Q. Each time either R scores the highest and T gets the least, or alternatively S scores the highest and U or Q scores the least.

89. It S is ranked sixth and Q is ranked fifth, which of the following can be true?

(A) V is ranked first or fourth

(B) R is ranked second or third

(C) P is ranked second or fifth

(D) U is ranked third or fourth

Answer: (D)

90. If R gets the most, V should be ranked not lower than:

(A) Second

(B) Third

(C) Fourth

(D) Fifth

Answer: (C)

91. If S is ranked fifth, which of the following must be true?

(A) U gets more than V

(B) V gets more than S

(C) P gets more than R

(D) P gets more than V

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-95): Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

  Twenty-one participants from four continents (Africa, America, Australia and Europe) attended a United Nations conference. Each participant was an expert in one of four fields – labour, health, population studies, and refugee relocation. The following five facts about the participants are given.

(a) The number of labour experts in the conference was exactly half the number of experts in each of the other three categories.

(b) Africa did not send any labour expert. Otherwise, every continent, including Africa, sent at least one expert for each category

(c) None of the continents sent more than three experts in any category.

(d) If there had been one less Australian expert, then the America would have had twice as many experts as each of the other continents.

(e) Mike and Alfano are leading experts of population studies, who attended the conference. They are from Australia.

92. Alex, an American expert in refugee relocation, was the first keynote speaker in the conference. What can be inferred about the number of American experts in refugee relocation in the conference, excluding Alex?

(i) At least one        (ii) At most two

(A) Only (i) and not (ii)

(B) Only (ii) and not (i)

(C) Both (i) and (ii)

(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: (C)

93. Which of the following numbers cannot be determined from the information given?

(A) Number of labour experts from the Americas

(B) Number of health experts from Europe

(C) Number of health experts from Australia

(D) Number of experts in refugee relocation from Africa

Answer: (D)

94. Which of the following combinations is not possible?

(A) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 2 health experts from Africa attended the conference.

(B) 2 experts in population studies from the Americas and 1 health experts from Africa attended the conference.

(C) 2 experts in refugee relocation from the Americas and 1 health expert from Africa attended the conference.

(D) Africa and Americas each had 1 expert in population studies attending the conference.

Answer: (D)

95. If Ramos is the long American expert in population studies, which of the following is not true about the number of experts in the conference from the four continents?

(A) There is one expert in health from Africa.

(B) There is one expert in refugee relocation from Africa.

(C) There are two experts in health from the America.

(D) There are three experts in refugee relocation from the America.

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-97): In the following questions select the appropriate option to replace the question mark and continue the series.

96. 

(A) 240

(B) 195

(C) 84

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

97. 

(A) 13/P

(B) 15/Q

(C) U/6

(D) 6/U

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100) : Study the following information to answer these questions.

  In a certain code “il be pee” means “ roses are blue”, “silk hee” means “red flowers” and “pee mi hee” means “flowers are vegetables”.

98. How is ‘red’ written in that code?

(A) hee

(B) sik

(C) Cannot be determined

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

99. How is ‘roses’ written in that code?

(A) il

(B) pee

(C) be

(D) Cannot be determined

Answer: (D)

100. How is ‘vegetables are red flowers’ written in the code?

(A) il sik mit hee

(B) pee sik mit hee

(C) cannot be determined

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

MANAGERIAL ABILITY TEST

1. The largest producer of long stapple cotton is:

(A) USA

(B) UAE

(C) Sudan

(D) China

Answer: (A)

2. The Hindustan Shipyard Limited is located at:

(A) Mumbai

(B) Goa

(C) Visakhapatnam

(D) Kochi

Answer: (C)

3. Arvind Mills, a company of Lalbhai Group makes own Jeans under which brand name?

(A) LEE

(B) NEWPORT

(C) PEPE

(D) LEVIS

Answer: (B)

4. Sanforising is a guarantee mark on the fabric indicating that fabric will not get:

(A) Discolor

(B) Deshape

(C) Distort

(D) Shirnk

Answer: (D)

5. Wool is categorized as:

(A) Animal Fibre

(B) Polyster

(C) Cotton

(D) Vegetable fibre

Answer: (A)

6. Which state is known for its Ikat Textile?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

7. The leading producer of copper in the world is:

(A) Australia

(B) Argentina

(C) America

(D) China

Answer: (C)

8. Which one of the following is not a natural fibre?

(A) Cotton

(B) Coir

(C) Linen

(D) Polyster

Answer: (D)

9. Choose the odd one out:

(A) Asbestos

(B) Silk

(C) Wool

(D) Animal hair

Answer: (A)

10. One of the following is not included in the functional properties of a fabric:

(A) Flammability

(B) Abrasion resistance

(C) Shape distortion

(D) Tear strength

Answer: (D)

11. Uri Hydel Project is situated in:

(A) Himachal Pradesh

(B) Jammu and Kashmir

(C) Haryana

(D) Assam (Asom)

Answer: (B)

12. Which state has the longest coast line in India?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Andhra Pradesh

Answer: (A)

13. Which of the following is/are sources of primary data?

(A) Magazine

(B) Annual Reports

(C) Newspaper

(D) Respondent

Answer: (C)

14. Which of the following is not a fresh-water fish?

(A) Cod

(B) Eel

(C) Salmon

(D) Trout

Answer: (A)

15. Which one of the following Union Territories of India recorded the highest literacy rate in the Census, 2001?

(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(B) Lakshadweep

(C) Chandigarh

(D) Pondicherry (Puducherry)

Answer: (B)

16. Principles and agreements of this organization were adopted by WTO?

(A) International Trade Organization (ITO)

(B) International Labour Organization (ILO)

(C) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

(D) General Agreement on Tariff & Trade (GATT)

Answer: (D)

17. What is Albumin?

(A) Carbohydrates

(B) Vitamin

(C) Protein

(D) Fats

Answer: (C)

18. Where is WTO Headquarter located?

(A) New York

(B) Geneva

(C) London

(D) Paris

Answer: (B)

19. The base year of the present Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is:

(A) 1993-94

(B) 1971-72

(C) 1980-81

(D) 1981-82

Answer: (A)

20. Which country is not the member of IMF?

(A) Russia

(B) Uzbekistan

(C) India

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

21. Agency in India which issues import/export code No. for starting international business is:

(A) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)

(B) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade (IIFT)

(C) Indian International Trade Forum (IITF)

(D) Indian Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO)

Answer: (B)

22. The basis upon which money of one country will be exchanged for that of another country:

(A) Rate of exchange

(B) Currency value

(C) Rate of calculation

(D) Money exchange value

Answer: (D)

23. When the value of the national imports exceeds the value of exports:

(A) Import surplus

(B) Export deficit

(C) Trade deficit

(D) Shortfall

Answer: (C)

24. FDCI stands for:

(A) Fashion Designer Corporation of India

(B) Fashion Design Council of India

(C) Fashion Designer Council of Industry

(D) Fashion Designing Corporation of India

Answer: (B)

25. MRP in retail means:

(A) Maximum retail price

(B) Maximum revenue per piece

(C) Minimum retail price

(D) Marginal revenue price

Answer: (A)

26. What is the name given to a khaki trouser having 6-8 pockets?

(A) Cargos

(B) Bell bottoms

(C) Jeans

(D) Breeches

Answer: (A)

27. Which one of the following is not a designer from United States?

(A) Norma Kamali

(B) Pierre Cardin

(C) Anna Sui

(D) Calvin Klien

Answer: (A)

28. Which Indian designer is the first one in registering his creations under the Design Copy Right Act 1957 to stop plagiarism in the garment industry?

(A) Rahul Khanna

(B) J. J. Valaya

(C) Hemant Trivedi

(D) Abhishek Gupta

Answer: (A)

29. Which of the following river does not have its source in glaciers?

(A) Yamuna

(B) Alaknanda

(C) Kosi

(D) Mandakini

Answer: (C)

30. The approved draft of 11th Plan by Planning Commission proposes the total outlay of the plan for the period 2007-12 at:

(A) Rs. 2644718 crore

(B) Rs. 3644718 crore

(C) Rs. 393671 crore

(D) No yet proposed

Answer: (B)

31. Videsh Sanchar Nigam Ltd. has been renamed as :

(A) Tata Communication Ltd.

(B) Reliance Communication Ltd.

(C) Air Bharti Communication Ltd.

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

32. Which of the rats is not determined by Reserve Bank of India?

(A) Bank Rate

(B) CRR

(C) SLR

(D) PLR

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37): Each of the passage given below is followed by some questions. Each question comprises of three statements (A), (B) and (C). In the context of the passages, decide which of statement is/are true.

  There are two ways of avoiding fear-one is by persuading ourselves that we are immune from disaster, and the other is by the practice of sheer courage. The latter is difficult, and to everybody becomes impossible at a certain point. The former has therefore, always been more popular, Primitive magic has the purpose of securing safety either by insuring enemies or protecting oneself by falesmens, spells or incentations without any essential change, belief in such ways of avoiding danger survived throughout the many countries of Babylonian civilization, spread from Babylon throughout the empire of Alexander, and was acquired by the Romans in the course of their absorption of Hellemistic culture. From the Romans it descended to medical Christendom and Islam. Science has low lessened the belief in magic but many people place more faith in mascots then they are willing to allow, and sorcery, while people commanded by the church, is still officially a possible sin.

33. (A) Superstitious beliefs can help man avoid fear

(B) The medieval civilizations were also characterized by superstitious beliefs

(C) Avoiding fear is difficult for a common man

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) Both A and B

Answer: (D)

34. (A) The ancient method of avoiding fear has survive the test of time.

(B) Belief in dharms and amulets was a salient feature of ancient civilizations.

(C) Science has eradicated man’s belief in magic altogether

(A) A and B

(B) B and C

(C) A and C

(D) All of t hese

Answer: (B)

Amar steels, an existing profit making company enters the capital market with a public issue of 80 lakh shares of Rs. 10/- each on Ist December. The company is engaged in ship breaking at ports in Visakhapatnam and Chennai. It operates a steel rolling mill in Visakhapatnam which utilises the scrap from ships, The company is , expanding it ship breaking capacity, It entitlement to break foreign ships has just, been extended to cover Indian flagships.

35. (A) Amar steels had solar not entered the capital market because of its profit making status.

(B) Amar steels had solar not entered the capital market because it had no expansion plans.

(C) Amar steels expect to get Indian ships also for ship breaking.

(A) Only A and B

(B) Only B

(C) Only A

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

36. (A) The public can purchase shares from Amar steels before Ist December

(B) Amar steels is expected to start making profits after the expansion programmes is carried out

(C) Amar steels gets scarp from other companies for its steel-rolling mills

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) Both A and B

Answer: (C)

37. (A) Amar steel so far could not break Indian flagships

(B) The Visakhapatanam plant of the company will not be allowed to utilize scarp from foreign ships

(C) The company needs expansion for its expansion activities

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) Both A and B

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38-40) : Answer these questions independent of each other.

38. Efficiency is all right in its place, in the shop, the factory, the store. The trouble with efficiency is that it wants to rule our play as well as our work; it won’t be content to reign in the shop, it follows us home.

It can be inferred from the above passage that:

(A) efficiency can become all-pervading

(B) efficiency does not always pay

(C) efficiency can be more of a torture than a blessing

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

39. In order to ease the traffic congestion, the transport planners decided to have a Sophisticated system of elevated monorail travel in the city. However, it was pointed out by somebody that metro rail system would be a more effective solution to the traffic problem. The plan was thus stalled. Moreover’ since a budget had not been drawn up for the project, it was deemed fit to stall the work of the monorail for some time” In the meanwhile, the traffic planners of the city decided to build an efficient system of subways and flyovers in the city with the aim of easing the same problem. At the instant when the planners were preparing to award the contracts to the concerned parties, the transport planners came up with the contention that the subways interfered with the site of a pillar of the monorail system. The traffic planners had to give up the idea and think of other possible solutions. On the basis of the above passage

it can be inferred that:

(A) the city authorities felt that the monorail system was essentially impractical.

(B) there is a strong contention between the two groups of planners in the city.

(C) the projects would be stalled for an indefinite period.

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

40. From Cochin to Shimla, the new culture vultures are tearing down acres of India’s architectural treasures. Ancestral owners often fobbed off with a few hundred rupees for an exquisitely carved door or window, which fetches fifty times that much from foreign dealers, and yet more from the drawing room sophisticates of Europe and the US. The reason for such shameless rape of the Indian architectural wealth can perhaps, now wrongly, be attributed to the unfortunate blend of activist disunity and local indifference.

It can be inferred from the above passage that:

(A) the environment created b y the meeting between activist disunity and local difference is ideal for antique dealers to thrive in India.

(B) only Indians are not proud of their cultural heritage and are hungry for the foreign currency that is easily available in return of artefacts.

(C) most Indian families have heirlooms which can be sold at high prices to Europeans and Americans.

(D) India provides a rich market for unscrupulous antique dealers.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-45): In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

Mark answers as

(1) if you think the inference is ‘definitely true’

(2) if you think the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given

(3) if you think the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false

(4) if you think the inference is ‘definitely false’, i.e., it contradicts the given facts

PASSAGE

  The country has taken a major initiative by introducing convertibility of the Rupee on the current account. It has also been declared that the ultimate goal is to make the Rupee fully convertible. These are signs of the country’s achieving economic maturity. India is now ready to welcome foreign capital. It is preparing to reduce import tariffs to levels which are currently the norm in other developing countries. All these measures show that India is today mature and strong enough to face international competition and to integrate itself successfully with the global economy. The country is ready to shed its ideological inhibitions and ready to evaluate the international economic environment in a programmatic spirit.

41. Convertibility has not been introduced on the capital account.

 

Answer: (C)

42. Current account convertibility means full convertibility.

Answer: (B)

43. An economically immature country does not base any convertibility of currency.

Answer: (A)

44. Import tariffs in India are lower than those in other developing countries.

Answer: (A)

45. Socialistic ideals prevented India from evaluating the international economic environment in a pragmatic spirit.

Answer: (C)

46. Though long hours at the work place do not necessarily mean productive hours, it is essential that all employees who attend to their work during non-conventional hours get rewarded accordingly. This HR policy is found to benefit employees equally because the productivity levels according to researchers are closely linked to service standards.

The above statements bring out that:

(A) over worked employees deliver good results.

(B) we must recognized employees who work extra.

(C) this policy assists employees largely.

(D) productivity and long hours at work are always inter related.

Answer: (B)

47. With the global economy weakening, India’s GDP growth slow further to 8.5% in 2008. However, with the right reforms; the nation could achieve a potential economic growth rate of 10% predicts an economic report. India is exhibiting many of the characteristics that Japan, Korea and China did during their economic take-offs. India urgently needs to strengthen its infrastructure, reduce its stifling bureaucracy, deregulate labour markets and develop its financial system. The budget deficit looks set to widen due to the political cycle, high oil prices (owing to generous subsidies) and a surge in civil service salaries.

As per the above economic report, which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) India must give priority to building its infrastructure.

(B) In view of present political conditions, budget deficit will not increase.

(C) Appropriate measures could lead to 10% economic growth.

(D) We need to check increasing salaries of civil servants.

Answer: (B)

48. Recent studies have shown that some developed countries have of late suffered from declining productivity and ageing and shrinking populations. Countries that have adopted women and family-friendly working, such as Norway and ,Finland, have shown remarkable improvements in both business productivity and birth rate, as women find balancing career progression with child-rearing more manageable. While Italy with its traditional domestic values has witnessed declines in both. In India a lot is being done to correct the gender imbalance in the corporate sector. As per the above study, which of the following statements is not correct?

(A) In India, efforts are being made to reduce gender bias.

(B) Some developed countries have shown remarkable improvements in productivity despite not so family-friendly working conditions.

(C) Decline in population occurs due to imbalancing in professional and family environment.

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

49. On India’s part, India is required to separate its civilian and military nuclear facilities in a planned manner and put those designated as civilian, under International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards in perpetuity. Under the accord, India has agreed to put 14 of its 22 power reactors under safeguards in a phased manner by 2014. Negotiations between India and the US over the so-called bilateral 123 Agreement for peaceful nuclear co-operation are grounded over certain provisions of the Hyde-Act. However, as per Article 2(i) of the 123 Agreement, the implementation of this agreement shall be governed by the National Laws of the two counties and in case of the US, the Hyde Act.

What is the prime cause to bring about a stalemate in finalization of 123 Agreement with the US?

(A) Certain provisions of the Hyde Act.

(B) Objections raised by the IAEA.

(C) Disagreement by the BJP.

(D) Reluctance on p art of the Indian government.

Answer: (B)

50. When there is tension, conflict, or competition among groups, some very predictable things happen : each group sees the other as an “enemy” rather than as a neural object: each group describes the other in terms of negative stereotypes; interaction and communication between the two groups decrease, cutting off feedback and data input between them; what inter group communication and interaction does take place is typically distorted and inaccurate; each group begins to prize itself and its product more positively and to denigrate the other group and its products; each group believes and acts as though it can do not wrong and the other group can do no right; under certain circumstances the groups may commit acts of sabotage (of various kinds) against the other group. Most people are aware of the existence of considerable intergroup conflict organization, and most people are aware of the patterns of behaviour of groups in conflict. But few people know ways to alleviate the conflict to avoid the consequences of the conflict.

What causes the intergroup conflicts?

(A) The desire to achieve high standards and gain superiority in society.

(B) The  urge to please the superiors and things done to meet that end out of the way.

(C) The situation when one group is enjoying more benefits and concessions compared to others.

(D) Tensions, conflicts and competitions between groups while working to achieve objective in an organization.

Answer: (C)

51. Given that we spend close to 3% of our CDP on education and want to improve upon the ratio, demand for IT services in education sector is expected to witness robust growth in the Corning years. Both central and state government in India will increasingly invest to find IT solutions to impart primary and secondary education to the new generation. While no official estimates are available, 9% share for IT companies for business in the total outlay for education is expected.

Which statement of the following summarizes the objective of the paragraph?

(A) IT services in the field of education are really growing.

(B) We should check the expenditure on education.

(C) Primary and secondary education programmes should not depend excessively on IT services.

(D) Business objectives of IT companies may suffer in the near future in the field of education.

Answer: (A)

52. The study has revealed that Indian executives were, highly action-focussed, complex and creative, which means they make decisions Considering many options with focus on high quality. They are strategic and as strategic as their counterparts in the West.

What does the above study imply about the Indian executives?

(A) They are not as focussed as their counterparts in the West.

(B) They come out with original ideas.

(C) They find difficulty in making strategies.

(D) They often get distracted from their goals.

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53- 5 7): Read the given passage and answer the questions below it.

  Nine offices in a business centre are connected by a series of corridors and walkways. Any one visiting these offices must begin at office l, which is the reception. From there, the other offices may be visited via a series of walk-ways, connecting the offices a follows:

• Walkways connect the reception to offices 2, 3 and 6.

• A walkway connects reception to office 2 to office 4.

• Office 6 is connected to offices 3, 5 and 9.

• Office 7 is connected to office 9.

• Office 7 and 9 are connected to office 8.

53. Without visiting any office more than once, what is the maximum number of offices a person can visit?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

54. If a visitor must travel reception (office 1) to office 8 by crossing the fewest number of walkways, which of the following statements must be true?

(A) The visitor will visit offices 2 and 7.

(B) The visitor may visit offices 4 or 5, but not both.

(C) The visitor may not visit office 9.

(D) If the visitor goes to office 6, he or she must then go to office 9.

Answer: (D)

55. If a visitor wants to travel to offices 4 and 5, which of the following must be false?

(A) The visitor will go to every office except office 3.

(B) The visitor will got to office 2 only once.

(C) The visitor will not visit any building more than once.

(D) The visitor will not visit office 8.

Answer: (C)

56. If a new walkway is built connecting office 5 to office 9, then which of the following could be true?

(A) A visitor may visit all the offices without visiting any office more than once.

(B) The shortest path from reception to office 8 will include a visit to office 5.

(C) A visitor may visit office 5 immediately after office 3.

(D) A visitor may go from office 5 to office 4 by crossing no more than 3 walkways.

Answer: (D)

57. The following office has only one approach as per the initial rules:

(A) 2 and 3

(B) 4 and 5

(C) 4 and 6

(D) 5 and 7

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 58-65): In the following questions, a factual situation and a result are presented. Following the result is presented a set of statements. For each of the statements given, mark your answer as:

(1) if the statement contradicts or is not consistent with the factual situation, or with the result, or with both the factual situations and the result.

(B) if (1) is not true and if the statement possibly explains the result.

(C) if (1) and (2) are not true and if the statement can be deduced from the factual situation, or from the result, or from both the factual situations and the result.

(D) if (1), (2) and (3) are not true and if the statement supports or weakens an explanation of the result.

   Situation: Mr. Mehta, a highly respected executive of the All Fresh Deodorant Company, was in serious disagreement with his colleagues over the chemical contents of the company’s products. One of Mehta’s acquaintance, an All Fresh researcher, financed independently by Mehta had invented a new chemical, Methyl Ethyl Hydro Tetra Acetone (MEHTA), which Mehta wanted to incorporate into ‘All-Fresh’. Mehta’s peers rejected his suggestions. So he decided to form a new  company called ‘Great Smells’ Deodorants. The  product was a non-aerosol pump spray which used (MEHTA). Mehta embarked on a nation-wide campaign to advertise his new deodorant as an alternative to products which used harmful chemicals that could destroy the ozone. layer of the atmosphere. Furthermore, he hired Preity Zinta, the well-known cine-star, to do the TV commercials. After the. first year, sales were going very well except for the south-lndian market which were only breaking even.

  Results: In June 2003, two years after going into business, ‘Great Smells’ Deodorants went bankrupt.

Set of Statements

58. In August 2002, aerosol sprays were banned in India.

Answer: (A)

59. MEHTA was found to be carcinogenic in November 2002.

Answer: (A)

60. Mehta did not have absolute authority over the chemical contents off All Fresh.

Answer: (C)

61. Great Smells’ was found to be in minor violation of the Indian Corporate Laws.

Answer: (A)

62. ‘Great Smells’ was heavily in debt when Mehta took over the company.

Answer: (A)

63. In June 2002, a new non-aerosol product called Deep Deodorants priced half as much as Great Smell appeared in the market.

Answer: (A)

64. Mehta had little experience in the anti-perspirant company.

Answer: (D)

65. A boycott against ‘Great Smells’ was organized in May 2003 since it was found that Mehta had contributed considerable money to the Al-Qaida Terrorist outfit.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-69): Study the following information and answer the given questions.

  A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and the steps of rearrangement.

Input : Go for to Though By easy To Access at

Step I : Access Go for to Though by easy To at

Step II : Access at Go for to Though by easy To

Step III : Access at By Go for to Though easy To

Step IV : Access at By easy Go for to Though To

Step V : Access at By easy for Go to Though To

Step VI : Access at By easy for Go Though to To

Step VII : Access at By easy for Go Tough To to

(and Step VII is the last step for this input)

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in the given questions the appropriate step for the given input.

66. Input : Story For around on was He at

Which of the following will be step IV for the given input?

(A) around at For He on was story

(B) around at For He on story was

(C) around at For He story on was

(D) around at He For story on was

Answer: (D)

67. Input : every and peer to an for

Which of the following steps would be an and every for peer to?

(A) III

(B) V

(C) VI

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

68. Input: Over Go For through at one

Which step number will be the last step of the above input?

(A) II

(B) III

(C) IV

(D) V

Answer: (D)

69. The Step II of an input is as follows :

and Do pet to on that

Which of the following would definitely be the input?

(A) Do on pet to and that

(B) Do pet to and that on

(C) Do and pet to on that

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Direction (Q. No. 70-73): The following questions are based on the diagram given below:

(I) Rectangle represents males.

(II) Triangle represents educated.

(III) Circle represents urban.

(IV) Square represents civil servants.

70. Who among the following is an educated male who is not an urban resident?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(C) 9

(D) 11

Answer: (D)

71. Who among the following is neither a civil servant nor educated but is urban and not a male?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 6

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

  1. Who among the following is female, urban resident and also a civil servant?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 10

(D) 13

Answer: (C)

73. Who among the following is an educated male who hails from urban area?

(A) 4

(B) 2

(C) 11

(D) 5

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 74-76): In each of the following questions, a statement is given, followed by two conclusions.

Mark answer as

(A) if only conclusion I follows

(B) if only conclusion II follows

(C) if either I or II follows

(D) if neither I nor II follows

74. Statement : Modern man influences his destiny by the choice he makes unlike in the past.

Conclusions : (I) Earlier there were less options available to man.

(II) There was no desire in the past to influence the destiny.

Answer: (A)

75. Statement : A man must be wise to be a good wrangler.

Good wranglers are talkative and boring.

Conclusions : (I) All the wise persons are boring.

(II) All the wise persons are good wranglers.

Answer: (D)

76. Statement : A large majority of the workforce in India is unorganized. Most of them earn either the minimum or uncertain wages while others are engaged in sundry jobs.

Conclusions: (I) The workers in the organized sector get better facilities and stay longer in their jobs.

(II) Some workers in the unorganized sector of the workforce have a regular and fixed income.

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 77-78): In each question below is given a statements followed by three courses of action numbered I, II and III. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true. then decide which of the three given suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

77. Statement:

Higher disposal costs encourage those who produce wasted to look for cheaper ways to get rid of it.

Course of Action:

(I) The disposal costs should be made higher.

(II) The disposal costs should be brought down.

(III) A committee should be set up to study the details in this respect.

(A) All follow

(B) Only I follows

(C) Only II follows

(D) Only II and III follow

Answer: (D)

78. Statement:

The world will have to feed more than 10 billion people in the next century of whom half will be in Asia and will eat rice as their staple.

Course of Action:

(I) More funds should immediately be allocated for rice research to help ensuredadequate supplies.

(II) The people in Asia should be encouraged to change their food habit.

(III) The rice should be grown in countries outside Asia to meet the demand.

(A) Only I and II follow

(B) Only II and III follow

(C) All follow

(D) Only I and III follow

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 79-81): Each of the questions below consist of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to study the questions and decide that the data in which of the statements are sufficient to answer the questions.

79. Who earns most among M, N, P, Q and R?

(I) M earns less than P but not less than R.

(II) Q earns more than M but not equal to N.

(III) N earns more than M and R.

(A) Question cannot be answered even with information in all three statements.

(B) I and II only

(C) Only I and II or only and I and III

(D) Only I and III

Answer: (A)

80. In how many days can 10 women finish a work?

(I) 10 men can complete the work in 6 days.

(II) 10 men and 10 women together can complete the work in 

(III) If 10 men work for 3 days and thereafter 10 men replace them, the remaining work is completed in 4 days.

(A) Only I and II

(B) Any two of the three

(C) Only I and III

(D) Only II and III

Answer: (A)

81. What is the per cent profit earned by a shopkeeper on selling the articles in his shop?

(I) Labelled price of the articles sold was 130% of the cost price.

(II) Cost price of each article was Rs 550.

(III) A discount of 10% on labelled price was offered.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Only III

(D) All the three are required

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82-84): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions.

At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are to be operate daily. On any one day, except for the first day of a month, only three of the program sets must be the ones that were operated on the previous day. The program operating must also satisfy the following conditions:

(I) If program P is to be operated on a day V cannot be operated on that day.

(II) If Q is to be operated on a day, T must be one of the programs to be operated after Q.

(III) If R is to be operated on a day V must be one of the program to be operated after R.

(IV) The last program to be operated on any day must be either S or U.

82. Which of the following could be the set of programs to be operated on the first day of month?

(A) V, Q, R, T, S

(B) U, Q, S, T, W

(C) T, U, R, V, S

(D) Q, S, R, V, U

Answer: (B)

83. Which of the following is true of any day’s valid program set operation?

(A) P cannot be operated at third place

(B) Q cannot be operated at third place

(C) R cannot be operated at fourth place

(D) T cannot be operated at third place

Answer: (C)

84. If R is operated at third place in a sequence, which of the following cannot be a the second program in that sequence?

(A) Q

(B) S

(C) T

(D) U

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 85-88): These questions are based on the context given below:

Following are the conditions of promotion from Junior Officer’s Cadre to Senior Officer’s Cadre in an organization. The candidate must

(1) have completed at least 5  years in the organization.

(2) have secured 65% marks in the written test for promotion.

(3) have secured 60% marks in the Group Discussion.

(4) have secured 70% marks in the interview.

(5) have good record of his work performance.

(6) have good communication skill and get along well with his colleagues.

(7) not be more than 40 years and less than 30 years as on 1.9.2003.

(8) have good academic record with an average of at least 65% marks.

(9) However, in the case of a candidate who satisfies all other conditions except (4), above but has secured 75% marks in the written test and 65% marks in the Group Discussion, the case is to be referred to the General Manager (Personnel) – GM (P) for the decision.

(10) Satisfies all other criteria except (8) above but has secured an average of more than 60% marks, the case is to be referred to the Managing Director (MD) of the organization.

Now read the information provided in the case of each candidate in each of the questions given below and decide on the basis of the information provided and based on the above conditions, which of the courses of action you would suggest. These cases are given to you as on 5.9.2003. You are not to assume anything. Mark answer as

(A) if the candidate is to be promoted.

(B) if the candidate is not be promoted.

(C) if the case is to be referred to MD.

(D) if the case is to be referred to GM (P).

85. 33 years old Renu has a good academic record with an average of 68% marks and has good communication skill. She has completed six years in the organization. She has secured 63% marks in Group Discussion, 71% marks in interview and 68% marks in written test for promotion. She gets along well with her colleagues and has good record of her work performance.

Answer: (A)

86. Venkatesh, who is 38 years old, has good academic record with an average of 61% marks. He has secured 65% marks in the written test for promotion, 72% marks in interview and 63% marks in Group discussion. He has good communication skill and gets along well with his colleagues. He has good record of his work performance and has completed 7 years in the organization.

Answer: (C)

87. 34 years old Madhu has secured 60% marks in written promotion test, 72% marks in interview and 69% marks in Group Discussion. She has good communication skill and gets along well with her colleagues. Her record of work performance is good and has completed  in the organization.

Answer: (B)

88. Tarun has completed 6 years in the organization. He is 34 years old and has a good academic record with an average of 68% marks. He has secured 66% marks in Group Discussion, 67% marks interview and 76% marks in the written test for promotion. He has good communication skill gets along well with his colleagues and his work performance is good.

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 89-90): Refer to the following data and answer the questions that follow.

There is an empty three-shelf bookcase T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are seven objects to be placed either on the lower, middle or top shelf of t he bookcase with the following conditions.

(I) At least two objects should be on the top shelf.

(II) There should be no more than four objects on any shelf.

(III) T and U should be on different shelves.

(IV) V is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf where X is placed.

(V) W is to be either on one shelf or two shelves above the shelf that X is on.

89. If V and W are the only two objects on one of the shelves and four objects are on the middle shelf, which of the following must be true?

(A) T is on the middle shelf

(B) U is on the bottom shelf

(C) Y is on the top shelf

(D) Z is on the middle shelf

Answer: (D)

90. If all the seven objects are on two shelves, which of the following must be true?

(A) At least three objects are on the top shelf.

(B) No more than three objects are on the middle shelf

(C) T, V and W are on the top shelf.

(D) U is on the top shelf.

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-92): Study the information given below and answer the questions that follow.

The BSNL announced a cut in the STD rates on 27 December, 2003. The new rates and sables are given in the table below and were implemented from the 14 January, 2004.

91. The maximum percentage reduction in costs will be experienced for calls over which of the following distances?

(A) 50-200

(B) 500-1000

(C) 1000 +

(D) 200-500

Answer: (D)

92. The percentage difference in the cost of a set of telephone calls made on the 13th and 14th January having durations of 4 minutes over a distance of 350 km, 3 minutes for a distance of 1050 km is (if all three falls are made in peak times)

(A) 41.2%

(B) 51.76%

(C) 59.8%

(D) Cannot be determined

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 93-94): Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

  One a playing ground, Dinesh, Kunal, Nitin, Atul and Prashant are standing as described below facing the North.

(I) Kunal is 40 metres to the right of Atul.

(II) Dinesh is 60 metres to the South of Kunal.

(III) Nitin is 25 metres to the West of Atul.

(IV) Prashant is 90 metres to the North of Dinesh.

93. Who is to the North-east of the person who is to the left of Kunal?

(A) Dinesh

(B) Nitin

(C) Atul

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

94. If a boy walks from Nitin, meets Atul followed by Kunal, Dinesh and then Prashant, how many metres has he walked if he was travelled the straight distance all through?

(A) 155 metres

(B) 185 metres

(C) 235 metres

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-97): Read the information given below and answer the questions that follow.

A * B mans A and B are of the same age;

A – B means B is younger than A;

A + B means A is younger than B.

95. Sachin * Madan – Reena means:

(A) Reena is the  youngest

(B) Reena is the oldest

(C) Madan is younger than Reena

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

96. X + Y + Z is same as:

(A) Y – X – Z

(B) Z – Y – X

(C) Z – X – Y

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

97. Deven – Shashi * Hemant is opposite to:

(i) Hemant + Shashi + Deven

(ii) Hemant – Shashi + Deven

(iii) Shashi * Hemant + Deven

(A) (i) only

(B) (i) and (ii) only

(C) (ii) and (iii) only

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Directions (Q. Nos. 98-100): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(I) Five friends P, Q, R, S and T travelled to five different cities of Chennai, Calcutta, Delhi, Bangalore and Hyderabad by five different modes of transport of Bus. Train, Aeroplane, Car and Boat from Mumbai.

(II) the person who travelled to Delhi did not travel by boat.

(III) R went to Bangalore by car and Q went to Calcutta by aeroplane.

(IV) S travelled by boat whereas T travelled by train.

(V) Mumbai is not connected by bust to Delhi and Chennai.

98. Which of the following combinations of person and mode is not correct?

(A) P-Bus

(B) Q-Aeroplane

(C) S-Boat

(D) T-Aeroplane

Answer: (D)

99. Which of the following combinations is true for S?

(A) Delhi – Bus

(B) Chennai – Bus

(C) Chennai – Boat

(D) Data inadeqeuate

Answer: (C)

100. The person travelling to Delhi went by which of the following modes?

(A) Bus

(B) Train

(C) Aeroplane

(D) Car

Answer: (B)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate 2009 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Under Graduate Question Paper-2009

General Ability Test

PASSAGE I

Perfect organization, faultless team- work, indomitable courage, super human endurance, even the latest equipment all these are unavailable unless the weather is kind. In the mountains it is the weather that rules everything. It may be fair in the early morning when the climb begins, but unexpectedly blizzards may halt the climbers with inadequate protection on an exposed slope. The villains of the piece are cold, wind and snow and in the Himalayas, these conspire together for the whole year, except for two short periods. In early May and in October, there may be short intervals between the tremendous gales of winter and the treacherous shows of the monsoon. Only in these intervals is there any chance of finding the right weather conditions for an assault upon a peak. Cold can at least be kept at bay by warm clothing and weather there is no defence.

1. The two greatest enemies of the Himalayan Climber are:

(A) attitude and scarcity of oxygen

(B) wind and snow

(C) ice fields and rocks

(D) slopes and valleys

Answer: (B)

2. It is better to attempt scaling a peak:

(A) in the summer months

(B) between storms and gales

(C) early in May or in October

(D) when the monsoon are over

Answer: (B)

3. The perils of intense cold may be counteracted by:

(A) a special kind of food and clothing

(B) the use of alcohol

(C) climbing only during the morning hours

(D) the use of drugs and medicines

Answer: (A)

4. When climbing in the Himalayas one must always remember that the weather is:

(A) severe

(B) conquerable

(C) the supreme arbiter

(D) fickle

Answer: (C)

5. According to the author, what the mountaineer today needs most is:

(A) regular exercise

(B) adequate medical aid

(C) financial support

(D) modern equipment

Answer: (D)

PASSAGE II

The Rajputs occupy an honoured place in the history of India. They were a war-like people, proud and patriotic. They were jealous of their honour, and would lay down their lives to uphold it. They loved their homes and fought bravely to defend the honour of their women-folk. Nothing would tame their spirits. Perils only called forth their courage and poverty only increased their power of resistance. None could fight like them. Their motto was ‘Better death than dishonour’.

6. Which of the following represents the central theme of the passage?

(A) The pride of the Rajputs

(B) Rajputs and their sacrifices

(C) The rise and fall of the Rajputs

(D) Rajputs – the spirited heroes of Indian history

Answer: (D)

7. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ in the passage?

(A) Humble

(B) Kind

(C) Courteous

(D) Cowardly

Answer: (A)

8. The expression ‘tame their spirits’ in the passage means:

(A) suppress their ambitions.

(B) arouse their enthusiasm.

(C) develop their courage.

(D) curb their enthusiasm.

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?

(A) The Rajputs achieved eminence in history due to their great bravery.

(B) They were homely people and would fight for upholding women’s honour.

(C) In moments of danger they would exhibit great courage.

(D) They could not, however, face the challenge of poverty.

Answer: (D)

10. According to the writer, the Rajputs occupy an honoured place in history, because:

(A) they were fond of wars.

(B) they were proud of their wars.

(C) they were jealous of people’s honour.

(D) they lived and died upholding their self-respect.

Answer: (D)

PASSAGE III

Religion is the greatest instrument for so raising us. It is amazing that a person not intellectually bright, perhaps not even educated, is capable of grasping and living by something so advanced as the principles of Christianity. Yet, there is a common phenomenon. It is not, however, in my province to talk about religion. But rather to stress the power which great literature and the great   personalities whom we meet in it and in history have, to open and enlarge our minds, and to show us what is first rate in human personality and human character by showing us goodness and greatness.

11. In the passage, the author’s ultimate intention is to talk about:

(A) religion

(B) history

(C) education

(D) character

Answer: (D)

12. The phrase ‘so raising us’ means:

(A) giving us a sense of spiritual superiority.

(B) making us fell that we are more important than we really are.

(C) improving our mental abilities.

(D) making us realize that we all are children of God.

Answer: (B)

13. What surprises the author is that:

(A) even uneducated  people are attracted towards Christianity.

(B) Christianity is practised by a large number of people

(C) despite being difficult and complex, the principles of Christianity are practised by so many people.

(D) even very intelligent people cannot understand the principles of Christianity.

Answer: (C)

14. The author hesitates to talk about religion because:

(A) he does not feel himself competent to talk about it.

(B) nobody around him likes to talk about it.

(C) he does not believe in any religion.

(D) he does not fully understand its importance.

Answer: (B)

15. According to the author, we come across examples of greatness and nobility in:

(A) great works of literature.

(B) literary and historical works.

(C) historical records.

(D) books on Christianity.

Answer: (B)

PASSAGE IV

It is generally acknowledged that children learn a lot from their parents. It is not so commonly admitted that parents learn a great deal from their children. As adults, it is easy to assume that we are always right, but the laugh was on me one beautiful day.

  My daughter Kashmira knew how much I loved flowers. One day when she was of nine years, she picked some branches from our neighbour’s blossoming fruit tree. Realising she intended to please me, I didn’t scold her, but chose a different approach.

  “These are lovely, dear, but do you realise that if you had left them on the tree; each of these blossoms would have become a cherry?”

  “No, they wouldn’t have,” she said firmly.

  “Oh, yes they would have. Each of these blossoms would have grown into a cherry.”

  “Well okay, mother, if you insist,” she finally conceded “but they were plums last year.”

16. What is not commonly acknowledged is that:

(A) children learn a lot from their parents.

(B) parents teach their children a great deal.

(C) parents learn a great deal from their children.

(D) children learn a great deal inspite of their parents.

Answer: (C)

17. “The laugh was on me” means that:

(A) the mother was caught in the wrong.

(B) the daughter was wrong.

(C) people laughed at the mother.

(D) the mother laughed at herself.

Answer: (A)

18. What the daughter picked from the neighbour’s garden were?

(A) Some branches.

(B) Some flowers.

(C) Some branches with blossoms.

(D) Some branches with fruit.

Answer: (C)

19. The mother did not scold the daughter because:

(A) she loved flowers.

(B) she liked cherry blossoms.

(C) she did not understand why her daughter had done so.

(D) she decided to indirectly make her daughter realize her mistake.

Answer: (D)

20. The mother was caught in the wrong because the daughter:

(A) proved that she had not picked the branch with the blossom.

(B) reminded her that she loved flowers.

(C) reminded her that the branch with blossoms was from a plum tree.

(D) proved that those blossoms would not yield any fruit.

Answer: (C)

PASSAGE V

Recent advances in science and technology have made it possible for geneticists to find out abnormalities in the unborn foetus and take remedial action to rectify some defects which, would otherwise prove to be fatal to the child. Though genetic engineering is still at its infancy, scientists can now predict a genetic disorder with greater accuracy. It is not yet an exact science since they are not in a position to predict when exactly a genetic disorder will set in. While they have not, yet, been able to change the genetic order of the gene in germs, they are optimistic and are holding out that in the near future they might be successful in achieving this feat. They have, however, acquired the ability in manipulating tissue cells. However, genetic mis-information can sometimes be damaging for it may adversely affect people psychologically. Genetic information may lead to a tendency to brand some people as inferior. Genetic information can therefore be abused and its application in deciding the sex of the foetus and its subsequent abortion is now hotly debated on ethical lines. But on this issue geneticists cannot be squarely blamed though this charge has often been levelled at them. It is mainly a societal problem. At present genetic engineering is a costly process of detecting disorders but scientists hope to reduce the costs when technology becomes more advanced. This is why much progress in this area has been possible in scientifically advanced and rich countries like the U.S.A., U.K. and Japan. It remains to be  seen if in the future this science will lead to the development of a race of supermen or will be able to obliterate disease from this world.

21. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the phrase ‘holding out’ as used in the passage?

(A) Catching

(B) Expounding

(C) Sustaining

(D) Restraining

Answer: (C)

22. According to the passage, the question of abortion is:

(A) ignored

(B) hotly debated

(C) unanswered

(D) left to the scientists to decide

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following is true regarding the reasons for progress in genetic engineering?

(A) It has become popular to abort female foetuses.

(B) Human beings are extremely interested in heredity.

(C) Economically sound and scientifically advanced countries can provide the infrastructure for such research.

(D) Poor countries desperately need genetic information.

Answer: (C)

24. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘obliterate’ as used in the passage?

(A) Wipe off

(B) Eradicate

(C) Give birth to

(D) Wipe out

Answer: (B)

25. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to the word “charged” as used in the passage?

(A) Calm

(B) Disturbed

(C) Discharged

(D) Settled

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following is not true of the genetic engineering movement?

(A) Possibility of abuse.

(B) It is confronted by ethical problems.

(C) Increased tendency to manipulate gene cells.

(D) Acquired ability to detect genetic disorders in unborn babies.

Answer: (B)

27. Which of the following is the same in meaning as the word ‘feat’ as used in the passage?

(A) process

(B) focus

(C) possibility

(D) goal

Answer: (D)

28. Why according to the author, is genetic misinformation severely damaging?

(I) The cost involved is very high.

(II) Some people are unjustly branded as inferior.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(C) Both I and II

(D) Neither I nor II

Answer: (B)

29. In the passage, ‘abused’ means:

(A) insulted

(B) talked about

(C) killed

(D) misused

Answer: (D)

30. At present genetic engineering can rectify all genetic disorders. Is that so?

(A) Yes

(B) No

(C) It can do so only in some cases

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. No. 31-33): In each of the following questions, a number/letter series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series.

31. 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 25, ?

(A) 26

(B) 27

(C) 29

(D) 37

Answer: (C)

32. 22, 24, 28, ?, 52, 84

(A) 36

(B) 38

(C) 42

(D) 46

Answer: (A)

33. AB, DEF, HIJK, ?, STUVWX

(A) LMNO

(B) LMNOP

(C) MNOPQ

(D) QRSTU

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 34-37): Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.

34.

(A) Zebra

(B) Lion

(C) Tiger

(D) Horse

Answer: (D)

35.

(A) Apple

(B) Marigold

(C) Rose

(D) Lily

Answer: (A)

36.

(A) Football

(B) Volleyball

(C) Cricket

(D) Chess

Answer: (D)

37.

(A) House

(B) Cottage

(C) School

(D) Palace

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs 38-39): There of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

38.

(A) Nose

(B) Eyes

(C) Tongue

(D) Teeth

Answer: (D)

39.

(A) 13

(B) 29

(C) 37

(D) 69

Answer: (D)

40. If FISH is written as EHRG in a certain code, how would JUNGLE be written in that code?

(A) ITMFKD

(B) ITNFKD

(C) KVOHMF

(D) TIMFKD

Answer: (A)

41. In a code language, A is written as B, B is written as C, C is written as D and so on. Then how will SMART be written in that code language?

(A) TLBSU

(B) SHBSU

(C) TNBSU

(D) SNBRU

Answer: (C)

42. Deepak starts walking straight towards east. After walking 75 metres, he turns to the left and walks 25 metres straight. Again he turns to the left, walks a distance of 40 metres straight, again he turns to the left and walks a distance of 25 metres. How far is he from the starting point?

(A) 25 metres

(B) 50 metres

(C) 140 metres

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

43. Amit walked 30 metres towards East, took a right turn and walked 40 metres. Then he took a left turn and walked 30 metres. In which direction is her now from the starting point?

(A) North-east

(B) East

(C) South-east

(D) South

Answer: (B)

44. Rohan walks a distance of 3 km towards North, then turns to his left and walks for 2 km. He again turns left and walks for 3 km. At this point he turns to his left and walks for 3 km. How many kilometres is he from the starting point?

(A) 1 km

(B) 2 km

(C) 3 km

(D) 5 km

Answer: (A)

45. Manick walked 40 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 20 metres. he again took a left turn and walked 40 metres. How far and in which direction is the from the starting point?

(A) 20 metres East

(B) 20 metres North

(C) 100 metres South

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

46. Raj is walking towards West. He takes three turns while walking, all at an angle of 45° towards right, right and left. What direction is he facing now?

(A) North-East

(B) South-East

(C) East

(D) West

Answer: (A)

47. If the letter in the word UNDERTAKING are rearranged in the alphabetical order, which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement?

(A) G

(B) I

(C) K

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

48. Which letter in the word CYBERNETICS occupies the same position as it does in the English alphabet?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) I

(D) T

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. No. 49-50): In each of the following questions, find out which of the letter-series follows the given rule.

49. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two.

(A) MPSVYBE

(B) QSVYZCF

(C) SVZCGJN

(D) ZCGKMPR

Answer: (A)

50. The group of letters should not contain more than two vowels.

(A) BDEJOLY

(B) JKAPIXU

(C) PRAQEOS

(D) ZILERAM

Answer: (A)

51. If the letters of the word ADISHANKARACHARAYA were written in the reverse order, which will be the third letter to the right of the seventh letter from the left?

(A) R

(B) A

(C) K

(D) N

Answer: (B)

52. The positions of how many digits in the number 321465987 will remain same when the digits are arranged in ascending order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

Answer: (D)

53. If the day before yesterday was Saturday, what day will fall on the day after tomorrow?

(A) Friday

(B) Thursday

(C) Wednesday

(D) Tuesday

Answer: (C)

54. If 30th January 2003 was Thursday, what was the day on 2nd March, 2003?

(A) Tuesday

(B) Thursday

(C) Saturday

(D) Sunday

Answer: (D)

55. A number is greater than 3 but less than 8. Also, it is greater than 6 but less than 10. The number is:

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

56. How many days will there are from 26th January, 2004 to 15th May, 2004(both days included)?

(A) 110

(B) 111

(C) 112

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

57. Which two months in a year have the same calendar?

(A) June, October

(B) April, November

(C) October, December

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 58-59): In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something

supposed or taken for, granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions to decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the

statement. Mark Answer as

(A) if only Assumption I is implicit.

(B) if only Assumption II is implicit.

(C) if either Assumption I or II is implicit.

(D) if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.

58. Statement:

“Please note that the company will provide accommodation to only outside candidates if selected” − a condition in an advertisement.

Assumptions:

(I) The local candidates would be having some or the other arrangement for their stay.

(II) The company plans to select only local candidates.

Answer: (A)

59. Statement:

You can win over new people by your warm smile.

Assumptions:

(I) It is necessary to win new people.

(II) It is possible for us to smile warmly at unknown people.

Answer: (D)

60. A is the son of B. C, B’s sister, has a son D and a daughter E, F is the maternal uncle of D. How is E related to F?

(A) Sister

(B) Daughter

(C) Niece

(D) Wife

Answer: (C)

61. Water has maximum density at:

(A) −1°C

(B) 0°C

(C) 4°C

(D) 100°C

Answer: (C)

62. Bamboo is a:

(A) Grass

(B) Herb

(C) Shrub

(D) Tree

Answer: (D)

63. The best method for improving the nutrient composition of a diet is by:

(A) combining various foods.

(B) use of sprouted cereals and pulses.

(C) use of boiled foods.

(D) use of processed foods.

Answer: (B)

64. ‘Greenhouse effect’ means:

(A) pollution in houses in tropical region.

(B) trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbon dioxide.

(C) prevention from ultraviolet radiations by the ozone layer.

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

65. Which of the following have not undergone much of a change during the process of evolution over millions of years?

(I) Crocodile

(II) Cockroach

(III) Horse

(A) I and II

(B) II and III

(C) I and III

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

66. When an object is placed between two mirrors placed parallel to each other, how many images will be formed?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(C) 6

(D) Infinite

Answer: (D)

67. If a boy sitting in a train, moving at constant velocity, throws a ball straight up into the air:

(A) the ball will fall in front of him.

(B) the ball will fall behind him.

(C) the ball will fall into his hand.

(D) the ball will not return downwards.

Answer: (C)

68. Clothes keep us warm in winter because they:

(A) supply heat.

(B) do not radiate heat.

(C) prevent air from entering.

(D) prevent the heat of the body from escaping.

Answer: (D)

69. When a person enters a dark room from bright light, he cannot see anything clearly for some time. Slowly, he starts seeing things. This is because the:

(A) length of lens increases.

(B) iris expands.

(C) iris contracts.

(D) distance between the lens and retina increases.

Answer: (B)

70. McMahon Line demarcates the boundary between:

(A) India and Pakistan

(B) India and China

(C) India and Nepal

(D) India and Bangladesh

Answer: (B)

71. Zojila Pass connects:

(A) Kashmir and Tibet

(B) Nepal and Tibet

(C) Leh and Kargil

(D) Leh and Srinagar

Answer: (D)

72. First railway line in India was laid in:

(A) 1835

(B) 1853

(C) 1917

(D) 1923

Answer: (B)

73. Arjuna Award is given for:

(A) bravery on battlefield.

(B) outstanding performance in sports.

(C) exceptional service in emergency.

(D) exceptional service to slum dwellers.

Answer: (B)

74. Who wrote the line : ‘A thing of beauty is a joy for ever’?

(A) P. B. Shelley

(B) William Wordsworth

(C) John Keats

(D) Robert Browning

Answer: (C)

75. Khyber Pass is in:

(A) India

(B) Nepal

(C) Pakistan

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (C)

76. The Indian National Calendar is based on:

(A) Christian era

(B) Saka era

(C) Vikram era

(D) Hijri era

Answer: (B)

77. Which of the following countries has only a two party government?

(A) Australia

(B) France

(C) U.S.A.

(D) Great Britain

Answer: (C)

78. Who is the Union Minister for Textiles, Government of India?

(A) Sharad Pawar

(B) S. Vaghela

(C) Arjun Singh

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

79. The President of Sri Lanka is:

(A) Sirimavo Bandaranaike

(B) Arjuna Ranatunga

(C) Mahindra Rajapakse

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

80. Who is the first Indian sportsperson to win an individual Gold Medal in the Olympic Games?

(A) Leander Paes

(B) Vijender Kumar

(C) Abhinav Bindra

(D) Vikram Rathore

Answer: (C)

81. Which of the following countries is the largest producer of Jute in the world?

(A) Bangladesh

(B) India

(C) Myanmar

(D) Sri Lanka

Answer: (B)

82. Which country has the largest rail network in the world?

(A) India

(B) U.K.

(C) China

(D) U.S.A.

Answer: (A)

83. Which is India’s national airline?

(A) Indian Airlines

(B) Indigo

(C) Air India

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

84. The headquarters of U.N.O. is located in:

(A) Washington D.C.

(B) Hague

(C) New Delhi

(D) New York

Answer: (D)

85. Saina Nehwal is India’s No. 1 player in which sport?

(A) Badminton

(B) Squash

(C) Golf

(D) Swimming

Answer: (A)

86. The “PAN” in PAN Card issued by the Income Tax department stands for:

(A) Permanent Account Number

(B) Permanent Audit Number

(C) Permitted Account Number

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

87. Who is the founder of Microsoft Corporation?

(A) Ross Perot

(B) Naryana Moorthy

(C) Bill Gates

(D) Azim Premji

Answer: (C)

88. The classical dance form Kathakali originated in which Indian State?

(A) Orissa

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) West Bengal

(D) Kerala

Answer: (D)

89. What is the legally marriageable age for women in India?

(A) 18 years

(B) 19 years

(C) 20 years

(D) 21 years

Answer: (A)

90. The birthday of late Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, the former President of India, is celebrated as:

(A) Lawyers’ Day

(B) Teachers’ Day

(C) Children’s Day

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. 91-97): In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

91. EAGER:

(A) Clever

(B) Enthusiastic

(C) Curious

(D) Devoted

Answer: (C)

92. COMMEMORATE:

(A) Boast

(B) Remember

(C) Manipulate

(D) Harmonise

Answer: (B)

93. SECURE:

(A) Secret

(B) Comfortable

(C) Safe

(D) Independent

Answer: (C)

94. WHIM:

(A) Fancy

(B) Clumsy

(C) Desire

(D) Strange behaviour

Answer: (A)

95. CANDID:

(A) Rude

(B) Impertinent

(C) Blunt

(D) Frank

Answer: (D)

96. TENTATIVE:

(A) Unreliable

(B) Current

(C) Provisional

(D) Final

Answer: (C)

97. ENDORSEMENT:

(A) Reprimand

(B) Censure

(C) Commendation

(D) Reproach

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. 98-107): In each of the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

98. AUTONOMY:

(A) Submissiveness

(B) Dependence

(C) Subordination

(D) Slavery

Answer: (B)

99. TRAGEDY:

(A) Humorous

(B) Comedy

(C) Romance

(D) Calamity

Answer: (B)

100. ACCORD:

(A) Solution

(B) Act

(C) Dissent

(D) Concord

Answer: (C)

101. UNIVERSAL:

(A) Narrow

(B) Regional

(C) Miniature

(D) Subsidiary

Answer: (B)

102. OBSTINATE:

(A) Inflexible

(B) Prominent

(C) Pliable

(D) Fashionable

Answer: (C)

103. SUBJUGATE:

(A) Liberate

(B) Enslave

(C) Enrich

(D) Identify

Answer: (A)

104. SUPERFICIAL:

(A) Artificial

(B) Deep

(C) Shallow

(D) Real

Answer: (B)

105. FICKLE:

(A) Diseased

(B) Fast

(C) Constant

(D) Quick

Answer: (C)

106. RELIGIOUS:

(A) Atheistic

(B) Immoral

(C) Secular

(D) Sinful

Answer: (C)

107. PANIC:

(A) Alarm

(B) Indifference

(C) Serenity

(D) Cautiousness

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 108-111): In each of the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

108. A person who does not believe in any religion:

(A) Philatelist

(B) Rationalist

(C) Atheist

(D) Pagan

Answer: (C)

109. A person who believes that pleasure is the chief good:

(A) Stoic

(B) Hedonist

(C) Epicure

(D) Sensual

Answer: (B)

110. One who loves mankind:

(A) Anthropologist

(B) Philanthropist

(C) Seismologist

(D) Optometrist

Answer: (B)

111. To break off proceedings of a meeting for a time:

(A) Convene

(B) Terminate

(C) Adjourn

(D) Procrastinate

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 112-116): In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expressions/a proverb has been given, followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

112. to turn over a new leaf:

(A) TO change completely one’s course of action

(B) To shift attention to new problems after having studied the old ones thoroughly

(C) To cover up one’s faults by wearing new marks

(D) To change the old habits and adopt new ones

Answer: (D)

113. Hobson’s choice:

(A) Feeling of insecurity

(B) Accept or leave the offer

(C) Feeling of strength

(D) Excellent choice

Answer: (B)

114. To get into hot waters:

(A) To be impatient

(B) To suffer a huge financial loss

(C) To get into trouble

(D) To be in a confused state of mind

Answer: (C)

115. Dog in the manger:

(A) An undersized bull almost the shape of a dog

(B) A dog that has no kennel of its own

(C) A person who puts himself in difficulties on account of other people

(D) A person who prevents others from enjoying something useless to himself

Answer: (D)

116. A square peg in a round hole:

(A) An impossible task

(B) A scheme that never works

(C) A person unsuited to the position he fills

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. 117-120): In each of the following questions, a word has been written in four different ways out of which only one is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

117. 

(A) Comemorate

(B) Commemmorate

(C) Comemmorate

(D) Commemorate

Answer: (D)

118. 

(A) Mountaineous

(B) Mountaneous

(C) Mountainous

(D) Mountanous

Answer: (C)

119.

(A) Hindrence

(B) Hindrance

(C) Hinderence

(D) Hinderance

Answer: (B)

120.

(A) Servent

(B) Servant

(C) Sarvant

(D) Sarvent

Answer: (B)

121. If the outer radius of a metal pipe is 2.84 inches and the inner radius is 1.94 inches, the thickness of the metal in inches is:

(A) 0.75

(B) 0.80

(C) 0.90

(D) 0.95

Answer: (C)

122. A shopkeeper marks the p rice of his goods 20% higher than the original price. After that he allows a discount of 10%. What profit or loss did he get?

(A) Profit 10%

(B) Profit 8%

(C) Loss 5%

(D) Loss 7%

Answer: (B)

123. The prices of a scooter and a moped are in the ratio of 9 : 5. If a scooter costs Rs 4,200 more than a moped, find the price of the moped.

(A) Rs. 5,250

(B) Rs. 3,350

(C) Rs. 6,500

(D) Rs. 5,700

Answer: (A)

124. Rs 120 is divided among A, B and C such that A’s share is Rs 20 more than B’s and Rs 20 less than C’s. What is B’s share?

(A) Rs 10

(B) Rs 15

(C) Rs 20

(D) Rs 25

Answer: (C)

125. 

(A) 35/9

(B) 63/5

(C) 18/7

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

126. 12 ÷09 of 0.3 × 2 = ?

(A) 0.80

(B) 8.0

(C) 80

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

127. 7.32 × 4.12 = ?

(A) 33.1564

(B) 30.1584

(C) 30.334

(D) 39.1584

Answer: (B)

128. 172.23 – ? = 63.83 + 22

(A) 130.4

(B) 86.40

(C) 108.18

(D) 85.83

Answer: (B)

129. 

(A) 120

(B) 1.20

(C) 12

(D) 0.12

Answer: (D)

130. 80.40 ÷ 20 – (−4.2) = ?

(A) 497.8

(B) 5.786

(C) 947.0

(D) 8.22

Answer: (D)

131. 542 – 369 + 171 – 289 = ?

(A) 135

(B) 55

(C) 255

(D) 245

Answer: (B)

132. 5329 + 4328 – 369 – 7320 = ?

(A) 1698

(B) 1998

(C) 1958

(D) 1968

Answer: (D)

133. A man travelled 2/11 of his journey by coach, 17/22 by rail and walked the remaining 1 kilometre. How far did he go?

(A) 22 km

(B) 20 km

(C) 33 km

(D) 27 km

Answer: (A)

134. Find the value of x in the following proportion: 75 : 3 = x : 9

(A) 125

(B) 120

(C) 225

(D) 220

Answer: (C)

135. Two numbers are in the ratio of 4 : 5. If the larger number is 15 more than the smaller number, find the product of the numbers.

(A) 3500

(B) 3000

(C) 4500

(D) 4550

Answer: (C)

136. 16% of 65 + ?% of 850 = 172

(A) 20

(B) 8

(C) 18

(D) 9

Answer: (B)

137. 135 ÷ 9 ÷ 4 = ? ×5

(A) 1.5

(B) .025

(C) 2

(D) 2.5

Answer: (A)

138. 82.9 – 25.87 = 72.79 − ?

(A) 15.17

(B) 16.02

(C) 15.87

(D) 15.98

Answer: (C)

139. 430 + 90 × 12 = ?

(A) 538

(B) 1510

(C) 5380

(D) 6240

Answer: (B)

140. 245.576 + 2116.8 + 69.44 = ?

(A) 2431.816

(B) 2430.624

(C) 2431.028

(D) 2421.096

Answer: (A)

141. 51.12 ÷ 4.26 = ?

(A) 22

(B) 1.2

(C) 2.2

(D) 12

Answer: (D)

142. (152 – 122) × 4 = ?2

(A) 22

(B) 1.2

(C) 2.2

(D) 12

Answer: (D)

143. ?% of 450 = 54

(A) 12

(B) 24.3

(C) 18

(D) 6

Answer: (A)

144. 17.6 × 3.5 + 4.3 = ?

(A) 71.79

(B) 65.9

(C) 80.87

(D) 137.28

Answer: (B)

145. 45762 – 39826 = 7976 – ?

(A) 2040

(B) 2000

(C) 2400

(D) 2210

Answer: (A)

146. (87324 – 79576) ×5 = ?

(A) 1162.2

(B) 11622

(C) 1372.2

(D) 1163.7

Answer: (B)

147. (331 + 19) × (15 – 11) × (37 + 13) = ?

(A) 60,000

(B) 65,000

(C) 70,000

(D) 75,000

Answer: (C)

148. 916.28 – 72.4 = 728.2 + ?

(A) 115.68

(B) 125.68

(C) 215.68

(D) 261.04

Answer: (A)

149. Anil invested an amount for three years at a simple interest of 9 p.c.pa. He got an amount Rs. 19,050/- at the end of three years. What principal amount did he invest?

(A) Rs 14,500/-

(B) Rs 11,050/-

(C) Rs 15,000/-

(D) Rs 10,950/-

Answer: (C)

150. Amar started a business investing Rs. 45,000/-. Six months later Prakash joined him with Rs 30.000/-. In what ratio should the profit they earn be distributed at the end of the year?

(A) 3 : 1

(B) 3 : 4

(C) 3 : 2

(D) data inadequate

Answer: (A)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2009 Question Paper With Answer Key

National Institute of Fashions & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate Question Paper-2009

General Ability Test

PASSAGE I

The strength of the electronics industry in Japan is the Japanese ability to organize production and, marketing rather than their achievement in original research. The British are generally recognized as a far more inventive collection of individuals hut never seem able to exploit what they invent. There are many examples from the TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train and Sinclair scooter to the Triumph BSA and Norton motorbikes which all prove this sad rule. The Japanese were able to exploit their strengths in marketing and development many years ago, and their success was the first either not understood in the west or was dismissed as something which could only have been achieved by unscrupulous tactics. For many years Japanese goods had a reputation for shoddiness not always undeserved and it was felt they could only have been produced at their low price, so far from where they were sold because they were cheap copies of other people’s ideas churned out by a workhouse which was dedicated to hard grind above all else.

1. The said rule mentioned in this passage refers to:

(A) the inability of the Japanese to be inventive like the British

(B) the inability of the British to be industrious like the Japanese

(C) the lack of variety in Japanese inventions

(D) the poorer marketing ability of the British

Answer: (D)

2. According to the passage, prosperity in industry depends upon:

(A) productivity

(B) inventiveness

(C) marketing ability

(D) official patronage

Answer: (C)

3. The strength of a country’s industry depends upon:

(A) original research

(B) international cooperation

(C) adjudicate work force

(D) electronic development

Answer: (C)

4. The TSR2, the Hovercraft the high speed train, the Sinclair scooter etc. are the symbols of:

(A) Japanese success

(B) British failure

(C) British success

(D) Japanese failure

Answer: (B)

5. The main the me of this passage is:

(A) electronic industry in Japan

(B) industrial comparison between Japan and Britain

(C) the role of marketing efficiency in industrial prosperity

(D) the importance of original research in industry

Answer: (B)

PASSAGE II

It is difficult to reconcile the ideas of different schools of thought on the question of education. Some people maintain that pupils at school should concentrate on a narrow range of subjects which will benefit them directly in their-subsequent careers. Others contend that they should study a wide range of subjects so that they have not only the specialized knowledge necessary for their chosen careers but also sound general knowledge about the world they will have to work and live in. supporters of the first theory state that the greatest contributions to civilisation are made by those who are most expert in their trade or profession. Those on the other side say that, unless they have a broad general education, the experts will be too narrow in their outlook to have sympathy with their fellows or a proper sense of responsibility towards humanity as a whole.

6. ‘Schools of thought’ can be explained as:

(A) groups of people whose job is to think.

(B) groups of people who are schooled to think.

(C) groups of people who study in a particular school thoughtfully.

(D) groups of people having the same ideas but with different perception on a particular subject.

Answer: (D)

7. Broad general knowledge is necessary because:

(A) specialization is incomplete without it.

(B) without it no one would get a job.

(C) it reaches us about different things.

(D) it broadens one’s outlook.

Answer: (D)

8. The idea of the first school of thought in the passage is that:

(A) students should concentrate on studies

(B) students should not undertake any specialized work.

(C) students should study all the subjects they want to.

(D) students should study a few subjects that will help them in their profession.

Answer: (D)

9. Supporters of the first theory say that:

(A) experts have contributed most to progress in the modern world.

(B) people with general knowledge have contributed to civilization.

(C) experts have done nothing to help mankind.

(D) people with general knowledge are more useful than experts.

Answer: (A)

10. According to the second school of thought, education will not be very effective if pupils:

(A) have inadequate knowledge of their own work.

(B) do not have a wide general education.

(C) ignore the study of fine arts.

(D) have nothing but general knowledge.

Answer: (B)

PASSAGE III

Gandhiji had to travel by train from Durban to Pretoria in connection with his job. Once while travelling by train, he was asked by the white passengers to leave the first class compartment and shift to the van compartment. He refused to do so. Thereafter, he was pushed forcibly out of the compartment and his luggage was thrown on the platform. It was winter and he kept shivering all night. He did not go to the waiting room because the while men sleeping there might insult him further. This event was a turning point in the life of Gandhiji and he decided to stay back in South Africa and fight against this blatant injustice.

11. The white people asked Gandhiji to abandon the first class compartment because:

(A) they wanted to annoy him.

(B) they wanted to avenge themselves on Gandhiji.

(C) they treated Indians as inferior to them.

(D) they were looking for a chance to talk to him.

Answer: (C)

12. Why was the thrown out of the compartment? Because:

(A) he misbehaved with the whites.

(B) they wanted him to spend the night in the waiting room.

(C) they wanted to insult him.

(D) he refused to shift to the van compartment.

Answer: (D)

13. Why did he not go to the waiting room to spend the night?

(A) The room was unclean.

(B) He wanted to sleep in the open.

(C) He was badly hurt and so couldn’t move to the room.

(D) He feared that the white men there might insult him further.

Answer: (D)

14. ‘This event was a turning point in the life of Gandhiji.’ The event being talked about here is:

(A) Gandhiji’s being ill treated by the whites

(B) Gandhiji’s spending a night on the platform

(C) Gandhiji’s travel by a train

(D) Gandhiji’s staying back in Africa