GATE Exam 2023 Life Sciences (XL) Question Paper With Answer Key

GATE-2023

XL: Life Sciences

General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.

1. The village was nestled in a green spot, _______ the ocean and the hills.

(A)   through

(B)   in

(C)   at

(D)   between

Answer: (D)

2. Disagree : Protest : : Agree : _______

(By word meaning)

(A)   Refuse

(B)   Pretext

(C)   Recommend

(D)   Refute

Answer: (C)

3. A ‘frabjous’ number is defined as a 3 digit number with all digits odd, and no two adjacent digits being the same. For example, 137 is a frabjous number, while 133 is not. How many such frabjous numbers exist?

(A)   125

(B)   720

(C)   60

(D)   80

Answer: (D)

4. Which one among the following statements must be TRUE about the mean and the median of the scores of all candidates appearing for GATE 2023?

(A)   The median is at least as large as the mean.

(B)   The mean is at least as large as the median.

(C)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the median.

(D)   At most half the candidates have a score that is larger than the mean.

Answer: (C)

5. In the given diagram, ovals are marked at different heights (h) of a hill. Which one of the following options P, Q, R, and S depicts the top view of the hill?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Answer: (B)

Q.6 – Q.10 Carry TWO marks Each

6. Residency is a famous housing complex with many well-established individuals among its residents. A recent survey conducted among the residents of the complex revealed that all of those residents who are well established in their respective fields happen to be academicians. The survey also revealed that most of these academicians are authors of some best-selling books.

Based only on the information provided above, which one of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(A)   Some residents of the complex who are well established in their fields are also authors of some best-selling books.

(B)   All academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

(C)   Some authors of best-selling books are residents of the complex who are well established in their fields.

(D)   Some academicians residing in the complex are well established in their fields.

Answer: (MTA)

7. Ankita has to climb 5 stairs starting at the ground, while respecting the following rules:

(1) At any stage, Ankita can move either one or two stairs up.

(2) At any stage, Ankita cannot move to a lower step.

Let F(N) denote the number of possible ways in which Ankita can reach the 𝑁𝑡ℎ stair. For example, F(1) = 1, F(2) = 2, F(3) = 3.

The value of F(5) is _______.

(A)   8

(B)   7

(C)   6

(D)   5

Answer: (A)

8. The information contained in DNA is used to synthesize proteins that are necessary for the functioning of life. DNA is composed of four nucleotides: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Cytosine (C), and Guanine (G). The information contained in DNA can then be thought of as a sequence of these four nucleotides: A, T, C, and G. DNA has coding and non-coding regions. Coding regions—where the sequence of these nucleotides are read in groups of three to produce individual amino acids—constitute only about 2% of human DNA. For example, the triplet of nucleotides CCG codes for the amino acid glycine, while the triplet GGA codes for the amino acid proline. Multiple amino acids are then assembled to form a protein.

Based only on the information provided above, which of the following statements can be logically inferred with certainty?

(i) The majority of human DNA has no role in the synthesis of proteins.

(ii) The function of about 98% of human DNA is not understood.

(A)   only (i)

(B)   only (ii)

(C)   both (i) and (ii)

(D)   neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer: (D)

9. Which one of the given figures P, Q, R and S represents the graph of the following function?

f(x) = | |x + 2| − |x – 1| |

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Answer: (A)

10. An opaque cylinder (shown below) is suspended in the path of a parallel beam of light, such that its shadow is cast on a screen oriented perpendicular to the direction of the light beam. The cylinder can be reoriented in any direction within the light beam. Under these conditions, which one of the shadows P, Q, R, and S is NOT possible?

(A)   P

(B)   Q

(C)   R

(D)   S

Answer: (D)

Chemistry – P (Compulsory)

XL-P: Q.11 – Q.19 Carry ONE mark Each

11. Which one among the following mixtures gives a buffer solution in water?

(A) CH3COOH + CH3COONa

(B) CH3COOH + NaCl

(C) NaOH + NaCl

(D) NaOH + CH3COONa

Answer: (A)

12. What is the major product formed in the given reaction?

Answer: (C)

13. The CORRECT order of stability of the given metal oxides is

(A) LiO2 > NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2

(B) LiO2 < NaO2 < KO2 < RbO2

(C) LiO2 < NaO2 > KO2 > RbO2

(D) LiO2 > NaO2 < KO2 < RbO2

Answer: (B)

14. Which of the following is/are CORRECT when two single complementary strands of DNA come together to form a double helix at a given temperature?

(ΔS and ΔH are changes in entropy and enthalpy of the process, respectively.)

(A) ΔS > 0

(B) ΔS < 0

(C) ΔH > 0

(D) ΔH < 0

Answer: (B, D)

15. Suitable reagent(s) to bring about the conversion of P to Q in good yield is/are

Answer: (B, D)

16. Choose the CORRECT trend(s) of the first ionization energies among the following.

(Given: Atomic numbers C: 6; N: 7; O: 8; F: 9; Si: 14; P: 15; S: 16; Cl: 17)

(A) C < N > O < F

(B) Si < P > S < Cl

(C) C < N < O < F

(D) Si < P < S < Cl

Answer: (A, B)

17. The depression of freezing point of water (in K) for 0.1 molal solutions of NaCl and Na2SO4 are ΔT1 and ΔT2, respectively. Assuming the solutions to be ideal, the ratio ΔT1⁄ΔT2 is _____________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (0.66 to 0.68)

18. Considering cyclobutane to be planar, the number of planes of symmetry in the following compound is ___________ (in integer).

Answer: (1 to 1)

19. The dipole moment (μ) of BrF is 1.42 D and the bond length is 176 pm. The atomic charge distribution (q) in the molecule is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places). (Given: 1 D = 3.34 × 1030 C m; the factor e (electronic charge) = 1.60 × 1019 C)

Answer: (0.16 to 0.18)

XL-P: Q.20 – Q.27 Carry TWO marks Each

20. Consider two different paths in which the volume of an ideal gas doubles isothermally:

(i) Reversible expansion (work done = wrev)

(ii) Irreversible expansion, with the external pressure equal to the final pressure of the gas (work done = wirrev)

Answer: (A)

21. A mixture of four peptides, PKKRK, RGERV, RYRGV and LVVYP, is loaded onto an ion-exchange column at pH = 7.2. If carboxymethyl (CM) cellulose is used as the stationary phase of this column, then which peptide elutes first?

(A) PKKRK

(B) RGERV

(C) RYRGV

(D) LVVYP

Answer: (D)

22. Match the coordination complexes given in Column I with the most appropriate properties in Column II.

(Given: Atomic numbers of Mn: 25; Co: 27; Ni: 28)

(A) E-1, F-2, G-3, H-4

(B) E-2, F-1, G-4, H-3

(C) E-4, F-2, G-1, H-3

(D) E-1, F-4, G-3, H-2

Answer: (A)

23. Compounds P and Q undergo E2 elimination with reaction rate constants of k1 and k2, respectively, as shown below. Which is/are the CORRECT option(s)?

(A) k1 > k2

(B) k2 > k1

(C) Most stable conformer of P gives the product

(D) Most stable conformer of Q gives the product

Answer: (A, C)

24. According to Hard-Soft Acid-Base (HSAB) principle, the CORRECT option(s) for the solubility trend in water is/are

(A) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI

(B) LiBr > LiCl > LiF

(C) AgF < AgCl < AgBr < AgI

(D) LiBr < LiCl < LiF

Answer: (A, B)

25. Compound X gives alcohol P as the major product for the reaction shown below. Suitable option(s) for X is/are

Answer: (B, C)

26. The number of radial node(s) for the valence orbital of U(III) ion is _____ (in integer).

(Given: Atomic number of U is 92)

Answer: (1 to 1)

27. Eº = 1.10 V for the following cell reaction:

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) ⇌ Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

For this reaction, the equilibrium constant is y × 1037 at 298 K. The value of y is _____ (rounded off to two decimal places).

(Given : F = 96485 C mol1, R = 8.314 J K1 mol1)

Answer: (1.58 to 1.66)

Biochemistry (XL-Q)

XL-Q: Q.28 – Q.35 Carry ONE mark Each

28. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: On a per carbon basis, palmitic acid yields more ATP than glucose.

Reason [r]: Carbons in palmitic acid are more reduced than those in glucose.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) [a] is true but [r] is false

(D) [a] is false but [r] is true

Answer: (A)

29. When cell components are fractionated by sedimentation, the correct order (from lower to higher gravitational force, g) in which the components get separated is _______.

(A) nuclei, mitochondria, microsomes, and ribosomes

(B) microsomes, mitochondria, ribosomes, and nuclei

(C) nuclei, ribosomes, mitochondria, and microsomes

(D) ribosomes, microsomes, mitochondria, and nuclei

Answer: (A)

30. In a population, the probability of a susceptible individual getting infected with SARS-CoV-2 is low when a majority of individuals in the population becomes immune to this virus. This phenomenon is known as _______.

(A) innate immunity

(B) adaptive immunity

(C) active immunity

(D) herd immunity

Answer: (D)

31. Given below are four reactions of the glycolytic pathway catalyzed by the enzymes E1, E2, E3, and E4, as indicated. Which of these enzymes is/are NOT part of the gluconeogenesis pathway?

(A) E1

(B) E2

(C) E3

(D) E4

Answer: (A, D)

32. Which of the following molecules is/are second messenger(s) produced by the phosphoinositide signaling cascade?

(A) Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate

(B) Inositol 1,4,5-triphosphate

(C) Inositol 1,3,5-triphosphate

(D) Diacylglycerol

Answer: (B, D)

33. A protein has seven cysteine residues. The maximum number of disulfide bonds of different combinations that can possibly be formed by these seven cysteine residues is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (48 to 48)

34. A lyophilized sample of 20 nanomoles of an oligonucleotide is dissolved in water and the volume of the solution is made up to 200 μ The concentration (in μM) of the oligonucleotide in this solution is ______ (in integer).

Answer: (100 to 100)

35. DNA in a 1 cm long chromatin contains 5 × 109 base pairs. The fold compaction of this DNA within the chromatin is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (170 to 170)

XL-Q: Q.36 – Q.46 Carry TWO marks Each

36. Intracellular concentrations of ATP, ADP, and inorganic phosphate in four cell types are given below. Which one of these cell types has the most negative ΔG for ATP hydrolysis?

(A) L

(B) K

(C) B

(D) M

Answer: (C)

37. Which one of the following amino acids has more than two acid-base groups?

(A) Alanine

(B) Leucine

(C) Phenylalamine

(D) Tyrosine

Answer: (D)

38. Enzyme activity profiles as a function of time in the absence or presence of different types of feedback mechanisms are shown in the figure below. Match the following feedback mechanisms with the corresponding profiles in the figure.

(p) No feedback mechanism

(q) Negative feedback mechanism with short delay

(r) Negative feedback mechanism with long delay

(s) Positive feedback mechanism

(A) (p) – (i); (q) – (ii); (r) – (iii); (s) – (iv)

(B) (p) – (iv); (q) – (iii); (r) – (ii); (s) – (i)

(C) (p) – (iv); (q) – (ii); (r) – (iii); (s) – (i)

(D) (p) – (i); (q) – (iii); (r) – (ii); (s) – (iv)

Answer: (B)

39. A linear DNA fragment of 5 kilobase (kb) when completely digested with EcoRI produces 2.5 kb, 1.5 kb, and 1 kb fragments. Complete digestion of the same 5 kb fragment with XbaI produces 3.5 kb and 1.5 kb fragments. Which one of the following sets of fragments will be obtained if the 5 kb fragment is fully digested with EcoRI and XbaI simultaneously?

(A) 3 kb and 2 kb

(B) 2 kb and 1 kb

(C) 2 kb, 1.5 kb, 1 kb, and 0.5 kb

(D) 2.5 kb, 1.5 kb, 0.75 kb, and 0.25 kb

Answer: (C)

40. Match the cell types listed in Group I with associated processes listed in Group II.

(A) (p) – (ii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iii); (s) – (iv)

(B) (p) – (ii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iv); (s) – (iii)

(C) (p) – (iii); (q) – (i); (r) – (iv); (s) – (ii)

(D) (p) – (iii); (q) – (ii); (r) – (i); (s) – (iv)

Answer: (C)

41. Four statements about lipids are given below as options. Choose the statement(s) which is/are CORRECT.

(A) Cholesterol is amphipathic

(B) Self-assembly of phospholipids in water is due to hydrophobic effect

(C) The temperature at which the gel phase changes to liquid crystalline phase increases with an increase in the degree of unsaturation of fatty acyl tails

(D) The choline head group of lipids is positively charged

Answer: (A, B, D)

42. Which of the following technique(s) can be used to separate proteins according to their molecular weights from a mixture of proteins?

(A) Ion exchange chromatography

(B) Size exclusion chromatography

(C) Sodium dodecylsulfate – polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (SDS-PAGE)

(D) Sucrose density gradient centrifugation

Answer: (B, C, D)

43. B cells produce two forms of an immunoglobulin: (i) membrane-bound form, known as B cell receptor (BCR) and (ii) soluble form, known as antibody. Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT about BCR and antibody produced by the same B cell?

(A)  BCR and antibody have identical antigen binding site

(B) BCR and antibody recognize different epitopes

(C) BCR and antibody are encoded by the same gene

(D) BCR and antibody are formed by differential splicing

Answer: (A, C, D)

44. A 100 ml solution of pH 10 was well-mixed with a 100 ml solution of pH 4. The pH of the resultant 200 ml solution is ___________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (4.29 to 4.31)

45. An organism uses only the glycerophosphate shunt pathway to transport cytosolic NADH to mitochondria. For every two electrons transported, complex I, complex III, and complex IV of the electron transport chain in this organism transport 2.5, 1.5, and 2.0 protons (H+), respectively. The H+ to ATP ratio of FOF1-ATPase of this organism is 4.0. Terminal electron acceptor is oxygen.

The number of ATP molecules synthesized by oxidizing NADH from glycolysis is __________ (rounded off to two decimal places).

Answer: (1.74 to 1.76)

46. If the extracellular concentration of sodium ion (Na+) is ten times more than its intracellular concentration, then the sodium equilibrium potential at 20 ºC in mV is ________________ (rounded off to two decimal places). Assume that the membrane is permeable only to Na+ [Use R = 1.987 cal deg−1 mol−1 and F = 23062 cal mol−1 V−1]

Answer: (57.80 to 58.80)

Botany (XL-R)

XL-R: Q.47 – Q.54 Carry ONE mark Each

47. Which one of the following statements on Casparian strips is correct?

(A) Casparian strips are specific to vascular plants found in epidermal cells.

(B)  Casparian strips are modifications mostly found in shoot tissue.

(C) Casparian strips act as a cellular barrier to allow selective nutrient uptake and exclusion of pathogens.

(D) Casparian strips are common in root endodermal cells of non-vascular plants.

Answer: (C)

48. Rotenone is a chemical often used to kill insect pests on crop plants and fishes in lakes. Rotenone acts by inhibiting electron transport from the NADH dehydrogenase enzyme in Complex I to ubiquinone in the mitochondrial electron transport chain. Which one of the following explains why plants can tolerate rotenone application?

(A) The Complex I in plants is resistant to rotenone.

(B) Plants inactivate rotenone by enzymatic degradation.

(C) Plants have specific channels that efflux rotenone out of the cell.

(D)  Plants have additional NAD(P)H dehydrogenases that are resistant to rotenone.

Answer: (D)

49. Although Pseudomonas syringae infection in plants is actively inhibited by the endogenous salicylic acid (SA) of host origin, a successful infection is still established because the bacterium secretes coronatine, an effector molecule. Which one of the following best describes the mode of action of coronatine?

(A) Coronatine inhibits SA biosynthesis.

(B) Coronatine promotes the biosynthesis of jasmonic acid (JA), and JA signaling in turn inhibits SA response.

(C) Coronatine is a structural analogue of SA, which binds to the SA receptor and inhibits its function.

(D) Coronatine is a structural analogue of jasmonic acid (JA), which activates JA signaling to inhibit SA response.

Answer: (D)

50. The schematic depicts an unexpanded plant cell within a hypocotyl with the arrangement of cellulose microfibrils marked on its cell wall.

Which one of the following shapes would most likely result from the expansion of this cell if the pattern of the cellulose fibrils does not change?

Answer: (A)

51. Which one or more of the following statements is/are NOT CORRECT with respect to pollen development in angiosperm?

(A) Tapetal cell wall in all angiosperms breaks down to release the cytoplasmic content.

(B) Tapetal cell wall in all angiosperms remains intact.

(C) Tapetal cell wall breaks down in some angiosperm species, whereas it remains intact in others.

(D) Within an angiosperm species, the tapetal cell wall breaks down in some individuals and not in others.

Answer: (A, B, D)

52. Regulation of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPCase) governs CO2 fixation in both C4 and CAM (crassulacean acid metabolism) plants. Which one or more of the following statements with respect to PEPCase activity is/are CORRECT?

(A) PEPCase in C4 plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation during the day.

(B) PEPCase in CAM plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation during the day.

(C) PEPCase in C4 plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation at night.

(D) PEPCase in CAM plants is inactivated by dephosphorylation at night.

Answer: (B, C)

53. Which one or more processes listed below DOES NOT/DO NOT produce carbon dioxide during fermentation?

(A) Brewing wine using yeast.

(B) Baking bread using yeast.

(C) Making yogurt using lactobacillus.

(D) Making cheese using fungus.

Answer: (C, D)

54. The ovule of a diploid species with 2n = 8 undergoes double fertilization. If the pollen is contributed by an individual with meiotic nondisjunction, the chromosome number of the zygote will be _________.

Answer: (12 to 12)

XL-R: Q.55 – Q.65 Carry TWO marks Each

55. Match the tasks given in Group I with the associated techniques conventionally used as listed in Group II.

(A) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4; T-5

(B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2; T-5

(C) P-5; Q-4; R-1; S-2; T-3

(D) P-3; Q-5; R-1; S-2; T-4

Answer: (B)

56. Periderm is a protective tissue found in stems and roots of gymnosperm and woody dicotyledons. It contributes to the increased thickness by secondary growth. Match the peridermal components given in Group I with the cell/tissue types given in Group II.

(A) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(B) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

Answer: (B)

57. Match the following rice diseases in Group I with their causal agents in Group II.

(A) P-5; Q-3; R-2; S-1

(B) P-4; Q-2; R-5; S-3

(C) P-4; Q-5; R-3; S-1

(D) P-5; Q-4; R-1; S-2

Answer: (A)

58. Central vascular cylinder or stele consists of the primary vascular system (xylem and phloem) and the associate fundamental tissue. Match the schematics of stele in Group I (xylem shown in green, and phloem shown as  ) with their respective types in Group II.

(A) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

(B) P-5; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(C) P-5; Q-3; R-1; S-2

(D) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-5

Answer: (A)

59. Consider the following four experimental observations (i, ii, iii, iv) on the effect of the FT gene on flowering transition in the shoot apical meristem (SAM) of Arabidopsis thaliana.

(i) The FT promoter is active in leaves alone.

(ii) The ft null mutation causes delayed flowering transition of the SAM.

(iii) Expressing a recombinant FT protein fused to nuclear localization signal sequence under the endogenous promoter does not rescue the delayed-flowering phenotype of the ft null mutant.

(iv) Downregulation of FT transcript in the SAM by RNA interference in the wild-type background does not alter flowering transition.

Which one of the following conclusions best explains the above observations?

(A) FT protein resident in leaves causes flowering transition of the SAM.

(B) FT transcript moves from leaves to the meristem and promotes flowering.

(C) FT protein moves from leaves to the SAM and promotes flowering.

(D) Both FT transcript and FT protein are required in the SAM to promote flowering.

Answer: (C)

60. Which one of the options given correctly matches the alkaloids in Group I with their source plants in Group II?

(A) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

(B) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2

(C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4

(D) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3

Answer: (A)

61. A drought tolerant rice genotype was found to be associated with a missense mutation in the gene A. Which one or more of the following experiments is/are appropriate to validate whether the mutation in A is the causal factor for drought tolerance?

(A)  Introduce the same mutation in a drought sensitive rice genotype and test if it becomes drought tolerant.

(B)  Delete the wild-type A in drought sensitive plant and test if it becomes drought tolerant.

(C) Determine the stability of the protein encoded by the wild-type and the mutant forms of A.

(D) Repair the mutation in the drought tolerant rice genotype and test if it becomes drought sensitive.

Answer: (A, D)

62. Blue light can directly induce opening of stomata. Blue light also triggers photosynthesis in the guard cells, which indirectly induces stomatal opening. Which one or more of the following experimental approaches would test the direct effect of blue light on stomatal opening?

(A) Application of low photon fluxes of red light followed by high fluence rate of blue light.

(B) Application of high fluence rates of red light followed by low photon fluxes of blue light.

(C) Application of high fluence rates of blue light followed by high photon fluxes of red light.

(D)  Inhibition of photosynthetic electron transport by dichlorophenyldimethylurea (DCMU).

Answer: (B, D)

63. In a diploid angiosperm species, flower colour is regulated by the R gene. RR and Rr genotypes produce red flowers, whereas the rr genotype produces white flowers. If two individual plants are randomly selected from a large segregating population of a genetic cross between RR and rr parents, the probability of both the plants producing red flowers is _______.

(Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (0.56 to 0.56)

64. A cytoplasmic male-sterile female plant with the restorer (nuclear) genotype rr is crossed to a male-fertile male plant with the genotype RR. Both RR and Rr can restore the fertility, whereas rr cannot. When an F1 female plant with Rr genotype was test-crossed to a male-fertile male plant with the rr genotype, the percentage of the population that is male fertile would be _______ %. (Answer in integer)

Answer: (50 to 50)

65. The frequencies for autosomal alleles A and a are p = 0.5 and q = 0.5, respectively, where A is dominant over a. Under the assumption of random mating, the mating frequency among dominant parents is _________. (Rounded off to two decimal places)

Answer: (0.5 to 0.6)

Microbiology (XL-S)

XL-S: Q.66 – Q.73 Carry ONE mark each

66. Monkey pox is caused by a

(A) double-stranded DNA virus

(B) single-stranded DNA virus

(C) double-stranded RNA virus

(D) single-stranded RNA virus

Answer: (A)

67. Which one of the following converts sulfate to hydrogen sulfide?

(A) Beggiatoa

(B) Desulfovibrio

(C) Thiobacillus

(D) Thiothrix

Answer: (B)

68. Which one of the statements about bacterial flagella is correct?

(A) Flagella varies in length ranging from 0.5 to 2 μm.

(B) Flagella are adjacent fibrils with regular patterns.

(C) Flagella helps in conjugation.

(D) Flagella originates from basal body.

Answer: (D)

69. Microbial plastics are made from

(A) polyhydroxyalkanoates

(B) polystyrene

(C) polyurethane

(D) polyvinyl chloride

Answer: (A)

70. The correct sequence of metabolic intermediates in Krebs cycle is

(A) α-ketoglutarate → fumarate → succinate → malate

(B) fumarate → malate → succinate → α-ketoglutarate

(C) α-ketoglutarate → succinate → fumarate → malate

(D) succinate → α-ketoglutarate → malate → fumarate

Answer: (C)

71. Catabolite repression in bacteria is regulated by the concentration of

(A) amino acids

(B) glucose

(C) messenger RNA

(D) lactose

Answer: (B)

72. Phagocytosis was first described by

(A) Elie Metchnikoff

(B) Robert Hooke

(C) Robert Koch

(D) Paul Ehrlich

Answer: (A)

73. Which one of the following statements about batch culture of microbes is NOT correct?

(A) Cells from stationary phase will show longer lag phase when inoculated in fresh growth medium compared to those collected from exponential phase.

(B)  Death phase of culture is often exponential in nature.

(C) Stationary phase is the cryptic growth phase.

(D) The rate of generation of new cells during exponential growth phase is constant.

Answer: (D)

XL-S: Q.74 – Q.84 Carry TWO marks each

74. Match the test in Group I with its application in Group II

(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Answer: (A)

75. Which one of the following is NOT correct about antibiotic resistance mechanism in microbes?

(A)  Mycoplasma is naturally resistant to penicillins due to presence of R plasmid.

(B) Gram-negative bacteria are impermeable to penicillin G.

(C) β-lactamases of bacteria can cleave penicillins.

(D) Selective microbes can efflux penicillins entering the cell and develop resistance.

Answer: (A)

76. A suspension of photosynthetic green algae was illuminated in the presence of 14CO2 for few seconds. The first metabolite in the Calvin cycle to be radiolabeled will be

(A) glyceraldehyde

(B) 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate

(C) 3-phosphoglycerate

(D) ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate

Answer: (C)

77. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r].

Assertion [a]: Endospore can survive heat that would rapidly kill vegetative cells of the same species.

Reason [r]: In endospore, the protoplasm is reduced to minimum volume as a result of the accumulation of calcium-dipicolinic acid complexes and small acid-soluble spore proteins, which forms a cytoplasmic gel and a thick cortex.

(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

(B) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

(C) Both [a] and [r] are false

(D) [a] is true but [r] is false

Answer: (A)

78. Which one of the following conjugations will result in formation of merodiploids?

(A) F+ donor × F recipient

(B) Hfr donor × F recipient

(C) F’ donor × F recipient

(D) F+ donor × Hfr recipient

Answer: (C)

79. Which of the following genus is/are a spirochete(s)?

(A) Borrelia

(B) Leptospira

(C) Spirulina

(D) Treponema

Answer: (A, B, D)

80. Which of the following is/are non-membrane bound inclusion bodies?

(A) Carboxysomes

(B) Cyanophycin granules

(C) Poly-β-hydroxybutyrate granules

(D) Polyphosphate granules

Answer: (B, D)

81. Which of the following antibiotics is/are isolated from Streptomyces spp.?

(A) Gentamicin

(B) Nystatin

(C) Polymyxins

(D) Tetracyclines

Answer: (B, D)

82. Which of the following statements about the primary and secondary adaptive immune responses to an antigen is/are correct?

(A) IgM antibodies appear first in response to the initial exposure of the antigen.

(B) Majority of the antibodies produced in response to the second exposure of the same antigen are IgM isotype.

(C) Second exposure of the same antigen stimulates production of memory cells.

(D) Primary antibody response has shorter lag phase than secondary antibody response.

Answer: (A, C)

83. The spontaneous, and induced mutations in bacteria can be distinguished by

(A) fluctuation test

(B) replica plating

(C) disc diffusion test

(D) use-dilution test

Answer: (A, B)

84. During the exponential growth, it took 6 hours for the population of bacterial cells to increase from 2.5 × 106 to 5 × 108. The generation time of the bacterium, rounded off to the nearest integer, is ________ minutes.

Answer: (46 to 48)

Zoology (XL-T)

XL-T: Q.85 – Q.92 Carry ONE mark Each

85. Which one of the following animals has “Book Lungs” as a respiratory organ?

(A) Earthworm

(B) Scorpion

(C) Octopus

(D) Starfish

Answer: (B)

86. Which one of the following describes the “innate behavior” of an animal?

(A) A behavior that is triggered due to the change in environment.

(B) A behavior that is trained by the parents.

(C)  A behavior that is determined by heredity.

(D) A behavior that is learnt by “hit and trial” approach.

Answer: (C)

87. Which one of the following represents a true “Ecological population” ?

(A) A pitcher plant and a trapped fly in it

(B) All animals that live near each other in a national park

(C) The leeches and the flatworms that live in a forest

(D) All the lions in a reserve forest

Answer: (D)

88. Which of the following animals show “Bottle cells” during the gastrulation stage of development?

(A) Snails

(B) Amphibians

(C) Birds

(D) Mammals

Answer: (B)

89. The organisms that obtain energy from inorganic compounds are known as

(A) Autotrophs

(B) Organotrophs

(C) Lithotrophs

(D) Phototrophs

Answer: (C)

90. Which of the following is/are the causative agent(s) of Filariasis?

(A) Wuchereria bancrofti

(B) Leishmania donovani

(C) Brugia malayi

(D) Trypanosoma gambiense

Answer: (A, C)

91. In a population of 1000 wild dogs in a grassland, 360 and 480 dogs had black body colour with genotypes BB and Bb, respectively. In the same population, remaining dogs were white in colour with a genotype of bb. Based on this data, the frequency of allele “b” in the population is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (0.4 to 0.4)

92. A mature rat sperm cell has 2.5 μg of genomic DNA that is equivalent of a haploid genome. Compared to this sperm cell, the amount of genomic DNA (in μg) in a somatic cell, which is in the G2 phase of cell cycle, will be _____ (in integer).

Answer: (10 to 10)

XL-T: Q.93 – Q.103 Carry TWO marks Each

93. In an experiment, excess amount of bicod mRNA (more than wild-type expression level) was injected into the posterior pole of a wild-type Drosophila embryo at pre-blastodermal stage. Out of the following options, which one represents the best expected phenotype in the resulted developing embryo?

(A) Normal embryo with head structure at anterior and tail structure at posterior pole

(B) Head structure only at posterior pole of the embryo

(C) Tail structure at anterior and head structure at posterior poles of the embryo

(D) Head structure at both anterior and posterior poles of the embryo

Answer: (D)

94. Match the hormones/precursors listed in Column I with their chemical type in Column II and the tissue of origin listed in Column III

(A) P – (ii) – d ; Q – (iii) – c ; R – (iv) – a ; S – (i) – b

(B) P – (ii) – d ; Q – (iv) – a ; R – (i) – c ; S – (iii) – b

(C) P – (i) – c ; Q – (ii) – b ; R – (iv) – d ; S – (iii) – a

(D) P – (iv) – a ; Q – (i) – d ; R – (ii) – b ; S – (iii) – c

Answer: (A)

95. Match the syndromes listed in Column I with the cause/symptoms listed in Column II

(A) P – (ii) ; Q – (v) ; R – (iv) ; S – (iii) ; T – (i)

(B) P – (iv) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (i) ; S – (ii) ; T – (v)

(C) P – (iii) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (i) ; S – (v) ; T – (ii)

(D) P – (v) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (ii) ; S – (i) ; T – (iii)

Answer: (C)

96. Match the immunological statements in Column I with the appropriate descriptions from Column II

(A) P – (ii) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (iv) ; S – (i)

(B) P – (iv) ; Q – (iii) ; R – (i) ; S – (ii)

(C) P – (iv) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iii) ; S – (i)

(D) P – (i) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (iii) ; S – (ii)

Answer: (A)

97. Match the standard/stated cofactors in Column I with their respective enzymes in Column II

(A) P – (v) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iv) ; S – (i) ; T– (iii)

(B) P – (ii) ; Q – (iv) ; R – (v) ; S – (iii) ; T – (i)

(C) P – (iv) ; Q – (ii) ; R – (iii) ; S – (i) ; T – (v)

(D) P – (ii) ; Q – (i) ; R – (iii) ; S – (iv) ; T – (v)

Answer: (B)

98. The presence of excess glucose has been known to prevent the induction of lac operon as well as other operon controlling enzymes involved in carbohydrate metabolism in E. coli. Which of the following processes define(s) the phenomenon?

(A) Catabolite repression

(B) Attenuation

(C) Glucose effect

(D) Feedback inhibition

Answer: (A, C)

99. Which of the following techniques is/are used for determining the three-dimensional structure of proteins?

(A) Cryo-electron Microscopy

(B) Circular Dichroism

(C)  Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Spectroscopy

(D) X-ray Diffraction

Answer: (A, C, D)

100. Among the following statements, which is/are TRUE regarding the replication of DNA?

(A)  Replication is bidirectional and conservative in nature.

(B) Replication in eukaryotes takes place at multiple Ori sites simultaneously.

(C)  Both the strands replicate in discontinuous manner.

(D)  One strand replicates in continuous while the other replicates in discontinuous manner.

Answer: (B, D)

101. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE for Colchicine?

(A) It binds to tubulin molecule and disrupts the assembly/polymerization of microtubule.

(B) It inhibits crossover of chromosomes during meiosis.

(C) It inhibits chromosome condensation during Prophase.

(D) It blocks mitotic cells in Metaphase.

Answer: (A, D)

102. Wild-type Drosophila females having three linked genes (AABBCC) were crossed with triple recessive mutant (aabbcc) males. The F1 female progenies (AaBbCc) were back crossed with the triple negative mutant (aabbcc) males. The cross resulted in following number of progenies in F2 :

The order of genes as determined from the above data was found to be “ABC” (note that the order is equivalent to “CBA” and the order outside the markers are arbitrary).

The recombination map distance (in centi Morgan) between “A to C” is ______ (round off to one decimal place).

Answer: (53.8 to 53.8)

103. The length of a double helical DNA molecule is 13.6 km. If the DNA double helix weighs 1 × 10−18 g per 1000 nucleotide pairs and rise per base pair is 3.4 Å, then weight of the double helical DNA molecule (in nanogram) will be ______ (in integer).

Answer: (40 To 40)

Food Technology (XL-U)

XL-U: Q.104 – Q.111 Carry ONE mark Each

104. Choose the correct group of fat soluble vitamins

(A)  Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol, Menadione

(B) Thiamine, Cholecalciferol, α-Tocopherol

(C) Niacin, α-Tocopherol, Menadione

(D) Biotin, Thiamin, Niacin

Answer: (A)

105. The synthesis of thyroxine T4 in human body requires

(A) Selenium

(B) Iodine

(C) Iron

(D) Zinc

Answer: (B)

106. Which among the followings is NOT an essential amino acid?

(A) L-Phenylalanine

(B) L-Valine

(C) L-Lysine

(D) L-Arginine

Answer: (D)

107. The time required for stipulated destruction of a microbial population at a given temperature is

(A) D-value

(B) F-value

(C) z-value

(D) Q10 value

Answer: (B)

108. Which among the following statements is NOT correct?

(A) Cod fish is a major source of ω-3 fatty acids.

(B) Beetroot is a good source of β-carotene.

(C) Apple is a good source of vitamin B12.

(D) Fresh sugarcane juice is a good source of polyphenol oxidase.

Answer: (C)

109. Calculate the efficiency in percent (rounded off to 1 decimal place) of an oil expeller which yields 37 kg oil containing 5% solid impurities from 100 kg mustard seeds. The oil content of the mustard seed is 38%.

Answer: (92.0 to 93.0)

110. Orange juice is packaged aseptically and stored under ambient conditions. The degradation of vitamin C in the juice occurs during storage and it follows first order reaction kinetics. The degradation rate constant is 5.2 × 103 day1. The half-life of vitamin C in days is ____________ (in integer).

Answer: (132 to 134)

111. The weight of 10 kg dried cauliflower containing 5% moisture (wet basis) after rehydration is 60 kg. If the fresh cauliflower contained 87% moisture (wet basis), calculate the coefficient of rehydration (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Answer: (0.75 to 0.90)

XL-U: Q.112 – Q.122 Carry TWO marks Each

112. Some of the industrial products are produced by fermentation processes. Identify the correct pair of product and fermentative microorganism.

(A) Vinegar – Acetobacter aceti

(B) Citric acid – Enterbacter aerogenes

(C) Ethanol – Saccharomyces cerevisiae

(D) L-Lysine – Aspergillus niger

Answer: (MTA)

113. Choose the correct statement(s) about the enzyme and its application in food processing reaction.

(A)  Chymosin is widely used in cheese manufacturing.

(B) Thermolysin is used in the synthesis of Aspartame.

(C) β-Galactosidase catalyzes the hydrolysis of galactose.

(D) Lipase is used for restructuring of acyl glycerol.

Answer: (MTA)

114. Identify the Gram +ve bacteria responsible for causing food borne diseases among the followings

(A) Campylobacter jejuni

(B) Clostridium botulinum

(C) Vibrio cholerae

(D) Salmonella typhi

Answer: (B)

115. Extrusion cooking is accomplished in four different stages, which are indicated as I, II, III and IV in the figure given below. Choose the correct option representing the name of each stage.

(A) I – Feeding, II – Cooking, III – Kneading, IV – Expansion

(B) I – Kneading, II – Feeding, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(C) I – Feeding, II – Kneading, III – Cooking, IV – Expansion

(D) I – Cooking, II – Kneading, III – Feeding, IV – Expansion

Answer: (C)

116. Match the method/ value used for measuring lipid characteristics in Column I with the corresponding properties indicated by them, in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2

(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

(D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

Answer: (A)

117. Match the peeling technique in Column I with the vegetable, for which it is used in industry, given in Column II.

(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

(B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

(D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

Answer: (D)

118. Match the process in Column I with the related food component in Column II.

(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3

(B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4

(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

Answer: (A)

119. Identify the correct statement(s) related to grain polysaccharides among the followings.

(A) Dextrin are a group of low molecular weight polysaccharides produced by dry hydrolysis of starch.

(B) Amylose is a linear polymer of D-glucose units joined by α (1→6) glycoside linkages.

(C)  Amylopectin is a branched chain polymer of D-galactose monomer units.

(D)  Retrogradation is a process of reassociation of amylose and formation of crystalline structure by gelatinized starch upon cooling.

Answer: (A, D)

120. A sample of glucose isomerase enzyme converts 15 μmoles of substrate glucose into product fructose min1 mL1 under standard assay conditions. The enzyme activity of the glucose isomerase in International Unit (IU) is _______ (in integer).

Answer: (15 to 15)

121. If D10 for Salmonella in egg yolk is 0.75 kGy, calculate the radiation dose in kGy (rounded off to 2 decimal places) required for reducing the Salmonella count in egg yolk by 8 log cycles.

Answer: (13.00 to 14.50)

122. The average moisture binding energy of a textured protein product (TPP) at 8% moisture content (dry basis) is 3200 cal.mol-1. If the water activity of the TPP at the above moisture content is 0.30 at 30℃, the water activity of the sample at 45℃ is __________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places). The value of Gas constant R = 1.987 cal.mol1.K1.

Answer: (0.32 to 0.41)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2020

1. Three Science classes A, B and C take a Life Science test. The average score of class A is 83. The average score of class B is 76. The average score of class C is 85. The average score of classes A and B is 79 and average score of classes B and C is 81. Then, the average score of classes A, B and C is

(a)  80

(b)  80.5

(c)  81.5

(d)  81

Answer: (c)

2. In a library the ratio of story books and other books is 7 : 2 and there are 1512 story books. Due to collection of some more story books the said ratio becomes 15 : 4. The number of story books collected is

(a)  100

(b)  97

(c)  108

(d)  205

Answer: (c)

3. A and B have their monthly incomes in the ratio 8 : 5, while their monthly expenditures are in the ratio 5 : 3. If they have saved Rs. 12000 and Rs. 10000 monthly respectively, then the difference in their monthly incomes is

(a)  Rs. 52000

(b)  Rs. 46000

(c)  Rs. 44000

(d)  Rs. 42000

Answer: (d)

4. A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km in 9 h. He travelled partly on foot at the rate 4 km/h and partly on bicycle at the rate 9 km/h. The distance travelled on foot is

(a)  14 km

(b)  15 km

(c)  16 km

(d)  17 km

Answer: (c)

5. A sum of Rs. 7930 is divided into 3 parts and given on loan at 5% simple interest to A, B and C for 2 yr, 3 yr and 4 yr, respectively. If the amounts of all three are equal after their respective periods of loan, then the A received a loan of

(a)  Rs. 2760

(b)  Rs. 3050

(c)  Rs. 2800

(d)  Rs. 2750

Answer: (a)

6. A and B can do a piece of work in 30 and 36 days, respectively. They began the work together but A leaves after some days and B finished the remaining work in 25 days. After how many days did A leave?

(a)  6 days

(b)  11 days

(c)  10 days

(d)  5 days

Answer: (d)

7. From 1980-90, the population of a country was increased by 20%. From 1990-2000, the population of the country was increased by 20%. From 2000-10, the population of the country was increased by 20%. Then the overall increased population (in percentage) of the country from 1980-2010 was

(a)  60%

(b)  62.8%

(c)  72.2%

(d)  72.8%

Answer: (d)

8. If the product of two positive numbers be 1575 and their ratio is 7 : 9, then the greater number is

(a)  35

(b)  63

(c)  45

(d)  135

Answer: (c)

9. If A : B = 2 : 3 and B : C = 3 : 7, then

A + B : B + C : C + A is equal to

(a)  4 : 10 : 9

(b)  5 : 8 : 9

(c)  5 : 10 : 9

(d)  4 : 8 : 9

Answer: (c)

10. The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 21 and 84, respectively. If the ratio of the two numbers is 1 : 4, then the larger of the two numbers is

(a)  84

(b)  108

(c)  48

(d)  12

Answer: (a)

11. A sell a cycle to B at a profit of 20% and B sells it to C at a loss of 25%. If C bought the cycle for Rs. P, then the cost price of it for A was

(a)  Rs. 9/10 P

(b)  Rs. 10/9 P

(c)  Rs. 1/20P

(d)  Rs. 9/20 P

Answer: (b)

12. A number when divided by 361 gives a remainder 47. If the same number is divided by 19, then the remainder obtained is

(a)  8

(b)  1

(c)  3

(d)  9

Answer: (d)

13. If 64 buckets of water are removed from a cubical shaped water tank completely filled with water, 1/3 of the tank remains filled with water. The length of each side of the tank is 1.2 m. Assuming that all buckets are of the same measure, then the volume (in litre) of water contained by each bucket is

(a)  12

(b)  16

(c)  18

(d)  15

Answer: (c)

14. In a farm there are cows and hens. If heads are counted there are 180, if legs are counted there are 420. The number of cows in the farm is

(a)  150

(b)  30

(c)  130

(d)  50

Answer: (b)

15. If the arithmetic means of 3a and 4b is greater than 50, and a is twice of b, then the smallest possible integer value of a is

(a)  18

(b)  19

(c)  20

(d)  21

Answer: (d)

16. If the average of eight consecutive even number be 93, then the greatest number among them is

(a)  86

(b)  98

(c)  100

(d)  102

Answer: (c)

17. x can copy 80 pages in 20 h, x and y together can copy 135 pages in 27 h. Then y can copy 20 pages in

(a)  3 h

(b)  12 h

(c)  20 h

(d)  24 h

Answer: (c)

18. The average of the largest and smallest 3 digit number formed by 0, 2 and 4 would be

(a)  213

(b)  303

(c)  312

(d)  222

Answer: (c)

19. In what ratio two types of tea costing Rs. 180/kg and Rs. 280/kg should be mixed in the ratio so that the mixture obtained sold at Rs. 320/kg to earn a profit of 20% is

(a)  1 : 13

(b)  2 : 13

(c)  3 : 13      

(d)  4 : 13

Answer: (b)

20. If a person marked a product 25% above the cost price but allows 10% discount, then the percentage of profit is

(a)  15%

(b)  12.5%

(c)  35%

(d)  17.5%

Answer: (b)

21. x and Mr. y each bought the same motorcycle using a 10% off coupon. Mr. x’s cashier took 10% off the price and then added 8.5% sales tax, whereas Mr. y’s cashier first added the sales tax and then took 10% off the total price. The amount Mr. x paid is

(a)  same as the amount Mr. y paid

(b)  greater than Rs. 850 as the amount Mr. y paid

(c)  less than Rs. 550 as the amount Mr. y paid

(d)  greater than Rs. 85 as the amount Mr. y paid

Answer: (a)

22. Two workers A and B are engaged to do a piece of work A working alone would take 8 h more to complete the work than when work together. If B worked alone, would take  more than when work together. The time required to finish the work together is

(a)  4 h

(b)  6 h

(c)  5 h

(d)  8 h

Answer: (b)

23. A and B invest in the ratio 3 : 5. After 6 months, C joins the business investing an amount equal to amount of B. At the end of the year what will be the ratio of their profits?

(a)  3 : 5 : 2

(b)  3 : 5 : 5

(c)  6 : 10 : 5

(d)  8 : 10 : 5

Answer: (c)

24. If a man walks at the rate of 5 km/h, he misses a train by 7 min. However, if he walks at the rate of 6 km/h, he reaches the station 5 min before the arrival of the train. The distance covered by him to reach the station is

(a)  6 km

(b)  4 km

(c)  7 km

(d)  6.25 km

Answer: (a)

25. A dealer fixed the price of an article 40% above the cost of production. While selling it he allows a discount of 20% and makes a profit of Rs. 48. The cost of production (in Rs.) of the article is

(a)  400

(b)  360

(c)  320

(d)  420

Answer: (a)

26. Articles are marked at a price which gives a profit of 25%. After allowing a certain discount the profit reduces to  The discount per cent is

(a)

(b)  12%

(c)  10%

(d)  11.1%

Answer: (c)

27. The average age of 30 students of a class is 14 yr 4 months. After admission of 5 new students in the class the average becomes 13 yr 9 months. The youngest one of the five new students is 9 yr 11 months old. The average age of the remaining 4 new students is

(a)  13 yr 6 months

(b)  12 yr 4 months

(c)  10 yr 4 months

(d)  11 yr 4 months

Answer: (c)

28. A sum of money is paid back in two annual installments of Rs. 17640 each, allowing 5% compound interest compounded annually. The sum borrowed was

(a)  Rs. 32400

(b)  Rs. 32000

(c)  Rs. 32200

(d)  Rs. 32800

Answer: (d)

29. There is a number consisting of two digits, the digit in the unit’s place is twice that in the ten’s place and if 2 is subtracted from the sum of the digits, the difference is equal to 1/6th of the number. The number is

(a)  26

(b)  23

(c)  25

(d)  24

Answer: (d)

30. Average of n numbers is a. The first number is increased by 2, second one is increased by 4, the third one is increased by 8 and so on. The average of the new numbers is

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) In each of the following questions, out of the given alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

31. ENDORSEMENT

(a)  Reprimand

(b)  Censure

(c)  Commendation

(d)  Reproach

Answer: (c)

32. COMMEMORATE

(a)  Boast

(b)  Remember

(c)  Manipulate

(d)  Harmonise

Answer: (b)

33. WHIM

(a)  Fancy

(b)  Clumsy

(c)  Desire     

(d)  Strange behaviour

Answer: (c)

34. CANDID

(a)  Rude

(b)  Impertinent

(c)  Blunt

(d)  Frank

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) In each of the following questions, a word has been spelt in four different ways out of which only one is correct. Find the correctly spelt word.

35.

(a)  Mountaineous

(b)  Mountaneous

(c)  Mountainous

(d)  Mountanous

Answer: (c)

36.

(a)  Hindrence

(b)  Hindrane

(c)  Hinderence

(d)  Hinderance

Answer: (b)

37.

(a)  Sacrosanct

(b)  Sacrosenct

(c)  Secrosanct

(d)  Sacrosantt

Answer: (a)

38.

(a)  Palid

(b)  Pallid

(c)  Palled

(d)  Pellid

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-42) In each of the following below four sentences are given which are denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D). By using all the four sentences you have to frame a meaningful paragraph. The correct order of the sentences is your answer. Choose from the four alternatives the one having the correct order of sentences and mark it as your answer.

39. (A) Now under liberated economy they are learning to compete domestically and globally.

(B) In India corporations until recently achieved success by avoiding competition, using protected and regulated domestic markets.

(C) The trend is irreversible.

(D) Business leaders are preparing themselves to meet competitive challenges, and to avoid being swept away.

(a)  BADC

(b)  BDCA

(c)  BDAC

(d)  CDBA

Answer: (a)

40. (A) Recovery was given inadequate attention and consequently some bank branches regularly incurred heavy losses and their parent bodies had to bale them out.

(B) As a result, banks indulged in extensive lending to borrowers who had little or no potential to make repayments.

(C) To fulfill the social objectives laid down by the master of nationalization, banks were asked to lend to identified priority sectors.

(D) 1992-93 results showed that the loss making branches of public sector banks increased from 10,000 to 13,000 and the quantum of losses showed at Rs. 3,369 crores.

(a)  BACD

(b)  DABC

(c)  CBAD

(d)  BCAD

Answer: (c)

41. (A) Finally the bureaucratic organization took over from the pioneering enterprise.

(B) The nineteenth century was the age of entrepreneur, the self-made man.

(C) Thoughtful business administration took over from action-centred business

(D) In the twentieth century the rational executive took command.

(a)  DBAC

(b)  CABD

(c)  BDCA

(d)  BCDA

Answer: (c)

42. (A) He was so busy with them that he did not get time to eat.

(B) Thousands of people came to him and asked different types of questions.

(C) No one cared to see that he had his food or rest that night.

(D) Swami Vivekanand once stayed in a small village.

(a)  BCDA

(b)  CBAD

(c)  DBAC

(d)  DBCA

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-47) Each item in this section consists of sentences with an underlined word followed by four words or group of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

43. He speaks eloquently and can pull crowds.

(a)  confusingly

(b)  expressively

(c)  powerfully

(d)  fluently

Answer: (a)

44. Everyone has to fight the inertia in the system.

(a)  sluggishness

(b)  indolence

(c)  activity

(d)  torpor

Answer: (c)

45. There is a need to promote philanthropy in education.

(a)  charity

(b)  benevolence

(c)  nastiness

(d)  likeliness

Answer: (c)

46. What we lack in the current times is

(a)  empathy

(b)  carefulness

(c)  indifference

(d)  hardship

Answer: (c)

47. Tempestuous behavior would not yield much in any place.

(a)  relaxed

(b)  passionate

(c)  intense

(d)  windy

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-52) Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select the word or group you consider most appropriate for the blank space.

48. The Election Commission on Saturday …….. that the Assembly elections in five states will be held from 12th November to 7th

(a)  pronounced

(b)  announced

(c)  promulgated

(d)  issued

Answer: (b)

49. The victims were fruit vendors and they were going in an auto when they ……….. an accident on the way.

(a)  met with

(b)  ran into

(c)  experienced

(d)  heard

Answer: (a)

50. Scores of villagers are …….. a sit-in protest against the construction of a new underpass.

(a)  performing

(b)  sitting

(c)  staging

(d)  standing

Answer: (c)

51. It is common for patients to stop ………… medicine as soon as they start feeling better.

(a)  eating

(b)  gulping

(c)  swallowing

(d)  taking

Answer: (d)

52. A four-year-old girl got a new lease of life after doctors at a hospital ………… a cancerous tumour from one of her kidneys.

(a)  rejuvenated

(b)  removed

(c)  displaced

(d)  replaced

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 53-55) Choose the correct plural form of the given words.

53. Loaf

(a)  Loaves

(b)  Loafs

(c)  Loavs

(d)  Lofes

Answer: (a)

54. Spy

(a)  Spis

(b)  Spys

(c)  Spies

(d)  Spiess

Answer: (c)

55. Vertex

(a)  Vertics

(b)  Vertexs

(c)  Verticess

(d)  Vertices

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

Indian nationalism emanated from ‘traditional patriotism’, a socially active sentiment of attachment to land, language and cult, that developed in the subcontinent long before the process of westernization had begun. In India of the 18th and early 19th centuries, such sentiments were emerging on a regional basis as homeland was being defined by various terms like desh, vatan or nadu. But although regionally centred at Bengal, Maharashtra, Awadh or Mysore, their isolation broke down through various means of communication, the political legitimacy of  the Mughal empire was recognized throughout Hindustan, which was thought to be the abode of both the Hindus and the Muslims. Cultural barriers melted down through commercialization and regular pilgrimages. It burst forth through numerous acts of resistance; participated by both princes and the commoners, culminating in the Revolt of 1857. After the revolt, a modern sector of politics gradually evolved in India, through rapid spread of education, development of communication systems, such as the railways and telegraph and the emergence of a new public space created by the colonial institutions.

56. Which of the following was the result of the East India Company’s rule in India?

(a)  Good government

(b)  Consolidation of patriotic sentiments

(c)  New ethical tradition

(d)  Evangelicalism

Answer: (b)

57. Which of the following contributed most to the dissolution of cultural barriers?

(a)  Pilgrimage

(b)  Creation of Mughal Empire

(c)  Commercialization

(d)  Communication networks

Answer: (c)

58. In pre-colonial India, what did the nationalism mean?

(a)  Cultural construction of homeland

(b)  Linguistic affinity

(c)  Patriotism

(d)  Social activism

Answer: (d)

PASSAGE 2

Anxiety and conscience are a pair of powerful dynamos. Of course, I can only speak for myself between them, they have ensured that one shall work at anything worthwhile. They are blind forces which drive but do not direct. Fortunately, I have also been moved by a third motive-the wish to see and understand. Curiosity is another motive for action. It is also one of the distinctive characteristics of human nature (keep) contrasted with the natures of non-human animals.

All human beings have curiosity in some degree and we also have it about things which are of no practical use. Curiosity may be focused on anything in the universe, but the spiritual reality of the phenomenon should be the ultimate objective of all curiosity for it to be fruitful. Thanks to my mother, my approach to this ultimate objective is through the story of human affairs.

59. What is the main objective of this passage?

(a)  Distinguish between human beings and animals

(b)  Project curiosity as a potent motivating factor

(c)  Project anxiety and conscience as inadequate motivators

(d)  Motivation and spiritual reality

Answer: (b)

60. A characteristic, peculiar to human beings that is referred to, is

(a)  superior intelligence

(b)  spirit of enquiry

(c)  capacity to rationalize and analyze

(d)  ability to shift the practical from the impractical

Answer: (b)

61. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?

(a)  Animals are as curious as human beings

(b)  Curiosity is the only motive for action

(c)  People motivated by curiosity do not need other motives to guide them

(d)  People motivated by anxiety and conscience alone can be misdirected

Answer: (d)

62. According to the author

(a)  those who have little curiosity are curious about unimportant things

(b)  apart from humans no other living being have the gift of curiosity

(c)  the highest form of the curiosity can be satisfied by study of human affairs alone

(d)  spiritual reality is the ultimate goal of humans through action

Answer: (d)

63. The author subscribes to the view that

(a)  one’s curiosity should focus beyond the façade on the latent meaning of things

(b)  curiosity is an inherited family characteristic

(c)  a study of human affairs is the most effective method of satisfying one’s curiosity

(d)  in order to motivate, curiosity must be coupled with anxiety and conscience

Answer: (a)

PASSAGE 3

One simple physical concept lies behind the formation of the stars : gravitational instability. The concept is not new. Newton first perceived it late in the 17th century.

Imagine a uniform, static cloud of gas in space. Imagine then that the gas is somehow disturbed so that one small spherical region becomes a little denser than the gas around it so that the small region’s gravitational field becomes slightly stronger. It now attracts more matter to it and its gravity increases further, causing it to begin to contract. As it contracts, its density increases, which increase its gravity even more, so that it picks up even more matter and contracts even further. The process continues until the small regions of gas finally forms a gravitationally bound object.

64. The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a)  describe a static condition

(b)  support a theory considered outmoded

(c)  depict the successive stages of a phenomenon

(d)  demonstrate the evolution of the meaning of a term

Answer: (c)

65. It can be inferred from this passage that the author views the information contained within it as

(a)  lacking in elaboration

(b)  original but obscure

(c)  speculative and unprofitable

(d)  uncomplicated and traditional

Answer: (d)

66. With which of the following words can you replace the word ‘uniform’ as given in this passage?

(a)  Uniting

(b)  Varying

(c)  Gaseous

(d)  Unvarying

Answer: (d)

67. What does the word ‘It in bold type stand for in the passage?

(a)  Gravitational instability

(b)  Cloud of gas

(c)  Small spherical denser region

(d)  Matter

Answer: (c)

68. The author provides information that answers which of the following questions? Choose the correct option.

(i) What causes the disturbances that changes the cloud from its original static condition?

(ii) How does this small region’s increasing density affect its gravitational field?

(iii) What is the end result of the gradually increasing concentration of the small region of gas?

(a)  Only (i)

(b)  Only (ii)

(c)  (ii) and (iii)

(d)  All of these

Answer: (c)

PASSAGE 4

As heart disease continues to be the number one killer in the United States, researchers have become increasingly interested in identifying the potential risk factors that trigger heart attacks. High fat-diets and life in the fast lane have long been known to contribute to the high incidence of heart failure. But according to new studies, the list of risk factors may be significantly longer and quite surprising. Heart failure, e.g., appears to have seasonal and temporal patterns. A higher percentage of heart attacks occurs in cold weather and more people experience heart failure on Monday than on any other day of the week.

In addition. People are more susceptible to heart attacks in the first few hours after waking. Cardiologists first observed this morning phenomenon in the mid-1980 and have since discovered a number of possible causes. An early morning rise in blood pressure, heart rate and concentration of heart stimulating hormones, plus a reduction of blood flow to the heart, may all contribute to the higher incidence of heart attacks between the hours of 8:00 am and 10:00 am. In other studies, both birthday and bachelorhood have been implicated as risk factors.

Statistics reveal that heart attack rate increases significantly for both females and males in the few days immediately preceding and following their birthdays. And unmarried men are more at risk for heart attacks than their married counterparts. Though, stress is thought to be linked in some way to all of the aforementioned risk factors, intense research continues in the hope of future comprehending why and how heart failure is triggered.

69. What does the passage mainly discuss?

(a)  Cardiology

(b)  Diet and stress as factors in heart attacks

(c)  Seasonal and temporal patterns of heart attacks

(d)  Risk factors in heart attacks

Answer: (c)

70. The word ‘potential’ could best be replaced by which of the following?

(a)  Harmful

(b)  Possible

(c)  Unknown

(d)  Primary

Answer: (b)

71. According to the passage, which of the following is not a possible cause of morning heart attacks?

(a)  Decreased blood flow to the heart

(b)  Increased blood pressure

(c)  Lower heart rate

(d)  Increase in hormones

Answer: (c)

72. Which of the following is cited as possible risk factor?

(a)  Getting married

(b)  Rainy weather

(c)  Eating fatty foods

(d)  Driving fast

Answer: (c)

73. Which of the following does the passage infer?

(a)  We now fully understand how the risk factors trigger heart attacks.

(b)  We do not fully understand how the risk factors trigger heart attacks.

(c)  We have not identified risk factors associated with heart attacks.

(d)  We have recently begun to study how risk factors work.

Answer: (b)

74. What could be the suitable title of the passage?

(a)  Heart disease in the USA

(b)  Causes of Heart Attack

(c)  Stress

(d)  Risk of Heart attack in Humans

Answer: (b)

75. Which word can be the most opposite word of ‘unlikely’?

(a)  Susceptible

(b)  Stimulating

(c)  Implicated

(d)  Aforementioned

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Eight friends, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W and Y are sitting around a square table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the square while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones who sit at the four corners face the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face outside.

P, who faces are centre, sits third to the right of V. T, who faces the centre, is not an immediate neighbor of V. Only one person sits between V and W. S sits second to right of Q. Q faces the centre. R is not an immediate neighbor of P.

76. Who sits second to the left of Q?

(a)  V

(b)  P

(c)  T

(d)  Y

Answer: (b)

77. What is the position of T with respect to V?

(a)  Fourth to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Third to the left

(d)  Third to the right

Answer: (c)

78. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  R

(b)  W

(c)  V

(d)  S

Answer: (d)

79. Which of the following will come in place of the question mark(?) based upon the given seating arrangement?

WP TR QW RS ?

(a)  YT

(b)  VY

(c)  VQ

(d)  PY

Answer: (a)

80. Which of the following is true regarding R?

(a)  R is an immediate neighbor of V

(b)  R faces the centre

(c)  R sits exactly between T and S

(d)  Q sits third to left of R

Answer: (c)

81. In the given figure, which letter represents those Actors who are also Dancers, Singers as well as Violinists?

(a)  S

(b)  Q

(c)  P

(d)  U

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 82 and 83) In the following questions, which one of the following diagram represents the correct relationship among :

82. Lion, Fox and Carnivorous

Answer: (c)

83. Manager, Labour Union and Worker

Answer: (a)

84. In a certain code language ‘INSTITUTION’ is written as ‘NOITUTITSNI’. How will ‘PERFECTION’ is written in that language?

(a)  NOICTEFREP

(b)  NOITCEFERP

(c)  NOITCEFRPE

(d)  NOITCEFREP

Answer: (d)

85. In a certain code language ‘RELATED’ is written as ‘EFUBKDQ’, then how will ‘RETAINS’ be written in that language?

(a)  SDQBTOJ

(b)  JOTBQDS

(c)  JOTBSDQ

(d)  TOJBSDQ

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-89) In these questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

86. KNQT : LORU : : ADGJ : ?

(a)  BEHK

(b)  FHLO

(c)  DGEF

(d)  MPVW

Answer: (a)

87. DRIVEN : NEVIRD : : BEGUM : ?

(a)  MEUBG

(b)  BGMUE

(c)  EBGMU

(d)  MUGEB

Answer: (d)

88. ADIP : DGLS : : BEJQ : ?

(a)  EHMT

(b)  EJQU

(c)  CGLS

(d)  FINU

Answer: (a)

89. ACE : BDF : : CEG : ?

(a)  DEF

(b)  DFH

(c)  DEH

(d)  DFE

Answer: (b)

Direction (Q. No. 90) A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.

90. 

Answer: (c)

91. Fatima while introducing Mustafa to her husband said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is Fatima related to Mustafa?

(a)  Aunt

(b)  Sister

(c)  Niece

(d)  Mother

Answer: (b)

92. A, Q, Y and Z are different persons. Z is the father of Q. A is the daughter of Y and Y is the son of Z. If P is the son of Y and B is the brother of P, then

(a)  B and Y are brothers

(b)  A is the sister of B

(c)  Z is the uncle of B

(d)  Q and Y are brothers

Answer: (b)

93. Radhika went 50 m South from her house, then turned left and went 20 m, then turning to North she went 30 m. In which direction is her home from this point?

(a)  North

(b)  South-West

(c)  East

(d)  North-West

Answer: (d)

94. If South-East becomes North and North-East becomes West and all the rest directions are changed in the same manner, what will be the direction for the West?

(a)  North-East

(b)  South

(c)  South-East

(d)  South-West

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-97) In the following questions a statement is given, you have to assume everything to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.

Give Answer

(a) If only course of action I follows

(b) If only course of action II follows

(c) If either course of action I or II follows

(d) If both courses of action I and II follow

95. Statement Many pilgrims died in a stampede while boarding a private ferry to the holy place on the first day of the ten-day-long festival.

Course of action

(I) The Government should immediately cancel the licences of all the private ferry operators with immediate effect.

(II) The Government should deploy an. adequate number of its personnel to guide pilgrims on their journey to the holy place.

Answer: (b)

96. Statement Some students of the local college were caught travelling in the train without purchasing valid tickets.

Courses of action

(I) The parents of these students should be informed about the incident and requested to counsel their wards.

(II) These students should be put behind bars for travelling without bona fide credentials.

Answer: (a)

97. Statement A large part of the locality was flooded as the main pipe supplying drinking water burst while the workers of a utility company were laying cables in the area.

Courses of action

(I) The civic authority should immediately arrange to repair the damage and stop loss of water.

(II) The civic authority should seek an explanation and compensation from the utility company for the damage caused by them.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 98 and 99) In each of the following questions, two statements are given followed by two Conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any follow from the given statements.

98. Statements

(A) Education is a process of lighting.

(B) Mind requires light to enlighten the core of cognitive aspect.

Conclusions

(I) Education is a light which removes the darkness of mind.

(II) Education is a static process for mind.

(a)  Only Conclusion I follows

(b)  Only Conclusion II follows

(c)  Both Conclusions I and II follow

(d)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

Answer: (a)

99. Statements

(A) Best performance in Olympics fetches a gold medal.

(B) Player ‘X’ got god medal but later was found to be using a prohibited drug.

Conclusions

(I) ‘X’ should be allowed to keep the gold medal.

(II) Gold medal should be withdrawn and given to the next person.

(a)  Only Conclusion II follows

(b)  Neither Conclusion I nor II follows

(c)  Both Conclusions I and II follow

(d)  Only Conclusion I follows

Answer: (a)

100. In this question, two statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to decide which of the given conclusion(s) follow(s) from the given statements.

Statements

(A) There are monks among those who are felicitated for remarkable social service.

(B) Jitananda and Vidyananda are among those felicitated.

Conclusions

(I) Jitananda and Vidyananda did remarkable social service

(II) All monks do social service

(III) Jitananda and Vidyananda are not monks

(IV) All monks are felicitated

(a)  Only conclusion I follows

(b)  Only conclusion II follows

(c)  Only conclusion III follows

(d)  Only conclusion IV follows

Answer: (a)

101. The tagline ‘The Complete Man’ is associated with which of the following fashion brand?

(a)  Siyaram

(b)  Raymond

(c)  Zara

(d)  Allen Solly

Answer: (b)

102. Who is the current CEO of Indian fashion e-commerce company Myntra?

(a)  Amar Nagaram

(b)  Ananth Narayanan

(c)  Vineet Saxena

(d)  Mukesh Bansal

Answer: (a)

103. Which of the following retail stores belong to Aditya Birla Group?

(a)  Big Bazar

(b)  Croma

(c)  Hypercity

(d)  Pantaloons

Answer: (d)

104. RADO, the famous international wrist watch range belongs to

(a)  Switzerland

(b)  Spain

(c)  Japan

(d)  France

Answer: (a)

105. Which Indian film actress is the brand ambassador of online portal ‘Make My Trip’?

(a)  Priyanaka Chopra

(b)  Shraddha Kapoor

(c)  Alia Bhatt

(d)  Deepika Padukone

Answer: (c)

106. Which among the following dance forms belongs to Andhra Pradesh?

(a)  Sattriya

(b)  Bharatnatyam

(c)  Kathak

(d)  Kuchipudi

Answer: (d)

107. Which among the following is an Indian Brand?

(a)  Chanel

(b)  Zara

(c)  Gucci

(d)  Allen Solly

Answer: (d)

108. Who is the first female Chief Economist of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?

(a)  Kristalina Georgieva

(b)  Anshula Kant

(c)  Gita Gopinath

(d)  Rohini Pandey

Answer: (c)

109. Which state is known for its renowned Maheshwari and Chanderi Sarees?

(a)  Karnataka

(b)  Madhya Pradesh

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d)  Rajasthan

Answer: (b)

110. Which of these cities is a World Heritage city by declared by UNESCO?

(a)  Ahmedabad

(b)  Delhi

(c)  Chennai

(d)  Hyderabad

Answer: (a)

111. In which state is the Manas National Park located?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Rajasthan

(c)  Meghalaya

(d)  Manipur

Answer: (a)

112. Baggit is a well known brand which sells

(a)  bags

(b)  belts

(c)  wallets

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

113. Who became the first ever Indian to win a gold at Badminton World Championship?

(a)  PV Sindhu

(b)  Saina Nehwal

(c)  P Kashyap

(d)  Jwala Gutta

Answer: (a)

114. Where is Louis Vuitton headquarters located?

(a)  London

(b)  Milan

(c)  Paris

(d)  New York

Answer: (c)

115. Which is the world’s biggest retailer brand?

(a)  Target

(b)  Walmart  

(c)  JC Penny

(d)  Amazon

Answer: (b)

116. Which of the following desert is located in China?

(a)  Thar desert

(b)  Atacama desert

(c)  Kalahari desert

(d)  Gobi desert

Answer: (d)

117. In which year was the Lakme Fashion Week first started?

(a)  2006

(b)  2008

(c)  2000

(d)  1999

Answer: (d)

118. Which Constitutional Amendment Act gave Constitutional Status to Panchayati Raj Institutions?

(a)  73rd

(b)  74th

(c)  93rd

(d)  94th

Answer: (a)

119. Which of the following is not a member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization?

(a)  India

(b)  China

(c)  Japan

(d)  Russia

Answer: (c)

120. Retail venture ‘Big Bazar’ is owned by

(a)  Future Group

(b)  Bharti Group

(c)  Sriram Group

(d)  Rahja Group

Answer: (a)

121. Which of these river is a tributary of Ganga?

(a)  Son

(b)  Narmada

(c)  Godavari

(d)  Mahi

Answer: (a)

122. Which Indian American economist was awarded the Nobel Prize of Economics in 2019?

(a)  Kaushik Basu

(b)  Raghuram Rajan

(c)  Abhijeet Banerjee

(d)  Urjit Patel

Answer: (c)

123. Who among the following is not an Indian fashion designer?

(a)  Manish Malhotra

(b)  Rohit Bal

(c)  Ritu Kumar

(d)  Bibi Russell

Answer: (d)

124. Which city is known as the ‘Manchester’ of South India?

(a)  Cochin

(b)  Coimbatore

(c)  Calicut

(d)  Chennai

Answer: (b)

125. Little black dress was introduced by

(a)  Zara

(b)  Gucci

(c)  Prada

(d)  Coco Chanel

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 126-139) Read each case very carefully and answer the questions that follow.

CASE 1

The Chinese krait and the Chinese cobra might be the original source of the newly discovered coronavirus that has triggered an outbreak of a deadly infectious respiratory illness in China in winter 2019. The many-banded krait (Bungarus multicinctus), also known as the Taiwanese krait or the Chinese krait, is a highly venomous species of elapid snake found in much of Central and Southern China and South-East Asia.

The illness was first reported in late December 2019 in Wuhan, a major city in central China and has been rapidly spreading. Since then, sick travellers from Wuhan have infected people in China and other countries, including the United States. India, Japan, Australia, Singapore, Hong Kong.

Using samples of the virus isolated from patients, scientists in China have determined the genetic code of the virus and used microscopes to photograph it. The pathogen responsible for this pandemic is a new coronavirus. It’s in the same family of viruses as the well-known Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (SARS-CoV) and Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV), which have killed hundreds of people in the past 17 years. The World Health Organization (WHO) has named the new coronavirus 2019-nCoV.

The name of coronavirus comes from its shape, which resembles a crown or solar corona when imaged using an electron microscope. The electron microscopic image reveals the crown shape structural details for which the coronavirus was named. This image is of the Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus (MERS-CoV).

Coronavirus is transmitted through the air and primarily infects the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tract of mammals and birds. Though most of the members of the coronavirus family only cause mild flu-like symptoms during infection, SARS-CoV and MERS-CoV can infect both upper and lower airways and cause severe respiratory illness and other complications in humans. This new 2019-nCoV causes similar symptoms to SARS-CoV and MERS-CoV. People infected with these coronaviruses suffer a severe inflammatory response. Unfortunately, there is no approved vaccine or antiviral treatment available for coronavirus infection. A better understanding of the life cycle of 2019-nCoV, including the source of the virus, how it is transmitted and how it replicates are needed to both prevent and treat the disease.

126. Taiwanese Krait or the Chinese Krait, the original source of the newly discovered coronavirus, is a highly venomous species of elapid snake found in much of

(a)  Central China

(b)  Southern China

(c)  South-East Asia

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

127. Coronavirus affected sick travellers from Wuhan have infected people in China and other countries, including

(a)  Tanzania

(b)  Australia

(c)  Uganda

(d)  Congo

Answer: (b)

128. The Pathogen responsible for the pandemic of China is a new coronavirus. The WHO has named the new coronavirus 2019 as

(a)  SARS-CoV

(b)  MERS-CoV

(c)  nCoV

(d)  W-CoV

Answer: (c)

129. The electron microscopic image of the virus depicts which shape and structure of coronavirus?

(a)  Helical shape

(b)  Icosahedral shape

(c)  Prolate shape

(d)  Crown shape

Answer: (d)

130. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus and Middle East Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus can infect

(a)  upper airways

(b)  lower airways

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

CASE 2

The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel 2019 (commonly known as the Nobel Prize for economics) has been awarded to Abhijeet Banerjee, Esther Duflo and Michael Kremer “for their experimental approach to alleviating global poverty.”

Through the award, the Nobel committee recognized both the significance of development economics in the world today and the innovative approaches developed by these three economists.

Esther Duflo is only the second woman to be awarded the prize (after Elinor Ostrom in 2009). Banerjee, who is also her husband, is the third ever non-white recipient (after Arthur Lewis in 1979 and Amartya Sen in 1998).

In a recent issue of the journal ‘Nature’, Goran Hansson, head of the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences that awards the Nobel, highlighted measures to address the imbalance in gender and ethnicity among winners.

He said “we are making sure to elect women to the academy” from which the prize-awarding committees for the chemistry, physics and economics Nobels are drawn. The first woman to win the John Bates Clark Medal for top economists under 40, an important indicator of who will be awarded the economics Nobel in the future, Susan Athey, only did so in 2007.

Esther Duflo was the second winner in 2010. Since then, women winners of the Clark medal have been more frequent.

Of course, award decisions are made strictly on significance of contributions. But, based on this evidence, perhaps Athey, Amy Finkelstein (who won the medal in 2012) and Emi Nakamura (who won it in 2019) will not be far behind.

131. The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences has been awarded to

(a)  Abhijeet Banerjee

(b)  Esther Duflo

(c)  Michael Kremer

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

132. Esther Duflo is also only the second woman to be awarded the Nobel Prize in Economics after

(a)  Goran Hansson

(b)  Elinor Ostrom

(c)  Susan Athey

(d)  Emi Nakamura

Answer: (b)

133. Abhijeet Banerjee is the third ever non-white recipient of Nobel Prize for Economics after

(a)  Arthur Lewis and Amartya Sen

(b)  Goran Hansson and Amartya Sen

(c)  Elinor Ostrom and Amartya Sen

(d)  Susan Athey and Emi Nakamura

Answer: (a)

134. The first woman to win the John Bates Clark Medal for top economists under 40 is

(a)  Susan Athey

(b)  Goarn Hasson

(c)  Elinor Ostrom

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

CASE 3

In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble, he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political intrigue at court and lost the king’s favor.

After he was dismissed from service by the king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.

A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World, West of 50 degrees W longitude to Spain and all the land East of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On 20th September, 1519, Magllan set sail from Spain with five ships.

More than a year later, one of these ships was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the Southern peninsula of South America.

Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees S latitude. Magellan named this passage the ‘Strait of All Saints’, but today it is known as the “Strait of Magellan”.

One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained, crossed the meridian, now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of 1521 after 98 days in the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.

Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.

135. Which of the following century is known as ‘an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration?

(a)  17th century

(b)  18th century

(c)  16th century

(d)  15th century

Answer: (c)

136. After being dismissed from service of Portuguese king, Magellan served under which king?

(a)  Charles V of Britain

(b)  Charles V of Spain

(c)  George IV of Britain

(d)  Czar of Russia

Answer: (b)

137. The passage which was discovered by Magellan is known by which name today?

(a)  Strait of Hormuz

(b)  Strait of Gibraltar

(c)  Strait of Magellan

(d)  Strait of Charles

Answer: (c)

138. In which year, Spanish Ships crossed International Date Line

(a)  1525

(b)  1500

(c)  1498

(d)  1521

Answer: (d)

139. Under whose command, the only surviving ship returned to Spain and proved that world is round?

(a)  Ferdinand Magellan

(b)  Elcano

(c)  Christopher Columbus

(d)  John Cabot

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 140-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inferences separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage.

(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e. through not definitely true in the light of facts given.

(c) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given.

(d) If you think the inference is ‘definitely’ false’ i.e. it contradicts the given facts.

CASELET 1

Sanitation is one of the biggest problems in India. There are about 700 million people who have no access to toilets at home. Slum areas do not have toilets. People are thus forced to defecate in the open, which causes numerous diseases like diarrhoea, cholera, dehydration etc. Many rural schools also have no toilets, because of which parents do not send their kids, especially girls, to school.

Due attention was drawn towards this problem by Gandhiji but nothing much was done. A growing population is the biggest challenge causing these problems.

For example, the sewage system in Delhi was designed to meet the needs of a population of three million people. But Delhi now has more than 14 million of population. This is not just the case of Delhi; every state and region in India is the same. Though 12 million toilets claim to have been built under Swachh Bharat Abhiyan in the last five years, as per a UN report, 44% of the population continues to defecate in the open. Sanitation, solid waste management and drainage continue to pose challenges.

A ranking exercise was taken up by the Government of India called ‘Swachh Survekshan” to assess rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness and active implementation of Swachhata mission initiatives in a timely and innovative manner.

The objective of the survey is to encourage large scale citizen participation and create awareness amongst all sections of society about the importance of working together towards making towns and cities a better place to live in. Additionally, the survey also intends to foster a spirit of healthy competition among towns and cities to  improve their service delivery to citizens, towards creating cleaner cities and towns.

140. A growing population is the biggest challenge causing problems related to sanitation.

Answer: (a)

141. There is a lack of good hygiene habits and inadequacy of social support in society that made sanitation a major problem in the country.

Answer: (b)

142. Objective of ‘Swachh Survekshan Mission’ is to encourage people to go for cleanliness activities individually and neglect group activities

Answer: (d)

143. ‘Swachh Survekshan’ exercise to assess rural and urban areas for their levels of cleanliness has increased the healthy competition among states.

Answer: (a)

144. Most of the cities are doing good in terms of sanitation except few such as Delhi and Mumbai.

Answer: (c)

CASELET 2

Availability of clean cooking fuel is a major challenge for rural households in India. This deprivation is predominantly suffered by women and children as they are the most exposed to harmful effects of smoke from burning unclean fuels in the households.

In order to safeguard the health of women and children by providing them with a clean cooking fuel-LPG, the Government of India (GoI) launched (1st May, 2016) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY). The scheme aims to provide five crore deposit-free LPG connections to women belonging to Below Poverty Line (BPL) households appearing in Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC2011) and suffering with at least one deprivation.

In SECC-2011 Census survey, Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD) enumerated 24.49 crore (17.97 crore rural and 6.52 crore urban) households in the country. Out of these, 10.31 crore households {8.72 crore rural (48.53 per cent) and 1.59 crore urban (24.39 per cent)} suffered with at least one deprivation, which were identified by the GoI for release of five crore LPG connections under PMUY.

PMUY provides that an amount of Rs. 1600 per LPG connection towards security deposit for LPG Cylinder, Pressure Regulator and Installation Charges etc. would be borne by the Government as one-time financial assistance to adult women of BPL households included in the SECC-2011 and who are not already having any LPG connection in their household. It also prescribed that the Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) viz. Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) would provide an option to PMUY beneficiaries to opt for loan, if they so desire, to cover the cost of a cooking stove and first refill. EMI of loan amount would be recovered by the OMCs from the subsidy amount due to the beneficiaries on refills.

145. It was women and children who are mostly exposed due to burning of unclean fuel in household.

Answer: (a)

146. Giving gas cylinder in the name of women will strengthen their economic status in the family.

Answer: (b)

147. Though cylinder will be provided free of cost, the charges of pressure regulator and installation charges will be borne by beneficiary.

Answer: (d)

148. Putting cost of cooking stove and refill on beneficiary will become hindrace for BPLs to go for refilling of cylinders.

Answer: (b)

149. The major challenge for rural households in India is availability of cooking fuel.

Answer: (a)

150. PMUY also prescribed OMCs, IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for beneficiaries to opt for loan if they desire to cover the cost of a cooking stove and first refill.

Answer: (a)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2020 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Under Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2020

1. A company employed 200 workers to complete a certain work in 150 days. If only 1/4th of the work has been done in 50 days, then in order to complete the whole work in time, the number of additional workers to be employed was

(a)  300

(b)  200

(c)  100

(d)  600

Answer: (c)

2. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 1 km in  and upstream at the rate of 5 km in an hour. What is the speed of the boat in the still water?

(a) 

(b)  8 km/h

(c) 

(d)  4 km/h

Answer: (c)

3. The average weight of first 11 persons among 12 persons is 95 kg. The weight of 12th person is 33 kg more than the average weight of all the 12 persons. The weight of the 12th person is

(a)  128 kg

(b)  97.45 kg

(c)  128.75 kg

(d)  131 kg

Answer: (d)

4. If a man earns Rs. 2000 for his first 50 h of work in a week and is then paid one and one half times his regular hourly rate for any additional hours, then the hours must he work to make Rs. 2300 in a week is

(a)  4 h

(b)  5 h

(c)  6 h

(d)  7 h

Answer: (b)

5. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 6 h and pipe B in 8 h. If both the pipes are opened and after 2 h pipe A is closed, then how much time pipe B will take to fill the remaining tank?

Answer: (b)

6. A builder purchases 25 windows at 25% off the total price of Rs. 120000. If the builder receives an additional discount of Rs. 7500 for the purchase, then the cost of each window is

(a)  Rs. 3100

(b)  Rs. 3200

(c)  Rs. 3300

(d)  Rs. 3400

Answer: (c)

7. x does 1/4 of a job in 6 days, y completes rest of the job in 12 days. Then, x and y could complete the job together in

Answer: (a)

8. If 90 men can do a certain job in 16 days, working 12 h per day, then that part of that work which can be complete by 70 men in 24 days, working 8 h per day is

(a)  2/3

(b)  5/8

(c)  7/9

(d)  1/3

Answer: (c)

9. A profit of 12% is made when a mobile phone is sold at Rs. P and there is 4% loss when the phone is sold at Rs. Q. Then Q : P is

(a)  4 : 5

(b)  3 : 1

(c)  1 : 1

(d)  6 : 7

Answer: (d)

10. A man purchases some oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 40 and the same quantity at 5 for Rs. 60. If he sells all the oranges at the rate of 3 for Rs. 50, then find his gain or loss per cent (to the nearest integer).

(a)  31% loss

(b)  32% profit

(c)  34% loss

(d)  31% profit

Answer: (b)

11. Pooja wants to sell a watch at a profit of 20%. She bought it at 10% less and sold it at Rs. 30 less, but still she gained 20%. The cost price of watch is

(a)  Rs. 220

(b)  Rs. 225

(c)  Rs. 240

(d)  Rs. 250

Answer: (d)

12. The portion of a ditch 48 m long, 16.5 m wide and 4 m deep that can be filled with stones and earth available during excavation of a tunnel, cylindrical in shape, of diameter 4 m and length 56 m is (take π = 22/7)

(a)  1/9 part

(b)  1/4 part

(c)  2/9 part

(d)  1/2 part

Answer: (c)

13. A school group charters three identical buses and occupies 4/5 of the seats. After 1/4 of the passengers leave, the remaining passengers use only two of the buses. The fraction of the seats on the two buses that are now occupied is

(a)  7/10

(b)  9/10

(c)  8/9

(d)  7/9

Answer: (b)

14. Let x be the smallest number, which when added to 2000 makes the resulting number divisible by 12, 16, 18 and 21. The sum of the digits of x is

(a)  7

(b)  6

(c)  5

(d)  4

Answer: (a)

15. While solving a problem, by mistake, Anita squared a number and then subtracted 25 from it rather than first subtracting 25 from the number and then squaring it. But the got the right answer. What was the given number?

(a)  13

(b)  38

(c)  48

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

16. P and Q together can do a job in 6 days Q and R can finish the same job in 60/7 days. P started the work and worked for 3 days. Q and R continued for 6 days. Then, the difference of days in which R and P can complete the job, is

(a)  15

(b)  10

(c)  8

(d)  12

Answer: (b)

17. Two places P and Q are 162 km apart. A train leaves P for Q and simultaneously another train leaves Q for P. They meet at the end of 6 h. If the former train travels 8 km/h faster than the other, then speed of train from Q is

Answer: (b)

18. In an examination average marks obtained by the girls of a class is 85 and the average marks obtained by the of the same class is 87. If the girls and boys are in the ratio 4 : 5, then average marks of the whole class (approx.) is closest to

(a)  86.5

(b)  86.1

(c)  85.9

(d)  86.4

Answer: (b)

19. The price of an antique is reduced by 20% and then this price again reduced by 10%. The total reduction of the price is

(a)  30%

(b)  28%

(c)  25%

(d)  23%

Answer: (b)

20. The marked price of a tape recorder is Rs. 12600. A festival discount of 5% is allowed on it. Futher for cash payment, a second discount of 2% is given. The cash payment, is to be made for buying it, is

(a)  Rs. 11730.60

(b)  Rs. 11703.60

(c)  Rs. 11073.60

(d)  Rs. 11370.60

Answer: (a)

21. A shopkeeper sold his goods at half the list price and thus lost 20%. If he had sold on the listed price, his gain percentage would be

(a)  20%

(b)  35%

(c)  60%

(d)  72%

Answer: (c)

22. In a school there were 1554 students and the ratio of the number of the boys and girls was 4 : 3. After few days, 30 girls joined the school but few boys left, as a result the ratio of the boys and girls became 7 : 6. The number of boys who left the school is

(a)  84

(b)  76

(c)  74

(d)  86

Answer: (b)

23. The number, which can be written in the form of n(n + 1) (n + 2), where n is a natural number, is

(a)  3

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  5

Answer: (b)

24. If x can finish a job in 4 h and y can finish the same job in 8 h independently, then they together will finish the job in

(a)  160 min

(b)  150 min

(c)  140 min

(d)  120 min

Answer: (a)

25. In a partnership business, B’s capital was half of A’s. If after 8 months, B withdrew half of his capital and after 2 months more A withdrew one-fourth of his capital, then the profit ratio of A and B will be

(a)  10 : 23

(b)  23 : 10

(c)  5 : 2

(d)  2 : 5

Answer: (b)

26. A car covers four successive 7 km distances at speeds of 10 km/h, 20 km/h, 30 km/h, 60 km/h, respectively. Its average speed over this distance is

(a)  40 km/h

(b)  20 km/h

(c)  30 km/h

(d)  60 km/h

Answer: (b)

27. If a hemisphere is melted and four spheres of equal volume are made, then the radius of each sphere will be equal to

(a)  1/4th of the radius of the hemisphere

(b)  radius of the hemisphere

(c)  1/2 of the radius of the hemisphere

(d)  1/6th of the radius of the hemisphere

Answer: (c)

28. The average of six numbers is 3.95. The average of two of them is 3.4, while the average of the other two is 3.85. The average of the remaining two numbers is

(a)  4.5

(b)  4.7

(c)  4.6

(d)  4.8

Answer: (c)

29. If (x3 – y3) : (x2 + xy + y2) = 5 : 1 and (x2 – y2) : (x – y) = 7 : 1, then the ratio 2x : 3y equals

(a)  3 : 2

(b)  4 : 1

(c)  2 : 3

(d)  4 : 3

Answer: (b)

30. A manufacturer fixes his selling price at 33% over the cost of production. If cost of production goes up by 12% and manufacturer raises his selling price by 10%, his percentage profit is

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given (underlined) followed by some alternatives. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/proverb.

31. There is no cut and dried formula for success in life.

(a)  guaranteed

(b)  readymade form

(c)  compulsory

(d)  undefined

Answer: (b)

32. Meena is not highly qualified but she has the gift of the gab.

(a)  loves to gossip

(b)  speaks irrationally

(c)  art of speaking

(d)  constantly talk out of context

Answer: (c)

33. Rahul proved to be a fair-weather friend to Abhishek as he refused to support him in hard times.

(a)  a selfish friend

(b)  a faithful friend

(c)  a man of good heart

(d)  a man of wisdom

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with correct spelling.

34.

(a)  Enterprenuer

(b)  Enterepraneur

(c)  Entrapreneur

(d)  Entrepreneur

Answer: (d)

35.

(a)  Itinarary

(b)  Itenerary

(c)  Itinerary

(d)  Itinarery

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the following questions, choose the wrongly spelt word.

36.

(a)  Conceit

(b)  Deceit

(c)  Receive

(d)  Percieve

Answer: (d)

37.

(a)  Coupious

(b)  Cautious

(c)  Captious 

(d)  Capricious

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form of the given word.

38. Phenomena

(a)  Phenomen

(b)  Phenomenal

(c)  Phenomenon

(d)  Phenomenas

Answer: (c)

39. Strata

(a)  Stratum

(b)  Stratas

(c)  Stratal

(d)  Strati

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) From among the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form of the given word.

40. Medium

(a)  Mediums

(b)  Media

(c)  Medias

(d)  Mediumies

Answer: (b)

41. Crisis

(a)  Crisisess

(b)  Crisises

(c)  Crisies

(d)  Crises

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) in each of these question, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. His boss’ criticism left him feeling rather

(a)  annoyed

(b)  arrogant

(c)  embarrassed

(d)  awakened

Answer: (c)

43. He wrote a scathing review of the prize winning novel.

(a)  biased

(b)  scornful

(c)  unbalanced

(d)  subjective

Answer: (b)

44. Even the most careful researcher cannot predict the possible future ramifications of his findings.

(a)  consequences

(b)  developments

(c)  uses

(d)  conclusions

Answer: (a)

45. After he came back from his evening walk, he felt famished.

(a)  exhausted

(b)  peevish

(c)  relaxed

(d)  hungry

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.

46. I swam …….. the lake.

(a)  in

(b)  into

(c)  at

(d)  on

Answer: (a)

47. He lives ……. 48, MG Road.

(a)  in

(b)  at

(c)  on

(d)  for

Answer: (b)

48. Nobody …….. that he is innocent.

(a)  is believing

(b)  believes

(c)  believe

(d)  believed

Answer: (b)

49. Mother ……… busy cooking for the guests who are arriving in the evening.

(a)  was

(b)  has

(c)  had been

(d)  has been

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the underlined word.

50. He has a passion for indigenous

(a)  native

(b)  foreign

(c)  silly

(d)  cheap

Answer: (b)

51. The leader was pragmatic in his approach to the problems faced by the country.

(a)  indefinite

(b)  vague

(c)  idealistic

(d)  optimistic

Answer: (c)

52. That was dauntless

(a)  cowardly

(b)  secret

(c)  subtle

(d)  devious

Answer: (a)

53. It is obligatory for a common citizen to follow the rules.

(a)  advisable

(b)  unnecessary

(c)  superfluous

(d)  optional

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substituted for the given phrase/sentence.

54. Giving undue favours to one’s own kith and kin.

(a)  Favouritism

(b)  Nepotism

(c)  Corruption

(d)  Worldliness

Answer: (b)

55. That cannot be corrected

(a)  Invulnerable

(b)  Hardened

(c)  Incurable

(d)  Incorrigible

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

“The history of science is the real history of mankind.” In this striking epigram, a nineteenth century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war.

Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at man’s convenience. Yet, we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening  years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by International conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie somewhere else?

56. The sentence “The history of science is the real history of mankind” means

(a)  science has given man countless opportunities for improvement.

(b)  science and mankind cannot always be divorced.

(c)  mankind has progressed as science has developed.

(d)  the good and bad uses of science reflect the character of man.

Answer: (d)

57. The epigram given in the passage highlights

(a)  the evolution of science

(b)  the real history of man

(c)  the contrast between science and civilization

(d)  an elusive truth about human nature

Answer: (d)

58. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science

(a)  has made war horrible

(b)  is beneficial to man

(c)  is what man has made it

(d)  has created international conflicts

Answer: (c)

59. The writer implies that international conflict is the result of

(a)  faulty relations between nations

(b)  human weaknesses

(c)  invention of deadly weapons

(d)  progress of science

Answer: (b)

60. The last sentence of the passage suggests that

(a)  civilization could prosper well without scientific inventions.

(b)  the trouble lies with human beings themselves.

(c)  people have missed opportunities to improve themselves.

(d)  the horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science.    

Answer: (b)

PASSAGE 2

There is more than a modicum of truth in the assertion that “a working knowledge of ancient history is necessary to the intelligent interpretation of current events”. But the sage who uttered these words of wisdom might well have added something on the benefits of studying, particularly, the famous battles of history for the lessons they contain for those of us who lead or aspire for leadership.

Such a study will reveal certain qualities and attributes which enabled the winners to win, and certain deficiencies which caused the losers to lose. And the student will see that the same pattern recur consistently, again and again, throughout the centuries.

61. The expression ‘more than a modicum of truth’ means

(a)  nothing but truth

(b)  some truth

(c)  much truth

(d)  more than a small amount of truth

Answer: (d)

62. In this context, ‘intelligent interpretation of current events’ means

(a)  skillful interpretation of events

(b)  intellectual outlook on events

(c)  appropriate understanding of events

(d)  rational explanation of events

Answer: (d)

63. According to the writer, a study of the famous battles of history would

(a)  provide food to modern leaders for reflection.

(b)  be beneficial to wise man.

(c)  help us understand the art of human warfare.

(d)  be more useful than a general knowledge of ancient history.

Answer: (a)

64. A person who aspires to lead could learn from the history of battles

(a)  the qualities and deficiencies of commanders of these battles.

(b)  what led the previous leaders win battle.

(c)  what made them lose a battle.

(d)  the strategies they evolved in course of these battles.

Answer: (a)

65. A knowledge of history is necessary to interpret current problems because

(a)  they may be repetitions of past events.

(b)  only then they can be put in a proper context.

(c)  they have roots in the past.

(d)  they can be contrasted with the past events.

Answer: (a)

PASSAGE 3

No one knows when or by whom rockets were invented. In all probability the rocket was not suddenly invented but evolved gradually over a long period of time. Perhaps in different parts of the world at the same time. Some historians of rocketry; notably Willy Ley, trace the development of rocket to the 13th century China, a land noted in ancient times for its firework display.

In the year AD 1232, when the Mongols laid siege to the city of Kai-Feng Fu, the capital of Homan province, the Chinese defenders used weapons that were described as ‘arrows of flying fire’.

There is no explicit statement that these arrows were rockets, but some students have concluded that they were because the record does not mention bows or other means of shooting the arrows.

In the same battle, we read the defenders dropped from the walls of the city a kind of bomb described as ‘heaven-shaking thunder’. From these meager references, some students have concluded that the Chinese, by the year 1232, had discovered gun powder and had learned to use it to make explosive bombs as well as propulsive charge for rockets.

66. The passage gives, primarily, a history of

(a)  the bravery of the Chinese

(b)  the invention of rockets

(c)  the attack on China by the Mongols

(d)  the battle against the Chinese wall

Answer: (b)

67. According to this passage, rockets were invented by

(a)  Willy Ley

(b)  unknown people

(c)  the Mongols

(d)  the ruler of Honan province

Answer: (b)

68. According to this passage, rockets were

(a)  a gift of God to the Chinese

(b)  invented in the twentieth century

(c)  invented in AD 1232

(d)  developed over many centuries

Answer: (d)

69. The phrase ‘arrows of flying fire’

(a)  means some ancient phenomenon in the skies

(b)  refers to lightning and thunder

(c)  is another name for rockets

(d)  is assumed to refer to rockets

Answer: (d)

70. The bombs have been referred to as ‘heaven shaking thunder’ because they

(a)  contain gunpowder

(b)  make thunderous noise

(c)  are propelled by rockets

(d)  seem to fall from heaven

Answer: (b)

PASSAGE 4

When we pick up a newspaper, a book or an article we come to our task with certain preconceptions and predispositions. We expect to find a specific piece of information or be presented with an argument or an analysis of something, say, the likelihood of recession in the next six months or the reasons why children can’t read. We probably know a little about the book or article we are reading even before we start. There was, after all, some reason why we chose to read one piece of writing rather than another.

Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us to what the article and its author is actually saying. If, for example, we are used to disagreeing with the author, we may see only what we expect to see and not what is actually there. Day after day in our routine pattern of life we expose ourselves to same newspaper, the same magazine, even books by authors with the same perspectives. In order to reflect on our reading habits and improve our skills we need to break out of this routine, step back and look at what we are doing when we read.

71. According to the author, which one of the following statements is not true?

(a)  Reader’s preconceptions influence their reading.

(b)  Readers have expectations when they read an article or a book.

(c)  Readers look for specific information in any of their readings.

(d)  Readers assume that everything they read will have new information.

Answer: (d)

72. Our expectations and predispositions may, however, blind us because

(a)  we may not get the actual ideas of the author.

(b)  we will get the actual ideas of the author.

(c)  we may disagree with the author.

(d)  we will agree with all the ideas of the author.

Answer: (a)

73. One of the ways to improve our reading habits is to

(a)  break the routine by changing the time of reading.

(b)  change the types of topics we read.

(c)  break the routine of reading the same newspaper.

(d)  stop reading for some time and then restart reading.

Answer: (d)

74. Which quality does the author here advocate, to be a good reader?

(a)  Being objective to the ideas of the author.

(b)  Having preconceptions and predispositions.

(c)  Having continuous routines.

(d)  Disagreeing with the author.

Answer: (a)

75. Which word the passage means ‘viewpoints’?

(a)  Preconceptions

(b)  Predispositions

(c)  Pattern

(d)  Perspectives

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following.

Give Answer

(a) If (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(c) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) If (A) is false but (R) true

76. Assertion (A) India celebrates its Independence day on 15th

Reason (R) India became independent on 15th August, 1947.

Answer: (c)

77. Assertion (A) Silver is not used to make wires.

Reason (R) Silver is a bad conductor.

Answer: (a)

78. Assertion (A) In India, people elect their own representatives.

Reason (R) India is a democratic country .

Answer: (c)

79. Assertion (A) A body weighs less when immersed in water.

Reason (R) Newton’s law explains the above phenomenon.

Answer: (a)

80. Assertion (A) The steam engine was invented by James Watt.

Reason (R) There was a problem of taking out water from flooded mines.

Answer: (c)

81. In a certain code language ‘KAMLESH’ is written as ‘GUJLMCO’, then how will ‘NATURAL’ be written in the language?

(a)  TCNUPCV

(b)  TCOUPVC

(c)  TCUOPVC

(d)  TCOUVCP

Answer: (a)

82. The time on the watch is 9 : 15 and the hour hand points towards West. The direction of the minute hand is

(a)  North

(b)  South

(c)  East

(d)  West

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) In the following questions, select the related letters from the given alternatives.

83. ? : ALKLO :: WOULD : TLRIA

(a)  BLOCK

(b)  DONOR

(c)  CONES

(d)  BARGE

Answer: (b)

84. BEAK : ORNX :: FILM : ?

(a)  RUXY

(b)  MLIF

(c)  SVYZ

(d)  URON

Answer: (c)

85. AB : ZY :: CD : ?

(a)  WX

(b)  UV

(c)  XW

(d)  VU

Answer: (c)

86. Complete the following series by choosing the correct term.

ABC, PQR, DEF, STU, ?

(a)  VWX

(b)  GHI

(c)  IJK

(d)  GKL

Answer: (b)

87. If WOOD is coded as 23|225|4, then MEET is coded as

(a)  13|5|5|20

(b)  13|10|20

(c)  13|25|20

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

88. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the alphabetical series.

W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?

(a)  Z, V

(b)  X, U

(c)  Y, U

(d)  Y, V

Answer: (c)

89. City C is to the South of city B and city A is to the North of city C. In which direction city A is located in respect of city B?

(a)  North

(b)  South

(c)  East

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

90. Surbhi ranks 18th in a class of 49 students. What is her rank from the last?

(a)  31

(b)  28

(c)  35

(d)  32

Answer: (d)

91. There are 35 students in a class. Suman ranks third among the girls in the class. Amit ranks 5th among the boys in the class. Suman is one rank below Amit in the class. No, two students hold the same rank in the class. What is Amit’s rank in the class?

(a)  7th

(b)  5th

(c)  8th

(d)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (a)

92. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 7, 12, 21, 38, ?

(a)  75

(b)  71

(c)  78

(d)  77

Answer: (b)

93. What comes in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

4, 6, 16, 62, 308, ?

(a)  990

(b)  1721

(c)  698

(d)  1846

Answer: (d)

94. If A is B’s sister, C is B’s mother, D is C’s father and E is D’s mother, then how is A related to D?

(a)  Granddaughter

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Aunt

(d)  Father

Answer: (a)

95. Rajesh is the brother of Ankit. Shano is the sister of Shubham. Ankit is the son of Shano. How is Rajesh related to Shano?

(a)  Father

(b)  Brother

(c)  Son

(d)  Nephew

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-98) In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statements and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give Answer

(a) if only Assumption I is implicit

(b) if only Assumption II is implicit

(c) if either Assumption I or II is implicit

(d) if both Assumption I and II are implicit

96. Statement The driver of the huge truck pulled the emergency brakes to avoid hitting the auto rickshaw which suddenly came in front of the truck.

Assumptions

(I) The auto rickshaw driver may be able to steer his vehicle away from the oncoming truck.

(II) The truck driver may be able to stop the truck before it hits the auto rickshaw.

Answer: (b)

97. Statement The doctor warned the patient against any further consumption of alcohol if he desired to get cured from the ailment and live a longer life.

Assumptions

(I) The patient may follow the doctor’s advice and stop consuming alcohol.

(II) The doctor may be able to cure the patient from the ailment if the patient stops consuming alcohol.

Answer: (d)

98. Statement The Chairman of the company urged all the employees to refrain from making long personal calls during working hours in order to boost productivity.

Assumptions

(I) Majority of the employees may respond positively to the Chairman’s appeal.

(II) Most of the employees may continue to make long personal calls during working hours.

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 99 and 100) In these questions, identify the diagram that represents the best relationship among classes given below.

99. Women, Sisters and Wives

Answer: (a)

100. Pulses, Redgram, Moongdal

Answer: (a)

101. Myntra, the popular fashion e-commerce platform is an entity of which company?

(a)  Amazon

(b)  Flipkart

(c)  Snapdeal

(d)  Google

Answer: (b)

102. Which among the following brands is not an Indian brand?

(a)  Allen Solly

(b)  Da Milano

(c)  Monte Carlo

(d)  Steve Madden

Answer: (d)

103. ‘Carat Lane’, the biggest online jewellery company in India is associated with which brand?

(a)  Kalyan

(b)  Malabar Gold

(c)  Tanishq

(d)  PC Jewellers

Answer: (c)

104. The brand ‘ZARA’ is associated with which country?

(a)  India

(b)  France

(c)  England

(d)  Spain

Answer: (d)

105. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

Answer: (c)

106. Who among the following is the brand ambassador of Men’s clothing brand “Wrogn’?

(a)  Hritik Roshan

(b)  Virat Kohli

(c)  Ranveer Singh

(d)  Rohit Sharma

Answer: (b)

107. ‘Your Style, Your Store’ is the tag line of which of the following retail chains?

(a)  Lifestyle

(b)  Pantaloons

(c)  Landmark

(d)  Shoppers shop

Answer: (a)

108. Peter England, one of India’s premium Men’s wear brands, belongs to which group?

(a)  Reliance Industries

(b)  Aditya Birla Group

(c)  Tata Group

(d)  Adani Group

Answer: (b)

109. Nike, a popular fashion and sportswear brand belongs to which country?

(a)  USA

(b)  UK

(c)  Japan

(d)  Spain

Answer: (a)

110. Mirabai Chanu is a famous Indian sportsperson of

(a)  Hockey

(b)  Boxing

(c)  Weightlifting

(d)  Badminton

Answer: (c)

111. What type of fabric is Calico?

(a)  Silk

(b)  Cotton

(c)  Linen

(d)  Wool

Answer: (b)

112. Who was won the Australian open Tennis Title 2020 in the men’s category?

(a)  Rafael Nadal

(b)  Novak Djokovic

(c)  Roger Federer

(d)  Dominic Thiem

Answer: (b)

113. Lakme Fashion week winter festive 2019 took place at

(a)  Bangaluru

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Delhi

(d)  Pune

Answer: (b)

114. Which of the following is a West flowing river?

(a)  Godavari

(b)  Kaveri

(c)  Son

(d)  Narmada

Answer: (d)

115. Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in which of the following states?

(a)  Maharashtra

(b)  Uttar Pradesh

(c)  Rajasthan

(d)  Tamil Nadu

Answer: (c)

116. Where is the headquarter of World Trade Organization located?

(a)  Vienna

(b)  Geneva

(c)  New York

(d)  Philippines

Answer: (b)

117. Who was sworn in as the Prime Minister of Great Britain in July 2019?

(a)  Theresa May

(b)  Tony Blair

(c)  Boris Johnson

(d)  Bonar Law

Answer: (c)

118. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Rights?

(a)  III

(b)  IV

(c)  IV A

(d)  II

Answer: (a)

119. Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is celebrated to commemorate the return of whom to India?

(a)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(b)  Mahatma Gandhi

(c)  Rakesh Sharma

(d)  Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (b)

120. Which of the following Union Territories are recently merged with Daman and Diu?

(a)  Dadar and Nagar Haveli

(b)  Andaman and Nicobar island

(c)  Lakshadweep

(d)  Chandigarh

Answer: (a)

121. Which is the first Design School in India?

(a)  NID

(b)  NIFT

(c)  IDC

(d)  SID

Answer: (a)

122. Which country is known as the ‘Land of the Rising Sun’?

(a)  Norway

(b)  Australia

(c)  Japan

(d)  Mexico

Answer: (c)

123. The 2024, Olympic Games are scheduled to be held in

(a)  Tokyo

(b)  Paris

(c)  Los Angles

(d)  Shanghai

Answer: (b)

124. Van Heusen is a leading international brand of

(a)  Cars

(b)  Bikes

(c)  Clothing

(d)  Sports accessories

Answer: (c)

125. Who was awarded the 2019 Ramon Magsaysay award for journalism?

(a)  Ravish Kumar

(b)  Bhavesh Kumar

(c)  Abhisar Sharma

(d)  Vinod Dua

Answer: (a)

CASE 1

Nike used factory scraps and recycled “space waste  yarn” to create the Space Hippie sneakers in an experimental project to reduce the carbon impact of its products. Each of the four different designs in the collection – named Space Hippie 01, 02, 03 and 04 – are made from scrap material taken from Nike’s factory floors. Which the brand has named “space junk”, and other recycled materials. The result is the creation of Nike footwear with Nike’s lowest carbon footprint scores ever. Nike said the shoe is a first step towards employing the process of the circular economy, which aims to eliminate waste and pollution from manufacturing. The upper part of Space Hippie is knitted from what Nike calls “space waster yarn”. This is made from 100 per cent recycled material including plastic water bottles, T-shirts and textile scraps.

When combined with other design elements, Nike claims the shoe upper consists of a total of 90 per cent recycled content. It redesigned this lightweight foam in a manner that uses around half the carbon dioxide equivalent as compared to normal Nike foams. The outsole part of each shoe in the Space Hippie collection is built from “crater foam”, made from a mixture of standard Nike foams and 15 per cent recycled waste rubber that has been ground down into granules, which Nike has branded as Nike Grind.

126. Nike has used recycled materials to create the space hippie sneakers for which purpose?

(a)  To change its product strategy

(b)  To reduce carbon impact

(c)  To support waste collectors

(d)  To create new designs

Answer: (b)

127. According to Nike, the space hippie sneakers are the first step towards

(a)  A clean environment

(b)  A circular economy

(c)  A sustainable ecosystem

(d)  A new brand to be launched by Nike

Answer: (b)

128. The outsole part of the Nike sneakers is built from which foam?

(a)  Space waste foam

(b)  Crater foam

(c)  Rubber foam

(d)  Junk foam

Answer: (b)

129. The space waste yarn used by Nike is

(a)  waste collected from outer space

(b)  waste collected from waste collectors

(c)  waste from Nike’s factories

(d)  waste from other brands

Answer: (c)

130. The Recycled waste rubber used by Nike in their sneakers, has been named as

(a)  Nike waste

(b)  Nike granules

(c)  Nike rubber

(d)  Nike grind

Answer: (d)

CASE 2

Swedish fast-fashion major H and M has announced its first global collaboration with celebrated Indian couture and jewellery designer Sabyasachi Mukherjee. The new collection will be sold under the label Wanderlust. The collection will be out on 16th April, 2020. The high-end Indian designer wants to make the designs accessible to a larger set of people, both in India and worldwide.

The Sabyasachi plus H and M collection will be offering clothes for both ladies and men, including accessories and will give a modern twist to its inspiration-Indian textile, craft and history. Taking cues from India’s rich textile, craft and history, the collection mixes modern and traditional silhouettes with a tilt towards athleisure and glamping. A key highlight of this collection will be Indian textile and print traditions made by the Sabyasachi Art Foundation, meticulously crafted, embroidery and multicultural silhouettes. The collection will be available at all H and M stores in India as well as selected H and M flagship stores around the world, and online on HM.com and Myntra.

Sabyasachi has previously collaborated with various international luxury designers and brands such as KarI Lagerfeld, Christian Louboutin, Pottery Barn, Balmain and Versace.

131. Sabyasachi has collaborated with H and M, which is based in which of these countries

(a)  Norway

(b)  Australia

(c)  Sweden

(d)  India

Answer: (c)

132. Under the collaboration of Sabyasachi and H and M, their new product range will be known as

(a)  Global star

(b)  Cosmos  

(c)  Korona

(d)  Wanderlust

Answer: (d)

133. The Sabyasachi and H and M collection will offer which of these products

(a)  Ladies clothes

(b)  Men clothes

(c)  Accessories

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

134. Apart from HM.com, which other online portal would sell the products of their collaboration?

(a)  Flipkart

(b)  e-bay

(c)  Myntra

(d)  Amazon

Answer: (c)

135. The aim of Sabyasachi and H and M collaboration is

(a)  Mixing Indian and Western culture

(b)  Showing traditional arts of India

(c)  Giving an old glance to its products

(d)  Making designs accessible to larger set of people

Answer: (d)

CASE 3

Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan tied to sustainability targets. Prada has signed a £42.9 million loan with banking group Credit Agricole, with repayment terms conditional to meeting key targets around the sustainability of its products and operations. Prada’s interest payments on the five-year loan will be determined annually based on whether the company has hit three specific objectives.

The first focuses on its physical shops, setting out that a certain number of them need to be certified gold or platinum according to the green-building rating system, Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED). This evaluates everything from the design and construction of a building to its management and the extent to which it uses resources and produces waste. The other targets are related to the amount of training hours given to employees, and reinforce a pledge made by Prada earlier this year which involves phasing out the use of virgin nylon by 2021.

According to Prada’s chief financial officer Alessandra Cozzani, linking more sustainable business practices to concrete financial rewards is an attempt to engrain these values into the very functioning of the company.

This transaction demonstrates that sustainability is a key element for the development of the Prada Group. Beyond substituting nylon, Prada has also gone fur-free, switching to faux fur, although these are often made of plastic.

136. Prada has become the first luxury brand to sign a loan that is tied to its

(a)  economic performance

(b)  sustainability targets

(c)  stocks in markets

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

137. Prada has to design its shops to meet the sustainability targets according to which rating system?

(a)  BIS

(b)  LEED

(c)  ISO

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

138. Prada has promised to phase out virgin nylon by which year?

(a)  2020

(b)  2021

(c)  2025

(d)  2050

Answer: (b)

139. According to Prada, what is the purpose of linking the sustainable practices to financial rewards?

(a)  To save the environment

(b)  To achieve the sustainable development

(c)  The engrain sustainable values in functioning of the company

(d)  To develop Prada Group

Answer: (c)

140. Apart from substitution of the Nylon, Prada has also eliminated which of the following elements from its processes?

(a)  Wool

(b)  Cotton

(c)  Plastic

(d)  Fur

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In each of these questions, a passage is followed by several inferences. You  have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and secede upon its degree of truth or falsity.

(a) If the inference is definitely true i.e. it directly follows from the facts given the passage.

(b) If the inference is probably true i.e. though not definitely true in the light of facts given

(c) If the inference is probably false i.e. though not definitely false in the light of facts given

(d) If the inference is definitely false i.e. it contradicts the facts given.

CASELET 1

In India, the proportion of women in paid work is among the lowest in the world, at just over 23% – a figure which contrasts sharply with the corresponding rate of over 78% for  men. Opportunities for women to enter employment in the country are limited by a range of factors. These include a dominant tradition of female domestic responsibility, and a prevailing social patriarchy.

Deeply entrenched cultural expectations mean that women are more likely to stay at home. And when they do work, it is mainly on an informal basis, without the luxury of secured wages and contracts.

Against this backdrop, the idea of female entrepreneurship in India faces major challenges. Setting up a business can require significant efforts outside of normal work times, and can lead to women being perceived as irresponsible if they dedicate time to entrepreneurial activities.

But the scenario is still changing. Improved access to social media, education, and social enterprises are all contributing to change.

These are giving momentum to the aspirations of women entrepreneurs in India. Their stories will hopefully inspire women entrepreneurs from around the world, while encouraging policy makers to create avenues that support their aspirations.

141. In India, the proportion of women in paid work is just 23% as compared to 78% for men.

Answer: (a)

142. The women have low participation rate in paid work as they do not have necessary skill set.

Answer: (d)

143. A large number of women are employed in the informal sector of the economy that do not provide regular wages.

Answer: (b)

CASELET 2

In the wake of the recent brutal murder of a  young woman in Hyderabad, much of the public discourse on the subject has been confined to outrage, policing, punishment and tougher laws. All this sound and fury suggest that few really want to address the basic flaws in our culture that breed male violence against women.

Holding up a mirror to ourselves can be a painful exercise as it is safer to vent against the government of the day, lack of law enforcement personnel and unutilized budget allocations for women’s safety programmes.

Deep-rooted social prejudice against women reflects in India’s adverse sex ratio, particularly in the age group 0-6. Families prefer boys: female foetus are selectively aborted, infant girls allowed to die. An official campaign of the government has been addressing this most violent form of discrimination against the female sex.

However, other egregious forms of discrimination that push women to a subordinate role in society and train men to see themselves as entitled to favourable treatment fail to get addressed. Only rigorous democratization of society can bring about sustainable improvement in the conditions of women. The sooner we realize this, the better.

144. There has been a critical discussion on the issues that affect women in the country.

Answer: (d)

145. Families prefer a boy child over a girl child and discriminate against the women.

Answer: (a)

146. The problems of women can be addressed when they get truly represented in the society.

Answer: (b)

147. There are basic flaws in the culture and society of India that are only responsible for perpetuating male violence.

Answer: (b)

CASELET 3

In the decade between 2005 and 2016, India lifted 27 crore people out of extreme poverty-more than the combined population of Congo, Uganda, Iraq, Venezuela, Australia and Italy. India more than doubled its per capita GDP moving up from being a poor country to a middle-income one. An average Indian now earns slightly more than Rs. 10,500 a month, up from around Rs. 4,000 in 2005. The numbers are flattering but deceiving. More than 36 crore Indians still cannot afford three square meals a day, which is why the World Bank continues to bracket India with Nicaragua, Honduras, Kenya and Kiribati. On an average, even people in war-torn Libya and sanctions-plagued Cuba continue to earn more than Indians.

There is another worry line for India. The Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative, which annually publishes the most authoritative index of poverty across the world, has found that the poorest among India’s poor did not increase their income as much as the other sections did. It means that the gap between the poor and the rich is widening fast. The last time the government appointed an expert committee to estimate poverty in India was seven years ago. The committee, headed by former Reserve Bank of India Governor C. Rangarajan submitted its report but the report has neither been rejected nor been released, which means that economists in India still baser their research largely on data that date back to 2012.

148. India has been able to lift almost 27 crore people out of extreme poverty.

Answer: (a)

149. India’s average per capita income has increased in the decade 2005-2016 because of reduction in its population.

Answer: (c)

150. The gap between poor and rich is widening fast because of reducing income of the poor.

Answer: (b)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2021 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2021

1. The length, breadth and height of a room are in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. If its volume be 1296 m3, find its breadth.

(a)  24 m

(b)  15 m

(c)  16 m

(d)  12 m

Answer: (d)

2. Ram and Shyam run a race of 2000 m. First, Ram gives Shyam a start of 200 m and beats him by 30 s. Next, Ram gives Shyam a start of 3 min and is beaten by 1000 m. Find the time in and is beaten by 1000 m. Find the time in minute in which Ram and Shyam can run the race separately?

(a)  8 min, 10 min,

(b)  4 min, 5 min

(c)  5 min, 9 min

(d)  6 min, 9 min

Answer: (b)

3. There is a number lock with four rings. How many attempts at the maximum would have to be made before getting the right number?

(a)  104

(b)  255

(c)  104 – 1

(d)  256

Answer: (c)

4. If the curved surface area of a cone is thrice that of another cone and slant height of the second cone is thrice that of the first, find the ratio of the area of their base.

(a)  9 : 1

(b)  81 : 1

(c)  3 : 1

(d)  27 : 1

Answer: (b)

5. Seven equal cubes each of side 5 cm are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.

(a)  750 cm2

(b)  1500 cm2

(c)  2250 cm2

(d)  700 cm2

Answer: (a)

6. 400 students took the mock test 60% of the boys and 80% of the girls cleared the cut off in the test. If the total percentage of students qualifying is 65%, how many girls appeared in the test?

(a)  100

(b)  120

(c)  150

(d)  300

Answer: (a)

7. Two fair dices are thrown. Given that, the sum of the dice is less than or equal to 4, find the probability that only one dice shows two.

(a)  1/4

(b)  1/2

(c)  2/3

(d)  1/3

Answer: (d)

8. There are 10 persons P1, P2, ….,P9, P10. Out of these 10 persons, 5 persons are to be arranged in a line such that in each arrangement P1 must occur whereas P4 and P5 do not occur. The number of such possible arrangements are

(a)  7C4 × 5!

(b)  9C5 × 5!

(c)  8C5 × 5!  

(d)  9C5 × 4!

Answer: (a)

9. In a business, A and C invested amounts in the ratio 2 : 1, whereas the ratio between amounts invested by A and B was 3 : 2. If Rs. 157300 was their profit, how much amount did B receive?

(a)  Rs. 24200

(b)  Rs. 36300

(c)  Rs. 48400

(d)  Rs. 72600

Answer: (c)

10. What will be the ratio of petrol and kerosene in the final solution formed by mixing petrol and kerosene that are present in three vessels in the ratio 4 : 1, 5 : 2 and 6 : 1, respectively?

(a)  166 : 22

(b)  83 : 22

(c)  83 : 44

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

11. A cistern contains 50 L of water. 5 L of water is taken out of it and replaced with wine. The process is repeated again. Find the proportion of wine and water in the resulting mixture.

(a)  1 : 4

(b)  41 : 50

(c)  19 : 81

(d)  81 : 19

Answer: (c)

12. A person saves 6% of his income, 2 yr later, his income shoots up by 15% but his savings remain the same. Find the hike in his expenditure (in approx.. per cent).

(a)  13.65%

(b)  12.45%

(c)  14.85%

(d)  15.95%

Answer: (d)

13. A reduction in the price of petrol by 10% enables a motorist to buy 5 gallons more for Rs. 180. Find the original price of petrol (in Rs. Per gallon).

(a)  20

(b)  30

(c)  40

(d)  50

Answer: (c)

14. A shopkeeper allows a discount of 10% on the marked price of an item but charges a sales tax of 8% on the discounted price. If the customer pays Rs. 680.40 as the price including the sales tax, then what is the marked price of the item?

(a)  Rs. 630

(b)  Rs. 700

(c)  Rs. 780

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (b)

15. Ashok borrows Rs. 1500 from two moneylenders. He pays interest at the rate of 12% per annum for one loan and at the rate of 14% per annum for the other. The total interest he pays for the entire year is Rs. 186. How much does he borrow at the rate of 12%?

(a)  Rs. 1200

(b)  Rs. 1300

(c)  Rs. 1400

(d)  Rs. 1000

Answer: (a)

16. A driver of an auto-rickshaw makes a profit of 20% on every trip when he carries three passengers and the price of petrol is Rs. 30/L. Find the percentage profit for the same journey if he goes for four passengers per trip and the price of petrol reduces Rs. 24/L? (Assume that revenue per passenger is the same in both the cases).

(a)  33.33%

(b)  65.66%

(c)  100%

(d)  Data inadequate

Answer: (c)

17. After receiving two successive rises, Ajitha’s salary became equal to 15/8 times of her initial salary. By how much per cent was the salary rised the first time if the second rise was twice as high (in per cent) as the first?

(a)  15

(b)  20

(c)  25

(d)  30

Answer: (d)

18. Find the principal if compound interest is charged on the principal at the rate of  per annum for two years and the sum becomes Rs. 196.

(a)  Rs. 140

(b)  Rs. 154

(c)  Rs. 150

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

19. A tank of 4800 m3 capacity is full of water . The discharging capacity of the pump is 10 m3/min higher than its filling capacity. As a result the pump needs 16 min less to discharge the fuel, then to fill up the tank. Find the filling capacity of the pump.

(a)  50 m3/min

(b)  25 m3/min

(c)  55 m3/min

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

20. Divide Rs. 6000 into two parts, so that simple interest on the first part for 2 yr at 6% per annum may be equal to the simple interest on the second part for 3 yr at 8% per annum?

(a)  Rs. 4000, Rs. 2000

(b)  Rs. 5000, Rs. 1000

(c)  Rs. 3000, Rs. 3000

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

21. A part of Rs. 38800 is lent out at 6% per six months. The rest of the amount is lent out at 5% per annum after 1 yr. The ratio of interest after 3 yr from the time when first amount was lent out is 5 : 4. Find the second part that was lent out at 5%.

(a)  Rs. 26600

(b)  Rs. 28800

(c)  Rs. 7500

(d)  Rs. 28000

Answer: (b)

22. A person draws a card from a pack of 52, replaces it and shuffles it. He continues doing it until he draws a heart. What is the probability that he has to make 3 trials?

(a)  9/64

(b)  3/64

(c)  5/64

(d)  1/64

Answer: (a)

23. The cost of manufacture of an article is made up of four components A, B, C and D which have a ratio of 3 : 4 : 5 : 6, respectively. If there are respective changes in the cost of +10%, −20%, −30% and +40%, then what would be the percentage change in the cost?

(a)  2.22%

(b)  1.80%

(c)  3.28%

(d)  0.95%

Answer: (a)

24. A railway passenger counts the telegraph poles on the rail road as he passes them. The telegraph poles are at a distance of 50 m. What will be his count in 4 h, if the speed of the train is 45 km/h?

(a)  600

(b)  2500

(c)  3600

(d)  5000

Answer: (c)

25. In a zoo, there are healthy deers and ducks. If the heads are counted, there are 180, while the legs are 448. What will be the number of deers in the zoo?

(a)  156

(b)  68

(c)  22

(d)  44

Answer: (d)

26. Aditi bought an article and spent Rs. 110 on its repairs. She then sold it to Samir at a profit of 20%. Samir sold it to Vikas at a lost of 10%. Vikas finally sold it for Rs. 1188 at a profit of 10%. How much did Aditi pay for the article?

(a)  Rs. 890

(b)  Rs. 1000

(c)  Rs. 780

(d)  Rs. 840

Answer: (a)

27. Mukesh borrows a certain sum of money from the ABC Bank at 10% per annum at compound interest. The entire debt is discharged in full by Mukesh on payment of two equal amounts of Rs. 1000 each, one at the end of the first year and the other at the end of the second year. What is the approximate value of the amount borrowed by him?

(a)  Rs. 1852

(b)  Rs. 1694

(c)  Rs. 1736

(d)  Rs. 1792

Answer: (c)

28. After selling a watch, Sultan found that he had made a loss of 10%. He also found that had he sold it for Rs. 27 more, he would have made a profit of 5%. The actual initial loss was what percentage of the profit earned, had he sold the watch for a 5% profit?

(a)  23%

(b)  150%

(c)  180%

(d)  200%

Answer: (d)

29. A cistern is normally filled in 6 h but takes 4 h longer to fill because of a leak in its bottom. If the cistern is full, the leak will empty it in how much time?

(a)  20 h

(b)  15 h

(c)  23 h

(d)  17 h

Answer: (b)

30. A and B completed a work together in 5 days. Had A worked at twice the speed and B at half the speed, it would have taken them 4 days to complete the job. How much time would A alone take to do the work?

(a)  10 days

(b)  20 days

(c)  15 days

(d)  25 days

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-33) In each of the following questions, an idiomatic expression/proverb has been given followed by some alternatives. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given bold idiom/proverb.

31. Don’t mix with the bad hats.

(a)  people of bad character

(b)  people selling bad hats

(c)  people of poor status

(d)  people with bad hats

Answer: (a)

32. The scientist worked for donkey’s years to arrive at the formula.

(a)  a short time

(b)  for donkeys

(c)  for few years

(d)  a long time

Answer: (d)

33. The President gave away the prizes to the winners.

(a)  released

(b)  gave back

(c)  distributed

(d)  let go

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 34 and 35) In each of the questions below, only one among the given alternatives is correctly spelt. Find out the word with the correct spelling.

34.

(a)  Adulation

(b)  Adlation

(c)  Aduletion

(d)  Addulation

Answer: (a)

35.

(a)  Indipensable

(b)  Indipenseble

(c)  Indispansible

(d)  Indispensable

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36 and 37) In each of the questions below, choose the wrongly spelt word.

36.

(a)  Potassium

(b)  Possibility

(c)  Parasology

(d)  Preamble

Answer: (c)

37.

(a)  Sanguinery

(b)  Itinerary

(c)  Temporary

(d)  Necessary

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38 and 39) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate singular form.

38. Lice

(a)  Lices

(b)  Louse

(c)  Licen

(d)  Leece

Answer: (b)

39. Loaves

(a)  Loaf

(b)  Loav

(c)  Loave

(d)  Loafs

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 40 and 41) From amongst the options given below each word, choose the appropriate plural form.

40. Chateau

(a)  Chateaus

(b)  Chateaux

(c)  Chatea

(d)  Chateaues

Answer: (b)

41. Nucleus

(a)  Nucleuses

(b)  Nucleus

(c)  Nuclei

(d)  Nucleius

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-45) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which can replace the underlined word without changing the meaning of the sentence.

42. Tax evasion amounts to larcenous accumulation of public money by some unscrupulous individuals.

(a)  miserly

(b)  extravagant

(c)  theft

(d)  shrewd

Answer: (c)

43. I cannot believe in the veracity of his statement.

(a)  truth

(b)  usefulness

(c)  sincerity

(d)  falsity

Answer: (a)

44. People thronged to pay homage to the departed leader.

(a)  humility

(b)  tribute

(c)  obedience

(d)  allegiance

Answer: (b)

45. He is a sycophant who tries to win over politicians.

(a)  a psychologist

(b)  an opportunist

(c)  an unscrupulous man

(d)  a flatterer

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-49) Fill in the blanks.

46. Did the boys turn ……… for football practice?

(a)  up

(b)  on

(c)  back

(d)  in

Answer: (a)

47. Corruption is a standing hindrance ………. The nation’s development.

(a)  of

(b)  over

(c)  to

(d)  upon

Answer: (c)

48. You ……… mad if you think I’m going to show my answer-sheet.

(a)  are supposed to be

(b)  must be

(c)  will be

(d)  ought to be

Answer: (b)

49. At one time Mr. Nigel ……… this supermarket.

(a)  was owing

(b)  used to own

(c)  had owned

(d)  owned

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 50-53) In each of these questions, choose the alternative which is closest to the opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

50. There was marked deterioration in his condition.

(a)  reformation

(b)  amendment

(c)  improvement

(d)  revision

Answer: (c)

51. I find his views repugnant.

(a)  amiable

(b)  repulsive

(c)  amoral

(d)  apolitical

Answer: (a)

52. There was not a single bibulous adventurer in our expedition.

(a)  fearful

(b)  cowardly

(c)  sober

(d)  unenergetic

Answer: (c)

53. This author has perspicuity in his style.

(a)  frankness

(b)  bluntness

(c)  obtuseness

(d)  vivacity

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54 and 55) In each of the following questions, choose the alternative that can be substitutes for the given word/sentence.

54. A person who eats too much

(a)  Glutton

(b)  Nibbler   

(c)  Cannibal

(d)  Omnivore

Answer: (a)

55. Fear of spiders

(a)  Hydrophobia

(b)  Social Phobia

(c)  Agoraphobia

(d)  Arachnophobia

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-75) Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.

PASSAGE 1

Organisations are institutions in which members compete for status and power. They compete for the resources of the organization, for example, finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, groups are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of the political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organization may be displaced in favour of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. Many of the electronics firms in their study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well-paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as a threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of the technicalities and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show that their experience was now redundant.

56. The author makes out a case for

(a)  organic system

(b)  research and development in organizations

(c)  an understanding between senior and middle level executives

(d)  a refresher course for senior

Answer: (a)

57. The theme of the passage is

(a)  groupism in organisations

(b)  individual ambitions in organizations.

(c)  frustration of senior managers.

(d)  emergence of sectional interests in organizations.

Answer: (d)

58. Policy decision in organization should involve

(a)  cooperation at all levels in the organization.

(b)  modernization of the organization.

(c)  attracting highly qualified personnel.

(d)  keeping in view the larger objectives of the organization.

Answer: (b)

59. “Organic system” as related to the organization implies is

(a)  growth with the help of expert knowledge.

(b)  growth with inputs from science and technology

(c)  steady all-round development.

(d)  natural and unimpeded growth.

Answer: (a)

60. The author tends to see the senior managers as

(a)  ignorant and incompetent.

(b)  a little out of step with their work environment.

(c)  jealous of their younger colleagues.

(d)  robbed of their rank, power and privilege

Answer: (a)

PASSAGE 2

Teaching more than most other professions, has been transformed during the last hundred years from a small, highly skilled profession concerned with a minority of the population, to a large and important branch of public service. The profession has a great and honourable tradition, extending from the dawn of history until recent times, but any teacher in the modern world who allows himself to be inspired by the ideals of his predecessors is likely to be made sharply aware that it is not his function to teach what he thinks, but to instill such beliefs and prejudices as are thought useful by his employers.

61. In ancient times, the teaching profession was

(a)  reserved for the upper class.

(b)  reserved for a privileged few.

(c)  open to everyone irrespective of any differences

(d)  limited to a highly skilled minority.

Answer: (d)

62. The phrase ‘Extending from the drawn of history’ indicates

(a)  tradition

(b)  culture

(c)  antiquity

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

63. In modern times, a successful teacher is primarily supposed to

(a)  impart knowledge.

(b)  impart new and latest skills.

(c)  toe the lines preferred by those in authority.

(d)  instill values he cherishes the most.

Answer: (c)

64. The modern teacher is not able to follow the ideals of his predecessors because

(a)  of more interest in politics than in academic activity.

(b)  of tremendous advancements in professional skills.

(c)  of social and financial constraints.

(d)  the students are not serious about studies.

Answer: (c)

65. The author seems to

(a)  be against the current trend in the teaching profession.

(b)  approve the recent developments in the mode of teaching.

(c)  be a traditionalist in his views.

(d)  consider education as a part of public service.

Answer: (a)

PASSAGE 3

Speech is a great blessing but it can also be a great curse, for while it helps us to make our intentions and desires known to our fellows, it can also, if we use it carelessly, make our attitude completely misunderstood. A slip of the tongue, the use of an unusual word or of an ambiguous word, and so on, may create an enemy where we had hoped to win a friend. Again, different classes of people use different vocabularies, and the ordinary speech of an educated man may strike an uneducated listener as pompous. Unwittingly, we may use a word which bears a different meaning to our listener from what it does to men of our own class. Thus speech is not a gift to use lightly without thought, but one which demands careful handling. Only a fool will express himself alike to all kinds and conditions of men.

66. Speech can be a curse, because it can

(a)  hurt others.

(b)  lead to carelessness.

(c)  create misunderstanding.

(d)  reveal our intentions

Answer: (c)

67. A “slip of the tongue” means something said

(a)  unintentionally.

(b)  without giving proper thought.

(c)  to hurt another person.

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

68. While talking to an uneducated person, we should use

(a)  ordinary speech.

(b)  his vocabulary.

(c)  simple words.

(d)  polite language.

Answer: (b)

69. If one used the same style of language with everyone, one would sound

(a)  flat

(b)  boring

(c)  foolish

(d)  democratic

Answer: (c)

70. The best way to win a friend is to avoid

(a)  irony in speech.

(b)  pomposity in speech.

(c)  verbosity in speech.

(d)  ambiguity in speech.

Answer: (d)

PASSAGE 4

If you are running out of ideas for your New Year’s resolution, consider running. Researchers have found that runners show greater functional connectivity in brain regions important for tasks such as planning and decision-making. “These activities, such as running, that people consider repetitive actually involve many complex cognitive functions – like planning and decision-making – that may have effects on the brain,” said one of the researchers, David Raichlen, associate professor at University of Arizona, at Tucson in the United States. For the study, the researchers compared brain scans of young adults engaged in cross-country running to young adults who do not engage in regular physical activity.

Participants were roughly of the same age – 18 to 25 – with comparable body mass index and educational levels. The runners, overall showed greater functional connectivity or connections between distinct brain regions within several areas of the brain, including the frontal cortex, which is important for cognitive functions such as planning decision-making and the ability to switch attention between tasks.

71. Research has shown that running

(a)  may weaken your heart.

(b)  could deteriorate your eye-sight.

(c)  improves your brain-functioning.

(d)  has no effect on your health.

Answer: (c)

72. Cognitive functioning of your brain impacts your

(a)  ability to take decisions.

(b)  capability to plan things.

(c)  ability to shift  your attention from one task to another.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

73. Generally, running is considered

(a)  not a good physical activity.

(b)  an activity which repeats itself regularly.

(c)  a useless activity for health.

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

74. While selecting participants to conduct research, it was ensured that participants were of similar

(a)  academic background.

(b)  age group.

(c)  body mass index.

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

75. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a)  Running hampers various connections between different brain regions.

(b)  Running is recommended as a good hobby for people.

(c)  Participants for research included those who took part in cross-country running.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-79) Each of these questions has an assertion (A) and reason (R). Mark answer as

(a) if both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) if both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) if (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) if (A) is false but (R) is true.

76. Assertion (A) Devaluation of a currency may promote export.

Reason (R) Price of the country’s products in the international market may fall due to devaluation.

Answer: (a)

77. Assertion (A) Fiscal deficit is greater than budgetary deficit.

Reason (R) Fiscal deficit is the borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India plus other liabilities’ of the government to meet its expenditure.

Answer: (d)

78. Assertion (A) According to statistics, more female children are born each year than male children in India.

Reason (R) In India, the death rate of a male child is higher than that of the female child.

Answer: (c)

79. Assertion (A) Insect resistant transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting Bt gene.

Reason (R) The Bt gene is derived from a bacterium.

Answer: (a)

80. T is the son of P, S is the son of Q. T is married to R. R is Q’s daughter. How is S related T?

(a)  Brother

(b)  Uncle

(c)  Father-in-law

(d)  Brother-in-law

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-84) In each of these questions a statement is followed by two arguments numbered I and II.

Mark answer as

(a) if only Argument I is strong

(b) if only Argument II is strong

(c) if both the Argument are strong

(d) if neither Argument I nor II is strong

81. Statement Has the Medical Science really lengthened the span of life?

Argument I Yes, the new drugs have been able to combat the diseases and increases the span of life.

Argument II No, the eternal truth that every person’s days are numbered cannot be denied.

Answer: (a)

82. Statement Should mass media be fully controlled by the government?

Argument I Yes, the contradictory news only confuses the people.

Argument II No, its credibility will be doubtful if it confuses people.

Answer: (d)

83. Statement Should sales tax be abolished?

Argument I Yes, it will eliminate an important sources of corruption

Argument II Yes, it will bring the prices of commodities down and hence consumers will be benefited.

Answer: (b)

84. Statement Computer based technology is very fruitful for industrial development in India.

Argument I Yes, accuracy, fast production and fineness are possible through computer technology.

Argument II No, it will increase unemployment in the country.

Answer: (c)

85. A and B start walking from point O. A covers a distance of 300 m in North direction and B covers a distance of 400 m towards West. How far are they now from each other?

(a)  700 m

(b)  500 m

(c)  50 m

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

86. Aisha, who is Mohan’s daughter, says to Reena, “Your mother Riya is younger sister of my father, who is third child of Sanjay”. How is Sanjay related to Reena?

(a)  Uncle

(b)  Father

(c)  Grandfather

(d)  Father-in-law

Answer: (c)

87. How many 7’s not immediately preceded by 4 but immediately followed by 2 are there in the following series?

3 4 7 2 8 7 2 9 4 7 1 3 5 7 2 9 9 7 7 2 5 1 4 7 2 3

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

88. In a row of boys, Anand is eleventh from the left and Deepak is fifteenth from the right. When Anand and Deepak interchange their positions Anand will be fifth from the left. Which of the following will be Deepak’s position from the right after rearrangement?

(a)  Seventh

(b)  Seventeenth

(c)  Eleventh

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

89. Shiva walks 10 km towards North and then turns right. After walking 3 km, he again turns right and walks 7 km. Now he turns left and walks 1 km. How far is he from the starting point?

(a)  10 km

(b)  7 km

(c)  20 km

(d)  5 km

Answer: (d)

90. If in a certain language SURVIVE is coded as 9182723 and MONSOON is coded as 6549554, how is RUMOUR coded in that language?

(a)  518618

(b)  581618

(c)  865118

(d)  816518

Answer: (d)

91. Neeraj starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turns towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?

(a)  10 m, East

(b)  10 m, South-East

(c)  10 m, West

(d)  10 m, North-East

Answer: (a)

92. If Neena says, “Anita’s father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Mahipal”, then how is Bindu, who is the sister of Anita, related to Mahipal?

(a)  Niece

(b)  Daughter

(c)  Daughter-in-law

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

93. Thirteen students are standing in horizontal row from left to right. If all the odd numbered students in the row are shifted to successive odd numbered positions, what will be the position of Sahil who was 7th in the row initially?

(a)  9th from right

(b)  6th from left

(c)  5th from right

(d)  8th from left

Answer: (c)

94. In the following number series how many such 7’s are there which are immediately preceded by a pair of numbers whose product is more than the product of pair of numbers immediately following 7?

2 2 7 1 3 9 4 8 7 6 5 4 2 8 3 5 7 4 6 5 9 7 8 6 4 3 9 7 4 6 5 2

(a)  1

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-100) Complete the series replacing?

95. HSJ, IRL, JQN, ?

(a)  KPR

(b)  KPP

(c)  PKP

(d)  KOP

Answer: (b)

96. 2, 4, 7, 14, 17, 34, ?

(a)  37

(b)  39

(c)  68

(d)  70

Answer: (a)

97. 2, 4, 12, 48, 240,

(a)  960

(b)  1440

(c)  1080

(d)  1920

Answer: (b)

98. 71, 76, 69, 74, 67, 72, ?

(a)  77

(b)  80

(c)  65

(d)  76

Answer: (c)

99. In a code language, ‘mok dan sil’ means ‘nice big house’, ‘fit kon dan’ means ‘house is good’ and ‘warm tir fit’ means ‘cost is high’. Which word stands for ‘good’ in that language?

(a)  mok

(b)  dan

(c)  fit

(d)  kon

Answer: (d)

100. If in a certain language code ‘nee tim see’ means ‘how are you’, ‘ble nee see’ means ‘where are you’, then what is the code for ‘where’?

(a)  see

(b)  tim

(c)  nee

(d)  ble

Answer: (d)

101. Which company has roped in Saikhom Mirabai Chanu as its brand ambassador?

(a)  Patanjali

(b)  Amway India

(c)  Bigbasket

(d)  Modicare

Answer: (b)

102. The tagline Bleed Blue is associated with which of the following fashion brand?

(a)  Zara

(b)  Allen Solly

(c)  Nike

(d)  Adidas

Answer: (c)

103. Which of the person is the brand ambassador of Siyaram fashion brand?

(a)  Mahendra Singh Dhoni

(b)  Rohit Shetty

(c)  Virat Kohli

(d)  Ranbir Kapoor

Answer: (a)

104. Who has been roped in as the chairman of the committee formed by government to double and quadruple the exports of handlooms in 3 years?

(a)  Dinesh Bhargav

(b)  Sunil Sethi

(c)  Anamika Khanna

(d)  Ashish Soni

Answer: (b)

105. Amazon has appointed which Indian celebrity to lend voice for Alexa?

(a)  Shatrughan Sinha

(b)  Rajnikanth

(c)  Shahrukh Khan

(d)  Amitabh Bachchan

Answer: (d)

106. The ‘Jogajog’ is a platform similar to Facebook. The new platform is being developed by which country ?

(a)  Pakistan

(b)  India

(c)  Nepal

(d)  Bangladesh

Answer: (d)

107. Which of the following retail stores belong to Ambani’s Reliance Industries?

(a)  Pantaloons

(b)  Big Bazar

(c)  Shoppers Stop

(d)  Westside

Answer: (b)

108. Which of the following is an emirati retail fashion brand which comes under Dubai-based retail company?

(a)  Westside

(b)  Lifestyle

(c)  Pantaloons

(d)  Max

Answer: (b)

109. Which states is known for its renowned Tant saree and Batik saree?

(a)  Assam

(b)  Odisha

(c)  West Bengal

(d)  Gujarat

Answer: (c)

110. Which of the following brand is the famous for ladies suits in India?

(a)  Baluchari

(b)  Gucci

(c)  Flormar

(d)  Biba

Answer: (d)

111. How many Indian companies features in the 2021 Fortune’s Global 500 list?

(a)  9

(b)  5

(c)  7

(d)  11

Answer: (c)

112. Which is the first Indian city to become 100 percent COVID-19 vaccinated?

(a)  Hyderabad

(b)  Bhubaneswar

(c)  Pune

(d)  Indore

Answer: (b)

113. Neeraj Chopra has claimed the gold medal for India at Tokyo Olympics in which event?

(a)  Boxing

(b)  Shooting 

(c)  Wrestling

(d)  Javelin Throw

Answer: (d)

114. Government of India launched brand name and logo for marketing of the urban Self-Help Group (SHG) products. What brand name has been given to these products?

(a)  SonChiraiya

(b)  Neelkanth

(c)  Saras

(d)  Gauraiya

Answer: (a)

115. My e-Haat portal has been launched by which company to empower artisans?

(a)  Reliance Foundation

(b)  Infosys Foundation

(c)  Adani Foundation

(d)  HCL Foundation

Answer: (d)

116. Dholavira is the newest Indian site to be inscribed on the UNESCO’s World Heritage list. Where is Dholavira located?

(a)  Ladakh

(b)  Mizoram

(c)  Telangana

(d)  Gujarat

Answer: (d)

117. Which country has assumed the Presidency of the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)?

(a)  India

(b)  Russia

(c)  France

(d)  Germany

Answer: (a)

118. Which of the following brand belongs to Titan as sub-brand?

(a)  Chumbak

(b)  Dressberry

(c)  Fastrack

(d)  Roadster

Answer: (c)

119. Good Morning is the sub-brand of the following brands

(a)  Gucci

(b)  Park Avenue

(c)  Axe

(d)  Old Spice

Answer: (b)

120. Zodiac is the famous brand in which categories of following?

(a)  T-shirt

(b)  Jeans

(c)  Tie

(d)  Kurti

Answer: (c)

121. Who among these is the noted environmentalist and the leader of the Chipko Movement?

(a)  Mohan Dharia

(b)  Chandi Prasad Bhatt

(c)  Mike Pandey

(d)  Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer: (d)

122. Raimona Reserve Forest has been declared as a National Park. Where is it located?

(a)  Sikkim

(b)  Assam

(c)  Tamil Nadu

(d)  Punjab

Answer: (b)

123. Who among the following has won the Miss Universe title in May 2021?

(a)  Julia Gama

(b)  Andrea Meza

(c)  Adline Castelino

(d)  Kimberly Jimenez

Answer: (b)

124. miniTV is a newly launched free video streaming service. The service has been launched by which entity?

(a)  Amazon India

(b)  Star India

(c)  Reliance

(d)  Zee Entertainment

Answer: (a)

125. The book title “Elephant In The Womb” is a debut book by which Indian celebrity?

(a)  Shilpa Shetty

(b)  Kalki Koechlin

(c)  Twinkle Khanna

(d)  Anushka Sharma

Answer: (b)

CASE 1

American scientists David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian won the 2021 Nobel Prize for Medicine for the discovery of receptors in the skin that sense temperature and touch and could pave the way for new pain-killers. Patrik Ernfors, a member of the Nobel Committee, in Oslo, Sweden, recognized the work by David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian as it has unlocked one of the secrets of nature.

Humans’ abilities to sense heat, cold, pressure and position are vital for perceiving and reacting to our surroundings. Understanding how they work is critical for treating chronic pain and other conditions. Their work, carried out independently, for discovering the molecular bases of how nerves convert stimuli-the burn of a chili pepper or the soft pressure of a hug-into signals that can be sensed by the brain.

Julius and his colleagues worked to find the receptor for capsaicin, component in chilies that causes a painful burning sensation. They identified the gene that encodes a new protein, called TRPV1-an ion channel in the membranes of cells that opens in response to heat. Julius got the idea to do his capsaicin experiments while shopping in a grocery store: “Walking through the supermarket aisle one day, seeing all these hot chili pepper sauces, et cetera, I was thinking, “We really have to get his project done,” . “And my wife said, ‘Well, then  you should get on it!”

Julius and Patapoutian independently identified another protein: TRPM8, which is sensitive to cold and menthol. Additionally, Patapoutian and his colleagues identified the genes for proteins that sense touch, known as Piezo 1 and Piezo 2. He showed that these two proteins were force activated ion channels. Piezo2 was also found to be important for sensing the positions of limbs in space, an ability known as proprioception.

126. Most of the Nobel Prizes in Medicines won by Americans and Europeans since its inception. The award is given by the Nobel Committee for Medicine based at

(a)  London

(b)  New York

(c)  Lisbon

(d)  Stockholm

Answer: (d)

127. American scientists won the Nobel Prize for the discovery of receptors in the skin that sense temperature, this will help in

(a)  New kinds of Pain Killer

(b)  Chemo Therapy

(c)  Treating Gene Structures

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (a)

128. The new identified gene that encodes a new protein, called TRPV1 found at

(a)  Berberine

(b)  Piperine

(c)  Curcumin

(d)  Capsaici

Answer: (d)

129. Julius and Patapoutian independently identified another protein named TRPM8, which is sensitive to

(a)  Cold and Menthol

(b)  Pressure and Position

(c)  Burning Sensation

(d)  All of these

Answer: (a)

130. Patapoutian and his colleagues identified the genes known as Piezol and Piezoz. Which of these two proteins were ion channels of the above two?

(a)  Shape-activated ion channels

(b)  Force-activated ion channels

(c)  Channel-activated ion channels

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

CASE 2

In the year-2020, the fashion industry was trying to hold back its position, as the concept of work from home (WFH) became inevitable. Most of the people started working from home. Retail shops were shut down due to the pandemic and online shopping increased to encourage social distancing. Due to cost-cutting and new responsibilities, expensive purchases were curtailed, which subsequently affected the fashion industry.

Now that the world is slowly returning to normalcy, we have all started to regain and reshape ourselves in the new economic sphere. The designers have to come forward in terms of competitive clothing. Designer now uses Indian handloom fabric to make it more comfortable as it absorbs sweat, so it can be worn at home all day long. However, for now, designing competitive clothing is a challenge. The pandemic has taught us a huge lesson. It has given us time to rethink and reinvent ourselves.

Also, it is undeniable that clothes shape our personality, bringing out the best version of ourselves.

Also, it is undeniable that clothes shape our personality, bringing out the best version of ourselves. Our clothes and jewellery have always been inspired by our cultures and traditions. As humans started to get civilized, presenting oneself was always a prime psychological and emotional point within a human being. Moreover, the psychology of presenting oneself lies at the core of human existence.

During the 80s and 90s, Indian people were clueless about fashion. In today’s generation, our lifestyle is a reference to previous cultural influences. We need to get inspired by classical music, 500-year-old Amir Khusrow’s poetry, and Mughal influences in our craft. So, I feel that in today’s generation, our lifestyle is a reference to previous cultural influences. Even we can get inspirations from our kings and royal families, the way they were wearing their clothes, the jewellery, turbans, attire, shoes, and/or makeup.

However, we need to reinvent and make garments that are wearable and relevant in today’s time. However fashion industry in India has explored many avenues, but the real challenge is to make clothing more relevant to the modem lifestyle. Many designers has worked in each region with each design, including lehengas, cholis, anarkali, Hyderabadi and Pakistani shararas, and farshi. So, a lot of areas have already been explored.

The major question in fashion industry is how do we take out the traditional attire and make it relevant in contemporary dressing sense. Since the younger generation is fast-paced, they don’t want so much fabric and weight on themselves. One needs to select the best textile and make it into a stylish garment.

131. The Fashion Industry has evolved from normalcy to WFH culture with the concept of

(a)  Online Purchasing

(b)  Staggered Fashion

(c)  Competitive Clothing

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

132. Which of following have highly influenced our cultures and traditions?

(a)  Clothes and Jewellery

(b)  International Exposure

(c)  Wealth and Prosperity

(d)  Religion and Society

Answer: (a)

133. Which element/s can help us for crafting right fashion?

(a)  Classical Music and Poetry

(b)  Mughal Art and Craft

(c)  Kings and Royal Families

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

134. The real challenge lies in today’s fashion industry in making relevant to

(a)  with cost cutting

(b)  modern lifestyle

(c)  contemporary and fusion

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

135. What sort of fashion, younger generation wants these days?

(a)  Lighter and Stylish

(b)  Smart and Durable

(c)  Costly and Rich Work

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

CASE 3

A series of latest scams have exposed the vulnerabilities of the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS). The AePS enables a person to withdraw money from her bank account anywhere in the country using a local “business correspondent” (BC). A BC is an informal bank agent equipped with a biometric Point-of-Sale (PoS) machine-a kind of micro-ATM.

If you want to withdraw, say, Rs. 500 from your bank account using a BC, you just have to give him the name of your bank and submit yourself to Aadhaar-based biometric authentication (ABBA). The BC will give you Rs. 500 in cash, and his own account will be credited with the same amount. For this to be possible, your bank account must be linked with Aadhaar. But what if the BC enters “one thousand rupees” in the PoS machine even as he gives you five hundred? In that case, one thousand will be debited from your account, and credited to the BC’s account, but you will only get five hundred.

A corrupt BC can even get away with asking a gullible customer to put her finger in the PoS machine under some pretext, without giving her any money. Many similar cases of AePSenabled fraud have emerged in Indial. Most of them are unresolved. Even if the BC can be traced, it is easy for him to claim that he did disburse cash as per records-it is his word against the victim’s. In short, corrupt BCs operate with virtual impunity.

The AePS is a a valuable facility for those who are able to use it safely. Like other micro-A TM systems, it has helped to decongest banks. It can be particularly useful to migrant workers who have no ATM facility. But AePS can be improved through number of measures, for those who are not clear about how it works.

For instance, BCs could be required to make manual if not digital entries into printed customer passbooks. That would act as a permanent, verifiable receipt that cannot be denied to the customer so easily (a blank entry would be incriminating).

Ensuring that BCs are clearly identified in transaction records would also help. So would SMS alerts, when the customer has a mobile number. Roaming BCs should perhaps be banned, at least in states with low literacy levels. And most importantly, better grievance redressal facilities must be made available to the victims of AePS fraud.

136. A Business Correspondent (BC) is equipped with PoS machine, which help in

(a)  Withdraw money without Bank

(b)  Aadhaar-linked Payment

(c)  B2B Transfer

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

137. How Aadhaar-based biometric authentication (ABBA) functions?

(a)  Through Smart Cards with chip

(b)  Through QR Code

(c)  Through biometric based Authentication

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

138. The AcPS are important tool to provide assistance to poor people as it maintains

(a)  Confidentiality

(b)  Authentication

(c)  Hassle-free

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

139. Various cases of AePS-enabled fraud have emerged in India because of

(a)  a corrupt BC

(b)  AePS-related irregularities

(c)  untraceable in nature

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

140. The BCs can be made accountable with

(a)  Manual Entries of Details

(b)  Clear Transaction Details

(c)  Switching to Traditional Methods

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-150) In each of these questions a passage is followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inferences separately in the context of the passage and decide upon it degree of truth or Falsity.

(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage.

(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ i.e. through not definitely true in the light of facts given.

(c) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definitely false in the light of facts given.

(d) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e. it contradicts the given facts.

CASELET 1

With a combination of rapid turnover of the latest trends, affordable prices, and matchless convenience, online shopping apps are set to take over the fashion industry in India. In the last decade, e-commerce has transformed the business landscape worldwide, driven by the almost complete shift to online shopping during the Covid-19 pandemic. Sites like Ajio, owned by billionaire Mukesh Ambani’s Reliance Industries, and Mytra.com, a subsidiary of Walmart owned Flipkart, the largest player in Indian e-commerce space.

The main reasons behind the growing popularity of such platforms are competitive prices, steep discounting and true to its moniker of “fast fashion,” its ability to create and release the latest styles on demand. Though, online shopping does have its drawbacks, with numerous customers complaining about fraud pictures that show completely different colours or flawed sizing issues. These fast fashion apps may offer good deals to consumers; the speedy turnover and the short life of these garments come at big cost to the environment and ecology.

However, environmentalists are concerned about the impact of such large-scale e-commerce. The micro-plastics released from clothes are not as visible as large plastic packaging. Ingestion of these has catastrophic effects on marine life and even humans. Globally, the fashion industry is responsible for 20 pc of wastewater. To combat this, Indian designers have introduced sustainable fashion e-commerce that offers a wide range of vegan apparel created from 10 pc organic cotton in a fair-trade factory.

Fast or slow, the online fashion industry will undoubtedly continue to expand exponentially. According to IBEF, the Indian e-commerce market expected to grow from USD 46.2 billion in 2020 to USD 111.40 billion by 2025, largely led by giants such as Flipkart and Amazon. Ultimately, it may be to the consumers whether the current e-commerce giants will continue to outpace their local, smaller counterparts, or whether they will be forced to alter some of their controversially unethical manufacturing processes.

141. The growing popularity of e-Commerce platforms are due to steep discounts.

Answer: (b)

142. E-Commerce has transformed the business landscape worldwide, through completely shift to online shopping during the Covid-19 pandemic.

Answer: (a)

143. Online shopping doesn’t have any drawbacks as it offers good deals to consumers.

Answer: (d)

144. Environmentalists are concerned about e-commerce, because of different forms of environment pollution.

Answer: (a)

145. The future of E-Commerce is not bright in India as it will lead by giants like Flipkart and Amazon.

Answer: (c)

CASELET 2

Every year, millions of people are forced to abandon their homes in search of safer places to rebuild their lives. According to the UN, over 82.4 million people were force to leave their homes in 2020 and more than 20 million of them are refugees. Over 200,000 of these refuges are currently in India.

Through its history, India has hosted people fleeing war, conflict and persecution many times-Zoroastrians from Iran, Sri Lankans in the 1980s or Afghans during varied waves of displacement, including the current one in 2021. The country also has the experience of rehabilitating Partition refugees.

Welcoming refuges lies at the core of India’s secular, spiritual and cultural values. India has taken part in 49 peacekeeping missions, in which more than 195,000 troops and a significant number of police personnel assisted the UN and international NGOs in conflict-ridden lands. The paradox, therefore, of such a welcoming country not having its own homegrown national refugee framework requires a rethink.

A sustainable refugee policy is a necessary step intelligently manage population movements and ensure transparency and predictability in our administrative actions. Treatment of refugees must receive the same attention that other human rights protection issues receive-this is consistent with the constitutional emphasis on the rule of law.

The legislation will also clarify the roles of different agencies-governmental, judicial, UN – involved in refugee protection and lay down the procedures of coordination amongst them. It would also help avoid friction between the host country and the country of origin. Other states would recognize the move to grant asylum as a peaceful, humanitarian and legal act, and not an arbitrary political gesture. It will also provide a platform for dialogue on sharing responsibility and aid the search of durable solutions to the root causes of a refugee problem.

Welcoming refugees generally implies an initial investment of public funds. Once refugees start working, this investment may harvest dividends.

Refugees can fill gaps in the labour market or start trades that create wealth and help improve international trade and investment. Thanks to their diverse experiences, refugees bring new concepts, technologies and innovative ideas.

146. Accepting refuges is against the core of India’s cultural values.

Answer: (d)

147. India has given shelter to Sri Lankans in the 1980s and Afghans during the current one in 2021.

Answer: (a)

148. An urgent and temporary refugee policy is required in India to manage refugee movements.

Answer: (c)

149. In India, there is need for a legislative law to deal with the refugee crisis will and also clarify the roles of different agencies-governmental, judicial, UN involved in refugee protection.

Answer: (a)

150. If refugees shall work and invest in India, this will harvest dividends and prosperity.

Answer: (b)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2021 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Under Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2021

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-25) Study the passages given below to answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE I

Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional content is conveyed to the audience as much through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theatre an actor’s dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in opera is presented using the primary elements of theatre such as scenery, costumes and acting. However, the words of the opera or libretto are sung rather than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.

1. It is pointed out in the passage that Opera

(a)  has developed under the influence of musical theatre.

(b)  is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra.

(c)  is often performed in Europe.

(d)  is the most complex of all the performing arts.

Answer: (b)

2. We can understand from the passage that

(a)  drama in opera is more important than the music.

(b)  people are captivated more by opera than musical theatre.

(c)  orchestras in operas can vary considerably in size.

(d)  musical theatre relies above all on music.

Answer: (c)

3. It is stated in the passage that

(a)  an opera requires an orchestra.

(b)  many people find musical theatre more captivating than opera.

(c)  music in musical theatre is not as important as it is in opera.

(d)  opera doesn’t have any properties in common with musical theatre.

Answer: (a)

4. A good opera performance requires

(a)  dramatic skills

(b)  singing skills

(c)  musical instrumental skills

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

PASSAGE II

Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them helping drowning sailors have been common since Roman times. The more we learn about dolphins, the more we realize that their society is more complex than people previously imagined. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care for pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the community, as we do. Some scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more probable that they communicate with each other without needing words. Could any of these mammals be more intelligent than man?

Certainly the most common argument in favour of man’s superiority over them, that we can kill them more easily than they can kill us, is the least satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior when we destroy them.

5. It is clear from the passage that dolphins

(a)  are proven to be less intelligent than once thought.

(b)  have a reputation for being friendly to humans.

(c)  are the most powerful creatures that live in the oceans.

(d)  are capable of learning a language and communicating with humans.

Answer: (b)

6. The fact that the writer of the passage thinks that we can kill dolphins more easily than they can kill us

(a)  means that they are less adapted to their environment than humans are to theirs.

(b)  proves that dolphins are not the most intelligent species at sea.

(c)  does not mean that we are superior to them.

(d)  proves that the linguistic skills of dolphins are not comprehensible to humans.

Answer: (c)

7. One can infer from the passage that

(a)  dolphins are quite abundant in some areas of the world.

(b)  communication is the most fascinating aspect of the dolphins.

(c)  the ability to think is unique to dolphins among all mammals.

(d)  dolphins have some social traits are similar to those of humans.

Answer: (d)

8. If a dolphin gets sick, the other dolphins

(a)  take care of the sick one

(b)  move on to keep away

(c)  simply keep looking at the sick member

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

PASSAGE III

Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should never have happened. It was well designed and carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected on the day of I ts fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled over and sank on a cold, stormy night. It went down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves. Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea. The final death toll was 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were men in the prime of their lives, while most of the dead were women, children and the elderly.

9. One can understand from the passage that

(a)  most victims were trapped inside the ship as they were in their cabins.

(b)  the lifesaving equipment did not work well and lifeboats could not be lowered.

(c)  design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry.

(d)  naval architects claimed that the Estonia was unsinkable.

Answer: (a)

10. It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident

(a)  were immune to hypothermia.

(b)  were mostly young men.

(c)  told the investigators nothing about the accident

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

11. According to the passage, when the Estonia sank,

(a)  there were only 139 passengers on board.

(b)  few of the passengers were asleep.

(c)  there were enough lifeboats for the number of people on board.

(d)  faster reaction by the crew could have increased the Estonia’s chances of survival.

Answer: (c)

12. Estonia appears to be a

(a)  naval ship

(b)  naval submarine

(c)  cargo ship

(d)  passenger ferry

Answer: (d)

PASSAGE IV

Erosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmlands were damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, now soil erosion has again accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the nation’s most critical natural resource problem.

13. As we understand from the passage, today, soil erosion in America

(a)  causes humans to place new demands on the land

(b)  happened so slowly that it took forty years to get noticed.

(c)  is the most critical problem that the nation faces.

(d)  is worse than it was in the nineteenth century.

Answer: (d)

14. The author points out in the passage the soil erosion in America

(a)  has damaged 282 million acres ever since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough.

(b)  could become a more serious problem in the future.

(c)  has been so severe that it has forced people to abandon their settlements.

(d)  was on the decline before 1930s.

Answer: (b)

15. It is pointed out in the passage that in America

(a)  petroleum is causing heavy soil erosion and pollution problems.

(b)  soil erosion has been hastened due to the overuse of farming lands.

(c)  heavy crop production is necessary to meet the demands and to prevent a disaster.

(d)  water is undoubtedly the largest cause of erosion.

Answer: (b)

16. From the passage, it appears that the profession of early settlers in America was

(a)  mining.

(b)  conservation work.

(c)  agriculture.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (c)

PASSAGE V

The Gandharva Music and Art Fair-better known to its participants and to history simply as “Gandharva”-should have been a colossal failure. Just a month prior to its August 15th, 1969 opening, the fair’s organisers were informed by the Council of Gandharva Music and Art, Allahabad that permission to hold the festival was withdrawn. Amazingly, not only was a new site found, but word spread to the public of the fair’s new location. At the new site, fences that were supposed to facilitate ticket collection never materialized and all attempts at gathering tickets were abandoned. Crowd estimates of 30,000 kept rising; by the end of the three days, some estimated the crowd at 500,000. Then, on the opening night, it began to rain. Off and on, throughout all three days, huge summer storms rolled over the gathering. In spite of these problems, most people think of Gandharva not only as a fond memory but also as the defining moment for an entire generation.

17. Which of the following would be closest in meaning to the word ‘colossal’ as used in this passage?

(a)  Definite

(b)  Surprising

(c)  Massive

(d)  Disastrous

Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following is implied in the passage, about The Gandharva Music and Art Fair held in August 1969?

(a)  It was a colossal failure.

(b)  It was the defining moment for an entire generation.

(c)  Ticket sales never materialized as per expectations.

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (b)

19. In what context is the word ‘amazingly’ used in the passage?

(a)  The fair drew such an unexpectedly enormous crowd

(b)  The event was moved and word sent out in a very short time.

(c)  Despite pressure by Allahabad officials, the fair was held successfully.

(d)  The stormy weather was so unfavourable.

Answer: (b)

20. As per the passage, most people think of Gandharva as a fond memory because the

(a)  event was held for the first time in August, 1969.       

(b)  crowds that thronged the venue were larger than anticipated.

(c)  performers at the fair were popular amongst the youth.

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (d)

PASSAGE VI

Everybody earns the living in their own way to support themselves as well as the family. If you are employed and bored with what you do, take a look at the weirdest jobs below to know that you are luckier than many people. Those who are not well educated or have strange hobbies take up to following jobs t make ends meet:

(a) Fire-Observer Sounds interesting! This job requires the candidate to sit and watch for any upcoming fires in forests. You sit on a tower and warn the authorities about any impending dangers. It’s quite a lonely job. So, if there are any loners out there who seek complete loneliness they can try their hands at this weird job.

(b) Ice-Cream Taster A sweet job! But it takes more than just tasting the ice-creams to get your pay in this job. There can be no compromise about the quality of the ice-cream, so one has to keep all the taste-buds on his tongue alive and active. This requires you to follow a strict diet, not eating anything too spicy or hot. You cannot smoke, drink or even use strong perfumes!

.(c) Sports Mascot Getting dressed in an often silly-looking costume, entertaining thousands of screaming fans and shadow-punching umpires are all in a day’s work for the Sports Mascot.

The term, mascot, or in this case, the sports mascot is used to describe a person, animal or object that is thought to bring luck. Sporting entities are usually the home for these “luck” bringers, but mascots can also be found in other areas of society, such as military units and charity organisations.

The next time you sit at your desk considering a job change, sneak a peek at this list of weird jobs that give a complete twist to your career.

21. A word close in meaning to ‘weird’ is …

(a)  bored

(b)  luckier

(c)  strange

(d)  well educated

Answer: (c)

22. A fire observer

(a)  works alone

(b)  works with lots of people

(c)  has to hate loneliness

(d)  is a lonely person

Answer: (a)

23. A mascot is a/an ….. symbol.

(a)  bad luck

(b)  good luck

(c)  melancholic

(d)  elegant

Answer: (b)

24. An ice-cream taster

(a)  eats whatever he wants

(b)  drinks alcohol.

(c)  has a strict diet.

(d)  is a heavy smoker.

Answer: (c)

25. Getting dressed in an often silly-looking costume probably means to

(a)  dress elegantly

(b)  dress casually

(c)  be naked

(d)  dress ridiculously

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26 and 27) Choose the option that is the plural form of the given word.

26. Bunch

(a)  Bunches

(b)  Bunch

(c)  Bunchs

(d)  Bunchies

Answer: (a)

27. Shelf

(a)  Shelf

(b)  Shelves

(c)  Shelfes

(d)  Shelfies

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 28-30) Fill in the blanks.

28. He ……… from fever

(a)  has been suffering

(b)  has suffered

(c)  is suffering

(d)  was suffering

Answer: (a)

29. I shall get a job before the week ……….

(a)  will end

(b)  ends

(c)  had ended

(d)  is ending

Answer: (b)

30. The servant had finished his work when I …….. him.

(a)  had called

(b)  has called

(c)  have called

(d)  called

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-34) Choose the word which is similar in meaning to the given word.

31. Contrary

(a)  Adverse

(b)  Kind

(c)  Harmonious

(d)  Consistent

Answer: (a)

32. Desolate

(a)  Bright

(b)  Lonely

(c)  Inhabited

(d)  Intact

Answer: (b)

33. Despise

(a)  Adore

(b)  Cherish

(c)  Hate

(d)  Praise

Answer: (c)

34. Eccentric

(a)  Regular

(b)  Ordinary

(c)  Standard

(d)  Erratic

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 35-38) Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the given word.

35. Abate

(a)  Advance

(b)  Recede

(c)  Diminish

(d)  Slacken

Answer: (a)

36. Bizarre

(a)  Peculiar

(b)  Common

(c)  Weird

(d)  Curious

Answer: (b)

37. Zest

(a)  Passion

(b)  Relish

(c)  Gusto

(d)  Dullness

Answer: (d)

38. Dainty

(a)  Exquisite

(b)  Lacy

(c)  Crude

(d)  Petite

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 39-41) In each of these questions, out of the given group of words, choose the correctly spelt word.

39.

(a)  Acknowledgement

(b)  Acknowledgemant

(c)  Acknawledgement

(d)  Acknowladgemnt

Answer: (a)

40.

(a)  Publesher

(b)  Publisher

(c)  Publishar

(d)  Pablishar

Answer: (b)

41.

(a)  Anouncement

(b)  Announcement

(c)  Annoncement

(d)  Announcment

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 42-44) Choose the option which best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

42. Pay through one’s nose

(a)  To pay heavily

(b)  To criticize someone

(c)  To get ahead secretly

(d)  To be under suspicion

Answer: (a)

43. To turn over a new leaf

(a)  To want something that is not possible

(b)  To change for the better

(c)  To do all possible efforts

(d)  To put an end to something before it develops

Answer: (b)

44. To see the light of the day

(a)  To be in control of the situation

(b)  To gain an advantage on

(c)  To be made available

(d)  To change for a better

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 45-47) A sentence has been divided into four parts and one part has a grammatical error. Choose the part that has an error.

45.

(a)  Post COVID-19

(b)  the Government of India

(c)  made the test and treatment

(d)  free under the Ayushman Bharat Scheme.

Answer: (c)

46.

(a)  I am so glad that

(b)  my husband spoke in on my behalf

(c)  because I felt awful

(d)  that I couldn’t make it to the event.

Answer: (b)

47.

(a)  We thought our company

(b)  was going to expand this year

(c)  but the company actually has

(d)  less people now than it did two years ago.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 48-50) In each of these questions, choose the option which can be substituted for the given words.

48. One who is able to use the right and left hands equally well.

(a)  Disingenuous

(b)  Multi-tasker

(c)  Ambidextrous  

(d)  Equipoised       

Answer: (c)

49. The study of the origin of humankind.

(a)  Anthropogeny

(b)  Archaeology

(c)  Anthropology

(d)  Psephology

Answer: (a)

50. A person who is lacking in or hostile or indifferent to cultural values.

(a)  Imposter

(b)  Cannibal

(c)  Iconoclast

(d)  Philistine

Answer: (d)

51. What is the unit digit in the expansion of (89628)402?

(a)  8

(b)  6

(c)  4

(d)  2

Answer: (c)

52. Find the sum of all possible values of x if 25849 x 4 is divisible by 4.

(a)  8

(b)  20

(c)  12

(d)  24

Answer: (b)

53. What is the remainder if 293 is divided by 9?

(a)  2

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  8

Answer: (d)

54. If  then find the value of a.

(a)  4/5

(b)  2/3

(c)  8/5

(d)  3/5

Answer: (a)

55. The number of unskilled workers in a factory is six times the number of skilled workers. Which of the following cannot be the total number of workers in the factory?

(a)  35

(b)  40

(c)  70

(d)  84

Answer: (b)

56. Average of eleven observations is 30. Average of first five observations is 25 and last five is 28. Find the 6th

(a)  65

(b)  60

(c)  75

(d)  78

Answer: (a)

57. Virat obtained 18% marks in an examination and he failed by 60 marks. If passing marks are 33%, then total marks are ……….. .

(a)  350

(b)  400

(c)  450

(d)  500

Answer: (b)

58. The simple interest on Rs 200 for 7 months at 5 paisa per rupee per month is ……….. .

(a)  Rs. 70

(b)  Rs. 7

(c)  Rs. 35

(d)  Rs. 30.50

Answer: (a)

59. The difference between compound interest and simple interest on a sum of Rs 50000 for 2 yr at 6.5% p.a. is ……… .

(a)  Rs. 201.125

(b)  Rs. 210.25

(c)  Rs. 211.25

(d)  Rs. 225.125

Answer: (c)

60. Rahul travels first 50 km at 10 km/h, next 40 km at 20 km/h and then next 60 km at 15 km/h. Find his average speed for the whole journey.

Answer: (d)

61. The ratio of average temperature between Jaipur and Delhi is 9 : 7 and that between Jaipur and Mumbai is 11 : 8. Find the ratio of average temperature between Delhi and Mumbai.

(a)  7 : 9

(b)  77 : 72

(c)  9 : 8

(d)  11 : 8

Answer: (b)

62. The ratio of three numbers is 3 : 4 : 7 and their product is 18144. The numbers are ……… .

(a)  9, 12 and 21

(b)  15, 20 and 25

(c)  18, 24 and 42

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

63. What is the single discount that is equivalent to two successive discounts of 12% and 20%?

Answer: (d)

64. A shopkeeper buys a mobile phone for Rs 12500 and sell sit for Rs. 13350. Find his profit percent.

(a)  6%

(b)  6.3%

(c)  6.5%

(d)  6.8%

Answer: (d)

65. How many minutes will a motor car travelling at 45 km/h take to cover a distance of 15 km?

(a)  15 min

(b)  20 min

(c)  10 min

(d)  30 min

Answer: (b)

66. If the speed of a 100 m long train is 144 km/h, then in how much time will this train cross a standing pole?

(a)  2 sec

(b)  1.5 sec

(c)  2.5 sec

(d)  3.5 sec

Answer: (c)

67. How many zeroes are there in the LCM of 150, 70 and 2500?

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d)  4

Answer: (b)

68. The HCF of 80, 120 and 200 = 10 + ‘?’.

(a)  10

(b)  40

(c)  30

(d)  20

Answer: (c)

69. Find the greatest number of four digits, which is exactly divisible by 18, 24 and 45.

(a)  9580       

(b)  9640

(c)  9720

(d)  9860

Answer: (c)

70. Satish can do a job in 15 days and Kapil works twice as fast as Satish. Then, in how many days can Satish and Kapil together complete the job?

(a)  4.5 days

(b)  5 days

(c)  5.5 days

(d)  6 days

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 71 and 72) Find what will come at the place of question mark ‘?’ in the following questions which will complete the series.

71. 2, 7, 17, 32, 52, ?

(a)  77

(b)  64

(c)  72

(d)  81

Answer: (a)

72. AZ, GT, MN, ‘?’, YB

(a)  KF

(b)  RX

(c)  SH

(d)  TS

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 73 and 74) In the given questions, which number/number-alphabet combination is different from the others.

73.

(a)  Seven

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  Five

Answer: (b)

74.

(a)  a

(b)  d

(c)  p

(d)  u

Answer: (d)

75. In a certain code language, BEGK is written as ADFJ. How will PSVY will be written in that code language?

(a)  LOQT

(b)  ROUX

(c)  OTUZ

(d)  ORUX

Answer: (d)

76. Pointing towards a man in the photograph Ami said, “He is the only son of the father of the brother of my sister”. How is that person related to Ami?

(a)  Mother

(b)  Father

(c)  Uncle

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

77. What is the minimum number of colours required to colour the faces of a cube so that no adjacent faces have the same colour?

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  5

(d)  6

Answer: (b)

78. A, B, C, D and E are five cities. There is a way which join two cities. How many total number of ways are there?

(a)  12

(b)  10

(c)  5

(d)  2

Answer: (b)

79. Vishal walks 8 km towards East. He turns left and walks 5 km. Then he rotates 270° Now in which direction is he facing?

(a)  West

(b)  East

(c)  North

(d)  South

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 80-82) Study the information carefully to answer the following questions.

Out of four persons Arun, Bharat, Chandu and Dharma, two are interested in hockey, two are painters, one is a singer and one is a dancer. Each man has one outdoor interest (either cricket or hockey) and one hobby concerned with fine arts (either painting or dancing or signing).

(i) Arun is neither a painter nor he plays hockey.

(ii) Bharat does not dance.

(iii) The person who is a dancer plays hockey.

(iv) Bharat and Dharma do not play cricket.

80. Who among the following plays cricket and is interested in painting?

(a)  Arun

(b)  Bharat

(c)  Chandu

(d)  Arun and Chandu

Answer: (c)

81. Who among the following is a singer?

(a)  Dharma

(b)  Arun

(c)  Chandu

(d)  Bharat

Answer: (b)

82. Which pair shows the correct relationship of the game and hobby of Dharma?

(a)  Cricket and Singing

(b)  Cricket and Painting

(c)  Hockey and Singing

(d)  Hockey and Dancing

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct alternative from the following mark answer as

(a) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true.

83. Assertion (A) Indian Constitution is the largest written Constitution in the world.

Reason (R) India follows bi-cameral system of Legislative House.

Answer: (b)

84. Assertion (A) Carrying fountain pen while flying in an aeroplane may be a risky proposition.

Reason (R) Due to low pressure, the ink of a fountain pen may leak or overflow.

Answer: (a)

85. Assertion (A) The states in Eastern part of India produce more rice than those in Western part.

Reason (R) The states in eastern part receive more rainfall than those in western part of India.

Answer: (a)

86. Which state will host the 4th edition of Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) in the year 2021?

(a)  Uttarakhand

(b)  Haryana

(c)  Assam

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

87. Who has/have won the 2020 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for discovering the Hepatitis C Virus?

(a)  Michael Houghton

(b)  Harvey J Alter

(c)  Charles M Rice

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

88. Joe Biden of Democratic Party won the 2020 United States (US) Presidential election to become ……. President of the United States.

(a)  44th

(b)  45th

(c)  46th

(d)  47th

Answer: (c)

89. Which Bollywood actress is recently seen in advertisements of the Kalyan Jewellers ‘Muhurat’ Wedding Jewellery along with Amitabh Bachchan?

(a)  Katrina Kaif

(b)  Karishma Kapoor

(c)  Sonam Kapoor

(d)  Disha Patani

Answer: (a)

90. ‘Urban Ladder’ is a well-known online company dealing with ………. .

(a)  Fashion garments and accessories

(b)  Furniture-Home Decor

(c)  Fashion jewellery and accessories

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

91. Which former Indian cricketer has paired with Arvind Fashion to bring out the label ‘True Blue’, a range of summer suits, t-shirts, chinos etc.?

(a)  MS Dhoni

(b)  Virender Sehwag

(c)  Rahul Dravid

(d)  Sachin Tendulkar

Answer: (d)

92. Who among the following was popularly known as ‘Tiger of Mysore’?

(a)  Haider Ali

(b)  Tipu Sultan

(c)  Krishnadevaraya

(d)  Achyuta Deva Raya

Answer: (b)

93. Who was the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize?

(a)  Rabindranath Tagore

(b)  C V Raman

(c)  Amartya Sen

(d)  Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (a)

94. India celebrates birthday of ………. On 12th January every year as the “National Youth Day”.

(a)  Swami Vivekananda

(b)  Chandra Shekhar Azad

(c)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(d)  Bhagat Singh

Answer: (a)

95. The famous monument ‘Leaning Tower of Pisa’ is located at …………. .

(a)  France

(b)  USA

(c)  Japan

(d)  Italy

Answer: (d)

96. Which of the following is not a function of the RBI?

(a)  Issue of currency

(b)  Conducting monetary policy

(c)  Accepting deposits from the public

(d)  Lender of last resort for the banks

Answer: (c)

97. Durand Cup is associated with which national sports/games?

(a)  Football

(b)  Badminton

(c)  Cricket

(d)  Golf

Answer: (a)

98. Which of the following is not a common property of plastics?

(a)  Non-reactive

(b)  Light in weight

(c)  Durable

(d)  Good conductor of electricity

Answer: (d)

99. Based on their origin, resources can be abiotic and biotic, and biotic resources are ………… .

(a)  derived from non-living things

(b)  made by human beings

(c)  derived from living things

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

100. Parliament of India consists of ………. .

(a)  Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and State Assemblies

(b)  President, Prime Minister and Speaker

(c)  President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

(d)  Prime Minister, Cabinet Ministers and Opposition

Answer: (c)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) Post Graduate 2022 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2022

1. If a + b – c : b + c – a : a + c – b = 5 : 6 : 7, then find a : b : c.

(a)  12 : 13 : 11

(b)  12 : 11 : 13

(c)  13 : 12 : 11

(d)  13 : 11 : 12

Answer: (b)

2. The cost price of 80 articles is Rs. 12.50 per article. 20 opf them were sold for Rs. 18 each. At what price should each of the remaining articles be sold so as to get an overall profit of Rs 4.50 per article?

(a)  Rs. 15

(b) 

(c) 

(d)  Rs. 18

Answer: (b)

3. Divide Rs 6600 into two parts so that the simple interest on the first part for 5 yr at 6% per annum is equal to the simple interest on the second part for 3 yr at 12% per annum.

(a)  Rs. 4000, Rs. 2600

(b)  Rs. 3500, Rs 3100

(c)  Rs. 3800, Rs. 2800

(d)  Rs. 3600, Rs. 3000

Answer: (d)

4. A vessel is full of a mixture of milk and water with 9% milk. 9 L are withdrawn and then replaced with pure water. If the milk is now 6%, then how much does the vessel hold?

(a)  27 L

(b)  18 L

(c)  36 L

(d)  40 L

Answer: (a)

5. There are two containers having mixtures of hydrochloric acid and water. In container 1, the ratio of hydrochloric acid and water is 1 : 2 and in container 2, the ratio of hydrochloric acid and water is 4 : 1. Find the amount of mixture that should be taken from container 1 in order to make 28 L of a mixture containing equal amount of water and hydrochloric acid.

(a)  15 L

(b)  14 L

(c)  20 L

(d)  18 L

Answer: (d)

6. P, Q and R can together earn Rs 3100 in 10 days. Q and R together can earn Rs 1320 in 6 days. P and R together can earn Rs 1050 in 5 days. Find R’s daily earning.

(a)  Rs 100

(b)  Rs 110

(c)  Rs 120

(d)  Rs 90

Answer: (c)

7. A train overtakes two persons, cycling at 9 km/h and 18 km/h in 40s and 48 s respectively. Find the length of the train.

(a)  550 m

(b)  580 m

(c)  625 m

(d)  600 m

Answer: (d)

8. A, B, C and D play four different games among Baseball, Cricket, Kabaddi and Volleyball. A does not play Baseball or Cricket. B does not play Kabaddi or Volleyball. C plays Volleyball and D plays either Baseball or Volleyball. Who plays Cricket?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

Answer: (b)

9. What is the angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock at 3 h 4 min ?

(a)  20°

(b)  70°

(c)  90°

(d)  130°

Answer: (d)

10. If 1st January, 1992 is a Tuesday, then on which day of the week will 1st January, 1993 fall?

(a)  Tuesday

(b)  Thursday

(c)  Friday

(d)  Saturday

Answer: (b)

11. Five villages P, Q, R, S and T situated close to each other. P is to the West of Q, R is to the South of P, T is to the North of Q and S is to the East of T. In which direction R is with respect to S?

(a)  North-West

(b)  South-East

(c)  South-West

(d)  Data inadequate

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 12-16) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a club. Each of them likes one day of the week, viz. Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them owns a different car, viz. Swift, Alto, Figo, Beat, SX4, Estilo and Optra, not necessarily in the same order.

C likes Wednesday and his favolurite car is neither SX4 nor Optra. E does not like Monday and his favourite car is Beat. The favourite car of one who likes Friday is Figo. The one whose favourite car of one who likes Friday is Figo. The one whose favourite car is Estilo likes Tuesday. D likes Saturday and D’s favourite car is not SX4. G’s favourite car is Alto. F likes Thursday. B does not like Estilo.

12. Who among the following likes Tuesday?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  D

(d)  Data inadequate

Answer: (a)

13. Whose favourite car is Figo?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  F

(d)  C

Answer: (b)

14. Who among the following likes Sunday?

(a)  A

(b)  C

(c)  F

(d)  E

Answer: (d)

15. Whose favourite car is SX4?

(a)  B

(b)  A

(c)  F

(d)  D

Answer: (c)

16. Which of the following combinations is correct?

(a)  F-Thursday-Estilo

(b)  C-Wednesday-Alto

(c)  D-Saturday-Beat

(d)  All are incorrect

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a straight line facing North with equal distances between them, but not necessarily in the same order.

Each one is pursuing a different profession-Actor, Reporter, Doctor, Engineer, Lawyer, Teacher and Painter but not necessarily in the same order.

G is fifth to the left of C. The Reporter is third to the right of G. F is fifth to the right of A. E is second to the left of B. The Engineer is second to the left of D. There are only three people between the Engineer and the Painter. The Doctor is to the immediate left of the Engineer. The Lawyer is to the immediate right of the Teacher.

17. What is A’s profession?

(a)  Painter

(b)  Doctor

(c)  Teacher

(d)  Actor

Answer: (b)

18. Which one is true according to the given arrangement?

(a)  F is the Teacher

(b)  F is third to the left of E

(c)  The Painter is to the immediate left of B

(d)  The Lawyer is standing in the exact middle of the arrangement

Answer: (d)

19. Who among the following is an Actor?

(a)  E

(b)  F   

(c)  C

(d)  B

Answer: (c)

20. What is D’s position with respect to the Painter?

(a)  Third to the left

(b)  Second to the right

(c)  Third to the right

(d)  Second to the left

Answer: (d)

21. Who is an Engineer?

(a)  G

(b)  E

(c)  B

(d)  F

Answer: (a)

22. The first n even natural numbers is equal to k times the sum of first n odd natural numbers.

Answer: (a)

23. If 12 pumps working 7 h a day can lift 2800 tonnes of water in 20 days, then in how many days can 20 pumps working 9 h a day lift 3000 tonnes?

(a)  12

(b)  14

(c)  10

(d)  8

Answer: (c)

24. The ratio of present age of two brothers is 1 : 2 and 5 yr back the ratio was 1 : 3. What will be the ratio their age after 5 yr?

(a)  2 : 5

(b)  4 : 5

(c)  3 : 5

(d)  1 : 5

Answer: (c)

25. The price of petrol increased by 2% in a certain week and increased by 4% in the next week. Find the net percentage increase in the price of petrol over these two weeks.

(a)  6.12%

(b)  6.08%

(c)  6.16%

(d)  6.20%

Answer: (b)

26. At what per cent will simple interest on Rs 1950 amount to Rs 253.50 in 

(a)  3%

(b)  5%

(c)  4%

(d)  4.5%

Answer: (c)

27. What annual installment will discharge a debt of Rs 3094 due in 4 yr at 7% simple interest?

(a)  Rs 650

(b)  Rs 1200

(c)  Rs 900

(d)  Rs 700

Answer: (d)

28. In how many years interest of a sum will be (3/5)th of the total amount at 10% simple interest?

(a)  10  yr

(b)  12 yr

(c)  15 yr

(d)  13 yr

Answer: (c)

29. P and Q working together can complete a job in 16 days. P alone can complete it in 18 days. Both work together for 4 days and then Q leaves. Find the time taken by P to complete the remaining work.

(a)  12.5 days

(b)  13.5 days

(c)  14 days

(d)  14.5 days

Answer: (b)

30. A tank has a leak at its bottom which empties it at 6 L/min. It also has a filling tap which can fill the tank in 6 h. The tank takes 18 h to become full. Find the capacity of the tank.

(a)  3403 L

(b)  4023 L

(c)  3402 L

(d)  3240 L

[bg_colla pse view=”button-orange” color=”#4a4949″ icon=”arrow” expand_text=”Show Answer” collapse_text=”Hide Answer” ]

Answer: (d)

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31. A person covered a certain distance at a certain speed. If his speed was 20% more, he would take 10 min less to cover the same distance. Find the time he takes to cover the distance.

(a)  60 min

(b)  50 min

(c)  45 min

(d)  42 min

Answer: (a)

32. What number will replace the question mark?

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  7

(d)  12

Answer: (c)

33. Which of the following countries is known as the Clove Bowl of the World?

(a)  Baharin

(b)  Zanzibar

(c)  Gibralter

(d)  Brazil

Answer: (b)

34. The land of Thousand Islands is

(a)  Malaysia

(b)  Indonesia

(c)  Ireland

(d)  Finland

Answer: (b)

35. Which of the following countries is known as Cockpit of Europe?

(a)  Sweden

(b)  Netherlands

(c)  Belgium

(d)  Germany

Answer: (c)

36. National Start Up day is

(a)  January 13

(b)  January 14

(c)  January 15

(d)  January 16

Answer: (d)

37. Where Atacama Desert is located?

(a)  Peru

(b)  Iran

(c)  Chile

(d)  Namibia

Answer: (c)

38. Who is the Managing Director of International Monetary Fund?

(a)  Kristalina Georgieva

(b)  Gita Gopinath

(c)  Geoffery W.S. Okamoto

(d)  Rodrigo Rato

Answer: (a)

39. The singer of Samaveda is known as

(a)  Ardhavayu

(b)  Udgatr

(c)  Hotra

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

40. The river Parushini is known as

(a)  Swati

(b)  Ravi

(c)  Ghaggar

(d)  Kabul

Answer: (b)

41. Who wrote the book “Hasanat-ul-Arifin”?

(a)  Abul Fazl

(b)  Dara Shikoh

(c)  Nizamuddin Ahmed

(d)  Abbas Khan Sherwani

Answer: (b)

42. What is the capital of Macedonia?

(a)  Vilnius

(b)  Riga

(c)  Valletta

(d)  Skopje

Answer: (d)

43. The imaginary line in southern hemisphere that can be drawn at  of equator is known as

(a)  Tropic of Cancer

(b)  Tropic of Capricorn

(c)  Antarctic Circle

(d)  Arctic Circle

Answer: (c)

44. Damon Galgut won the Booker Prize, 2021 for the book

(a)  In a Strange Room

(b)  The Good Doctor

(c)  Arctic Summer

(d)  The Promise

Answer: (d)

45. The Study of spiders and related animals is known as

(a)  Ophiology

(b)  Arachnology

(c)  Ethology

(d)  Myology

Answer: (b)

46. The capital of the country Mozambique is

(a)  Maputo

(b)  Rabat

(c)  Lilongwe

(d)  Accra

Answer: (a)

47. The Asiatic Society in Kolkata was established on

(a)  15 January 1854

(b)  25 January 1784

(c)  15 January 1874

(d)  15 January 1784

Answer: (d)

48. A car covered a certain distance at 90 km/h and returned back at 60 km/h. Find his average speed (in km/h) for the entire journey.

(a)  80

(b)  70

(c)  72

(d)  75

Answer: (c)

49. Find the time taken by a 200 m long train running at 36 km/h to cross a boy standing on a platform.

(a)  15 s

(b)  20 s

(c)  23 s

(d)  25 s

Answer: (b)

50. In a 600 m race, P gives Q a start of 200 m. Ratio of speeds of P and Q is 5 : 4. By what distance Q wins the race?

(a)  100 m

(b)  125 m

(c)  150 m

(d)  175 m

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-55) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are eight employees of a concern. Each is allotted a different locker out of eight lockers numbered 1 to 8 in a cupboard. The lockers are arranged in four rows with two lockers in each now.

Lockers 1 and 2 are in the top row from left to right, respectively while lockers 7 and 8 are in the bottom row arranged from left to right, respectively. Lockers 3 and 4 are in the second row from the top – arranged from right to left, respectively. So are lockers 5 and 6 – arranged from right to left, respectively – in the second row from the bottom. P has been allotted locker 1 while V has been allotted locker 8. T’s locker is just above that of Q which is just above that of R, whereas W’s locker is in the bottom row.

51. Which of the following cannot be the correct locker number-occupant pair?

(a)  3-Q

(b)  7-W

(c)  4-U

(d)  6-R

Answer: (d)

52. If U’s locker is not beside Q’s locker, whose locker is just above the of W’s locker?

(a)  U

(b)  S

(c)  R

(d)  Q

Answer: (a)

53. Which of these pairs cannot have lockers that are diagonally placed?

(a)  P-Q

(b)  S-R

(c)  U-R

(d)  Either option (b) or (c)

Answer: (d)

54. Which of the following groups consists only occupants of odd numbered lockers?

(a)  Q, R, W

(b)  R, V, W

(c)  T, R, Q

(d)  P, T, Q

Answer: (a)

55. If U’s locker is in the same row as that of R and S exchanges his locker with V, then who is the new neighbor of V in the same row? (assume that nothing else is distributed from the original arrangement)

(a)  P

(b)  Q

(c)  R

(d)  U

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 56-60) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S and T sit around a table. P sits two seats to the left of R and Q sits two seats to the right of R.

56. If S sits in between Q and R, who sits to the immediate right of P?

(a)  T

(b)  S

(c)  Q

(d)  R

Answer: (a)

57. Which of the following cannot be the correct seating arrangement of the five persons in either the clockwise direction or the anti-clockwise direction?

(a)  P, Q, R, S, T

(b)  P, S, R, T, Q

(c)  P, Q, S, R, T

(d)  P, T, R, S, Q

Answer: (a)

58. If S is not sitting next to Q, who is sitting between Q and S ?

(a)  R

(b)  P

(c)  T

(d)  Both R and P

Answer: (b)

59. If a new person U joins the group such that the initial conditions for the seating arrangement should be observed and also a new condition that U does not sit next to R be satisfied, then which of the following statements is true?

(a)  U sits to the immediate right of S

(b)  U sits to the immediate left of T

(c)  U sits to the immediate left of P

(d)  Either a or b

Answer: (c)

60. If a new person U joins the group such that the initial conditions for the seating arrangement should be observed and also a new condition that U does not sit next to P, S or T be satisfied, then who will be the neighbours of P (one on either side) ?

(a)  S and T

(b)  S and Q

(c)  T and R

(d)  R and Q

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-65) Choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

61. Commencement of adjacent words with the same letter.

(a)  Consonance

(b)  Concubine

(c)  Alliteration

(d)  Euphemism

Answer: (c)

62. A wall built to prevent the sea or a river from flooding an area-

(a)  Dyke

(b)  Surveillance

(c)  Nuance

(d)  Reconnaissance

Answer: (a)

63. An entertainer who performs difficult physical actions

(a)  Clown

(b)  Gymnast

(c)  Nuance

(d)  Acrobat

Answer: (d)

64. A white skinned woman with dark brown hair-

(a)  Amazon

(b)  Brunette

(c)  Swashbuckler

(d)  Anodyne

Answer: (b)

65. Bitter and violent attack in words-

(a)  Pandemonium

(b)  Prototype

(c)  Diatribe

(d)  Profanity

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 66-70) Groups of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt, Find out the wrongly spelt word.

66.

(a)  Connoisseur

(b)  Insolvent

(c)  Jubillee

(d)  Spendthrift

Answer: (c)

67.

(a)  Renunciation

(b)  Quotiant

(c)  Survivor

(d)  Efficient

Answer: (b)

68.

(a)  Commemoration

(b)  Accommodation

(c)  Asassination

(d)  Association

Answer: (c)

69.

(a)  Abarrant

(b)  Abecedarian

(c)  Barouche

(d)  Barbarian

Answer: (a)

70.

(a)  Replaceable

(b)  Presumptuous

(c)  Prerogative

(d)  Predater

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 71-75) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

71. INADVERTENT

(a)  Thoughtless

(b)  Unintentional

(c)  Insane

(d)  Unintelligent

Answer: (b)

72. INFURIATE

(a)  Burn

(b)  Disgrace

(c)  Threaten

(d)  Enrage

Answer: (d)

73. PROSPECTIVE

(a)  Potential

(b)  Prosperous

(c)  Perplexed

(d)  Possible

Answer: (a, d)

74. LOUSY

(a)  Unbearable

(b)  Unpleasant

(c)  Awful

(d)  Stinking

Answer: (c)

75. ACCENTUATED

(a)  Exhibited

(b)  Devalued

(c)  Mitigated

(d)  Sharpened        

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-80) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

76. LACERATION

(a)  Convalescence

(b)  Recuperation

(c)  Healing

(d)  Palpitation

Answer: (c)

77. IMPLICATE

(a)  Disentangle

(b)  Impersonate

(c)  Complicate

(d)  Impose

Answer: (a)

78. INGEST

(a)  Disrupt

(b)  Disgorge

(c)  Dismiss

(d)  Display

Answer: (b)

79. HERETICAL

(a)  Contradictory

(b)  Doubtful

(c)  Impious

(d)  Orthodox

Answer: (d)

80. PHILISTINE

(a)  Cultured

(b)  Libertine

(c)  Sober

(d)  Educated

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 81-85) In the following question a part of the sentence is bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part as (a), (b), (c), and (d) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative.

81. The young boy was considered uncorrectable by his parents.

(a)  impolite

(b)  incorrigible

(c)  unruly

(d)  no improvement

Answer: (b)

82. Write down the address lest you may forget.

(a)  you may not forget

(b)  you cannot forget

(c)  you will forget

(d)  you should forget

Answer: (d)

83. He is addicted to smoke.

(a)  addicted to smoking

(b)  used to smoke

(c)  addicted of smoking

(d)  addicted with smoking

Answer: (a)

84. I will be with you in one quarter of an hour

(a)  a quarter of one hour

(b)  a quarter of an hour

(c)  a quarter of hour

(d)  no improvement

Answer: (b)

85. I am thinking to do an M.A. in English

(a)  wondering to do

(b)  thinking doing

(c)  thinking of doing

(d)  no improvement

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

86. There is no love lost between any two neighbouring countries in the world.

(a)  stop loving

(b)  not on good terms

(c)  forming a group

(d)  have good understanding

Answer: (b)

87. When it was the peak season of his business, he played ducks and drakes with money.

(a)  distributed among the poor

(b)  spent money carelessly

(c)  played childish game

(d)  closed his season

Answer: (b)

88. The story of his survival in Tsunami beggars description.

(a)  is beyond description

(b)  is interesting

(c)  is described by a beggar

(d)  not described by anyone

Answer: (a)

89. I don’t know why she has become stand-offish recently.

(a)  angry

(b)  hilarious

(c)  indifferent

(d)  unmanageable

Answer: (c)

90. The president of this club should be someone who is open and above board.

(a)  far better

(b)  highly qualified

(c)  honest

(d)  rich and hard working

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Read the following passage carefully and Answer the Questions given below:

Many people are aware of the famous “witch trials” that occurred at the end of the seventeenth century in Salem, Massachusetts. But fewer people know that men, women, and children had been persecuted in New England for practicing witchcraft decades before the Salem trials ever took place. The events in Salem happened between February 1692 and May 1693 and resulted in twenty deaths, but colonies in Connecticut, New Hampshire, and Vermont accused women of practicing witchcraft as early a the 1640s. Colonies in Connecticut executed eleven women on these charges between 1647 and 1663.

Colonists brought with them to North America the widespread European belief in dark magic and the supernatural. Suspicious behavior, sudden illnesses or deaths in families, and rivalries among neighbours often led to accusations of witchcraft. Witchcraft was a capital crime in colonial North America until 1750, and though the judicial procedure varied from colony to colony, often the only evidence needed to start a trial was the testimony of a single witness. The accused woman was ordered to appear before a judge to confess her wrongdoing. If she did not confess, she was brought before a jury, where she endured questioning, torture, and tests that would supposedly reveal her affiliation with the devil. If the woman was found guilty, she was sentenced to death.

The trials ceased in the mid-1690s after thirty-five people had been killed. The governor of Massachusetts put an end to the process after receiving pleas from legal scholars-though it should be noted that the governor’s own wife had been accused of witchcraft right before he called off the trials. Colonists began demanding public apologies from the judges and jury members in 1695, and petitions were filed seeking to reverse the alleged witches convictions as early as 1700. The Massachusetts, New Hampshire, and Vermont governments have formally acknowledged the harm done to the women, but the Connecticut government has yet to clear their names. To this day, descendants of the eleven women put to death in Connecticut hundreds of years ago are fighting to clear their ancestor’s names.

91. According to the passage, in which year did the Salem witch trials end?

(a)  1647

(b)  1663

(c)  1692

(d)  1693

Answer: (d)

92. Which of the following would be the most appropriate subtitle for this passage?

(a)  Seeking Justice for Connecticut’s Convicted Witches

(b)  The Lost Souls of Salem

(c)  The Witch Trials of Colonial New England

(d)  Religion and Witchcraft in Early New England

Answer: (c)

93. Which of the following words best describes the public apology given to victims of the colonial witch trials?

(a)  partial

(b)  delayed

(c)  inclusive

(d)  appropriate

Answer: (a)

94. Based on the information in the final paragraph, it can be inferred that the author believes

(a)  the trials should have continued well into the 1700s

(b)  the Massachusetts governor should have formed an improved legal system       

(c)  the descendants of the Connecticut witches are fighting a useless battle

(d)  the governor’s decision to end the trials may have been unduly influenced

Answer: (d)

95. In paragraph 2, we learn that “Colonists brought with them to North America the widespread European belief in dark magic and the supernatural.” Based on its use in paragraph 2, which of the following examples accurately describes a scenario involving the supernatural?

(a)  Ben can read books faster than anyone else in class.

(b)  Jamie told me she talks to her guardian angel every night.

(c)  The mansion on the hill has been abandoned for over a century.

(d)  Calvin expected the house to be full of people, but it was dark and silent

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

In the height of the Enlightenment, men influenced by the new political theories of the era launched two of the largest revolutions in history. These two conflicts, on two separate continents, were both initially successful in forming new forms of government. And yet, the two conflicts, though merely a decade apart, had-radically different conclusions. How do two wars inspired by more or less the same ideals end up so completely different? Why was the American Revolution largely a success and the French Revolution largely a failure?

Historians have pointed to myriad reasons-far too various to be listed here. However, the most frequently cited are worth mentioning. For one, the American Revolution was far removed from the Old World; that is, since it was on a different continent, other European nations did not attempt to interfere with it. However, in the French Revolution, there were immediate cries for war from neighbouring nations. Early on, for instance, the ousted king attempted to flee to neighbouring Austria and the army waiting there. The newly formed French Republic also warred with Belgium, and a conflict with Britain loomed. Thus, the French had the burden not only of winning a revolution but also defending it from outside. The Americans simply had to win a revolution.

Secondly, the American Revolution seemed to have a better chance for success from the get-go, due to the fact that Americans already saw themselves as something other than British subjects. Thus, there was already a uniquely American character, so, there was not as loud a cry to preserve the British way of life. In France, several thousands of people still supported the king, largely because the king was seen as an essential part of French life. And when the king was first ousted and then killed, some believed that character itself was corrupted. Remember, the Americans did not oust a king or kill him-they merely separated from him.

Finally, there is a general agreement that the French were not as unified as the Americans, who, for the most part, put aside their political differences until after they had already formed a new nation. The French, despite their Tennis Court, Oath, could not do so. Infighting led to inner turmoil, civil war, and eventually the Reign of Terror, in which political dissidents were executed in large numbers. Additionally, the French people themselves were not unified. The nation had so much stratification that it was impossible to unite all of them-the workers, the peasants, the middleclass, the nobles, the clergy-into one cause. And the attempts to do so under a new religion, the Divine Cult of Reason, certainly did not help. The Americans, remember, never attempted to change the society at large; rather, they merely attempted to change the government.

96. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author most likely believes that

(a)  historians have not come to a conclusion about what separates the French and American Revolutions

(b)  the French Revolution could have been just as successful as the American Revolution was

(c)  two events based on the same philosophy are generally not that common

(d)  two events that are similar in one way ought to be similar in other ways

Answer: (d)

97. What function do the questions that end paragraph I play in the passage?

(a)  They introduce the topic the author of the passage will explore, even though he or she will not answer the questions.

(b)  They introduce the author’s opinions on the main topic and summarise his or her main argument.

(c)  They present rhetorical questions that are used only for the purposes of engaging the reader, even though the questions will not be answered.

(d)  They refocus the passage into its original topic after a detour into historical context.

Answer: (b)

98. As used in paragraph 2, the word myriad most nearly means

(a)  an unknowable secret

(b)  an uncountable number

(c)  an unrealistic ideal

(d)  an unusually rare occurrence

Answer: (b)

99. According to the passage, the Reign of Terror happened because of

(a)  social stratification in America

(b)  infighting in the American Revolution

(c)  the decision to kill the king in the French Revolution

(d)  infighting in the French Revolution

Answer: (d)

100. According to the author, which of the following best summarises the most frequently cited explanations historians give for why the French and American Revolution did not turn out the same way?

(a)  Locations relative to Europe, social equality in America, and the lack of a unique French identity

(b)  Social unity among the Americans, social stratification among the French, and the character of the French and Americans in general

(c)  Locations relative to Europe, American and French characters, and political cohesion or lack thereof

(d)  Locations relative to Europe, the decision to oust or not oust a king, and a lack of unity amongst all the revolutionaries

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-105) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

By the mid-nineteenth century, mass production of paper patterns, the emergence of the home sewing machine, and the convenience of mail order catalogs brought fashionable clothing into the American home. By the early twentieth century, home economists working in extension and outreach programs taught women how to use paper patterns to improve the fit and efficiency of new garments as well as how to update existing ones.

Teachers of home economics traditionally made home sewing a critical part of their curriculum, emphasizing self-sufficiency and resourcefulness for your women. However, with the increasing availability of mass-produced clothing in catalogs and department stores, more and more women preferred buying garments to making them. As a result, home economist shifted their attention to consumer education. Through field study, analysis, and research, they became experts on the purchase and preservation of ready-to-wear clothing for the family, offering budgeting instruction targeted at adolescent girls. Modern home sewing made it possible for American women to transcend their economic differences and geographic locations with clothing that was increasingly standardized. The democratisation of fashion continued through the twentieth century as the ready-to-wear market expanded and home sewing became more of a pastime than a necessity.

101. According to the passage, the advent of mail order catalogs altered the role of home economists because

(a)  mass-produced clothing rendered their jobs obsolete

(b)  women ceased sewing so home economists had to teach other subjects

(c)  their focus shifted to instruction on budgeting and buying and preserving clothing

(d)  home economists had to compete with the ready-to-wear marketplace.

Answer: (b)

102. The passage focuses on the

(a)  historical shifts in home sewing from the mid-nineteenth century through the twentieth century

(b)  changing role of home economists as a result of changes in the world

(c)  modernization of home sewing

(d)  effects of home economists on home sewing

Answer: (b)

103. As used in paragraph 2 which is the best definition for democratization?

(a)  Transitioning to a more democratic political regime

(b)  Altering or modifying in a beneficial way

(c)  Becoming more affordable to the lower class

(d)  Becoming widely available to a populace

Answer: (d)

104. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that home sewing allowed American women to do all of the following except

(a)  continue to wear clothing that had gone out of style in stores

(b)  copy fashions they had seen elsewhere

(c)  create less expensive versions of current styles

(d)  become experts on budgeting and consumerism

Answer: (d)

105. According to the passage, which of the following led to a decline in home sewing?

(I) mail order catalogs

(II) the availability of apparel in retail outlets

(III) curriculum changes in home economics

(a)  Only I

(b)  Only II

(c)  Both I and II

(d)  Both II and III

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 106-110) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Ancient Greek doctors relied heavily on the theory of humorism, a belief that the body was essentially balanced by four substances known as humours and that any ailme was simply the result of an imbalance of these humours. The four substances-black bile, yellow bile, phlegm, and blood-were all found in the body, and each was associated with a different element-air, fire, earth, and water, respectively; too much of one would cause disease. An excess of black bile in your body, for instance, meant you were melancholic; too much blood made you amorous and sanguine. While it is easy today to sneer at such beliefs, theories like this one; though ludicrous, matter historically. The beauty of the ancient wisdom is not that it was actually wise but that the logic behind it opened the door for future scientific inquiry. Thus, while my cough might not be caused by a lack of blood, I can thank Hippoerates and his cohorts for encouraging later doctors to find the actual source of my cough.

106. According to the passage, which of the following correctly matches a humour to its element?

(a)  Phlegm : fire

(b)  Black bile : water

(c)  Yellow bile : fire

(d)  Blood : earth

Answer: (c)

107. As used near the end of the passage, the phrase ‘sneer at’ most nearly means

(a)  deplore

(b)  deride

(c)  debunk

(d)  decline

Answer: (b)

108. It can be inferred from the passage that Hippocrates was

(a)  an ancient philosopher         

(b)  a disease researcher

(c)  a modern humanist

(d)  a Greek physician

Answer: (d)

109. Which of the following would be the most appropriate subtitle for this passage?

(a)  Ancient Humor, Modern Applications    

(b)  Greek Philosophy and the Origin of Science

(c)  The Humorists and the Scientists

(d)  The Humors and Why They Matter

Answer: (d)

110. It can be inferred from the penultimate (second-to-last) sentence of the passage that the author believes the hunours

(a)  deserve to be studied today for historical reasons

(b)  are laughably inaccurate as explanations for ailments

(c)  can offer alternative treatment for diseases

(d)  should continue to be taught in medical schools

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

Imagine a mythical beast rising before you on two legs that end in cloven hooves. Sharp, curled horns and pointed ears sit atop its head, while a long tongue lolls out of a mouth that seems perpetually frozen in a sinister smile. It carries rusty chains and a pack upon its back, and it waits until nightfall to enter homes and terrorize youngsters, For centuries, horrifying tales of this creature induced nightmares in children during a certain holiday. But while this monster seems like it would be right at home in a Halloween horror story, children across Europe know the creature as Krampus, a demonic creature that punishes misbehaving youth during Christmas.

The legend of Krampus has its roots in Germanic folklore and was popularized in central European countries such as Austria, Hungary, and Slovenia during the seventeenth century. The beast was said to be the uncharitable counterpart to the magnanimous St. Nicholas. While St. Nicholas filled children’s wooden shoes and stockings with treats, Krampus sought out the children who didn’t deserve gifts and delivered spankings and whippings. Children who had been especially bad during the year were in danger of being kidnapped and taken back to the creature’s lair for further punishment until they showed true remorse for their misbehaviour. By the mid-twentieth century, however, people were actively trying to bring an end to perpetuating the story of Krampus. Prominent newspapers across Europe published editorials discouraging parents to share the legend with their children, and the Austrian government distributed “Krampus Is an Evil Man,” a cautionary pamphlet written by psychologists. Thankfully, fewer children grow up fearing Krampus is modern times. But fans of history, folk tales, and offbeat holiday traditions still take time every December to reflect on one of the most frightening characters ever associated with a holiday.

111. Using the passage as a guide, it can be understood that

(I) efforts taken in the mid-twentieth century to discourage sharing the tale of Krampus were effective

(II) the legend of Krampus was popularized when the Austrian government distributed pamphlets

(III) children in Central European countries were afraid of getting eaten by Krampus every Christmas

(a)  I only

(b)  II only

(c)  Both I and II

(d)  Both II and III

Answer: (a)

112. Based on its use in paragraph 2, it can be inferred that the word ‘magnanimous’ belongs to which of the following word groups?

(a)  dastardly, vile, detestable

(b)  generous, compassionate, benevolent

(c)  refined, polish, genteel

(d)  astute, perceptive, intelligent

Answer: (b)

113. Which of the following statements would the author most likely agree with?

(a)  It is for the best that fewer children grow up knowing the legend of Krampus.

(b)  The image of Krampus was not very frightening and shouldn’t have bothered children.

(c)  Children should not expect gifts during the holidays unless they behave all year.

(d)  The legend of Krampus is too juvenile to be discussed in prominent newspapers.

Answer: (a)

114. In the final sentence of the passage, we learn that, “fans of history, folk tales, and offbeat holiday traditions still take time every December to reflect on one of the most frightening characters ever associated with a holiday.” Based on its use in this sentence, which of the following accurately describes something that is offbeat?

(a)  The new restaurant downtown offer simple, traditional American cuisine.

(b)  The toddler had a tantrum after his mother refused to buy him a new toy.

(c)  I ate turkey, stuffing, and pumpkin pie on Thanksgiving last year.

(d)  My cousin’s handmade clothing combines contrasting colors and patterns.

Answer: (d)

115. Which of the following would be the most appropriate subtitle for this passage?

(a)  Holiday Monsters from Halloween to Christmas         

(b)  The Yuletide Legends of Central Europe

(c)  Austria’s Holiday Traditions and Rituals

(d)  On the Dark Side of Christmas

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:

By far, the most popular exhibit at the National Zoo in Washington, DC is the zoo’s pair of giant pandas, Mei Xiang and Tian Tian. These are the second set of pandas government made to the Nixons during then-President Nixon’s historic trip to China in 1972. Nixon was the first sitting President to visit China since the nation became Communist. The popularity of the exhibit today is easy to understand: The zoo’s giant pandas are two of only 300 captive pandas in the world, two of only 1,900 total pandas in either China or captivity! Yet, while literally thousands of people ‘bear’ witness to the giant pandas each day, few can ‘bear’ to face a simple reality: the socalled ‘panda bears’ may not be bears to all.

The debate began in 1869, when the first European witness of a giant panda likened the strange animal to a bear. However, Alphonse Milne-Edwards, a French scientist, challenged that classification after reviewing the remains of a giant panda and concluding that it was physiologically closer to the red panda, a member of the raccoon family. To this day, scientists are not certain about how to classify the giant panda.

But the giant panda is plainly a bear on sight, so how can it be classified with raccoons? Well, part of it is because taxonomy is hardly a perfect science, and classification occurs on many levels; appearance, genetics, behaviour, evolution, etc. In appearance, the red and giant pandas are as similar as they are dissimilar. Likewise, DNA research has revealed similar links between giant pandas and both bears and raccoons. Behaviourally, the only animal that is clearly similar to the giant panda is the red panda. So, even though the giant panda moves like a bear, it eats bamboo in the same manner as the red panda. Eating bamboo could, however, be a trait that developed independently in both species, meaning that tracing evolution many likewise be an inconclusive path. Perhaps, in the end it is best to merely classify both red and giant pandas as, simply, ‘pandas’. Certainly, the classification does not make the animals any less majestic.

116. Which sentence, if removed from the first paragraph, would strengthen the passage?

(a)  “By far, the most popular exhibit at the National Zoo in Washington, DC is the zoo’s pair of giant pandas. Mei Xiang and Tian Tian.”

(b)  “These are the second set of pandas the zoo has owned; the first two were a gift the Chinese government made to the Nixons during then-President Nixon’s a historic trip to China  in 1972.”

(c)  “Nixon was the first sitting president to visit China since the nation became Communist.”

(d)  “The popularity of the exhibit today is easy to understand: The zoo’s giant pandas are two of only 300 captive pandas in the world, and two of only 1,900 total pandas in either China or captivity!”

Answer: (c)

117. The author traces the popularity of the giant panda exhibit at the National Zoo to the

(a)  debate over classifying giant pandas

(b)  fact that the pandas were gifts to the United States

(c)  small number of giant pandas in the wild

(d)  scarcity of giant pandas in zoos

Answer: (d)

118. Each of the following can be inferred from the passage except that

(a)  giant pandas primarily live in China

(b)  the first giant panda was seen by a non-European

(c)  giant pandas are clearly members of the raccoon family

(d)  scientists are still not certain how to classify giant pandas

Answer: (c)

119. Which of the following statements made in the passage least summarizes the author’s main point?

(a)  “to this day, scientists are not certain about how to classify the giant panda”

(b)  “taxonomy is hardly a perfect science”

(c)  “the so-called’ panda bears’ may not be bears at all”

(d)  “it is best to merely classify both the red and giant pandas as, simply, pandas”

Answer: (b)

120. The author’s purpose in writing this passage is most likely to

(a)  suggest that a species has been misclassified

(b)  inform readers about an important scientific debate

(c)  argue that a species is difficult to classify

(d)  refute an argument about two species

Answer: (c)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) UNDER GRADUATE 2022 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Under Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2022

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-3) Below each of the following words (in capital letters) four words are given. Pick out the word that is nearest in meaning to the words given in the capital letters.

1. MENDACIOUS

(a)  Bounteous

(b)  Preemptive

(c)  Albion

(d)  Perfidous

Answer: (d)

2. BROBDINGNAGIAN

(a)  Colossal

(b)  Laconic

(c)  Succinct

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

3. PUSILLANIMOUS

(a)  Plucky

(b)  Tremulous

(c)  Spunky

(d)  Gallant

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 4 and 5) Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the expression in bold.

4. Fall flat

(a)  To fail to stand

(b)  To fail to maintain

(c)  To fail to produce intended effect

(d)  To fail to realise

Answer: (c)

5. She tried to slip out but was caught immediately.

(a)  Steal

(b)  Leave quietly

(c)  Go quickly

(d)  Slight quickly

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-8) Out of the options given, find out the most similar in meaning for the given word.

6. Rostrum

(a)  Dais

(b)  Mould

(c)  Decompose

(d)  Revolve

Answer: (a)

7. Homespun

(a)  Nominal

(b)  Titular

(c)  uniform

(d)  unrefined

Answer: (d)

8. Fester

(a)  Feast

(b)  Carnival

(c)  Decay

(d)  Jollity

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 9 and 10) Fill in the blank with the appropriate option.

9. I know all about that film because I ______ it twice.

(a)  saw

(b)  seen

(c)  had seen

(d)  have seen

Answer: (d)

10. It started to rain while we ____ tennis.

(a)  are playing

(b)  were playing

(c)  had played

(d)  have been playing

Answer: (b)

11. Give the synonym of Angst

(a)  Dread

(b)  Ban

(c)  Authorize

(d)  Calm

Answer: (a)

12. Give the synonym of ‘perseverance’

(a)  Determination

(b)  Negative

(c)  Clear

(d)  Regressive

Answer: (a)

13. Give the synonym of ‘retrograde’.

(a)  Positive

(b)  Downhill

(c)  Seemly

(d)  Disreputable

Answer: (b)

14. Antonym of ‘abrasive’ is

(a)  Begin

(b)  Care

(c)  Kind

(d)  Bear

Answer: (c)

15. Antonym of ‘pandemonium’ is

(a)  Silence

(b)  Nuisance

(c)  Emerge

(d)  Educate

Answer: (a)

16. Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the expression in bold.

They got on well with each other the moment they met.

(a)  Had a friendly relationship

(b)  Held an agreement

(c)  Had a misunderstanding

(d)  Fell in love

Answer: (a)

17. Antonym of ‘reluctance’ is

(a)  Remove

(b)  Polite

(c)  Willingness

(d)  Rapid

Answer: (c)

18. Give the synonym of ‘intransigent’

(a)  Outdated

(b)  Anxiety

(c)  Unbending

(d)  Compliant

Answer: (c)

19. Give the synonym of ‘rebut’

(a)  Confirm

(b)  Disprove

(c)  Intentional

(d)  Conscious

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-21) Choose the alternative that best expresses the meaning of the underlined expression.

20. Sachin has had a good innings in cricket.

(a)  Fine experience

(b)  Ultimate success

(c)  Long and successful spell

(d)  Victorious win

Answer: (c)

21. He left the town under a cloud.

(a)  Of his one accord

(b)  With a heavy heart

(c)  When it was raining

(d)  In disgrace

Answer: (d)

22. The world’s highest plateau is

(a)  Bolivian 

(b)  Tibetan

(c)  Deccan

(d)  Canadian

Answer: (b)

23. Choose the right word to complete the sentence. Thirty kilometres … a big distance.

(a)  is

(b)  are

(c)  was

(d)  were

Answer: (a)

24. Choose the correct word opposite in meaning to the word ‘hesitancy’

(a)  Gird

(b)  Certainty

(c)  Stout

(d)  Band

Answer: (b)

25. Give the antonym of ‘innocuous’.

(a)  Marred

(b)  Immortal

(c)  Harmful

(d)  Pious

Answer: (c)

26. Antonym of ‘fragility’ is

(a)  Robustness

(b)  Raise

(c)  Relax

(d)  Peace

Answer: (a)

27. The abbreviation BRICS stands for

(a)  Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Africa

(b)  Britain-Russia-India-China-South Africa

(c)  Brazil-Russia-India-China-South Korea

(d)  Bangladesh-Russia-India-China-South Africa

Answer: (a)

28. Parakram Diwas is observed to celebrate the birth anniversary of

(a)  Atal Bihari Vajpayee

(b)  A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

(c)  Subhash Chandra Bose

(d)  Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (c)

29. In the study of pollution, SPM refers to

(a)  Suspended Particulate Matter

(b)  Solid Particulate Matter

(c)  Sulphur Particulate Matter

(d)  Sulphur Phosphorus Matter

Answer: (a)

30. Where is CSIR-Central Glass and Ceramic Research Institute situated?

(a)  Nagpur   

(b)  Lucknow

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Kolkata

Answer: (d)

31. Hollywood is located in

(a)  London

(b)  Paris

(c)  California

(d)  Florida

Answer: (c)

32. Insert the missing letter.

(a)  O

(b)  N

(c)  M

(d)  Q

Answer: (c)

33. Which of the following won “Oscar Award 2020 for best film?

(a)  Gully Boy

(b)  Parasite

(c)  Joker

(d)  Avenger

Answer: (b)

34. The capital of Somalia is

(a)  Ankara

(b)  Juba

(c)  Mogadishu

(d)  Ulan Bator

Answer: (c)

35. Finland is known as

(a)  Land of Midnight Sun

(b)  Land of Golden Fleece

(c)  Land of Thunderbolt

(d)  Land of Thousand Lakes

Answer: (d)

36. In banking system the abbreviation SWIFT stands for

(a)  Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Transformation

(b)  Society for World Interbank Financial Telecommunications

(c)  Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunications

(d)  Society of World Interbank Financial Telecommunications

Answer: (c)

37. NASA refers to

(a)  National Aeronautics and Space Administration

(b)  National Airborne and Space Agency

(c)  Northern Airborne and Space Agency

(d)  North Atlantic Space Agency

Answer: (a)

38. There are five persons A, B, C, D and E in a row. B is to the right of C and A is to the left of D and right of B, C is to the right of E. Who is in the middle?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

Answer: (a)

39. How many times do the hands of a clock make a right angle with each other during 24 h?

(a)  22

(b)  24

(c)  44

(d)  48

Answer: (c)

40. Find the odd one among the following:

(a)  Success-Failure

(b)  Gain-Profit

(c)  Spend-Earn

(d)  Win-Lose

Answer: (b)

41. Insert the missing number.

(a)  20

(b)  16

(c)  4

(d)  3

Answer: (d)

42. Which country won the Cricket World Cup in 1983?

(a)  India

(b)  Pakistan

(c)  West Indies

(d)  England

Answer: (a)

43. The author of the book “Home in the World” is

(a)  Amartya Sen

(b)  Amitav Ghosh

(c)  Kaushik Basu

(d)  Ruskin Bond

Answer: (a)

44. Who was the captain of Indian Women’s Hockey team for Tokyo Olympics 2020?

(a)  Lalremsiami

(b)  Savita Punia

(c)  Rani Rampal

(d)  Deep Grace Ekka

Answer: (c)

45. What is the rank of India in the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2021?

(a)  130

(b)  132

(c)  134

(d)  135

Answer: (d)

46. What is the time of the mirror image of a clock when the original time is 8 min past 12?

(a)  11 : 52

(b)  10 : 54

(c)  11 : 25

(d)  6 : 52

Answer: (a)

47. At what angle the hands of a clock are inclined at 15 minute past 6?

(a) 

(b)  90°

(c)  95°

(d)  97°

Answer: (a)

48. R and K are good in Football and Cricket. S and R are good in Football and Golf. G and K are good in Volleyball and Cricket. S, G and M are good in Tennis and Golf. Who is good in Football, Volleyball and Cricket?

(a)  G

(b)  R

(c)  K

(d)  S

Answer: (c)

49. There are six persons A, B, C, D, E and F in a circle. C is facing to D. D is to the right of B and left of E. E is to the left of A. F is to the right of C. If A exchanges his position with F and B with D, then who is to the left of A?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  A

(d)  F

Answer: (b)

50. Find the missing term

KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD, ?

(a)  PSE

(b)  PTE

(c)  OTE

(d)  OSE

Answer: (c)

51. Find the missing term

PON, RQP, TSR, VUT, ?

(a)  WXV

(b)  XWV

(c)  XWU

(d)  XWZ

Answer: (b)

52. Find the missing number.

4, 5, 8, 13, 20, ?

(a)  29

(b)  27

(c)  28

(d)  30

Answer: (a)

53. ‘Pitch’ is related to ‘Cricket’, in same way ‘Court’ is related to

(a)  Tennis

(b)  Race

(c)  Boeing

(d)  Football

Answer: (a)

54. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and to balance the following equations.

16 * 6 * 25 * 36 * 2 = −116

(a)  −, ×, + ÷

(b)  +, −, ×, ÷

(c)  +, ×, ÷, −

(d)  −, ÷, +, ×

Answer: (a)

55. Which two signs should be interchanged in the following equation to make it correct?

28 – 32 ÷ 2 + 286 × 26 = −25

(a)  + and −

(b)  × and +

(c)  ÷ and ×

(d)  + and ÷

Answer: (c)

56. It takes 3 days for Mr. X to go from place A to place B. On the first day he travelled 30% of the entire distance, on the second day 60% of the remaining distance. After the first two days it remains for Mr. X to travel by 5 km less than the distance he covered during the first day. What is the distance between A and B?

(a)  200 km

(b)  150 km

(c)  250 km

(d)  300 km

Answer: (c)

57. Salim saves 14% of his salary while Manjur saves 22%. If both get the same salary and Manjur saves Rs 1540, then the savings and salary of Salim are

(a)  Rs 980, Rs 5000

(b)  Rs 980, Rs 6000

(c)  Rs 980, Rs 7000

(d)  Rs 980, Rs 8000

Answer: (c)

58. Due to fall in rate of interest from 12% to 10.5% per annum simple interest a money lender’s income diminishes by Rs 900. Find the capital.

(a)  Rs 40000

(b)  Rs 45000

(c)  Rs 55000

(d)  Rs 60000

Answer: (d)

59. A seller offers a TV for Rs 27000 cash down or Rs 3000 cash down and 18 equal monthly installment of Rs 1500 each. Find the simple interest charged.

Answer: (a)

60. Find two numbers such that the mean proportional between them is 6 and the third proportional to them is 48.

(a)  (3, 12)

(b)  (4, 9)

(c)  (2, 18)

(d)  (3, 18)

Answer: (a)

61. What is the last digit of the product of 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 and 19?

(a)  0

(b)  1

(c)  9

(d)  5

Answer: (a)

62. 200 men are employed in a job to complete it by 35 days. After 15 days, it is seen that only 2/7th portion of the job has been finished. The number of men to be further employed to complete the job within the stipulated time is

(a)  50

(b)  175

(c)  375

(d)  75

Answer: (b)

63. Two-fifth of X’s money is equal to Y’s, and seven-ninth of Y’s money is equal to Z’s; in all they have Rs 770. How much X has?

(a)  Rs 140

(b)  Rs 180

(c)  Rs 320

(d)  Rs 450

Answer: (d)

64. Two bottles contain mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5 : 1 and the other in the ratio 9 : 1. In what proportion the quantities from the two should be mixed together, so that the mixture thus formed may contain milk and water in the ratio of 8 : 1?

(a)  1 : 5

(b)  5 : 1

(c)  1 : 8

(d)  2 : 5

Answer: (a)

65. At 12:00 noon X starts to walk at 6 km an hour and at 1 : 30 pm. Y follows on horseback at 8 km an hour. When will Y overtake X?

(a)  4 : 30 pm

(b)  5 : 00 pm

(c)  5 : 30 pm

(d)  6 : 00 pm

Answer: (d)

66. Two numbers are in the ratio 5 : 6. If 20 is added to each of them, the ratio becomes 7 : 8. The numbers are

(a)  55, 66

(b)  50, 60

(c)  40, 48

(d)  25, 30

Answer: (b)

67. A person took a loan of Rs 10000 at X% simple interest and after 5 yr he pays a total of Rs 14250. Then X is

(a)  6.5

(b)  7.5

(c)  8

(d)  8.5

Answer: (d)

68. A rope 198 cm long was cut into two parts so that one part turned out to be 20% longer than the other part. The lengths are

(a)  100 cm, 98 cm

(b)  120 cm, 78 cm

(c)  108 cm, 90 cm

(d)  101 cm, 97 cm

Answer: (c)

69. If  then which one in true?

Answer: (a)

70. If x : y = 3 : 2, find the value of 

(a)  5 : 8

(b)  8 : 5

(c)  3 : 5

(d)  5 : 3

Answer: (b)

71. Find the value of 

(a)  a – b + c

(b)  a + b + c

(c)  −a + b – c

(d)  a – b – c

Answer: (c)

72. Simplify –[–{–(y + z – x)}] + {(x + z – y)}].

(a)  2x + 2y

(b)  2x – 2y

(c)  2x – 2z

(d)  2x – 2y – 2z

Answer: (b)

73. Find the value of 84 – 7[–11x – 4{–17x

(a)  12x

(b)  21x

(c)  x

(d)  –12x

Answer: (b)

74. Find the fourth proportional to 6, 9, 20.

(a)  25

(b)  30

(c)  60

(d)  40

Answer: (b)

75. The sum of speed with which a motor ship goes with stream and against the stream of a river is equal to 30km/h. The speed of the motor ship in stagnant water is

(a)  15 km/h

(b)  18 km/h

(c)  12 km/h

(d)  30 km/h

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 76-81) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

Though he makes Biblical references throughout ‘The Raven,’ Poe does not allude to the Bible because he is religious. Rather, he does this because he wishes to invoke the Bible’s dramatic and philosophical weight.

For instance, in line 89 the narrator asks the raven, “is there-is there balm in Gilead?” In ancient Arabia, the balm of Gilead was a salve produced from the tree Commiphora gileadenesis. The balm was used to treat the dry, scratchy skin common in Arabia’s desert climate. (The substance currently marketed as “balm of Gilead.” A compound made from the gum of the North American balsam poplar tree, is unlikely to be the subject of Poe’s reference.) The balm is more famous, however, because of its mention in the book of Jeremiah, a reference that readers during Poe’s time would have easily recognized.

As God punishes Jeremiah’s people for their  years of sin and disobedience, Jeremiah utters the phrase “ is there no balm in Gilead?” The meaning of Jeremiah’s question is not literally “is there an ointment that can heal our skin,” but something more philosophical: “Is there anything we can do to relieve the suffering of God’s punishment?” This philosophical question about the nature of relief from suffering is the one Poe invokes in “The Raven.” The narrator is suffering greatly from the loss of his lover Lenore, and this suffering seems hopeless until the mysterious raven appears.

The narrator interprets the raven as an omen of Lenore’s future return, but Poe’s reference to the balm of Gilead signals to the reader that the narrator’s hope is futile. Just as Jeremiah’s people had no hope of evading God’s power on punishment, so does the narrator have no hope of reuniting with his lost Lenore. Furthermore, by comparing the profound suffering depicted in the book of Jeremiah to the narrator’s pining for Lenore, Poe emphasises just how delusional the narrator really is.

76. The author most likely places the sentence “The substance currently marketed as ‘balm of Gilead,’ a compound made from the gum of the North American balsam poplar tree, is unlikely to be the subject of Poe’s reference” in parentheses because it represents a

(a)  the main idea of the passage

(b)  a direct quotation from another source

(c)  a departure from the main idea

(d)  a controversial statement

Answer: (c)

77. In the passage, the word ‘salve’ is a synonym of

(a)  ointment

(b)  solvent

(c)  salvation

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

78. As used near the end of the passage, which is the best synonym for ‘futile’?

(a)  inaccessible

(b)  pointless

(c)  immature

(d)  reckless

Answer: (b)

79. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that the author would most likely characterize Poe’s attitude towards suffering in ‘The Raven’ as

(a)  religious

(b)  disrespectful

(c)  delusional

(d)  philosophical

Answer: (d)

80. The author argues that Poe mentions the balm of Gilead in order to

(a)  demonstrate his own religious convictions

(b)  describe how dry, itchy skin was treated in Arabia’s desert climate

(c)  emphasize the delusional nature of the narrator

(d)  argue that the narrator’s suffering is universal

Answer: (c)

81. Based on information in the passage, it can be inferred that

(a)  readers during Poe’s time were more likely to have read the Bible than today’s readers

(b)  the book of Jeremiah contains the most profound depiction of suffering in the Bible

(c)  ravens are often interpreted as an omen foreshadowing a lover’s return

(d)  the narrator will eventually be reunited with his lost love, Lenore

Answer: (a)

Directions. (Q. Nos. 82-91) Read the following passage and answer the questions carefully.

In one of the most rousing pamphlets of all time, Thomas Paine expounded on the need for American independence. It was ‘Common Sense,’ Paine alleged, forging his place in the pantheon of America’s founders alongside such luminaries as Jefferson, Washington, and Adams. However unlike those three men, Paine did not enjoy celebrity at the time of his death. Instead of being lionized, Paine was vilified by the very same individuals who once passed his pamphlet around as the gospel truth. But it was not ‘Common Sense’ that got him excommunicated from the American canon; rather, it was his final work, The Age of Reason.

To understand The Age of Reason, one needs to understand the context. After the Revolutionary War, Paine returned to his native England before his controversial, proFrench Revolution leanings made him increasingly unpopular. Paine immigrated to France, where he was so revered that he helped draft two separate French constitutions.

However, the French Revolution was a far more violent and turbulent conflict than was the American Revolution, with dozens of leaders jockeying for power and killing each other to get it. Paine ended up in prison during one fluctuation of power but turned this vicissitude into an opportunity. It was while he was in prison that Paine wrote The Age of Reason, his religious text.

The Age of Reason is not an inherently atheistic text, though that is how it was interpreted. Rather, the text espouses the same religious ideals that defined the Enlightenment, especially those ideals of the French Revolution, with its disestablishment of the Catholic Church as a national institution. Paine returned to America in 1802 and quickly fell out of favor in the new nation.

Americans saw The Age of Reason as expressly anti-Christian, even though the actual philosophy of the text is closer to the deism practiced by Thomas Jefferson and other Founding Fathers.

But America of 1802 was very different from the America of the Revolution, as the Second Great Awakening was just rising. In this new, devoutly Protestant nation, men like Paine were not welcome, nor would have men like Jefferson been, if Jefferson had not adapted to the times and modified his public statements on religion. Jefferson, unlike Paine, had the good sense-politically speaking-to not publish his religious beliefs. Thus Jefferson, unlike Paine, was able to publicly, at least, keep up with the times. Paine, on the other hand, was ostracized and denied the corridors of political power he had once helped make possible.

Ultimately, Paine was punished for being an anachronism in a world that passed him by In 1809, Paine died in New York, largely forgotten and certainly not celebrated. And today, while Americans commemorate ‘Common Sense’, most schoolchildren known nothing of the man who wrote it.

82. In paragraph 1 the author makes use of words most commonly associated with which of the following?

(a)  history

(b)  patriotism

(c)  politics

(d)  religion

Answer: (d)

83. Based on its use in paragraph 1, it can be inferred that which of the following would be an example of a ‘pantheon’?

(a)  a canon of important works of literature

(b)  a collection of the best baseball players of all time

(c)  a ranking of American presidents

(d)  a history of the most important era in American politics

Answer: (b)

84. This passage is best described as a(n)

(a)  defense of Thomas Paine’s lifework and time in France

(b)  celebration of American patriots

(c)  historic analysis of the end of the Enlightenment

(d)  analysis of Thomas Paine’s work in historical context

Answer: (d)

85. According to the passage, which of the following provides an accurate order of the places Paine lived during his lifetime?

(a)  America, England, France, America, England

(b)  England, America, France, America, England

(c)  England, America, England, France, America

(d)  America, England, France, America

Answer: (c)

86. As used in paragraph 2, the word ‘vicissitude’ most nearly means

(a)  opportunity

(b)  change

(c)  of violence

(d)  philosophy

Answer: (b)

87. Based on the description given in paragraph 2, as compared to the French Revolution, the American Revolution was

(a)  relatively stable

(b)  completely peaceful

(c)  inherently simple

(d)  largely unimportant

Answer: (a)

88. Which of the following, if added to the passage, would be least likely to strengthen the author’s argument?

(a)  description of Paine’s beliefs

(b)  excerpts from The Age of Reason

(c)  a brief explanation of the beliefs of the Second Great Awakening

(d)  a history of the French Revolution

Answer: (d)

89. Which of the following best describes the function of paragraph 2?

(a)  It provides the context for Paine’s writings.

(b)  It describes the content of The Age of Reason.

(c)  It explains Paine’s unpopularity in America.

(d)  It introduces the author’s main argument.

Answer: (a)

90. Which of the following summarizes the author’s principal explanation for Paine’s unpopularity at the time of his death?

(a)  He had betrayed the ideals of his own and his adopted countries.

(b)  He was explicitly atheistic at a time of religious fervor.

(c)  He was the relic of an earlier era of religious thought.

(d)  He was associated with the equally unpopular Thomas Jefferson.

Answer: (c)

91. As used in the final paragraph, the word anachronism most nearly means something

(a)  disdainful and deservedly criticized

(b)  vilified and demonized by the masses

(c)  that incites religious passion and zeal

(d)  belonging to a different time period

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 92-100) Read the following passage and answer the questions carefully.

Ever hear that John F. Kennedy was assassinated by someone other than Lee Harvey Oswald? Or how about the fact that the United States government has been harboring extraterrestrials and their advanced technology at Area 51?Or-my favorite for its sheer lunacy-that the moon landing was staged in Hollywood? You might laugh at these theories, or like millions of Americans, you might believe them wholeheartedly. Regardless of their veracity, they exist and proliferate each day, and the Internet has only helped to promulgate them.

So where do they come from? Well, in a literal sense, they come from people asking questions and seeking answers. But in a more figurative sense, they come from the experience of not knowing, the great void created by a dearth of certainty. There are several questions about the Kennedy assassination, enough so that several government panels (most notably the Warren Commission) have investigated it; there have been several thousands of reports of UFO encounters (no to mention an equally absurd number of television shows about aliens); and there are aspects of the moon landing that seem too good to be true. But none of these questions necessarily hint at something nefarious or sinister. Rather, they demonstrate that these events are all too real. Nothing in life is certain, and nothing completely adds up. Sure, we’d all prefer major historic events to have the certainty of a sunrise, but there’s the rub: most of us do not really know why the sun rises or even, with certainty, that it will rise tomorrow. But a sane person does not question the sunrise, though that same person will wonder about the trajectory of a bullet in Dallas.

None of this is to say that one should not ask questions. Rather, one should ask questions of everything! We should know who shot JFK, whether there are aliens, and whether the Illuminati control everything. Yet, this is impossible. We can no more know these things than we can know who specifically invented the wheel. So, rather than making up theories to explain away the lacuna of acts, we should simply accept the fact that we will never know absolutely everything about anything. Continue asking questions, but don’t make up ridiculous answers for them. Because the ultimate problem with conspiracy theories is that they don’t answer any questions; they merely explain away gaps of knowledge with pseudoscience.

Put differently, no one is really sure why cats, purr, but that doesn’t mean that cats do not purr. There does not need to be a why for every what.

92. Based on its use in paragraph 1, it can be inferred that ‘veracity’ belongs to which of the following word groups?

(a)  ridiculousness, preposterousness, absurdity

(b)  artifice, bias, prejudice

(c)  fallacy, misconception, delusion

(d)  authenticity, genuineness, truth

Answer: (d)

93. As used in paragraph 2, the word ‘nefarious’ most nearly means

(a)  indifferent

(b)  secret

(c)  evil

(d)  vague

Answer: (c)

94. In this passage, the author makes use of which of the following literary devices?

(a)  Rhetorical question, characterized by a question posed for effect rather than one that expects a reply

(b)  Satire, characterized by the use of ridicule to expose a vice, weakness, or flaw

(c)  Repetition, characterized by repeating the same phrase multiple times for emphasis in order to produce a grander effect

(d)  Paradox, characterized by the use of contradictory concepts or ideas that, when placed together, bear a deep significance or possible truth

Answer: (a)

95. The main purpose of this passage is to

(a)  provide information about the history of conspiracy theories in the twentieth century

(b)  argue that conspiracy theories are harmful to those who ask questions

(c)  refute the notion that conspiracy theories have no benefit in answering unknowable questions

(d)  argue that conspiracy theories arise from normal questions

Answer: (d)

96. Which of the following pieces of information, if added to the passage, would most strengthen the author’s argument?

(a)  proof that Lee Harvey Oswald did not assassinate John F. Kennedy

(b)  examples of ancient theories explaining the sunrise and interactions with aliens

(c)  a survey suggesting that very few Americans actually believe in conspiracy theories

(d)  examples of gaps in certainly about the Kennedy assassination, aliens, and the moon landing

Answer: (d)

97. As used in paragraph 3, ‘lacuna’ most nearly means

(a)  a body of water

(b)  a gap

(c)  an abundance

(d)  a fallacy

Answer: (b)

98. Which of the following best describes the function of the third paragraph in the context of the rest of the passage?

(a)  It redirects the passage and furthers the author’s main argument.

(b)  It refutes the argument made earlier in the passage and provides a new one.

(c)  It introduces several hypothetical conspiracies for the purpose of providing evidence for an earlier point.

(d)  It states the author’s main thesis and restates the evidence the author uses to make his or her argument.

Answer: (a)

99. In the final paragraph, the author most likely uses the example of why cats purr to suggest that some things

(a)  are unknowable

(b)  should simply be accepted as fact

(c)  are scientific truths

(d)  are better left to conspiracy theorists

Answer: (b)

100. Which of the following is not mentioned in the passage as a possible conspiracy theory?

(a)  The moon landing was staged.

(b)  The government has hidden aliens for years.

(c)  Kennedy was not assassinated by a lone gunman.

(d)  The wheel was not invented by one person.

Answer: (d)

National Institute of Fashion & Technology (NIFT) POST Graduate 2018 Question Paper With Answer Key

NIFT (Post Graduate)

National Institute of Fashion and Technology

Solver Paper 2018

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) In each sentence given below, a word is underlined. From the given options choose the word/phrase closest in meaning to the underlined part.

1. Our visit proved to be a waste of time because fog reduced visibility.

(a)  look after

(b)  came to

(c)  turned down

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

2. He resembled his father in many ways.

(a)  took after

(b)  look after

(c)  set in

(d)  held on

Answer: (a)

3. He refused to tolerate laziness on the part of his students.

(a)  look up

(b)  make up

(c)  give up

(d)  put up

Answer: (d)

4. The man looked so respectable and honest that I was completely

(a)  give in

(b)  taken in

(c)  held in

(d)  kept in with

Answer: (b)

5. The railway strike was cancelled at the eleventh hour.

(a)  turned off

(b)  held off

(c)  called off

(d)  pept off

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the given word for the following questions.

6. Obstinate

(a)  Inflexible

(b)  Prominent

(c)  Pliable

(d)  Fashionable

Answer: (c)

7. Abdicate

(a)  Claim

(b)  Snatch

(c)  Plunder

(d)  Seize

Answer: (a)

8. Autonomy

(a)  Submissiveness

(b)  Dependence

(c)  Subordination

(d)  Slavery

Answer: (b)

9. Tragedy

(a)  Humorous

(b)  Comedy

(c)  Romance

(d)  Clamity

Answer: (b)

10. Paucity

(a)  Surplus

(b)  Scarcity

(c)  Presence

(d)  Meagreness

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Fill in the blanks to make her sentence grammatically correct.

11. Shalini was not deterred by the criticism and paid no …….. even when her best friend talked against her.

(a)  attention

(b)  mind

(c)  warning

(d)  heed

Answer: (d)

12. Hitler cast a …… and horrifying shadow upon world history.

(a)  herculean

(b)  gigantic

(c)  colossal

(d)  huge

Answer: (b)

13. Wars usually result from disagreement among the parties involved and failure to ………. them peacefully.

(a)  dispel

(b)  debate

(c)  understand

(d)  resolve

Answer: (d)

14. Although he is reputed for his technical expertise his books were sadly….. of the work of others as he lacked originality.

(a)  unconscious

(b)  independent

(c)  ignorant

(d)  derivative

Answer: (d)

15. It is paradoxical that those who expect ……. from others are seldem merciful themselves.

(a)  clemency

(b)  sympathy

(c)  sincerity

(d)  compassion

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Choose the most logical order of sentences from among the four given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.

16. Passivity is not, of course, universal.

(A) In areas where there are no lords or laws, or in frontier zones where all men go armed, the attitude of the peasantry may well be different.

(B) So indeed it may be on the fringe of the un-submissive.

(C) However, for most of the soil-bound peasants the problem is not whether to be normally passive or active, but when to pass from one state to another.

(D) This depends on an assessment of the political situation.

(a)  EDACB

(b)  CDABE

(c)  EDBAC

(d)  ABCDE

Answer: (d)

17. Michael Hofman, a poet and translator, accepts this sorry fact without approval or complaint.

(A) But thanklessness and impossibility do not daunt him.

(B) He acknowledges too ‘in fact he returns to the point often’ that best translators of poetry always fail at some level.

(C) Hofman feels passionately about his work, and this is clear from his writings.

(D) In terms of the gap between worth and rewards, translators come somewhere near nurses and street-cleaners.

(a)  EACDB

(b)  ADEBC

(c)  EACBD

(d)  DCEAB

Answer: (b)

18. Although there are large regional variations, it is not infrequent to find a large number people sitting there and there and doing nothing.

(A) Once in office, they receive friends and relatives who feel free to calla any time without prior appointment.

(B) Quite often people visit ailing friends and relative or go out of their way to help them in their personal matters even during office hours.

(C) Even those who are employed often come late to the office and leave early unless they are forced to be punctual.

(D) Work is not intrinsically valued in India.

(a)  ABCDE

(b)  EBADC

(c)  EADBC

(d)  ABDCE

Answer: (c)

19. The Supreme Court in various judgements in the last 25 years has further emphasized this.

(A) The Right to Information is derived from Article 19 of the Constitution.

(B) The RTI Act was passed in May 2005 and came into force in October 2005.

(C) It is intended to give relevant information about the government and its institutions.

(D) This act enables citizens to obtain information without going to court each time.

(a)  BDACE

(b)  ABDCE

(c)  BDECA

(d)  CEBAD

Answer: (a)

20. For any scientists oceans are the cradle of life.

(A) But all over the world chemical products and nuclear waste continue to be dumped into them.

(B) Coral reefs, which are known to be the most beautiful places of the submarine world are fast disappearing.

(C) The result is that many species of fish die because of this pollution. Of course man is the root cause behind these problems.

(D) Man has long since ruined the places he visits continents and oceans alike.

(a)  ABCDE

(b)  ABDCE

(c)  BACDE

(d)  EDBCA

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Find the correctly spelt word.

21.

(a)  Abbreviate

(b)  Abreviate

(c)  Abrrviat

(d)  Abbreviat

Answer: (a)

22.

(a)  Accomodasion

(b)  Acommodation

(c)  Accomodation

(d)  Accommodation

Answer: (d)

23.

(a)  Cassettee

(b)  Cassette

(c)  Casatte

(d)  Cassete

Answer: (b)

24.

(a)  Centrigrede

(b)  Centegrade

(c)  Centigrade

(d)  Centigrate

Answer: (c)

25.

(a)  Idelism

(b)  Idaelism

(c)  Idealesm

(d)  Idealism

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) Choose the correct plural forms of the given words.

26. Cactus

(a)  Cacti

(b)  Cactuses

(c)  Cactuss

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

27. Emblem

(a)  Emblem

(b)  Emblems

(c)  Embelems

(d)  Emblemes

Answer: (b)

28. Volcano

(a)  Volcanos

(b)  Volcanoes

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

29. Deer

(a)  Deers

(b)  Deeres

(c)  Deer

(d)  None of these

Answer: (c)

30. Sheep

(a)  Sheep

(b)  Sheeps

(c)  Sheepes

(d)  Ships

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-50) Study the passages below and answer the questions that follow each passage.

PASSAGE I

 Organisations are institutions in which members compete for status and power. They compete for the resources of the organization for example, finance to expand their own departments, for career advancement and for power to control the activities of others. In pursuit of these aims, groups are formed and sectional interests emerge. As a result, policy decisions may serve the ends of the political and career systems rather than those of the concern. In this way, the goals of the organization may be displaced infavour of sectional interests and individual ambition. These preoccupations sometimes prevent the emergence of organic systems. May of the electronics firms in their study had recently created research and development departments employing highly qualified and well-paid scientists and technicians. Their high pay and expert knowledge were sometimes seen as threat to the established order of rank, power and privilege. Many senior managers had little knowledge of the technicalities and possibilities of new developments and electronics. Some felt that close cooperation with the experts in an organic system would reveal their ignorance and show that their experience was now redundant.

31. The author makes out a case for

(a)  organic system

(b)  research and development in organizations.

(c)  an understanding between senior and middle level executives.

(d)  a refreshers course for senior managers.

Answer: (a)

32. The theme of the passage is

(a)  groupism in organizations.

(b)  individual ambitions in organizations.

(c)  frustration of senior managers.

(d)  emergence of sectional interests in organizations.

Answer: (d)

33. Policy decision in organization would involve

(a)  cooperation at all levels in the organization.

(b)  modernization of the organization.

(c)  attracting highly qualified personnel.

(d)  keeping in view the larger objectives of the organization.

Answer: (c)

34. The author tends to see the senior managers as

(a)  ignorant and incompetent.

(b)  a little out of step with their work environment.

(c)  jealous of their younger colleagues.

(d)  robbed of their rank, power and privilege.

Answer: (a)

35. ‘Organic system’ as related to the organization implies its

(a)  growth with the help of export knowledge.

(b)  growth with inputs from science and technology

(c)  steady all-round development.

(d)  natural and unimpeded.

Answer: (b)

PASSAGE II

Urbanization is a positive phenomenon provided the cities are able to the harness its potential. A recently public published UN-Habitat global report on human settlements shows that not many cities in developing countries such as India have managed to do this. Indian cities struggle to manage the swelling numbers. They tend to have inadequate infrastructure poor mobility and a lack of affordable housing. The challenge they face is two fold efforts to distribute growth across urban centres have been inadequate and the urban planning practices are outdated.

Much attention is paid to mega cities, leaving the smaller cities largely unattended. Of the 5161, urban centres, as the eleventh five year plan points out, only y1500 have some form of plan to mange their growth. With quality of life suffering in the smaller cities, more people tend to move to the metros, burdening them further. Although, the need for developing small and medium-size towns was highlighted as early as 1988, by the first National Commission on Urbanization, not much has happened on that front. As for the bigger cities, the additional attention and the presence of a master plan have not necessarily meant improvement, managing a city through a single unified master plan has failed to deliver. The reason for this, aside from poor implementation, is that the plans are conceptually flawed.

Indian cities are complex composites. Alongside the formal city exists a large and an equally important informal city inhabited by the poor. Even the formal city is composed of many parts such as the historical core. The colonial enclave and new areas of post-independence growth. Not withstanding these differences, the master plan tends to paint the city with a single brush, favouring the new formal areas and ignoring the informal. This has fragmented cities further and skewed development in favour of new areas. The recommendations in the UN-Habitat report do offer a way forward. The suggestion to implement the strategic spatial planning system should be immediately adopted. Unlike the master plan, such innovations recognize the intra-city difference better and help focus on priority aspects or areas. They should help eventually to mitigate spatial inequalities, integrate infrastructure and evolve compact city forms that will optimize travelling within the city. Simultaneously, the institutional framework for planning should be strengthened with an emphasis on people’s participation and regional networking. Earnest implementation and regular monitoring of the plans are equally vital for reaping the benefits of planning.

36. It is implied in the passage that

(a)  Cities in India have not been able to reap the real benefits of urbanization due to of proper planning.

(b)  Urbanization is not a desirable phenomenon.

(c)  Urbanization offers the solution for all the problems that smaller cities face.

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

37. What according to the author are the main components of a ‘formal city’?

(a)  The historical core, the colonial enclave and the newly developed areas.

(b)  Pre-independence and post-independence areas.

(c)  New city and old city.

(d)  Planned city and the unplanned city.

Answer: (a)

38. Which one or more of the following factor is/are recommended by the UN-Habitat report as essential for planned urbanization and growth?

(1) The master plan proposed by the first National Commission on urbanization

(2) The strategic spatial planning system.

(3) A strong institutional framework for planning encouraging people’s participation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

(a)  Only 1

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1, 2 and 3

(d)  1 and 3

Answer: (b)

39. The caption that suitably sums up the contents of this passage is

(a)  challenges of urbanization-the strategic way forward

(b)  the phenomenon of urbanization boon or bane 

(c)  urbanization – a monster out of control

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (a)

40. Why has the master plan to manage a city failed?

(1) The officers concerned did not respond to the government’s directive.

(2) The plans were not acted upon in a proper manner.

(3) The plans did have mistakes in them.

(a)  Only 1

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  1 and 3

(d)  All 1, 2 and 3

Answer:

PASSAGE III

The simplest method of welding two pieces of metal together is known as pressure welding. The ends of metal are heated to a white heat – for iron, the welding temperature should be about 1300°C in a flame. At this temperature the metal becomes plastic. The ends are the pressed or hammered together, and the joint is smoothed off. Care must be taken to ensure that the surfaces are thoroughly clean first, for dirt will weaken the weld. Moreover, the heating of iron or steel to a high temperature cause oxidation, and a film of oxide is formed on the heated surfaces. For this reason, a flux is applied to the heated metal. At welding heat, the flux melts, and the oxide particles are dissolved in it together with any other impurities which may be present. The metal surfaces are pressed together, and the flux is squeezed out from the centre of the weld. A number of different types of weld may be used, but for fairly thick bars of metals, a vee-shaped weld should normally be employed. It is rather stronger than the ordinary but weld.

41. The simplest way of welding two pieces of metal together is

(a)  heating the metal

(b)  holding it in a flame

(c)  coating the metal with plastic

(d)  hammering heated pieces

Answer: (d)

42. Unless the surfaces are cleaned first

(a)  the metal will not take white heat

(b)  the resulting weld will be weak

(c)  the joint will be rough

(d)  the metal will be less plastic

Answer: (d)

43. When iron is heated to about 1300 degree centrigrade

(a)  flames turn from white to blue

(b)  chemical reaction starts

(c)  oxide film is found on its surfaces

(d)  it turns into steel

Answer: (b)

44. The flux is used to

(a)  make the metal plastic

(b)  cool the heated metal

(c)  cover up any dirt

(d)  dissolve oxide and other impurities

Answer: (a)

45. For fairly thick bars of metals

(a)  a vee-shaped wild would be used

(b)  ordinary butt weld should be used

(c)  a number of different types f weld may be used

(d)  a pressure weld may be used

Answer: (c)

PASSAGE IV

Gloria Steinem, in full Gloria Marie Steinem, (born 25th March, 1934, Toledo, Ohio, U.S.) American feminist, political activist, and editor who was an articulate advocate of the Women’s Liberation Movement during the late 20th and early 21st centuries.

Steinem spent her early years travelling with her parents in a house trailer. After their divorce in 1946, Gloria settled with her mother in Toledo, Ohio, and for the first time began attending school on a regular basis. Her childhood was marked by the added responsibility of taking care of her mother, who was chronically depressed. During her senior year of high school, Steinem moved to Washington, D.C., to live with her older sister.

After graduating from Smith College in 1956, Steinem went to India on a scholarship. There she participated n non-violent protests against Government policy. In 1960, she began working as a writer and journalist in New York City.

Steinem gained attention in 1963 with her article ‘I was a Playboy Bunny’, which recounted her experience as a scantily clad waitress at Hug Hefner’s Playboy Club. By 1968, Steinem’s work had become more overtly political. She began writing a column, ‘The City Politic,’ for New York magazine. Her involvement in feminism intensified in 1968, when she attended a meeting of a radical feminist group, the Redstockings. Proud of her feminist roots-her paternal grandmother had served as President of the Ohio Women’s Suffrage Association from 1908 to 1911-Steinem founded the National Women’s Political Caucus in July 1971 with Betty Friedan, Bella Abzug, and Shirley Chisholm. That same year, she began exploring the possibility of a new magazine for women, one that treated contemporary issues from a feminist perspective. The result was Ms Magazine, which first appeared as an insert in the December 1971, issue of New York. The following year the first stand-alone issue was published. Steinem gave much of her time to political organizations and became an articulate advocate for the Women’s Liberation Movement. She participated in the founding of the Coalition of Labour Union Women, Voters for Choice, Women Against Pronography, and the Women’s Media Center. In 2016, she hosted the television documentary series Woman with Gloria Steinem, which focused on issues that concerned females. Her publication include the essay collections Outrageous Acts and Everyday Rebellions (1983) and Moving Beyond Words: Age, Rage, Sex, Power, Money, Muscles. Breaking the Boundaries of Gender (1994), Revolution From Within (1992) a work on self-esteem for women, and Marilyn (1997), about Marilyn Monroe. Steinem also wrote the memoir ‘My Life on the Road’ (2015).

In 2013, Steinem was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom.

46. The column ‘The City Politic’ was written by Gloria for which magazine?

(a)  The New Yorker

(b)  The Week

(c)  New York

(d)  Playboy

Answer: (c)

47. How did Gloria spend her early years?

(a)  Playing football

(b)  Travelling with her parents in a car

(c)  Studying

(d)  Travelling with her parents in a house trailer

Answer: (d)

48. What is ‘The Redstockings’?

(a)  A rock band

(b)  Name of a magazine

(c)  A radical feminist group

(d)  A soccer club

Answer: (c)

49. Gloria Steinem was born in the state of

(a)  New York

(b)  Ohio

(c)  Kentucky

(d)  Michigan

Answer: (b)

50. Steinem founded the National Women’s Political Caucus with

(a)  Betty Friedan

(b)  Shirley Chisholm

(c)  Bella Abzug

(d)  All of these

Answer: (d)

51. A man is twice as fast as a woman and a woman is twice as fast as a boy in doing a work. If all the them a man, a woman and a boy can finish the work in 7 days, then how many days a boy will do it alone?

(a)  49

(b)  7

(c)  6

(d)  42

Answer: (a)

52. If the total cost of 73 articles having equal cost is Rs 5110 and the total selling price of 89 such article is Rs 5607, then in the transaction, there will be

(a)  a loss of 15%

(b)  a gain of 10%

(c)  a loss of 10%

(d)  a gain of 15%

Answer: (c)

53. In a class of 110 students x students take both Mathematics and Statistics, x + 20 students take Mathematics and x +30 students take Statistics, There are no students who take neither Mathematics nor Statistics. What is x equal to?

(a)  15

(b)  20

(c)  25

(d)  30

Answer: (b)

54. A man goes from Mysore to Bangalore at uniform speed of 40 km/h and comes back to Mysore at a uniform speed of 60 km/h. His average speed for the whole journey is

(a)  48 km/h

(b)  55 km/h

(c)  54 km/h

(d)  55 km/h

Answer: (a)

55. The compound interest on a certain sum of money at 5% per annum for 2 yr is Rs 246. The simple interest on the same sum for 3 yr at 6% per annum is

(a)  Rs 435

(b)  Rs 450

(c)  Rs 430

(d)  Rs 432

Answer: (d)

56. From a point on a circular track 5 km long, A, B and C started running in the same direction at the same time, with speeds of 2½ km/h, 3 km/h and 2 km/h, respectively.

Then, on the starting point all three will meet again after

(a)  30 h

(b)  6 h

(c)  10 h

(d)  15 h        

Answer: (c)

57. 1th and 5/8th of a bamboo are mud and water respectively and the rest of length 2.75 m is above water. What is the length of the bamboo?

(a)  10 m

(b)  30 m

(c)  27.5 m

(d)  20 m

Answer: (a)

58. There are two containers of equal capacity. The ratio of milk to water in the first container is 3 : 1, in the second container is 5 : 2. If they are mixed up, then the ratio of milk to water in the mixture will be

(a)  28 : 41

(b)  41 : 28

(c)  15 : 41

(d)  41 : 15

Answer: (d)

59. Weekly incomes of two persons are in the ratio of 7 : 3 and their weekly expenses are in the ratio of 5 : 2. If each of them saves Rs 300 per week, then the weekly income of the first person is

(a)  Rs 7500

(b)  Rs 4500

(c)  Rs 6300

(d)  Rs 5400

Answer: (c)

60. Average age of 6 sons of a family is 8 yr. Average age of son together with their parents is 22 yr. If the father is older than the mother by 8 yr, then the age of mother (in years) is

(a)  44

(b)  52

(c)  60

(d)  68

Answer: (c)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 61-65) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

In a public sector undertaking township, there are five executives-Ambrish, Amit, Rohit, Manu and Tarun. Two of them play Cricket while the other three play different games viz. Football, Tennis and Chess. One Cricket player and a Chess player stay in the 3rd flat, whereas the other three different flats i.e. 2nd, 4th and 5th.

Two of these five players are mechanical engineers while the other three are quality inspector, design engineer and power engineer, respectively. The Chess player is oldest in age while one of the Cricket players, who plays at the National level, is the youngest in age. The age of the other Cricket player, who plays at the Regional level lies between the Football player and the Chess player. Manu is a regional level player and stays in the 3rd flat while Tarun is a Quality inspector and stays in the 5th flat. The Football player is a Design engineer and stays in the ‘2nd flat. Amit is a power engineer and plays Chess while Ambrish is the mechanical engineer and plays Cricket at the National level.

61. Who stays in the 4th flat?

(a)  Ambrish

(b)  Amit

(c)  Rohit

(d)  Manu      

Answer: (a)

62. What does Tarun play?

(a)  Chess

(b)  Football

(c)  Cricket

(d)  Tennis

Answer: (d)

63. Who plays football?

(a)  Ambrish

(b)  Amit

(c)  Rohit

(d)  Manu

Answer: (c)

64. Agewise who among the following lies between Manu and Tarun?

(a)  Quality inspector

(b)  Mechanical engineer

(c)  Power engineer

(d)  Design engineer

Answer: (d)

65. Who stay in the same flat?

(a)  Ambrish and Amit

(b)  Manu and Tarun

(c)  Amit and Manu

(d)  Rohit and Tarun

Answer: (c)

66. A man said to a woman, “The son of your brother, is the brother of my wife”. How is that woman related to the wife of that man?

(a)  Aunt

(b)  Sister

(c)  Mother

(d)  Grandmother

Answer: (a)

67. Pointing towards a girl, Anurag says, “This girl is the daughter of the only child of my father”. What is the relation of Anurag’s wife with the girl?

(a)  Sister

(b)  Aunt

(c)  Daughter

(d)  Mother

Answer: (d)

68. A man drives his car 60 km towards Eastward direction. He turned right went for 30 km, then he turned West and drive for 20 km. How far is the from the starting point?

(a)  50 km

(b)  60 km

(c)  100 km

(d)  20 km

Answer: (a)

69. If each alphabet in the word “FRACTION’ is arranged in alphabetical order and then each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabetical series and each consonant is changed to previous letter in English alphabetical series. Then, which of the following will be 4th from the right side of the new arrangement thus formed?

(a)  M

(b)  T

(c)  P

(d)  E

Answer: (a)

70. In a certain code language ‘what I want’ is written as ‘su ma te.’ ‘they want food’ is written as ‘ro te ko’ and ‘food and what’ is written as ‘ko Ie su’.

What is the code for ‘I want food’?

(a)  te ko ro

(b)  Ie te SlJ

(c)  ma te ko

(d)  ko ma ro

Answer: (c)

71. In a queue Mohan is 10th from right side and Sohan is 25th from left side. When they interchange their place, then Mohan is at 22nd place from right. Find Sohan new position from left.

(a)  37th

(b)  38th

(c)  35th

(d)  36th

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 72-73) Each of these questions has an Assertion (A) and a Reason (R).

Give answer

(a) If (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true

72. Assertion(A) Gandhiji withdrew the Non-cooperation Movement against British rule in India, movement against British rule in India for sometime.

Reason (R) Gandhiji believed in non-violence but protestations by people against the British rule Chaura-Chauri turned violent. This event disappoint Gandhiji.

Answer: (c)

73. Assertion (A) A parachute enables a person to descend safely from a height in case of an accident.

Reason (R) A parachute is made of a fabric with limited permeability and has a very large frontal area.

Answer: (c)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 74-75) In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are important and directly related to the question. “Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the arguments is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.

(a) If only Argument I is strong

(b) If only Argument II is strong

(c) If either Argument I or II is strong

(d) If both Argument I and II are strong

74. Statement Should be government sell major part of its stake in all the profit making public sector undertakings.

Arguments

(I) No, government should not give up its control of these undertaking as these are profit making organizations.

(II) Yes, this will help government to reduce the quantum of huge budgetary deficit.

Answer: (a)

75. Statement Should be private companies be allowed to operate passenger train services in India?

Arguments

(I) Yes, this will improve the quality of service in Indian Railways as it will have to face severe competition.

(II) No, the private companies may not agree to operate in the non-profitable sectors.

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 76-80) Find the missing term in each of the following series.

76. 6, 13, 32 ?, 130, 221

(a)  75

(b)  69

(c)  100

(d)  85

Answer: (b)

77. 2, 15, 41, 80, 132, ?

(a)  197

(b)  150

(c)  178

(d)  180

Answer: (a)

78. Y, ?, ?, M, I, E

(a)  Z, X

(b)  P, R

(c)  Q, T

(d)  U, Q

Answer: (d)

79. W, T, P, M, I, F, B, ?, ?

(a)  Z, V

(b)  X, V

(c)  Y, U

(d)  Y, V

Answer: (c)

80. AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ?

(a)  MQORN

(b)  QMONR

(c)  MQNRO

(d)  NQMOR

Answer: (c)

81. Which of the following combinations of circles best represents Athletes, Sprinters and Marathon Runners?

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 82-83) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A Course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information give in the statement, you have assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows for pursuing.

(a) If only I follows

(b) If only II follows

(c) If either I or II follows

(d) None of the above

82. Statement Large part of the low lying areas in the city are inundated due to the heavy downpour during the last few days.

Courses of action

(I) The local administration should immediately make necessary arrangements to move the affected people to safer places.

(II) The local administrations should deploy fire brigade personnel in these areas to save the affected people.

Answer: (a)

83. Statement Expensive clothes and accessories are becoming a growing need among college going teenage children of middle-income group.

Courses of action

(I) Colleges should introduce dress code.

(II) Children should be counseled emphasizing the importance of many other things.

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 84-85) In the following questions, two statements have been given, which bear a cause and effect relationship.

(a) It Statement I is the cause and the Statement II is its effect

(b) If Statement II is the cause and the Statement I is it effect

(c) If both the Statements I and II are effects of a common cause

(d) If both Statements I and II are effects of independent causes

84. (I) Many villages in the district are marooned as the river overflowed the banks and may people have manage to survive on the tree tops and whichever place they could find above water.

(II) The district administration has sent relief teams to the affected villages to rescue the stranded villagers and have sent supplies of food and water to the nearby villages.

Answer: (a)

85. (I) The Reserve Bank of India has recently put restrictions on few small banks in the country.

(II) The small banks in the private and cooperative sector in India are not in a position to withstand the competitions of the bigger in the public sector.

Answer: (b)

86. Which among the following is not a Fashion Designer?

(a)  Ritu Kumar

(b)  Shiv Kumar Sharma

(c)  Tarun Tahiliani

(d)  Rahul Khanna

Answer: (b)

87. Retail venture Big Basket’s headquarters is in which city?

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Mumbai

(c)  Hyderabad

(d)  Bengaluru

Answer: (d)

88. Which among the following is a dust coloured light weight cotton fabric used by Indian Army during the British rule?

(a)  Poplin

(b)  Khaki

(c)  Silk

(d)  Polyster

Answer: (b)

89. Who introduced Subsidiary Alliance System?

(a)  Lord Dalhousie

(b)  Lord William Bentic

(c)  Lord Wellesley

(d)  Lord Irwin

Answer: (c)

90. What are Fashion Designers modes of working?

(a)  As freelancer

(b)  Working in house

(c)  Setting up a company

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

91. Which among the following is the driest desert on the Earth?

(a)  Kalahari

(b)  Atacama

(c)  Mojave Desert

(d)  Tabernas Desert

Answer: (b)

92. Which among the following is an example of the leaf fibre?

(a)  Cotton

(b)  Palm       

(c)  Jute

(d)  Kapok

Answer: (b)

93. Who designed for the FENDI labels?

(a)  Nicolas Ghesquiere

(b)  Karl Lagerfeld

(c)  Marc Jacobs

(d)  Tom Ford

Answer: (b)

94. Mark the odd one out.

(a)  Bandhini

(b)  Kalamkari

(c)  Ikkat

(d)  Lycra

Answer: (d)

95. The selling price of a product is determined by

(a)  cost of material and design

(b)  profit margin

(c)  demand

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

96. ‘Home Centre’, the popular brand is from the house of

(a)  Tatas       

(b)  Bombay dyeing

(c)  Landmark Group

(d)  Raymonds

Answer: (c)

97. Lakme Fashion Week Summer Spring 2017 took place at

(a)  Delhi

(b)  Bengaluru

(c)  Mumbai

(d)  Pune

Answer: (c)

98. National Gallery of Modern Art is located at

(a)  Mumbai

(b)  Kolkata

(c)  New Delhi

(d)  Lucknow

Answer: (c)

99. Who designs for Bottega Veneta label?

(a)  Alexander McQueen

(b)  Bob Mackie

(c)  Barbara Bui

(d)  Tomas Maier

Answer: (d)

100. Which among the following silk is not produced in India?

(a)  Vanya

(b)  Eri

(c)  Mulberry

(d)  Anaphe

Answer: (d)

101. The brand ‘ZARA’ is associated with which country?

(a)  France

(b)  Spain

(c)  Russia

(d)  England

Answer: (b)

102. Which among the following is an India brand?

(a)  Lulu and Sky

(b)  Fab India

(c)  Allen Solly

(d)  Bala

Answer: (c)

103. By which among the following articles, Finance Commission has been constituted?

(a)  Article 282

(b)  Article 250

(c)  Article 280

(d)  Article 148

Answer: (c)

104. What is the name of cloth made of flax?

(a)  Cotton

(b)  Polyster

(c)  Lycra

(d)  Linen

Answer: (d)

105. Other than Venezuela, which among the following from the South American countries is a member of OPEC?

(a)  Argentina

(b)  Brazil

(c)  Ecuador

(d)  Bolivia

Answer: (c)

106. Which city is known as the world of fashion?

(a)  New York

(b)  London

(c)  Paris

(d)  Denmark

Answer: (c)

107. Who has been appointed as the first Chief Financial Officer (CFO) of Reserve Bank of India in May 2018?

(a)  Sudha Balakrishnan

(b)  Nasirul Mulk

(c)  Nirbhay Sharma

(d)  CK Prasad

Answer: (a)

108. What is ‘Tonsure’?

(a)  A type of dress

(b)  A type of make up

(c)  A type of hair decoration seen in fashion competitions

(d)  A type of fashion boots

Answer: (c)

109. Which English Fashion Designer designed the wedding dress of Queen Elizabeth II ?

(a)  Paul Poiret

(b)  Norman Bishop Hartnell

(c)  Rosita Missoni

(d)  Jean Paul Gaultier

Answer: (b)

110. Which section of UN stands against the pollution?

(a)  UNESCO

(b)  UNEP

(c)  UNIDO

(d)  UPU

Answer: (b)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 111-130) Read the following Case Studies and answer the questions given at the end of each Case study on the basis of information provided.

CASE STUDY 1

Meera Sweets has been operating in Jalandhar for the last 50 years with a very small scale operation. All along they have been a small time set up with just five members of the family running the shop. All of a sudden, one of their dishes-Gajroula – clicked in the market. This gave instant recognition to Meera Sweets due to which they increased their scale of production. Now, Meera Sweets have become a household name in the state. They started expanding their operations and has a network of 10 outlets in major cities. Its turnover in the year 2016 was reported to be 120 Crore. It is no more limited to Gajroula. Actually, it stopped producing Gajroula. Now, it produces whole range of sweets in Bengali, Punjabi and Lucknavi tastes. The original five members of the family have retracted to just supervision and policy-making. Most of its operations today are handled by hired staff. Each outlet is controlled by a manager. Whereas the preparations are made by traditional halwais, the business is supervised by managers who have absolutely no idea about sweets and their process of production. Invariably, there is a conflict between the two interest groups i.e. the highly paid white collar managerial staff and the traditional halwais who are the actual workers. Last month more than half of the halwais have left Meera Sweets to join its almost insignificant competitor. There are rumours that the competitor has actually been bought out by a corporate house and it has been renamed as Mira Sweets. This group has taken up large scale advertising by giving ads.

111. Stopping the production of Gajroula by Meera Sweets regarded as a

(a)  Good decision from business point of view

(b)  Good decision for image makeover

(c)  A strategic mistake

(d)  A well thought strategy for business expansion

Answer: (c)

112. What is the cause of conflict within the Meera Sweets group?

(a)  Stopping production of Gajroula

(b)  Quick expansion into different variations of sweets

(c)  Core members restricting to supervision only

(d)  Different concerns of the two interest groups

Answer: (d)

113. The real cause of success of Meera Sweets is

(a)  Good advertisement campaigns

(b)  Lack of good sweets makers in that area

(c)  Gajroula, a tasty standard sweet

(d)  Timely action by five members to expand their business

Answer: (b)

114. Which is true in the context of this case?

(a)  Meera has more managerial experience

(b)  Meera’s growth is well managed

(c)  Meera’s managerial experience is useful

(d)  Nothing can be said.

Answer: (a)

CASE STUDY 2

On 21st September, 2003, the airport police caught a person Michael trying to smuggle 90dried bear gall bladders out of the country. They looked like shriveled black mangoes, and no one but an expert could say that the weird looking things came from an animal. Even experts could falter in identifying the species of the animal the gall bladders came from. Thus, if the gall bladders came from the Himalayan brown bear as the airport police suspected, then Michael should have been prosecuted under the law.

Actually, drugs made from bear gall bladder are used in Tibetan medicine as cures for various ailments including joint aches, rheumatism, cataracts, gall stones, cancer and even as aphrodisiacs. Since these drugs are highly reputed (despite their being actually useless), the intact gall bladders of bear sell in the international markets at phenomenal rates. This has caused poaching of bears and the consequent fall in bear population. Michael understood that he had been caught red-handed. The best way to circumvent the law as to deny that these were bear gall bladders. Consequently, he asserted that the gall bladders had been taken out from pigs and not from bears. Since pig is not protected species in the Act, Michael could go scot free.

He banked upon the fact that the gall bladders of large mammals look alike and extremely difficult to distinguish one from the other. In fact, the question belonged to pigs or to bears. It was at this state that the airport police asked for my help.

Despite common belief, forensic science doesn’t enter to solving murders, killings or assassinations. Forensic science is the application of scientific knowledge to solve any legal dispute. Since here the police did face a legal dilemma, forensic science could come to their rescue.

115. The confiscation of gall bladders turned up which type of investigation?

(a)  Investigation on whether those are gall bladders or shriveled up mangoes.

(b)  Police or doctor who is better in identifying the species to which those gall bladders belong to.

(c)  Distinguish between gall bladders of bears and pigs.

(d)  Experiences or medical expertise to identify the species to which those gall bladders belong to.

Answer: (b)

116. Why Micheal said the gall bladders belong to pigs?

(a)  Because he knew that pigs were not protected species.

(b)  There was nothing morally wrong in saying pigs instead of bears.

(c)  He knew that police thought it were pigs bladders.

(d)  He had bribed forensic experts.

Answer: (a)

117. Why Michael hoped to escape the authorities by saying that the bladders were of pigs?

(a)  The fact that pigs are not protected.

(b)  The fact that even forensic science could not trace it.

(c)  The fact that gall bladders of pigs and bears look quite similar.

(d)  The fact that police was also confused.

Answer: (c)

118. What legal dilemma was faced by the police?

(a)  To find out if the gall bladders are of pigs or bears.

(b)  To call forensic expert or doctor.

(c)  To decide if pig is an endangered species nor bear.

(d)  To prosecute Michael or let him to free.

Answer: (d)

119. Whom did the airport police approached to solve the mystery of gall bladders?

(a)  A legal expert to know which act is applicable in this case.

(b)  A forensic expert who is the writer of the report.

(c)  A journalist who printed this article and covered the story.

(d)  A medical practitioner to take expert opinion.

Answer: (b)

CASE STUDY III

We moved upto The Premier League. Repositioning resulted in 35% increase in rental rate. As leasing and management agents of this properly, we were not capturing the tenants we desired in a marketplace abundant with competitors. Our property was well-located and well-managed yet would require an upgraded lobby, common corridors and a restored façade in order to compete with assets commanding rentals of $ 100 per rentable square feet or better. At $ 60 per rentable square feet, we were at the top of the second tier of properties in the Plaza District. As the client was reluctant to make capital improvements, we devised a strategy. Rather than be at the top of the ‘B’ category, why not assert ourselves as the ‘value provider’ at the ‘A’ level? We raised our asking rate from $60 to $80/RSF and when highly-regarded, creditworthy tenants kicked the tires at Park and 57th Street, they were pleased that our location, quality of property and spaces met with such favour economically compared to the $100-$125/RSF offerings. We immediately signed up an international law firm and off-shore bank and from th at point forward, our property enjoyed a new position, image and brand. In addition, the increased rental stream made it possible for the owner to contemplate the capital improvements that would elevate the asset to the $100+/RSF stratum.

120. What did they do to compete better with the competitors in the market?

(a)  Repositioned the properly.

(b)  They created new position, image and brand

(c)  They upgraded the lobby, common corridors and resotred the façade.

(d)  Increased the rent.

Answer: (c)

121. Why was the client reluctant to make capital investment?

(A) Because the rent was low and property needed repositioning and upgradations.

(B) Because they were at the top of the ‘B’ category and not ‘value provider’ at the ‘A’ level.

(C) Because they increased the rent.

Select the correct reason

(a)  Both A and B

(b)  Only A

(c)  Only C

(d)  Both B and C

Answer: (a)

122. What happened when they signed up an international firm law and off-shore bank?

(a)  The property enjoyed a new position, image and brand.

(b)  The increased rental stream make it possible for the owner to contemplate the capital

(c)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

CASE STUDY IV

Over a period spanning six and a half decades, the Haldiram’s Group (Haldiram’s) had emerged as a household name for ready-to-eat snack foods in India. It had come a long way since it is relatively humble beginning in 1937 as a small time sweet, shop in Bikaner, in the Rajasthan state of India. In 2001, the turnover of the Haldiram’s was Rs 4 billion. The group had presence not only in India but in several countries all over the world. Till the early 1990s Haldiram’s comprised of three units, one each in Kolakata. Nagpur and New Delhi. The Agarwals family that owned Haldiram’s were always conscious of the need to satisfy customers in order to grow their business. Haldiram’s had many ‘first’ to its credit. It was the first company in India to brand ‘namkeens’. The group also pioneered new ways of packaging namkeens. Its packaging technique increased the shelf life of namkeens from less than a week to more than six months. It was also one of the first companies in India to open a restaurant in New Delhi offering traditional Indian snack food items such as “panipuri,” “chatpapri”, and so on, which catered to the needs of hygiene conscious non-resident Indians and other foreign customers. Since the very beginning, the brand Haldiram’s been renowned for its quality products. Given the increasing popularity of Haldiram’s products, the group planned to expand its operations. However, some analysts felt that Haldiram’s still had to overcome some hurdles. The company faced tough competition not only from sweets and snack food vendors in the unorganized market but also from domestic and international competitors like SM Foods, Bakeman’s Industries Ltd. Frito Lay India Ltd. (Frito Lay) and Britannia Industries Ltd, Moreover, the group had to overcome internal problems as well. In the early 1990s, because of the conflict within the Agarwals family, Haldiram’s witnessed an informal split between its three units as they started operating separately offering simila, product and sharing the same brande name. In 1999, after a court verdict these unit started operating as three different companies with clearly defined territories. This split had resulted in aggressive competition among themselves for a higher share or domestic and international markets.

123. Where were the three units of Haldiram’s located till the early 1900s?

(a)  Kolkata, Nagpur and New Delhi

(b)  Kolkata, Mumbai and New Delhi

(c)  Nagpur, Gujarat and Mumbai

(d)  Lucknow, Nagpur and New Delhi

Answer: (a)

124. Mention the many ‘firsts’ of Haldiram’s

(A) Branding ‘namkeen’s

(B) New ways of packaging ‘namkeens’

(C) Opening a new restaurant in New Delhi

(a)  A, B and C

(b)  A and B

(c)  B and C

(d)  None of these   

Answer: (a)

125. What are the benefits of new ways of packaging namkeens?

(a)  Improved the taste

(b)  No added benefit

(c)  Improved shelf life

(d)  Increased sale

Answer: (c)

126. Who give tough competition to Haldiram’s?

(a)  Sweets and snacks vendors in the unorganized market

(b)  Domestic and international competitors   

(c)  Neither (a) nor (b)

(d)  Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (d)

CASE STUDY V

Presently, Apple and Samsung are seen as the largest manufactures of smartphones across the world.

Earlier, the mobile phone market was ruled by companies like Nokia and Motorola, Apple took over the market when it launched ‘iPhone’ in 2007. The product became actually popular among users, having large and multi-touch user interface.

Apple continued on dominating the Smartphone market within the years; however Samsung introducing Samsung Galaxy series in 2013 brought increased competition for it. It was Samsung’s massive advertising coupled with unique Android features that the Samsung Galaxy has overtaken the iPhone to become the most popular Smartphone brand in the world.

This aggressive competition between these two tech giants has resulted in endless court.

Apple has a strange strategy when it comes to brand promotion. It has a minimalist presence on social media. It promotes through TVCs.

Samsung, meanwhile, is present on an array of social media channels like YouTube, Twitter, and Facebook pages for Samsung Mobile, Samsung TV, and more.

Samsung has also connected with major apps and platforms to target audience with social campaigns.

Samsung India has launched a nationwide television and digital campaign showcasing its initiative to take customer service to the doorsteps of customers in the rural area. Conceptualised by Cheil India, the campaign film is called #SamsungCares.

127. What helped the Samsung Galaxy to overtake iPhone?

(a)  Android features

(b)  Massive advertising with unique Android features

(c)  Better quality

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

128. How does Apple promote its products?

(a)  Minimal adds on social media

(b)  Promotion through radio

(c)  Promotion through TVCs

(d)  No promotion at all

Answer: (c)

129. How does Samsung promote its products?

(a)  Present on array of social media channels.

(b)  Connected with major apps and platforms

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (c)

130. What is the initiative taken by Samsung India?

(a)  Providing customer service to doorstep of customers.

(b)  Providing new Android features in phones.

(c)  Mass advertising

(d)  New models of its gadgets

Answer: (a)

DIRECTIONS (Q. Nos. 131-150) Each of these questions has a statement based on the preceding caselet. Evaluate each statement and mark answer.

(a) If the statement is a major objective in making the decision or one of the goals sought by the decision maker, then mark (a) as answer.

(b) If the statement is a major factor in making the decision: an aspect of the problem, specifically mentioned in the caselet, which fundamentally affects and/or determines the decision.

(c) If the statement is a minor factor in making the decision: a less important element bearing on or affecting a major factor, rather than a major objective directly.

(d) If the statement is a major assumption in making the decision, a projection or supposition arrived at by the decision maker before considering the factor and alternative.

CASEALET I

Ice-Fili is the oldest and the most successful ice cream producer. This company has been thriving in an increasingly challenging domestic market with aggravating international competition, Ice-Fili has held onto market leadership in Russia for a long time, surviving many tumultuous moments including the 1998 financial crisis and the transformation of the economy of Russia from closed to open economy.

However, there has been increasing competition from regional companies and foreign producers of ice cream, leading to erosion of the market share of Ice-Fili in the recent years. Nestle has emerged as the biggest threat among the foreign competitors and it seems to be well positioned to take market leadership in Russia in the future. There are other foreign companies such as Baskin & Robbins and Haagen-Dazs and small regional producers that have been gaining ground in the Russian market but are far weak compared to Nestle.

Ice-Fili has been distributing its products in the local market through several distribution channels including kiosks (50%), mini-marts (29%), restaurants (3%) and supermarkets (2%) Nestle distributes its products via almost all distribution channels used by Ice-Fili while Baskin & Robbins mainly use franchised restaurants and  café networks. The ice cream products of Ice-Fili are differentiable from those of foreign competitors due to the presence of high proportion of milk and fats and the absence of preservatives. Thus, customers are able to substitute Ice-Fili products to the brands of competitors or ice cream to other foods that compete with ice cream products such as chocolates, yoghurts, bear and soda.

Ice-Fili targets household and on-the-go consumption that takes place outdoors. The household consumption is less sensitive to fluctuations in seasonal demands unlike on-the-go consumption which usually decreases significantly during the winter. The consumers of Ice-Fili do not buy the ice cream products from the company directly. Rather, the buyers are the distribution channel members who then sell these products to the final consumers. The consumer of Ice-Fili products are price-sensitive and have a significant bargaining power.

Usually, Ice-Fili returns transfer to buyers in form of lower prices. The purchasing power of the consumers of Ice cream products are influenced by various factors such as the quality of the products, the relative volume of purchases, switching costs and the standardization of the products.

131. Active steps to control erosion of the market share of Ice-Fili in recent years.

Answer: (b)

132. The on-the-go consumption of ice-cream is more sensitive to fluctuations in seasonal demand.

Answer: (d)

133. Consumers of Ice-Fili products are price-sensitive and have a significant bargaining power.

Answer: (a)

134. Baskin and Robbins mainly use franchised restaurants and cafe networks.

Answer: (c)

135. Nestle has emerged as the major threat.

Answer: (a)

CASELET II

Flipkart is slashing its budget for unit Myntra as it reallocates resources in its fight against rival Amazon, which is closing in on it and ploughing billions of dollars into India, two people familiar with the matter said. “In the war between Flipkart and Amazon, most of the money will be poured into Flipkart and they have told Myntra that they will not get the same amount of money which they used to get earlier,” said one the people, asking to be identified. Myntra said no budget changes were planned. “There has been no budget cut for this fiscal and we do not expect any changes going forward,” a spokesperson said.

A Flipkart spokesperson said the matter was unfounded speculation. “Budgets are decided on the basis of annual operating plans and there are/has been no change/reduction in planned budgets for the  year,” he said. Another person said the Bengaluru-based firm, asked by the board to fix its financial situation, decided to reduce Myntr’s budget by 10% as part of the process. Flipkart was asked to bring down the amount spent on advertising and offering discounts, among other expenses-known as the burn rate – to one-fourth by March after the October sale, the person said. “While it has streamlined its own operations to achieve the target, the company also decided to trim down the supply to Myntra,” the person said. Newspaper reported earlier that Flipkart will slash its burn rate to save $150-200 million by December 2017 as the online marketplace looks to double its growth pace. India’s largest. Ecommerce marketplace will infuse minimum fresh capital into the business until a new investor comes on board, according to the people.

This will have a direct fallout on Myntra, the country’s largest fashion e-Commerce site that Flipkart acquired for about $ 300 million in 2014. Flipkart’s burn rate was at its highest two  years ago on account of aggressive spending on customer acquisition. Its current burn rate is said to be $40-50 million per month, according to industry estimates. Flipkart is said to be lowering its burn rate by 5-10% every quarter in 2016 and wants to sharply accelerate this pace.

136. Amazon is closing in on Flipkart and ploughing billions of dollars in India.

Answer: (b)

137. The Bengaluru based firm was asked by the board to fix its financial situation.

Answer: (c)

138. Flipkart wants to save $150-200 million by December 2017.

Answer: (a)

139. There will be a direct fallout on Myntra, the country’s largest fashion commercial site.

Answer: (d)

140. Flipkart had an aggressive spending on customer acquisition.

Answer: (b)

CASELET III

Government is implementing several schemes and programs under the Umbrella Integrated Child Development Services Scheme as direct targeted interventions to address the problem of malnutrition in the country. All these schemes address one or other aspects related to nutrition and have the potential to improve nutritional outcomes in the country.

Malnutrition is not a direct cause of death but contributes to mortality and morbidity by reducing resistance to infections. There is a number of causes of death of children such as prematurity, low birth weight, pneumonia, diarrhoeal diseases, non-communicable diseases, birth asphyxia & birth trauma, injuries, congential anomalies, acute bacterial sepsis and severe infections, etc.

The goals of National Nutrition Mission are to achieve improvement in nutritional status of Children from 0-6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers in a time bound manner during the next three  years beginning 2017-18.

The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) has been set up with a three year budget of Rs 9046.17 crore commencing from 2017-18. The NNM is a comprehensive approach towards raising nutrition level in the country on a war footing.

It will comprise of mapping of various schemes contributing towards addressing malnutrition, including a very robust convergence mechanism, ICT based Real Time Monitoring system, incentivizing States/UTs for meeting the targets, incentivizing Anganwadi Workers (AWWs) for using IT based tools, eliminating registers used by AWWs, introducing measurement of height of children at the Anganwadi Centres (AWCs), Social Audits, setting-up Nutrition Resource Centres, involving masses through Jan Andolan for their participation on nutrition through various activities, among others.

141. Direct targeted interventions to address the problem of malnutrition in the country.

Answer: (a)

142. Malnutrition is not a direct cause of death.

Answer: (d)

143. The goals of National Nutrition Mission are to achieve improvement in nutritional status of Children from 0-6 years, Adolescent Girls, Pregnant Women and Lactating Mothers.

Answer: (a)

144. The National Nutrition Mission (NNM) has been set up with a three year budget of Rs 9,046.17 crore commencing from 2017-18.

Answer: (c)

145. There are a number of causes of death of children such as prematurity, low birth weight, pneumonia.

Answer: (b)

CASELET IV

Indian food security system, established by the Government of India under Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution is to distribute subsidized food and non-food items to India’s poor. This scheme was first launched in February 1944, during the Second World War and was launched in the current form in June 1947. Major commodities distributed include staple food grains, such as wheat, rice, sugar and kerosene, through a network of fair price shops (also known as ration shops) established in several states across the country. Food Corporation of India, a Government-owned corporation, procures and maintains the PDS. It will reduce India’s dependence on buffer stock for price stabilization and in turn reduce the cost.

In coverage and public expenditure, it is considered to be the most important food security network. However, the food grains supplied by the ration shops are not enough to meet the consumption needs of the poor or are of inferior quality. The average level of consumption of PDS seeds in India is only one kg per person/month. The PDS has been criticized for its urban bias and its failure to serve the poorer sections of the population effectively. The targeted PDS is costly and gives rise to much corruption in the process of extricating the poor from those who are less needy. Today, India has the largest stock of grain in the world besides China, the government spends Rs 750 billion ($13.6 billion) per year, almost 1% of GDP, yet 21% remain undernourished. Distribution of food grains to poor people throughout the country is managed by state governments. As of date there are about 5,00,000 Fair Price Shops (FPS) across India.

146. Food and Public Distribution is to distribute subsidized food and non-food items to India’s poor.

Answer: (a)

147. The average level of consumption of PDS seeds in India is only I kg per person/month.

Answer: (d)

148. The targeted PDS is costly and gives rise to much corruption in the process of extricating the poor from those who are less needy.

Answer: (c)

149. It will reduce India’s dependence on buffer stock for price stabilization and in turn reduce the cost.

Answer: (d)

150. The food grains supplied by the ration shops are not enough to meet the consumption needs of the poor or are of inferior quality.

Answer: (b)

JEE Main Session 1 30th January 2023 Shift 1 Question Paper and Answer Key

JEE MAIN 30th January 2023 Shift 1

Physics

SECTION-A

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration:

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and 1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off to the nearest integer.

1. The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils A and B of radius rA = 10 cm and rB = 20 cm respectively are equal if : (Where NA, IA and NB, IB are number of turn and current of A and B respectively)

(1)   4NAIA = NBIB

(2)   NA = 2NB

(3)   NAIA = 4NBIB

(4)   2NAIA = NBIB

Answer: (3)

2. The figure represents the momentum time (p-t) curve for a particle moving along an axis under the influence of the force. Identify the regions on the graph where the magnitude of the force is maximum and minimum respectively ?

If (t3 – t2) < t1

(1)   c and b

(2)   b and c

(3)   a and b

(4)   c and a

Answer: (1)

3. Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both have same charge density σ. The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting wire. If the new charge density of the bigger sphere is σ′. The ratio σʹ/σ is :

(1)   4/3

(2)   5/3

(3)   5/6

(4)   9/4

Answer: (3)

4. A person has been using spectacles of power −1.0 dioptre for distant vision and a separate reading glass of power 2.0 dioptres. What is the least distance of distinct vision for this person :

(1)   40 cm

(2)   30 cm

(3)   10 cm

(4)   50 cm

Answer: (4)

5. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of power 20 mW and duration 300 ns. Assuming speed of light as 3 × 108 m/s, the momentum of the object becomes equal to :

(1)   3 × 1017 kg m/s

(2)   2 × 1017 kg m/s

(3)   1 × 1017 kg m/s

(4)   0.5 × 1017 kg m/s

Answer: (2)

6. Match Column-I with Column-II :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A- I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(2) A- II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

(3) A- I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(4) A- II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

Answer: (4)

7. The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation PT2 = constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be :

(1)   3/T3

(2)   3/T2

(3)   3 T2

(4)   3/T

Answer: (4)

8. Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.

(A) Internal energy of the gas will decrease.

(B) Internal energy of the gas will increase.

(C) Internal energy of the gas will not change.

(D) The gas will do positive work.  (E) The gas will do negative work.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) C and D only

(2) C and E only

(3) A and E only

(4) B and D only

Answer: (1)

9. If the gravitational field in the space is given as (−K/r2). Taking the reference point to be at r = 2 cm with gravitational potential V = 10 J/kg. Find the gravitational potential at r = 3 cm in SI unit (Given, that K = 6Jcm/kg )

(1)   9

(2)   10

(3)   11

(4)   12

Answer: (3)

10. In a series LR circuit with XL = R, power factor is P1. If a capacitor of capacitance C with XC = XL is added to the circuit the power factor becomes P2. The ratio of P1 to P2 will be :

(1)   1 : 3

(2)   1 : 2

(3)   1 : √2

(4)   1 : 1

Answer: (3)

11. As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a circle and hits the other ball Q of equal mass which is initially at rest. Neglecting the effect of friction and assume the collision to be elastic, the velocity of ball Q after collision will be :

(1)   0

(2)   4 m/s

(3)   2 m/s

(4)   0.25 m/s

Answer: (3)

12. A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of height 20 m. A bullet of mass 10 g, travelling in horizontal direction, hits the centre of the ball. After collision both travels independently. The ball hits the ground at a distance 30 m and the bullet at a distance of 120 m from the foot of the post. The value of initial velocity of the bullet will be (if g = 10 m/s2) :

(1)   360 m/s

(2)   400 m/s

(3)   60 m/s

(4)   120 m/s

Answer: (1)

13. The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B as shown below, is

Answer: (3)

14. The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as Q(t) = αt – βt2 + γt3. Where α, β and γ are constants. Minimum value of current is :

Answer: (3)

15. Choose the correct relationship between Poisson ratio (σ), bulk modulus (K) and modulus of rigidity (η) of a given solid object :

 

Answer: (2)

16. Speed of an electron in Bohr’s 7th orbit for Hydrogen atom is 3.6 × 106 m/s. The corresponding speed of the electron in 3rd orbit, in m/s is:

(1)   (1.8 × 106)

(2)   (3.6 × 106)

(3)   (7.5 × 106)

(4)   (8.4 × 106)

Answer: (4)

17. A massless square loop, of wire of resistance 10 Ω, supporting a mass of 1 g, hangs vertically with one of its sides in a uniform magnetic field of 103G, directed outwards in the shaded region. A dc voltage V is applied to the loop. For what value of V, the magnetic force will exactly balance the weight of the supporting mass of 1 g ?

(If sides of the loop =10 cm, g = 10 ms−2)

(1)   1/10 V

(2)   100 V

(3)   10 V

(4)   1 V

Answer: (3)

18. Electric field in a certain region is given by  The SI unit of A and B are :

(1)   Nm3C–1; Nm2C–1

(2)   Nm2C–1; Nm3C–1

(3)   Nm3C; Nm2C

(4)   Nm2C; Nm3C

Answer: (2)

19. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in liquid A vertically is, 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid B of surface tension and density double the values of liquid A, the height of liquid column raised in liquid B would be m

(1)   0.05

(2)   0.10

(3)   0.20

(4)   0.5

Answer: (1)

20. A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude modulated. The resultant amplitude modulated wave has maximum and minimum amplitude of 120 V and 80 V respectively. The amplitude of each sideband is :

(1)   20 V

(2)   15 V

(3)   10 V

(4)   5 V

Answer: (3)

SECTION-B

21. The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is x = A sin ω Let T be its time period. The slope of its potential energy (U)-time (t) curve will be maximum when t = T/β. The value of β is

Answer: (8)

22. A thin uniform rod of length 2 m, cross sectional area ‘A’ and density ‘d’ is rotated about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular velocity ω. If value of ω in terms of its rotational kinetic energy E is  then value of α is

Answer: (3)

23. A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m/s speed. The remaining part of the distance was travelled with speed 10 m/s for half the time and with speed 15 m/s for other half of the time. The mean speed of the rider averaged over the whole time of motion is x/7 m/s. The value of x is

Answer: (50)

24. 

As per the given figure, if  then the value of VAB at this instant will be V.

Answer: (30)

25. A point source of light is placed at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical surface. The source emits a power of 24 W. The radius of curvature of hemisphere is 10 cm and the inner surface is completely reflecting. The force on the hemisphere due to the light falling on it is _____ 10−8 N

Answer: (4)

26. In the following circuit, the magnitude of current I1, is ______ A.

Answer: (1.5)

27. In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the circular scale and the main scale moves by 0.5 mm on a complete rotation of the circular scale. The zero of circular scale lies 6 divisions below the line of graduation when two studs are brought in contact with each other. When a wire is placed between the studs, 4 linear scale divisions are clearly visible while 46th division the circular scale coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is _______  × 10−2 mm

Answer: (220)

28. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are ‘ d ‘ distance apart and the separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs of equal thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the path of beam (λ = 4000 Å) from S1 and S2 respectively. The central bright fringe spot will shift by number of fringes.

Answer: (10)

29. A capacitor of capacitance 900μF is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged identical capacitor such that one plate of uncharged capacitor connected to positive plate and another plate of uncharged capacitor connected to negative plate of the charged capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is measured as x × 10−2 The value of x is

Answer: (225)

30. In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of converging mirror, image of an object placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirror is formed at distance 120 cm from the pole of the mirror. These distances are measured with a modified scale in which there are 20 small divisions in 1 cm. The value of error in measurement of focal length of the mirror is 1/K cm. The value of K is

Answer: (32)

Chemistry

SECTION-A

31. Lithium aluminium hydride can be prepared from the reaction of

(1) LiH and Al(OH)3

(2) LiH and Al2Cl6

(3) LiCl and Al2H6

(4) LiCl,Al and H2

Answer: (2)

32. Amongst the following compounds, which one is an antacid?

(1) Terfenadine

(2) Meprobamate

(3) Brompheniramine

(4) Ranitidine

Answer: (4)

33. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In expensive scientific instruments, silica gel is kept in watch-glasses or in semipermeable membrane bags.

Reason (R): Silica gel adsorbs moisture from air via adsorption, thus protects the instrument from water corrosion (rusting) and / or prevents malfunctioning.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

Answer: (3)

34. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

(2) A – II, B – IV, C – I, D – III

(3) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III

(4) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II

Answer: (3)

35. What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A-D in the given compounds ?

(1) HC > HA > HD > HB

(2) HD > HC > HB > HA

(3) HC > HD > HB > HA

(4) HC > HD > HA > HB

Answer: (4)

36. Which of the following compounds would give the following set of qualitative analysis?

(i) Fehling’s Test : Positive

(ii) Na fusion extract upon treatment with sodium nitroprusside gives a blood red colour but not prussian blue.

Answer: (4)

37. The major products ‘ A’ and ‘ B ‘, respectively, are

Answer: (4)

38. During the qualitative analysis of SO32 using dilute H2SO4, SO2 gas is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 solution (acidified with dilute H2SO4 ):

(1)   green

(2)   blue

(3)   red

(4)   black

Answer: (1)

39. In the wet tests for identification of various cations by precipitation, which transition element cation doesn’t belong to group IV in qualitative inorganic analysis ?

(1)   Ni2+

(2)   Zn2+

(3)   Co2+

(4)   Fe3+

Answer: (4)

40. For OF2 molecule consider the following :

(A) Number of lone pairs on oxygen is 2.

(B) FOF angle is less than 104.5∘.

(C) Oxidation state of O is −2.

(D) Molecule is bent ‘ V ‘ shaped.

(E) Molecular geometry is linear.

correct options are:

(1)   A, C, D only

(2)   C, D, E only

(3)   A, B, D, only

(4)   B, E, A only

Answer: (3)

41. Caprolactam when heated at high temperature in presence of water, gives

(1)   Nylon 6, 6

(2)   Nylon 6

(3)   Teflon

(4)   Dacron

Answer: (2)

42. Benzyl isocyanide can be obtained by :

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   A and D

(2)   Only B

(3)   B and C

(4)   A and B

Answer: (4)

43. Formation of photochemical smog involves the following reaction in which A,B and C are respectively.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   O, N2O & NO

(2)   O, NO & NO3

(3)   NO, O & O3

(4)   N, O2 & O3

Answer: (3)

44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Ketoses give Seliwanoff’s test faster than Aldoses.

Reason (R) : Ketoses undergo β-elimination followed by formation of furfural.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false

(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (2)

45. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

(2) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

(3) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III

(4) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D – I

Answer: (4)

46. To inhibit the growth of tumours, identify the compounds used from the following :

(A) EDTA

(B) Coordination Compounds of Pt C. D – Penicillamine

(C) Cis – Platin

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(1)   B and D only

(2)   C and D only

(3)   A and C only

(4)   A and B only

Answer: (1)

47. The alkaline earth metal sulphate(s) which are readily soluble in water is/are :

(A) BeSO4          (2) MgSO4

(C) CaSO4          (4) SrSO4

(E) BaSO4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1)   B only

(2)   A and B

(3)   B and C

(4)   A only

Answer: (2)

48. Which of the following is correct order of ligand field strength ?

(1)   CO < en < NH3 < C2O42 < S2

(2)   NH3 < en < CO < S2 < C2O42

(3)   S2 < C2O42 < NH3 < en < CO

(4)   S2 < NH3 < en < CO < C2O42

Answer: (3)

49. Match List I with List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III

(2) A – IV, B – II, C – III, D – I

(3) A – III, B – II, C – IV, D – I

(4) A – II, B – I, C – III, D – IV

Answer: (1)

50. In the extraction of copper, its sulphide ore is heated in a reverberatory furnace after mixing with silica to:

(1) remove FeO as FeSiO3

(2) decrease the temperature needed for roasting of Cu2S

(3) separate CuO as CuSiO3

(4) remove calcium as CaSiO3

Answer: (1)

SECTION-B

51. 600 mL of 0.01MHCl is mixed with 400 mL of 0.01MH2SO4. The pH of the mixture is __________ ×10−2. (Nearest integer)

[Given log 2 2 = 0.30

log 3 = 0.48

log 5 = 0.69

log 7 = 0.84

log 11 = 1.04]

Answer: (186)

52. The energy of one mole of photons of radiation of frequency 2 × 1012 Hz in J mol–1 is _____. (Nearest integer)

[Given : h = 6.626 × 1034 Js

               NA = 6.022 × 1023 mol1]

Answer: (789)

53. Consider the cell Pt(s) |H2(g, 1 atm)| H+(aq, 1M)||Fe3+ (aq), Fe2+(aq)| Pt(s)

When the potential of the cell is 0.712 V at 298 K, the ratio [Fe2+] / [Fe3+] is______ (Nearest integer)

Given : Fe3+ + e = Fe2+, EθFe3+, Fe2+ | Pt = 0.771

Answer: (10)

54. The number of electrons involved in the reduction of permanganate to manganese dioxide in acidic medium is

Answer: (3)

55. A 300 mL bottle of soft drink has 0.2MCO2 dissolved in it. Assuming CO2 behaves as an ideal gas, the volume of the dissolved CO2 at STP is _____ mL. (Nearest integer)

Given : At STP, molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.7 L mol−1

Answer: (1362)

56. A trisubstituted compound ‘A’, C10H12O2 gives neutral FeCl3 test positive. Treatment of compound ‘A’ with NaOH and CH3Br gives C11H14O2, with hydroiodic acid gives methyl iodide and with hot conc. NaOH gives a compound B, C10H12O2. Compound ‘A’ also decolorises alkaline KMnO4. The number of π bond/s present in the compound ‘A’ is

Answer: (4)

57. If compound A reacts with B following first order kinetics with rate constant 2.011 × 10−3 s−1. The time taken by A (in seconds) to reduce from 7 g to 2 g will be (Nearest Integer) [log 5 = 0.698, log 7 = 0.845, log 2 = 0.301]

Answer: (623)

58. A solution containing 2 g of a non-volatile solute in 20 g of water boils at 373.52 K. The molecular mass of the solute is ______ g mol–1. (Nearest integer) Given, water boils at 373 K, Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol−1

Answer: (100)

59. When 2 litre of ideal gas expands isothermally into vacuum to a total volume of 6 litre, the change in internal energy is ______ J. (Nearest integer)

Answer: (0)

60. Some amount of dichloromethane (CH2Cl2) is added to 671.141 mL of chloroform (CHCl3) to prepare 2.6 × 10−3 M solution of CH2Cl2 (DCM). The concentration of DCM is ppm (by mass).

Given : atomic mass : C = 12 H = 1 Cl = 35.5  density of CHCl3 = 1.49 g cm−3

Answer: (148.322)

Mathematics

SECTION-A

61. A straight line cuts off the intercepts OA = a and OB = b on the positive directions of x-axis and y axis respectively. If the perpendicular from origin O to this line makes an angle of π/6 with positive direction of y-axis and the area of △OAB is  then a2 – b2 is equal to:

(1)   392/3

(2)   196/3

(3)   98

(4)   196

Answer: (1)

62. The minimum number of elements that must be added to the relation R = {(a, b), (b, c)} on the set {a, b, c} so that is becomes symmetric and transitive is :

(1)   3

(2)   4

(3)   5

(4)   7

Answer: (4)

63. If an unbiased die, marked with −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3 on its faces, is thrown five times, then the probability that the product of the outcomes is positive, is :

(1)   881/2592

(2)   27/288

(3)   440/2592

(4)   521/2592

Answer: (4)

64. If  are three non-zero vectors and  is a unit vector perpendicular to  and  is equal to :

(1)   9

(2)   15

(3)   6

(4)   12

Answer: (4)

65. Among the statements :

(S1) ((p ∨ q) ⇒ r) ⇔ (p ⇒ r)

(S2) ((p ∨ q) ⇒ r) ⇔ ((p ⇒ r) ⋁ (q ⇒ r))

(1) only (S2) is a tautology

(2) only (S1) is a tautology

(3) neither (S1) nor (S2) is a tautology

(4) both (S1) and (S2) are tautologies

Answer: (3)

66. If P(h, k) be a point on the parabola x = 4y2, which is nearest to the point Q(0, 33), then the distance of P from the directrix of the parabola y2 = 4(x + y) is equal to :

(1)   2

(2)   6

(3)   8

(4)   4

Answer: (2)

67. Let y = x + 2, 4y = 3x + 6 and 3y = 4x + 1 be three tangent lines to the circle (x − h)2 + (y − k)2 = r2.

Then h + k is equal to

(1)   5(1 + √2)

(2)   5√2

(3)   6

(4)   5

Answer: (4)

68. The number of points on the curve y = 54x5 − 135x4 − 70x3 + 180x2 + 210x at which the normal lines are parallel to x + 90y + 2 = 0 is :

(1)   4

(2)   2

(3)   0

(4)   3

Answer: (1)

69. If  then a1 + a2 + … + a25 is equal to

(1)   52/147

(2)   49/138

(3)   50/141

(4)   51/144

Answer: (3)

70. If  then the value of  is :

(1)   2

(2)   4 – 2√3

(3) 

(4)   4

Answer: (4)

71. If the solution of the equation logcosx cot x + 4logsin x tan x = 1, x ∈ (0, π/2), is  where α and β are integers, then α + β is equal to :

(1)   5

(2)   6

(3)   1

(4)   3

Answer: (3)

72. Let the system of linear equations

x + y + kz = 2

2x + 3y – z = 1

3x + 4y + 2z = k

have infinitely many solutions. Then the system

(k + 1)x + (2k − 1) y = 7 (2k + 1) x + (k + 5)y = 10  has:

(1)   infinitely many solution

(2)   unique solution satisfying x – y = 1

(3)   unique solution satisfying x – y = 1

(4)   no solution

Answer: (3)

73. The line l1 passes through the point (2, 6, 2) and is perpendicular to the plane 2x + y − 2z = 10. Then the shortest distance between the line l1 and the line  is :

(1)   13/3

(2)   19/3

(3)   7

(4)   9

Answer: (9)

74. Let , d = |A| ≠ 0 and |A – d(Aadj A)| = 0. Then

(1)   1 + d2 = m2 + q2

(2)   1 + d2 = (m + q)2

(3)   (1 + d)2 = m2 + q2

(4)   (1 + d)2 = (m + q)2

Answer: (4)

75. If [t] denotes the greatest integer ≤ t, then the value of  is :

(1)   e8 – 1

(2)   e7 – 1

(3)   e8 – e

(4)   e9 – e

Answer: (3)

76. Let a unit vector  make angles α,β,γ with the positive directions of the co-ordinate axes OX, OY,OZ respectively, where β ∈ (0, π/2). If is perpendicular to the plane through points (1, 2, 3), (2, 3, 4) and (1, 5, 7), then which one of the following is true ?

Answer: (3)

77. The coefficient of x301 in (1+x)500 + x(1+x)499 + x2(1 + x)498 +⋯….. x500 is :

(1)   500C300

(2)   501C200

(3)   501C302

(4)   500C301

Answer: (2)

78. Let the solution curve y = y(x) of the differential equation  pass through the origin. Then y(1) is equal to:

Answer: (4)

79. If the coefficient of x15 in the expansion of  is equal to the coefficient of x15 in the expansion of  where a and b are positive real numbers, then for each such ordered pair (a, b) :

(1)   ab = 3

(2)   ab = 1

(3)   a = b

(4)   a = 3b

Answer: (2)

80. Suppose f : ℝ → (0, ∞) be a differentiable function such that 5f(x + y) = f(x) ∙ f(y), ∀x, y ∈ℝ. If f(3) = 320, then  is equal to :

(1)   6875

(2)   6525

(3)   6825

(4)   6575

Answer: (3)

SECTION B

81. Let z = 1 + i and  Then  is equal to ____

Answer: (9)

82. If λ1 < λ2 are two values of λ such that the angle between the planes  and  then the square of the length of perpendicular from the point (38λ1, 10λ2, 2) to the plane P1 is

Answer: (315)

83. Let α be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve y2 = 8x and the lines y = x and x = 2, which lies in the first quadrant. Then the value of 3α is equal to

Answer: (22)

84. Let  where a, b, c ∈ ℤ and  Then a2 – b + c is equal to

Answer: (26)

85. Let α be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve y2 = 8x and the lines y = x and x = 2, which lies in the first quadrant. Then the value of 3α is equal to

Answer: (15)

86. Let α be the area of the larger region bounded by the curve y2 = 8x and the lines y = x and x = 2, which lies in the first quadrant. Then the value of 3α is equal to

Answer: (21)

87. Let 

For n ≥ 2, define fn(x) = f1 of fn1 (x)

If  then a + b is equal to

Answer: (3125)

88. The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 16 respectively. If one observation 14 is omitted and a and b are respectively mean and variance of remaining 6 observation, then a + 3b − 5 is equal to

Answer: (37)

89. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Then the number of one-one functions f: S → P(S), where P(S) denote the power set of S, such that f(n) ⊂ f(m) where n < m is

Answer: (3240)

90. is equal to

Answer: (12)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2019 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2019

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10) : Read the passage carefully and select the appropriate answers given in front of each question.

     This is a monologue delivered in a 1998 movie. The speaker is about to scatter the ashes of his friend.

“Donny was a good bowler, and a good man. He was one of us. He was a man who loved the outdoors…and bowling, and as a surfer he explored the beaches of Southern California, from La Jolla to Leo Carrillo and …upto… Pismo. He died, like so many young men of his generation, he died before his time. In your wisdom, Lord, you took  him, as  you took so many bright, blooming young men at Kheshan, at Hill 364 of Langdoh (battle of Vietnam war).

     These young men gave their lives. And so would Donny. Donny who loved bowling. And so, Theodore Donald Karabotsos, in accordance with what we think your dying wishes might well have been, we commit  you final mortal remains in the lap of the Pacific Ocean, which  you loved so well. Goodnight, sweet prince”.

1. The first sentence of the paragraph “Donny was a good bowler, and a good man” is a:

(A) Simple Sentence

(B) Complex Sentence

(C) Compound Sentence

(D) Complex-compound Sentence

Answer: (C)

2. Attitude towards ‘bowling’ of the narrator better defines:

(A) Dishonour

(B) Respect

(C) Disobedience

(D) Disinterested

Answer: (B)

3. In this context, the nearest synonym for ‘in the lap’ in the last sentence, would be:

(A) Chest

(B) Rest

(C) Water

(D) Foam

Answer: (B)

4. The sentence “died like a young man” shows that:

(A) He gave his life while fighting for his country.

(B) He committed suicide.

(C) He died in adolescence.

(D) He was murdered.

Answer: (A)

5. In the last two sentences, the narrator’s expressions can be better considered as:

(A) Enraged

(B) Confused

(C) Encouraged

(D) Formal

Answer: (D)

6. In the above paragraph, the attitude of the narrator towards Donny is mainly:

(A) Is of sad companionship

(B) Is without bias.

(C) Is of obvious rancour.

(D) Is of proudly separation.

Answer: (A)

7. The reference to Kheshang, Hill 364 of Langdoh in the sentence “By his will, God…” suggests that:

(A) Donny was killed in the battle

(B) Donny was buried on Hill 364

(C) The narrator also lost his friends in these places

(D) The narrator is remembering these places

Answer: (C)

8. In this perspective, the sense of line “In your wisdom, Lord….took the  youth” is well explained:

(A) Excitement

(B) Flurried

(C) Patient

(D) Ambivalent

Answer: (C)

9. In the sentence “In your wisdom, Lord ….” the word ‘bright’ most nearly means:

(A) intelligent

(B) light

(C) vivid

(D) dazzling

Answer: (A)

10. In the statement “ He was a man who loved the outdoors….” The word ‘bowling’ is a:

(A) Verb

(B) Adjective

(C) Gerund

(D) Noun

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

Directions (Qs. No. 11-14): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     There are six members in a family-A, B, C, D E and F. C is the sister of F. D is father of A and F is grandson of D. B is brother-in-law of F’s mother. E is the daughter of D. There are only two females in the family.

11. Who is the daughter of A and E?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) B

(D) D

Answer: (A)

12. Who is the mother of F?

(A) C

(B) E

(C) A

(D) B

Answer: (B)

13. Two female members of the family are:

(A) D, E

(B) A, C

(C) C, E

(D) F, C

Answer: (C)

14. Who is the uncle of C?

(A) D

(B) A

(C) F

(D) B

Answer: (D)

Directions (Qs. No. 15-18): In the following questions a series is being given. Select from the alternatives the correct term to fill in the missing term.

15. 2, 9, 28, 65, 126, ?

(A) 210

(B) 215

(C) 217

(D) 252

Answer: (C)

16. 15, 32, 67, 138, ?, 568

(A) 276

(B) 278

(C) 280

(D) 281

Answer: (D)

17. 19, 29, 41, 55,?, 89

(A) 69

(B) 71

(C) 74

(D) 76

Answer: (B)

18. 64, 63, 49, 49, 48, 36, 36, 35, 25, 25, 24, ?

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (A)

19. Find the missing number:

(A) 89

(B) 93

(C) 72

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

20. Which is different from the rest of the three on any basis?

(A) Edge

(B) Corner

(C) Tip

(D) Vertex

Answer: (A)

21. If OCCUPATION is coded as QEEWRCVKQP, how will PROFESSION be coded?

(A) STQHGUUKQP

(B) RTQHGUUKPQ

(C) RTQHGUUKQP

(D) RTQGHUUKQP

Answer: (C)

22. The POTENTIAL is coded as 657247314, how will TALENT be coded?

(A) 714274

(B) 714247

(C) 741247

(D) 724147

Answer: (B)

Directions (Qs. No. 23-26): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     Mariam, Kunti, Begum, Shilpi and Meera are five friends. Each has six balls. Mariam gave three balls to Shilpi, who gave two balls each to Kunti and Meera. Begum gave four balls to Mariam who in turn gave three each to Kunti and Meera. Kunti gave five balls to Begum and Meera gave four balls to Shilpi.

23. Who possesses the most balls?

(A) Begum

(B) Shilpi

(C) Meera

(D) Kunti

Answer: (B)

24. How many balls are with Begum?

(A) 9

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (D)

25. How many balls are with Kunti?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (A)

26. Who has the fewest balls?

(A) Begum

(B) Meera

(C) Mariam

(D) Kunti

Answer: (C)

Directions (Qs. No. 27-30): Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

     A and B play cricket and tennis. B and D play hockey. A and C play volleyball and tennis. C, D and E play football.

27. Who plays hockey and football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (D)

28. Who plays cricket, tennis and volleyball?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (A)

29. Who plays only football?

(A) E

(B) D

(C) C

(D) B

Answer: (A)

30. Who plays volleyball and football?

(A) A

(B) B

(C) C

(D) D

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Where is the headquarter of International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)?

(A) Tel Aviv City, Israel

(B) Paris, France

(C) Tehran, Iran

(D) Masdar City, United Arab Emirates

Answer: (D)

32. What is geographically closest to Greater Nicobar?

(A) Sumatra

(B) Borneo

(C) Java

(D) Sri Lanka

Answer: (A)

33. Which of the following is a multi-level global campaign to spread awareness about the importance of education for girls?

(A) Girl’s Rising

(B) The most important part of our life; Girl

(C) Save Girls: Educate Girls

(D) Education for Girls

Answer: (A)

34. Lord Macaulay is related to:

(A) By introducing instruction through English medium

(B) Military reform

(C) End of sati practice

(D) Legal disclosure

Answer: (A)

35. Which of the following is not composed by Sant Tulsidas?

(A) Geetawali

(B) Kavitawali

(C) Vinay Patrika

(D) Sahitya Ratna

Answer: (D)

36. Which browser is developed by Google?

(A) Internet Explorer

(B) Firefox

(C) Safari

(D) Chrome

Answer: (D)

37. Who wrote the book “The Coalition Years 1996-2012”?

(A) Yashwant Sinha

(B) P. Chidambaram

(C) Pranab Mukherjee

(D) Sitaram Yechury

Answer: (C)

38. Parliament approved the National Education Policy in:

(A) 1985

(B) 1986

(C) 1988

(D) 1989

Answer: (B)

39. Which of the following acts was called by Jawaharlal Nehru as “Proclamation Letter of Slavery”?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(C) Government of India Act, 1919

(D) Government  of India Act, 1935

Answer: (D)

40. Where is Jog Falls located?

(A) On the Tapti river

(B) On the Sharavati river

(C) On the Kaveri river

(D) On the Bhima river

Answer: (B)

41. In which year did the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan scheme start?

(A) 1999-2000

(B) 2000-2001

(C) 2001-2002

(D) 2002-2003

Answer: (B)

42. Yashpal Committee Report (1993) is known as:

(A) Learning the pleasure within

(B) Learning without Burden

(C) Learning to Learn

(D) Learning to Live Together

Answer: (B)

43. Who was given the Jnanpith Award for the year 2016?

(A) Sankha Ghosh

(B) Mridula Garg

(C) Namvar Singh

(D) Sankara Kurup

Answer: (A)

44. National Curriculum Framework was created by NCERT:

(A) 2005

(B) 2006

(C) 2007

(D) 2008

Answer: (A)

45. Which book was written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati?

(A) Satyarth Prakash

(B) Raja Yoga

(C) Geetanjali

(D) Chaturang

Answer: (A)

46. How can the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India be increased?

(A) By the notification of President

(B) By Parliamentary law

(C) By amending the Constitution of India

(D) By a representation of the Supreme Court

Answer: (B)

47. When did Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana enforce?

(A) 2014

(B) 2015

(C) 2016

(D) 2017

Answer: (B)

48. The main objective of the Hunter Commission (1882) was:

(A) Assessing the status of primary education and suggesting improvements

(B) Suggesting Police Reforms

(C) Examining revolutionary movements in India

(D) Translation of Indian literature into English

Answer: (A)

49. Section ‘51A’ of the Constitution deals with:

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Fundamental Duties

(C) Girl education

(D) Woman education

Answer: (B)

50. In which year was the All India Muslim League established?

(A) 1905

(B) 1904

(C) 1907

(D) 1906

Answer: (D)

51. Which region is called the ‘rice bowl’ of India?

(A) North-East Region

(B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(C) Indus-Ganga Plain

(D) Krishna-Godavari delta region

Answer: (D)

52. For which book Viren Dangwal was given the Sahitya Akademi Award?

(A) Syahi Tal

(B) Esi Duniya mein

(C) Dushchakra Mein Srasta

(D) Kal ki Baat

Answer: (C)

53. “Jeevan ka Phiya” is used as a ‘Theme’ in which of the following?

(A) Varli painting

(B) Thanka painting

(C) Manjusha painting

(D) Kalamkari painting

Answer: (B)

54. First President of India was:

(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(B) Dr. Zakir Husain

(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (D)

55. Recently, the Energy Ganga Project implemented by the Government of India is:

(A) Saving Gangai Dolphin in Ganges River

(B) Removing water pollution from the Ganges River and conserving the Ganges River

(C) Protection of Ganga flood affected plains

(D) Providing LPG from pipes to residents

Answer: (D)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. The objective of teaching is:

(A) Change in behavior of students in expected direction

(B) Complete personality development of students

(C) Character building of students

(D) Getting selected in a proper  job

Answer: (A)

57. Why should there be discipline in the classroom?

(A) Children should feel that it is compulsory.

(B) Children should accept the tribunal.

(C) Children should understand the importance of organized and systematic work.

(D) If they want to become teachers, it will help them.

Answer: (C)

58. On which channel IGNOU’s programs are shown?

(A) Mukt channel

(B) Eklavya channel

(C) Gyan channel

(D) Vyas channel

Answer: (C)

59. The best definition of education can be:

(A) The preparation

(B) To acquire knowledge

(C) Learning

(D) Intellectual freedom

Answer: (D)

60. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of teacher education in India?

(A) NCTE

(B) MCI

(C) AICTE

(D) CSIR

Answer: (A)

61. The dictionary is a:

(A) Audio medium

(B) Visual medium

(C) Print media

(D) Audio-Visual medium

Answer: (C)

62. Which title will be appropriate for the opening of the first day in nursery class?

(A) My best friend

(B) My neighbourhood

(C) My school

(D) My family

Answer: (D)

63. A good teacher is one who:

(A) Encourages children for all round development.

(B) Helps children to learn their lesson easily.

(C) Prepares children to pass the exam.

(D) Establishes discipline in the classroom.

Answer: (A)

64. What will you do if a child does not understand the lesson properly taught in class?

(A) Repeat the lesson

(B) Students will be asked to read additional books/learning materials.

(C) Know the child’s prior knowledge

(D) Will reread the lesson by choosing examples from the child’s background

Answer: (D)

65. In the perspective of education, socialization means:

(A) Building your own social standards

(B) To respect elders in society

(C) Adaptation and adjustment in social environment

(D) Always comply with social standards

Answer: (C)

66. The most important objective of teaching is:

(A) To understand teacher’s narrative to children

(B) Completing the lesson of your subject

(C) Keeping children comfortable during teaching

(D) Taking classes regularly

Answer: (A)

67. Statement ‘Men are generally more intelligent than women’:

(A) is true

(B) can be true

(C) shows gender differences

(D) Perfect for multiple areas of intelligence

Answer: (C)

68. Which one of the following is not an ‘output’ device?

(A) Keyboard

(B) Visual Display Unit

(C) Printer

(D) Plotter

Answer: (A)

69. Which of the following is not the main objective of NCERT?

(A) To organize pre-service and in-service training of teachers.

(B) To act as  a nodal institution in achieving the goals of universal elementary education

(C) To encourage and coordinate research in the field of school education

(D) Developing rules for teacher education programs

Answer: (D)

70. The purpose of the task is to:

(A) Keeping students busy at home

(B) Improvement in handwriting

(C) Parents’ participation in student learning

(D) Promotion of self-learning

Answer: (D)

71. In which state the first Open University was established in India?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Delhi

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (A)

72. Which is not a suitable tool for structural assessment?

(A) Duty

(B) Oral question

(C) Terminal examination

(D) Question Forum & Puzzle

Answer: (C)

73. Which of the following is not correct about the school?

(A) They are powerful-agencies of social change.

(B) They are social units of cultural transfer.

(C) They are influenced by the social and economic scenario in the country.

(D) They are possible means of conflict and separation.

Answer: (D)

74. What is the biggest benefit of interaction between teachers and fellows?

(A) It helps in effective learning.

(B) It provides satisfaction to the teacher.

(C) It encourages scholars to ask questions.

(D) It creates better collective relationships.

Answer: (A)

75. If a child often quarrels with his siblings, how will you help him as a teacher?

(A) You punish him in school

(B) Comparing him to others will discourage him

(C) Will ask parents to take drastic action

(D) By taking him alone find the reason for such behavior.

Answer: (D)

76. An effective teaching-aid material has one of the following characteristic/qualities:

(A) It looks good.

(B) Awakens all departments.

(C) Visible to everyone.

(D) It is easy to make.

Answer: (B)

77. What is not desired for a proper teaching-learning environment in the classroom?

(A) Autonomy of fellowship

(B) Freedom to teacher for innovation

(C) Meeting of continuous teacher-parent association

(D) Punishment for wrong behavior

Answer: (D)

78. Ann effective classroom environment occurs in:

(A) Different types of educational aids

(B) Live interaction of student-teacher

(C) Torrential silence

(D) Excessive discipline

Answer: (B)

79. Ethical values can be developed effectively in students when teachers:

(A) Speaks of sustainable values.

(B) He complies himself.

(C) Tells the story of great people.

(D) Provides reading material.

Answer: (B)

80. The success of teaching depends on:

(A) On advance skills

(B) On oral communication skills

(C) On children’s understanding

(D) On children’s choice

Answer: (C)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. An electric motor converts:

(A) Electrical energy into heat energy

(B) Electrical energy into mechanical energy

(C) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

(D) Mechanical energy into heat energy

Answer: (B)

82. The part of DNA that informs a protein, is called:

(A) Nucleus

(B) Chromosome

(C) Modesty

(D) Gene

Answer: (D)

83. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Nitrogen dioxide

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Carbon monoixde

Answer: (C)

84. Which of the following would be true for highly acidic and highly alkaline solutions?

(A) The concentration of hydrogen ion in the solution will be 107 M

(B) The solution will turn litmus into red colour

(C) Solutions will be very good conductor of electricity

(D) The solutions will release hydrogen by reacting with Mg

Answer: (C)

85. Which colour of visible light has the lowest frequency?

(A) Violet

(B) Red

(C) Yellow

(D) Green

Answer: (B)

86. The blood corpuscles that help in blood clotting at the place of injury are:

(A) RBC

(B) WBC

(C) Platelets

(D) Eosinophils

Answer: (C)

87. The result of the ozone hole is:

(A) Green effect house

(B) Global warming

(C) Acid rain

(D) Increase in UV radiation

Answer: (D)

88. Choose a compound that has an oxidation number of +5 to chlorine.

(A) HClO4

(B) HClO3

(C) HClO2

(D) HClO

Answer: (B)

89. If the focal length of a lens is f, the power of the lens will be:

Answer: (A)

90. Which of the following electronic distributions should have a minimum ionic energy?

(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(C) 1s2 2s2 2p6

(D) 1s2 2s2 2p3

Answer: (B)

91. Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

(A) Wind energy

(B) Ocean energy

(C) Solar energy

(D) Fossil energy

Answer: (D)

92. Which of the following properties is different for neutral atoms of two isotopes of the same element?

(A) Atomic number

(B) Mass

(C) Number of electrons

(D) General chemical reaction

Answer: (B)

93. What percentage of genes does a child get from his father?

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 100%

Answer: (B)

94. Xylem in plants are responsible:

(A) For water transport

(B) For manure transport

(C) For the transport of amino acids

(D) For oxygen transport

Answer: (A)

95. Resistance of metal Conductor:

(A) Increases with increase in temperature

(B) Decreases with increase in temperature

(C) Doesn’t change with change in temperature

(D) Becomes zero at high temperature

Answer: (A)

96. Which of the following will form an ionic solution in water?

(A) CO2

(B) CCl4

(C) O2

(D) NaI

Answer: (D)

97. The reason for the movement of food in the esophagus is:

(A) Balsamic by saliva

(B) Peristalsis

(C) Gravitational pull

(D) Filtration

Answer: (B)

98. In which production the biodegraded waste can be used?

(A) Manure

(B) Biogas

(C) Both manure and biogas

(D) Neither manure nor biogas

Answer: (C)

99. In human beings, kidney is part of which system?

(A) Nutrition

(B) Respiration

(C) Excretion

(D) Circulation

Answer: (C)

100. The fastest depleting natural resources in the world are:

(A) Water

(B) Forest

(C) Air

(D) Sunlight

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. The largest 4-digit number divisible by 15, 25, 40, and 75 will be?

(A) 9000

(B) 9200

(C) 9400

(D) 9600

Answer: (D)

102. How many digits will be in the right of the decimal point in the product of 65.425, and 0.03216?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (C)

103. 17 pen are sold at Rs 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 pens, what is the cost price of one pen?

(A) Rs 43

(B) Rs 60

(C) Rs 55

(D) Rs 34

Answer: (B)

104. A fruit seller purchases 5 oranges in Rs 4 then sells 4 oranges in Rs 5, what is his profit per cent?

(A) 50%

(B) 48.56%

(C) 56.25%

(D) 62.25%

Answer: (C)

105. If (5.6)2 + 5.6p + (3.4)2 is a perfect square, then what is the value of p?

(A) 3.4

(B) 9.0

(C) 2.2

(D) 6.8

Answer: (D)

106. If the shadow of a pole is √3 times its length, then the angle of elevation towards the sun will be:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 75°

Answer: (A)

107. How many two-digit prime numbers have 1 as a second digit?

(A) 03

(B) 04

(C) 05

(D) 06

Answer: (C)

108. The total number of prime numbers between 20 and 50 will be:

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Answer: (B)

109. The value of  is:

(A) 1.2

(B) 3.8

(C) 5.0

(D) 4.0

Answer: (C)

110. HCF of two numbers is 5 and LCM is150. If one number is 25, then the second number will be:

(A) 45

(B) 40

(C) 30

(D) 20

Answer: (C)

111. At 8.30 am, the angle between the minute and the hour hand in a watch will be:

(A) 60°

(B) 70°

(C) 75°

(D) 90°

Answer: (C)

112. If a shopkeeper gives 5% discount in his sale 3 times continuously, the total discount will be:

(A) 15%

(B) 12.27%

(C) 17.74%

(D) 14.26%

Answer: (D)

113. A clock starts in the afternoon. The hour needle will be bent at 5.10 pm?

(A) 145°

(B) 155°

(C) 160°

(D) 175°

Answer: (B)

114. A fruit seller has some oranges. He sold 30% of the oranges, yet he has 245 oranges left. How many oranges did he have in the beginning?

(A) 250

(B) 300

(C) 350

(D) 400

Answer: (C)

115. A 350 m. long train is running at a speed of 45 km/hr. In how much time it will cross 140 m. long platform?

(A) 30 seconds

(B) 40 seconds

(C) 45 seconds

(D) 50 seconds

Answer: (B)

116. If  then:

(A) a = b

(B) a + b =1

(C) a – b = 0

(D) a – b = 1

Answer: (B)

117. If one number is 10% less than another, which is 10% more than 200, then what is the first number?

(A) 190

(B) 198

(C) 202

(D) 218

Answer: (B)

118. Which of the following represents the ratio of seconds to hours?

(A) .00025

(B) .00026

(C) .00027

(D) .00028

Answer: (C or D)

119. A train running at a speed of 40 km/hr crosses a post in 18 seconds. The length of the train will be:

(A) 180 m

(B) 200 m

(C) 240 m

(D) 360 m

Answer: (B)

120. A student gets 240 marks in the examination and is failed with 60 marks, if the maximum marks is 600, then what is the passing percentage?

(A) 36%

(B) 40%

(C) 45%

(D) 50%

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. The word ‘mansab’ is used:

(A) A piece of land

(B) A position

(C) An office

(D) A pay scale

Answer: (B)

122. The Constitution of India was adopted:

(A) By the Governor General

(B) By British Parliament

(C) By Constituent Assembly

(D) By Indian Parliament

Answer: (C)

123. Excise duty is a tax:

(A) On sale of goods

(B) On export of goods

(C) On the production of goods

(D) On import of goods

Answer: (C)

124. Which of the following is not a fundamental feature of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Presidential government

(B) Parliamentary government

(C) Federal government

(D) Freedom of judiciary

Answer: (A)

125. The Similipal Tiger Reserve is located at:

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Uttarakhand

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Odisha

Answer: (D)

126. Which state is the largest producer of coal in India?

(A) Bihar

(B) Jharkhand

(C) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Answer: (B)

127. Supernova is a:

(A) A dwarf star

(B) A black hole

(C) A meteor

(D) A dead star

Answer: (D)

128. Who is called the father of Indian Constitution?

(A) B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: (A)

129. Which of the following Gupta emperors was equally important in war and personal achievements?

(A) Chandragupta I

(B) Chandragupta II

(C) Kumargupta I

(D) Skandagupta

Answer: (B)

130. Which English Governor General started postage stamps in India?

(A) Lord Dalhousie

(B) Lord Auckland

(C) Lord Canning

(D) Lord William Bentinck

Answer: (A)

131. Where was the Mughal ruler Bahadur Shah II sent as captive by the British?

(A) Mendeley jail

(B) Adaman and Nicobar

(C) Rangoon

(D) Hyderabad

Answer: (C)

132. Members of Rajya Sabha are:

(A) Directly elected.

(B) Mostly nominated.

(C) Both chosen directly and indirectly.

(D) Elected by the assembly members.

Answer: (D)

133. Which section of the constitution has given residuary rights to the Parliament?

(A) Section 45

(B) Section 21A

(C) Section 148

(D) Section 360

Answer: (*)

134. On which river is the Gandhi Sagar Dam built?

(A) Narmada

(B) Chambal

(C) Tapti

(D) Mahanadi

Answer: (B)

135. The President of the Union of India is conferred with equivalent to which of the following:

(A) British Monarch

(B) President of America

(C) President of Egypt

(D) President of Russia

Answer: (A)

136. Who is the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) Finance Minister

(C) Commerce Minister

(D) Vice-President of India

Answer: (D)

137. Who was the last Mughal emperor?

(A) Babur

(B) Humayun

(C) Bhadur Shah Zafar

(D) Aurangzeb

Answer: (C)

138. Which of the following is the longest national highway in the country?

(A) National Highway-1

(B) National Highway-44

(C) National Highway-3

(D) National Highway-4

Answer: (B)

139. Who is considered as the founder of scientific socialism?

(A) Rousseau

(B) Karl Marx

(C) Engels

(D) Lenin

Answer: (B)

140. India is a ………… .

(A) Social economy

(B) Capitalist economy

(C) Mixed economy

(D) Open economy

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145): Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. The treacherous accountant gave away secrets to the rival company.

(A) greedy

(B) perfect

(C) faithful

(D) disloyal

Answer: (D)

142. The compliant student made sure to compliment her supervisor at every stage.

(A) brilliant

(B) amicable

(C) obliging

(D) faithful

Answer: (C)

143. The personalities of the twins are as disparate as day and night.

(A) dissimilar

(B) similar

(C) common

(D) incomprehensible

Answer: (A)

144. Ania is a vociferous defender of labour unions.

(A) eloquent

(B) forceful

(C) submissive

(D) amiable

Answer: (B)

145. The critic described the painting as insipid.

(A) Inspiring

(B) Uninteresting

(C) Significant

(D) Aesthetic

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In this group of words, only one word is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) Grigarious

(B) Gregerious

(C) Gregarious

(D) Grigerious

Answer: (C)

147.

(A) Alleviate

(B) Allevate

(C) Aleviate

(D) Aleeviate

Answer: (A)

148.

(A) Transitery

(B) Transitory

(C) Transetory

(D) Transetery

Answer: (B)

149.

(A) Erasable

(B) Erasible

(C) Erasibal

(D) Erascible

Answer: (A)

150.

(A) Dessonance

(B) Dissonance

(C) Desonance

(D) Disonance

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word which is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. His volatile personality made it difficult to predict his reaction to anything.

(A) capricious

(B) erratic

(C) fickle

(D) calm

Answer: (D)

152. The character Scrooge in ‘A Christmas Carol’ is a misanthrope.

(A) cynic

(B) philanthropist

(C) pessimist

(D) recluse

Answer: (B)

153. His prodigal son quickly wasted all of his savings.

(A) miserly

(B) extravagant

(C) lavish

(D) wasteful

Answer: (A)

154. Anita has a reputation for veracity, so everyone trusted her.

(A) candour

(B) exactitude

(C) dishonesty

(D) fidelity

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Select the word in each group that does not properly belong to it.

155.

(A) ardent

(B) enthusiastic

(C) passionate

(D) apathetic

Answer: (D)

156.

(A) professional

(B) lay person

(C) amateur

(D) novice

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

157. Despite the efforts to ______ the discord between the two fractions, the two groups remained sworn enemies.

(A) intensify

(B) exploit

(C) assuage

(D) excite

Answer: (C)

158. To avoid being ______, the teacher often includes jokes and amusing anecdotes in her lectures.

(A) amusing

(B) complex

(C) eccentric

(D) monotonous

Answer: (C)

159. The mines of the gold rush dug so deeply into the mountain that any more excavation could have had ________ consequences, causing a cave-in or a complete collapse.

(A) rigid

(B) devastating

(C) alienating

(D) moderate

Answer: (B)

160. To properly represent its ____ forms, Manu included, in his paper on the history of renaissance Art, over twenty sections each describing a different style.

(A) diverse

(B) simplest

(C) identical

(D) singular

Answer: (A)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2021 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2021

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices given after each question that follows:

     Nature is like business. Business sense dictates that we guard our capital and live from the interest. Nature’s capital is the enormous diversity of living things. Without it, the cannot feed ourselves, cure ourselves of illness or provide industry with the raw materials of wealth creation. Professor Edward Wilson of Harvard University, says: “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us is the ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity. This will take millions of years to correct.”

     Only 150 plant species have ever been widely cultivated. Yet over 75,000 edible plants are known in the wild. In a hungry world, with a population growing by 90 million each year, so much wasted potential is tragic. Medicines from the wild are worth around 40 billion dollars a year. Over 5000 species are known to yield chemical with cancer fighting potential. Scientists currently estimate that the total number of species in the world is between 10-30 million with only around 1.4 million identified.

     The web of life is torn when human beings exploit natural resources in short-sighted ways. The trade in tropical hardwoods can destroy whole forests to extract just a few commercially attractive specimens. Bad agricultural practices trigger 24 billion tonnes of top soil erosion a year losing the equivalent of 9 million tonnes of grain output. Cutting this kind of unsuitable exploitation and institution “sustainable utilization” will help turn the environmental crisis around.

1. Why does the author compare ‘nature’ to ‘business’?

(A) Because of the capital depletion in nature and business

(B) Because of the similarity with which one should use both

(C) Because of the same interest level yield

(D) Because of the diversity of the various capital inputs

Answer: (D)

2. “The folly our descendants are least likely to forgive us”-What is the business equivalent of the folly the author is referring to?

(A) Reducing the profit margin

(B) Not pumping some money out of profits into the business

(C) Eroding the capital base of the business

(D) Putting interest on capital back into the business

Answer: (C)

3. Which of the following statements is false in the context of the passage?

(A) The diversity of plant life is essential for human existence

(B) Scientists know the usefulness of most plant specie

(C) Chemicals for cancer treatment are available from plants

(D) There are around ten times the plant species undiscovered as compared to the discovered ones

Answer: (B)

4. Which of the following correctly reflects the opinion of the author to take care of hunger in the world?

(A) Increase the number of species of edible plants being cultivated.

(B) Increase cultivation of the 150j species presently under cultivation

(C) Increase the cultivation of medicinal plants

(D) Increases the potential of the uncultivated edible plants

Answer: (C)

5. Which of the following is mentioned as the immediate cause for the destruction of forests?

(A) Soil Erosion

(B) Destruction of Habitat

(C) Cutting of Trees

(D) Bad Agricultural Practices

Answer: (C)

6. The author gives two examples of ‘unsuitable exploitation’. These are:

(A) Bad agricultural practices and soil erosion

(B) Bad agricultural practices and trade in tropical hardwoods

(C) Trade in tropical hardwoods and soil erosion

(D) Trade in tropical hardwoods and losing tonnes of grain output

Answer: (B)

7. The passage is about

(A) Business

(B) Nature

(C) Environmental Crisis

(D) Agricultural Practices

Answer: (B)

8. What, according to the author, is ‘environmental crisis’

(A) Trade in tropical hardwoods

(B) Bad agricultural practices

(C) Soil erosion

(D) The ongoing loss of genetic and species diversity

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following words is nearly the same in meaning as the words ‘wasted’ as used in the passage?

(A) Consumed

(B) Squandered

(C) Unutilised

(D) Unprofitable

Answer: (C)

10. Which of the following words is nearly opposite in meaning to ‘cutting’ as used in the passage?

(A) Uniting

(B) Avoiding

(C) Joining

(D) Combining

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. Which of the following is the next term in the series?

PAT, PEN, PIT, PON, ?

(A) PET

(B) POT

(C) PUT

(D) PAN

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following continues the series?

2, 4, 6, 9, 12, ?

(A) 14

(B) 15

(C) 16

(D) 17

Answer: (C)

13. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 49, 81, ?, 169

(A) 100

(B) 64

(C) 121

(D) 144

Answer: (C)

14. Rohit said to a girl, “Your mother is the only daughter of my mother-in-law.” How is Rohit related to the girl?

(A) Father

(B) Uncle

(C) Brother

(D) Cousin

Answer: (A)

15. In a code language, STAR is written as RATS, then ROUT will be written as:

(A) TOUR

(B) TORU

(C) ROTU

(D) TUOR

Answer: (D)

16. In a code language 25 means, ‘Green Apple’, 35 means ‘Red Apple’ and 34 means ‘Red Cherry’. What is the code for ‘Green Cherry’?

(A) 23

(B) 24

(C) 34

(D) 43

Answer: (B)

17. Father said to the son, “When you were born, I was of your present age.” If the father is 36 years old now, how old was the son 7 years ago?

(A) 11 years

(B) 13 years

(C) 15 years

(D) 17 years

Answer: (A)

18. A circular coin is placed on a plane surface. How many more coins of the same size can be placed around it so that each touches the central coin and adjacent coins?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 10

Answer: (B)

19. From a starting point, a man moves 3 km north, then turns west and walks 2 km, again turns back and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards east. How far is the how from starting point?

(A) 5 km

(B) 8 km

(C) 10 km

(D) 12 km

Answer: (A)

20. If 3rd of December is Saturday, then the last day of the month would be:

(A) Monday

(B) Saturday

(C) Thursday

(D) Sunday

Answer: (B)

21. Five houses A to E are in a row. A is to the right of B, E is to the left of C and right of A, and B is to right of D. Which house is in the middle?

(A) D

(B) C

(C) B

(D) A

Answer: (D)

22. The medians of a triangle ABC intersect at D. How many triangles are formed in the resulting figures?

(A) 18

(B) 16

(C) 12

(D) 8

Answer: (B)

23. If 6 + 7 is 43 and 5 + 6 is 31, then 4 + 5 is :

(A) 9

(B) 20

(C) 21

(D) 25

Answer: (C)

24. If 213 is written as 6 and 432 is written as 9, then 543 would be written as:

(A) 10

(B) 11

(C) 12

(D) 13

Answer: (C)

25. If order of first 13 English alphabets is reversed, then which letter would not change its position?

(A) E

(B) F

(C) G

(D) H

Answer: (C)

26. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

1, 2, 3, 1, 4, 9, 1, ?, 27

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 7

(D) 8

Answer: (D)

27. The population of a town consists of 45% men and 40% women. If the number of children is 30,000, then the total population of the town is:

(A) 2 lakhs

(B) 3 lakhs

(C) 4.5 lakhs

(D) 6 lakhs

Answer: (A)

28. Which of the following words appears first of all in the dictionary?

(A) Compensate

(B) Compassionate

(C) Compression

(D) Competition

Answer: (B)

29. Preetig ranks 38th in her class both from top and bottom. How many students are there in the class?

(A) 77

(B) 76

(C) 75

(D) 74

Answer: (C)

30. A square is divided into 16 equal parts by intersecting lines parallel to its sides. How many squares are formed in the resulting figure?

(A) 16

(B) 28

(C) 30

(D) 36

Answer: (C)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. Kisan Diwas is celebrated on:

(A) October 23

(B) November 23

(C) December 23

(D) September 23

Answer: (C)

32. “A Bunch of Old Letters” was written by:

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Abdul Kalam

(D) Morarji Desai

Answer: (A)

33. Who is known as ‘Man of Destiny’?

(A) Adolf Hitler

(B) George Bernard Shaw

(C) Napoleon

(D) Shakespeare

Answer: (C)

34. Mission Innovation aims to:

(A) accelerate clean energy innovation to address climate change

(B) promote indigeous development of Nano Satellites

(C) adopt new methods of agriculture

(D) adopt new methods of water harvesting

Answer: (A)

35. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?

(A) Lord Warren Hastings

(B) Lord Dalhousie

(C) Lord Curzon

(D) Lord Linlithgow

Answer: (D)

36. The ‘Red Line campaign’ started by India is related to which of the following field?

(A) Fencing of India-Pakistan Border

(B) Zero open defecation

(C) Curb irrational use of antibiotics

(D) Zero corruption

Answer: (C)

37. The Union Budget is presented under which Article of the Constitution of India ?

(A) 110

(B) 111

(C) 112

(D) 113

Answer: (C)

38. When was the Indian Post Office Act passed?

(A) 1852

(B) 1853

(C) 1854

(D) 1898

Answer: (D)

39. Which event occurred first in India’s Independence struggle?

(A) Simon Commission

(B) Non-Cooperation Movement

(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(D) Tripura Adhiveshan of Congress

Answer: (B)

40. The concept of Public Interest Litigation originated in:

(A) UK

(B) Canada

(C) USA

(D) South Africa

Answer: (C)

41. The country which levied a tax on WhatsApp and Facebook in the year 2018 is:

(A) Uganda

(B) Zambia

(C) Zimbabwe

(D) Tanzania

Answer: (A)

42. According to the World Bank, which country remained the top recipient of remittances in 2018?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Mexico

(D) Philippines

Answer: (A)

43. The Tropic of Capricorn does not pass through:

(A) Argentina

(B) Bolivia

(C) Brazil

(D) Chile

Answer: (B)

44. Similipal Tiger Reserve is situated in the State of:

(A) Odisha

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(C) West Bengal

(D) Karnataka

Answer: (A)

45. In which State is Silent Valley situated?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Kerala

(C) Assam

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer: (B)

46. A document called “ The Future We Want” related to which of the following organizations?

(A) United Nations Conference of Sustainable Development

(B) Global Environment Facility

(C) United nations Framework Convention on Climate Change

(D) Convention on Biological Diversity

Answer: (A)

47. The Spratly Islands are located in which of the following seas?

(A) The Caspian Sea

(B) The Black Sea

(C) The Mediterranean Sea

(D) The South China Sea

Answer: (D)

48. Tapti river originates from which district of Madhya Pradesh?

(A) Betul

(B) Balaghat

(C) Chhindwara

(D) Hoshangabad

Answer: (A)

49. Which of the following monuments in India is not a world heritage?

(A) Fatehpur Sikri

(B) Ajanta and Ellora

(C) Khajuraho

(D) Jantar Mantar in Delhi

Answer: (D)

50. ‘Life Divine’ is written by:

(A) Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) V.V Giri

(C) Amrita Pritam

(D) V.D. Savarkar

Answer: (A)

51. Which writ is issued by the High Court to the lower courts to stop legal actions?

(A) Habeas corpus

(B) Prohibition

(C) Quo warranto

(D) Certiorari

Answer: (B)

52. Return of income is submitted under which Section of the Income Tax Act?

(A) Section 138(1)

(B) Section 142(1)

(C) Section 139(1)

(D) Section 129(1)

Answer: (C)

53. National Knowledge Commission was headed by:

(A) Ashok Ganguly

(B) P. Balaram

(C) Sam Pitroda

(D) Deepak Nayyar

Answer: (C)

54. Which of the following is the apex body in the area of Teacher Education in India?

(A) UGC

(B) NIEPA

(C) NCTE

(D) NCERT

Answer: (C)

55. The idea of Four Pillars of Education was suggested by:

(A) UNICEF

(B) UNESCO

(C) UNDP

(D) UNITAR

Answer: (B)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. RTE Act, 2009 envisages all children free admission to:

(A) Sainik schools

(B) Army schools

(C) Neighbourhood schools

(D) Navodaya schools

Answer: (C)

57. “Learning Without Burden” is the report submitted by a committee under the chairmanship of:

(A) Prof. Amrit Desai

(B) Prof. Amrik Singh

(C) Prof. Ved Prakash

(D) Prof. Yashpal

Answer: (D)

58. What is the verbal component of a poster?

(A) Image

(B) Caption

(C) Graph

(D) Table

Answer: (B)

59. Which of the following learner characteristics impacts teaching the most?

(A) Prior experience of the learner

(B) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(C) Peer group of learner

(D) Family size from which the learner comes

Answer: (A)

60. National Education Day is observed on November 11 every year in the memory of:

(A) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Zakir Hussain

(D) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: (B)

61. Determining the aims of Education is the responsibility of:

(a) Parents                        (b) Teachers

(c) Students                     (d) Society

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) only (a)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

62. Immediate outcome of teaching is related to:

(A) desirable changes in the behaviour of students.

(B) development of personality of students.

(C) moral development of students.

(D) enhancing employability.

Answer: (B)

63. Discipline in the class essentially helps to:

(A) establish teacher’s authority.

(B) make children understand that indiscipline is punishable.

(C) make classroom activities organised and orderly.

(D) adhere to the time-table.

Answer: (C)

64. Which of the following is not desirable for effective teaching?

(A) Questioning

(B) Using teaching aids

(C) Following textbook rigidly

(D) Encouraging student talk

Answer: (C)

65. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) Multiple tests

(b) Criteria-based tests

(c) Assessment for learning

(d) Assessing scholastic and co-scholastic aspects

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

66. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple choice type questions?

(A) These are objective.

(B) These are subjective.

(C) These do not need appropriate distractors.

(D) These do not have a fixed answer.

Answer: (A)

67. The key component of teacher-student communication during teaching is:

(A) Humour

(B) Learner’s problems

(C) Subject content

(D) Motivating statements

Answer: (D)

68. Which among the following is a teacher-centred method?

(A) Project

(B) Lecture

(C) Group work

(D) Brainstorming

Answer: (B)

69. A teacher as a facilitator is one who:

(A) delivers lectures.

(B) explains concepts and principles.

(C) gives printed notes to students.

(D) inspires students to learn.

Answer: (D)

70. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?

(A) Students asking questions

(B) Maximum attendance of students

(C) Silence in the classroom

(D) Students taking notes

Answer: (A)

71. In the classroom, the teacher sends the message either as words or images. The students are:

(A) Encoders

(B) Decoders

(C) Noise eliminators

(D) Senders

Answer: (B)

72. CIET stands for:

(A) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology

(B) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology

(C) Central Institute for Educational Technology

(D) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques

Answer: (C)

73. An effective classroom environment has:

(A) No teaching aids

(B) Lively student-teacher interaction

(C) Silence

(D) Strict discipline

Answer: (B)

74. In which period did India become a centre of higher learning with Nalanda and Taxila?

(A) Chola period

(B) Gupta period

(C) Harappa Civilization period

(D) Mughal period

Answer: (B)

75. Curriculum is:

(A) same as syllabus

(B) content to be taught

(C) overall educational activities within and outside the school.

(D) only teaching, no other activities.

Answer: (C)

76. What is the full from SWAYAM?

(A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for  Young Aspiring Minds

(B) Study Webs for Accustomed Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(C) Study Ways of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

(D) Study Webs of Actual Learning for Young Aspiring Minds

Answer: (A)

77. Operation Blackboard was launched under National Policy on Education (1986) to:

(A) provide schools with adequate number of blackboards.

(B) create awareness for using blackboards.

(C) provide minimum essential facilities to the schools.

(D) use blackboard effectively in the teaching learning process.

Answer: (C)

78. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of:

(A) course coverage.

(B) aims of teaching.

(C) learning outcomes of students

(D) use of teaching aids in the classroom.

Answer: (C)

79. Good teaching does not involve:

(A) Guiding

(B) Motivating

(C) Explaining

(D) Encouraging rote learning

Answer: (D)

80. Project method is based on the principle of:

(A) Learning by play-way

(B) Learning by doing

(C) Learning from teacher

(D) Learning from books

Answer: (B)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. Cause of Acid rain is:

(A) Release of oxides of Carbon, Nitrogen and Sulphur in the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels.

(B) Friction among clouds causes electric charges

(C) Humidity produces acid vapour

(D) Sun heats up the clouds

Answer: (A)

82. Which of the following is acidic in nature?

(A) Common Salt solution

(B) Pure water

(C) Lemon juice

(D) Baking soda solution

Answer: (C)

83. What is the volume of 16 g of oxygen at Standard Temperature and pressure (S.T.P.)?

(A) 22.4 litres

(B) 11.2 litres

(C) 22.4 cm3

(D) 11.2 cm3

Answer: (B)

84. Mass number of an element is X and it has 11 electrons. The number of neutrons in it is:

(A) X + 11

(B) X

(C) 11

(D) X – 11

Answer: (D)

85. An example of a chemical change is:

(A) Conversion of water into ice

(B) Conversion of water into steam

(C) Heating of a resistor on passing current

(D) Conversion of milk into curd

Answer: (D)

86. A man is 10 feet away from his image in a plane mirror fixed in a wall. He walks 3 feet towards the mirror. What is the distance between him and his image now?

(A) 2 feet

(B) 3 feet

(C) 4 feet

(D) 6 feet

Answer: (C)

87. If a ray of light is going from air to glass and angle of incidence is i and angle of refraction is r we have:

(A) i < r

(B) sin i = sin r

(C) 

(D) sin i × sin r = Constant

Answer: (C)

88. Two resistance of two ohms each are joined in parallel. What is the equivalent resistance?

(A) 1 ohm

(B) 2 ohms

(C) 3 ohms

(D) 4 ohms

Answer: (A)

89. What unbalanced force in Newton (N) will accelerate a 25 kg body from 5 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 seconds?

(A) 1 N

(B) 5 N

(C) 25 N

(D) 50 N

Answer: (C)

90. Watt is the unit of:

(A) Energy

(B) Work

(C) Force

(D) Power

Answer: (D)

91. The planet nearest to Earth in our Solar System is:

(A) Mercury

(B) Venus

(C) Mars

(D) Jupiter

Answer: (A)

92. Alpha particles are:

(A) Positively charged

(B) Negatively charged

(C) Not charged

(D) Same as photons

Answer: (A)

93. Night blindness is caused due to:

(A) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘A’

(B) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘B’

(C) Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’

(D) Excess of Vitamin ‘A’

Answer: (A)

94. Why is a flash of lightning seen before the sound of thunder is heard?

(A) Because light travels faster than sound

(B) Because light is produced much earlier

(C) Because sound is obstructed by clouds

(D) Because sound is produced farther away

Answer: (A)

95. The disease ‘Jaundice’ is associated with:

(A) Eyes

(B) Lungs

(C) Gums

(D) Liver

Answer: (D)

96. It is the process by which green plants manufacture food in the form of carbohydrates in the presence of sunlight.

(A) Osmosis

(B) Radioactivity

(C) Photosynthesis

(D) Ecology

Answer: (C)

97. Which one of the following is not an essential micronutrient for plants?

(A) Zinc

(B) Copper

(C) Boron

(D) Sodium

Answer: (D)

98. What is the measure of acidity of a liquid?

(A) Boiling Point

(B) Freezing Point

(C) pH

(D) Density

Answer: (C)

99. Which one of the following is also known as ‘Laughing Gas’?

(A) Helium

(B) Nitrous oxide

(C) Nitrogen dioxide

(D) Nitrogen

Answer: (B)

100. Respiration involves exchange of:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Nitrogen and Carbon dioxide

(D) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

Answer: (A)

Section-V: (ii) Mathematics

101. The sum of the odd numbers between 0 and 50 is:

(A) 575

(B) 625

(C) 675

(D) 725

Answer: (B)

102. Ten observations have been arranged in ascending order as under:

29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95

The median is 63. The value of x is:

(A) 60

(B) 61

(C) 62

(D) 64

Answer: (C)

103. 75th Percentile coincides with:

(A) Median

(B) Mode

(C) First Quartile

(D) Third Quartile

Answer: (D)

104. Mean, Median and Mode coincide in:

(A) Positively skewed curve

(B) Negatively skewed curve

(C) Normal probability curve

(D) Leptokurtic curve

Answer: (C)

105. The value of sec A(1 – sin A) (sec A + tan A) is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) sin A

(D) cos A

Answer: (B)

106. The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° ad the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. The tower is 50 m high. The height of the building is:

Answer: (A)

107. In ∆ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, AC = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm. The angle B is:

(A) 45°

(B) 60°

(C) 90°

(D) 120°

Answer: (C)

108. 8 men can dig a pit in 20 days. If a man works half as much more as a boy, 4 men and 9 boys will dig a similar pit in:

(A) 12 days

(B) 14 days

(C) 16 days

(D) 18 days

Answer: (C)

109. 12 copies of a book were sold for Rs 1,800 thereby gaining the cost price of 3 copies. The cost price of a copy is:

(A) Rs 100

(B) Rs 120

(C) Rs 140

(D) R 160

Answer: (B)

110. A wooden box is 110 cm × 90 cm × 40 cm is size. Packets 22 cm in length, 15 cm in breadth and 6 cm in height are to be placed in it. How many of these can be place in the box?

(A) 160

(B) 180

(C) 200

(D) 220

Answer: (C)

111. The approximate value of :

0.4 × 0.4 + 0.04 × 0.04 + 0.04 is:

(A) 0.16

(B) 0.20

(C) 0.44

(D) 0.46

Answer: (B)

112. Two trains 126 m and 114 m long are running in opposite directions, one at the rate of 30 kmph and another one at 42 kmph. From the moment they meet, the will cross each other in:

(A) 13 seconds

(B) 12 seconds

(C) 11 seconds

(D) 10 seconds

Answer: (B)

113. A student passed in first division securing 440 marks, but missed distinction marks of 75% by 10 marks. The maximum marks for the exam was:

(A) 500

(B) 550

(C) 700

(D) 600

Answer: (D)

114. A sum of money amounts to Rs 1,800 in 2 years and Rs 2,592 in 4years at a compound interest rate of:

(A) 10%

(B) 

(C) 15%

(D) 20%

Answer: (*)

115. The HCF and LCM of two number are 16 and 672 respectively. If one of the numbers is 112, what is the other number?

(A) 96

(B) 192

(C) 80

(D) 48

Answer: (A)

116. A man’s salary was decreased by 30% and then increased by 30%. The net change is:

(A) 10% increase

(B) 10% decrease

(C) 9% decrease

(D) 9% increase

Answer: (C)

117. The average salary of male employees in a firm is Rs 5,200 and that of female employees is Rs 4,200. The mean salary of all employees is Rs 5,000. The percentage of female employees is:

(A) 15%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 30%

Answer: (B)

118. How much would A get if a sum of Rs 890 is to be divided amongst A, B and C such that A : B is 4 : 5 and B : C is 6 : 7?

(A) Rs 160

(B) Rs 200

(C) Rs 220

(D) Rs 240

Answer: (D)

119. A father’s age is 5 times the age of his daughter. It was 9 times, five years ago. How old is the father now?

(A) 45 years

(B) 50 years

(C) 55 years

(D) 60 years

Answer: (B)

120. A two-digit number is less than 30. The sum of its digits is 7 and their multiplication product is 10. The number is:

(A) 16

(B) 24

(C) 25

(D) 28

Answer: (C)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science

121. Which of the following periodicals is not correctly matched with the editor?

(A) Bande Mataram : Aurobindo Ghosh

(B) Sandhya : Barindra Ghosh

(C) New India : Bipin Chandra Pal

(D) Yugantar : Bhupendranath Datta

Answer: (B)

122. An instrument used to record the motion of the ground during an earthquake is:

(A) Seismometer

(B) Seismogram

(C) Seismology

(D) Seismograph

Answer: (D)

123. The idea of ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ in the Indian Constitution is taken from the Constitution of:

(A) Ireland

(B) Australia

(C) Britain

(D) USA

Answer: (A)

124. The idea of “Lokpal” bill is taken from:

(A) Britain

(B) America

(C) Scandinavian countries

(D) France

Answer: (C)

125. Who was the First Woman President of Indian National Congress?

(A) Sarojini Naidu

(B) Rajkumari Amrita Kaur

(C) Annie Besant

(D) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Answer: (C)

126. Mahatma Gandhi gave the title of ‘Sardar’ to Vallabhbhai Patel for his great organisational skill in the :

(A) Kheda Satyagraha

(B) Bardoli Satyagraha

(C) Salt Satyagraha

(D) Champaran Satyagraha

Answer: (B)

127. Andaman wild pig is an example of:

(A) Vulnerable species

(B) Endemic species

(C) Rare species

(D) Extinct species

Answer: (B)

128. Which country has the highest productivity of rice?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Bangladesh

Answer: (B)

129. The main source of National Income in India is ………. .

(A) Primary Sector

(B) Secondary Sector

(C) Service Sector

(D) Allied Sector

Answer: (C)

130. The central banking functions are performed by the:

(A) Central Bank of India

(B) Reserve Bank of India

(C) State Bank of India

(D) Punjab National Bank

Answer: (B)

131. The First Battle of Panipat was in the year:

(A) 1520

(B) 1526

(C) 1530

(D) 1535

Answer: (B)

132. Who was popularly known as the “Parrot of India”?

(A) Amir Khusro

(B) Khwaja Nasir

(C) Parthasarathi Mishra

(D) Chand Bardai

Answer: (A)

133. The Capital of the kingdom of Maharaja Ranjit Singh was:

(A) Lahore

(B) Ambala

(C) Patiala

(D) Amritsar

Answer: (A)

134. Of the four events mentioned below, which was the last to take place?

(A) The Cripps Mission

(B) Simla Conference

(C) Cabinet Mission Plan

(D) The Ratings Mutiny

Answer: (C)

135. Which dynasty ruled during the years 1206 – 1290 in India?

(A) Mauryan dynasty

(B) Slave dynasty

(C) Gupta dynasty

(D) Chalukya dynasty

Answer: (B)

136. The organization that negotiates trade agreements between almost all of the nations in the world is:

(A) WTO

(B) UNO

(C) UNDP

(D) IMF

Answer: (A)

137. The lowest layer of the Earth’s atmosphere is:

(A) Stratosphere

(B) Mesosphere

(C) Troposphere

(D) Thermosphere

Answer: (C)

138. Black soil is most suitable for the cultivation of:

(A) Paddy

(B) Maize

(C) Cotton

(D) Wheat

Answer: (C)

139. Which of the following rivers is called as Dakshina Ganga?

(A) Kaveri

(B) Krishna

(C) Godavari

(D) Tungabhadra

Answer: (C)

140. A Public Service Commission was established in India for the first time by:

(A) Indian Council Act, 1892

(B) The Government of India Act, 1919

(C) The Act of 1909

(D) The Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

141. Being a big businessman, Gita’s father is very affluent.

(A) Prosperous

(B) Poor

(C) Talkative

(D) Intelligent

Answer: (A)

142. The massacre of Kashmiri Pandits in 1990 was tragic.

(A) Stabbing

(B) Slaughter

(C) Murder

(D) Genocide

Answer: (D)

143. The young boys were reprimanded for watching obscene videos.

(A) Objectionable

(B) Vulgar

(C) Displeasing

(D) Condemnable

Answer: (B)

144. He pilfered many precious things from the palace.

(A) Destroyed

(B) Damaged

(C) Stole

(D) Snatched

Answer: (C)

145. Resilience is a desirable human trait.

(A) Flexibility

(B) Pride

(C) Rigidity

(D) Joyfulness

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is correctly spelt. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) acomodate

(B) accomodate

(C) accommodate

(D) acommodate

Answer: (C)

147.

(A) purtinacious

(B) pertinacious

(C) purtenacious

(D) pertenecious

Answer: (B)

148.

(A) perilous

(B) parilous

(C) perilus

(D) parilus

Answer: (A)

149.

(A) bleeth

(B) blith

(C) blithe

(D) bleethe

Answer: (C)

150.

(A) invidous

(B) invidious

(C) envidous

(D) envidious

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

151. He is mystic by nature.

(A) spiritual

(B) magical

(C) visionary

(D) worldly

Answer: (D)

152. The number of words in a dictionary are finite.

(A) strange

(B) endless

(C) indefinite

(D) vague

Answer: (B)

153. He had ample number of days to prepare for the exam.

(A) insufficient

(B) large

(C) small

(D) adequate

Answer: (A)

154. He lived a lavish life:

(A) showy

(B) rich

(C) simple

(D) moral

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill in the blank to complete the sentence.

155. The soldiers were instructed to …… restraint and handle the situation peacefully.

(A) exercise

(B) control

(C) prevent

(D) enforce

Answer: (A)

156. Since one cannot read all books, one should be content with making a ………. selection.

(A) normal

(B) standard

(C) judicious

(D) moderate

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160) : Choose the correct answer.

157. The novel ‘Wuthering Heights’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (B)

158. The poem ‘Daffodils’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Byron

Answer: (C)

159. The play ‘Man and Superman’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neil

(D) Aurobindo Ghosh

Answer: (B)

160. The novel ‘The Guide’ was written by:

(A) Rabindranath Tagore

(B) R. K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (B)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 With Answer Key

IGNOU B.Ed. Entrance Exam-2022

PART-A

Section-I General English Comprehension

Directions (Qs. No. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer out of the four choices after each question that follows:

            A great deal of discussion continues as to the real extent of global environmental degradation and its implications. What few people challenge, however, is that the renewable natural resources of developing countries are today subject to stresses of unprecedented magnitude. These pressures are brought about, in part, by increased population and the quest for an ever expanding food supply because the health, nutrition and general well-being of the poor majority are directly dependent on the integrity and productivity of their natural resources, the capability of government to manage them effecting over the long-term becomes of paramount importance.

            Developing countries are becoming more aware of the ways in which present and future economic development must build upon a sound and sustainable natural resource base. Some are looking at our long tradition in environmental protection and are receptive to US assistance which recognizes the uniqueness of the social and ecological systems in these tropical countries. Developing countries recognize the need to improve their capability to analyse issues and their own natural resource management. Some countries such as Senegal, India, Indonesia, Thailand etc. are now including conservation concerns in their economic development process.

            Because so many governments of developing nations have recognized the importance of these issues, the need today is not merely one of raising additional consciousness, but for carefully designed and sharply focused activities aimed at the establishment of effective resource management reforms that are essential to the achievement of sustainable development.

1. Some developing countries of Asia and Africa have:

(A)  formulated very ambitious plans of protecting the habitat in their region.

(B)  laid a great stress on the conservation of natural resources in their educational endeavor.

(C)  carefully dovetailed environmental conservation with the overall strategies of planned economic development.

(D)  sought the help of US experts in solving the problems of environmental degradation.

Answer: (D)

2. Technical know-how developed in the USA:

(A)  cannot be easily assimilated by the technocrats o developing countries.

(B)  can be properly utilised on the basis of developing countries being able to launch an in-depth study of their specific problems.

(C)  can be easily borrowed by the developing countries to solve the  problem of environmental degradation.

(D)  can be very effective in solving the problem of resource management in tropical countries.

Answer: (D)

3. There has been a pronounced deterioration of habitat all over the globe because of:

(A)  population explosion

(B)  unprecedented urbanisation

(C)  massive industrialisation in the developing countries.

(D)  large scale deforestation

Answer: (A)

4. The poor people of the developing world can lead a happy and contented life if:

(A)  aid flows freely to the developing world.

(B)  industries based on agriculture are widely developed.

(C)  economic development takes place within ambit o conservation of natural resources.

(D)  there is an assured supply of food and medical care.

Answer: (C)

5. How much environmental pollution has taken place in the developing and the developed world?

(A)  There has been a marginal pollution of environmental in the developed world and extensive damage in the developing world.

(B)  There has been a considerable pollution of environment all over the globe.

(C)  There has been an extensive environmental degradation both in the developed as well as the developing world.

(D)  The environmental pollution that has taken place al over the globe continues to be a matter of speculation and enquiry.

Answer: (D)

6. What according to the passage, is an unquestionable reality today?

(A)  The renewable natural resources in developing countries are in great danger and on the verge of coming to an end.

(B)  The renewable natural resources in developed countries will never end.

(C)  The renewable natural resources all over the world are going to end soon.

(D)  The renewable natural resources in the developed world will end soon.

Answer: (A)

7. What is the most important reason for the depletion of natural resources in developing countries?

(A)  Lack of knowledge

(B)  Population explosion

(C)  Life style of people

(D)  Callousness of their governments

Answer: (B)

8. What is the most important for the preservation of natural resources?

(A)  Funding from external sources to manage resources.

(B)  Advancement in science and technology to manage resources.

(C)  Awareness of the people to manage resources.

(D)  Capability of governments to manage resources.

Answer: (D)

9. Activities aimed at preservation of natural resources is important for:

(A)  Social Development

(B)  Sustainable Development

(C)  Political Development

(D)  Cultural Development

Answer: (B)

10. The passage is about:

(A)  Population Explosion

(B)  Expanding Food Supply

(C)  US assistance for managing natural resources

(D)  Effective resource management for sustainable development

Answer: (D)

Section-II : Logical and Analytical Reasoning

11. If 4 +4 = 15 and 6 + 6 = 35, then 8 +8 = ?

(A) 65                                          (B) 63

(C) 64                                          (D) 62

Answer: (B)

12. If SYSTEM is coded as METSYS and FORMER is coded as REMROF, then CARPET would be coded as:

(A) PETCAR                               (B) PETRAC

(C) TEPRAC                               (D) RACTEP

Answer: (C)

13. According to the dictionary order, which of the following words will appear last of others?

(A) Dress                                     (B) Drink

(C) Dream                                    (D) Drift

Answer: (A)

14. Gaurav ranks 23rd from the top and 22nd from the bottom in a certain test. How many students appeared in the test?

(A) 43                                          (B) 44

(C) 45                                          (D) 46

Answer: (B)

15. In a certain coding system, NAME is coded as 3245 and MINT is coded as 4137, then MITE would be coded as:

(A) 4317                                      (B) 4725

(C) 4571                                      (D) 4175

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following is the next term in the series?

2, 9, 28, 65,  ____

(A) 99                                          (B) 121

(C) 126                                        (D) 145

Answer: (C)

17. Five books are placed in such a sway that book C is above book D, book E is below book A, book D is above book A and book B is below book E. Which book is at the bottom?

(A) A                                           (B) B

(C) C                                            (D) D

Answer: (B)

18. A bag contains equal number of rupee 1, 50 paisa and 25 paisa coins. If the total amount of money in the bag is Rs. 35, what is the number of each type of coins?

(A) 15                                          (B) 18

(C) 20                                          (D) 25

Answer: (C)

19. A man walking from north to south turns right at right angle. Again the turns right at right angle. In which direction is he now walking?

(A) East                                       (B) North

(C) South                                     (D) West

Answer: (B)

20. Which of the following pairs of numbers is different from others in some way?

(A) 27-57                                     (B) 25-63

(C) 18-28                                     (D) 36-96

Answer: (B)

21. Which of the following numbers will be placed at the blank space in the series?

20, 19, 17, _____, 10, 5

(A) 9                                            (B) 11

(C) 14                                          (D) 16

Answer: (C)

22. A woman pointed to a man and said, “His mother is the only daughter of my mother.” What is the woman to the man?

(A) Niece                                     (B) Daughter

(C) Sister                                     (D) Mother

Answer: (B)

23. Which of the following numbers is different from others in some way?

(A) 42                                          (B) 81

(C) 121                                        (D) 144

Answer: (A)

24. If CHDR represents DIES, then SHLD will represent:

(A) LIME                                     (B) LINE

(C) SINE                                     (D) TIME

Answer: (D)

25. Which of the following numbers continues the series?

1, 8, 27, 64, 125, _____, ?

(A) 156                                        (B) 196

(C) 216                                        (D) 225

Answer: (C)

26. EFGH : DEFG :: OPQR : ?

(A) PQRS                                    (B) QRST

(C) MNOP                                   (D) NOPQ

Answer: (D)

27. Which of the following would be the next term in the series?

CE, HJ, MO, RT, ____ ?

(A) WY                                       (B) YZ

(C) XZ                                         (D) UV

Answer: (A)

28. ‘Ignorance’ is to ‘Education’ as ‘Disease’ is to:

(A) Doctor                                   (B) Hospital

(C) Medicine                               (D) Nurse

Answer: (C)

29. Which of the following fills the gap in the series?

25, 100, 225, ______, 625

(A) 256                                        (B) 324

(C) 400                                        (D) 484

Answer: (C)

30. Which of the following continues the series?

(A) STZ                                       (B) SRY

(C) TSR                                       (D) TSY

Answer: (A)

Section-III : Educational and General Awareness

31. ‘Story of My Life’ was written by:

(A) Morarji Desai                                    (B) Abdul Kalam

(C) Vivekananda                                     (D) Togore

Answer: (A)

32. The Father of English Poetry was:

(A) Geoffery Chaucer                 (B) Shakespeare

(C) Wordsworth                          (D) Dryden

Answer: (A)

33. World Water Day is celebrated on:

(A) 21st March                             (B) 22nd March

(C) 24th March                             (D) 23rd March

Answer: (B)

34. Who advises the State Government on legal matters?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Advocate General

(C) Chief Justice of High Court

(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Answer: (B)

35. The maximum duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha is:

(A) 30 minutes                             (B) 60 minutes

(C) 2 hours                                   (D) Indefinite period

Answer: (A)

36. ‘No appeal, No Daleel, No Vakil’ perfectly sums up which of the following?

(A) Rowlatt Act

(B) Non-co-operation Movement

(C) Satyagrah

(D) Swadesh Movement

Answer: (A)

37. ‘Alice in Wonderland’ was written by:

(A) George Orwell

(B) Lewis Carroll

(C) Chester Bowls

(D) Sinclair Lewis

Answer: (B)

38. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called:

(A) Supplementary Question

(B) Short Notice Question

(C) Starred Question

(D) Unstarred Question

Answer: (A)

39. Article 280 of the constitution of India deals with:

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Information Commission

(C) Election Commission

(D) Public Service Commission

Answer: (A)

40. Where is the New Moore island situated?

(A) Arab Sagar

(B) Indian Ocean

(C) Bay of Bengal

(D) Bay of Mannar

Answer: (C)

41. Sea territory of India extends upto:

(A) 4 nautical miles

(B) 12 nautical miles

(C) 200 nautical miles

(D) 400 nautical miles

Answer: (B)

42. World Economic Forum was founded by:

(A) Klaus Schwab

(B) Paul Krugman

(C) Bill Gates

(D) Peter Thiel

Answer: (A)

43. Which of the following prepared the draft of Basic Education?

(A) Sapru Commission

(B) Shiksha Sammelan Wardha

(C) Radhakrishnan Commmission

(D) Zakir Hussain Committee

Answer: (D)

44. How many inhabited islands are there in Lakshadweep?

(A) 17

(B) 20

(C) 10

(D) 15

Answer: (C)

45. In which of the following historical sites of Haryana did excavation indicate 4500 years old civilization relies?

(A) Rakhigarhi

(B) Siswal

(C) Rohtak

(D) Karnal

Answer: (A)

46. Who described Bal Gangadhar Tilak as the ‘Maker of Modern India’?

(A) G. K. Gokhale

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) B.C. Pal

Answer: (B)

47. In the which year did the Industrial Policy express the concept of a mixed economy for India?

(A) 1948

(B) 1951

(C) 1954

(D) 1956

Answer: (A)

48. Who translated ‘Atharvaveda’ in Pension during Mughal period?

(A) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(B) haji Ibrahim Sarhindi

(C) Khathi Khan

(D) Malik Muhammad Jayasi

Answer: (B)

49. The Rigveda consists of:

(A) 1028 hymns

(B) 1000 hymns

(C) 2028 hymns

(D) 1038 hymns

Answer: (A)

50. Which of the following rivers is called ‘Biological Desert’?

(A) Brahmaputra

(B) Ganga

(C) Damodar

(D) Yamuna

Answer: (C)

51. Who is remembered as the pioneer of economic nationalism?

(A) Bipin Chandra Paul

(B) Gokhale

(C) R.C Dutt

(D) Madan Mohan Malviya

Answer: (C)

52. The 15th Pravasi Bhartiya Diwas, 2019 was held in:

(A) Lucknow

(B) Agra

(C) Prayagraj

(D) Varanasi

Answer: (D)

53. Establishment of DIETs was the result of the recommendation of:

(A) Indian Education Commission (1964-66)

(B) University Education Commission (1948-49)

(C) Secondary Education Commission (1952-53)

(D) National Policy on Education (1986)

Answer: (D)

54. The ruling dynasty in India during Timur’s invasion was:

(A) Lodhi

(B) Tughlaq

(C) Saiyyad

(D) Khilji

Answer: (B)

55. When did Curzon pass the Indian Universities Act?

(A) 1901

(B) 1902

(C) 1903

(D) 1904

Answer: (D)

Section-IV : Teaching-Learning and The School

56. Which of the following is a maxim of teaching?

(A) Simple to complex

(B) Unknown to known

(C) Abstract to concrete

(D) Far to near

Answer: (A)

57. Human Development is determined:

(A) by the genetic makeup of the individual.

(B) by a complex of inherited and environmental factors.

(C) primarily by environmental factors over which the individual has no control.

(D) primarily by environmental factor over

Answer: (B)

58. Non-formal education means:

(A) education obtained through open educational institutions

(B) education obtained through formal schools.

(C) education obtained through polytechnics.

(D) education obtained in conventional universities.

Answer: (A)

59. Text-book development at the national level is carried out by:

(A) UGC

(B) NCERT

(C) NCTE

(D) AICTE

Answer: (B)

60. Which among the following is constructivist approach to teaching-learning?

(A) Bloom’s Approach

(B) 5-E Approach

(C) Morrison Approach

(D) Herbartian Approach

Answer: (D)

61. The purpose of National Science Talent Search Scheme is to:

(A) conduct an all India examination.

(B) identify students for recruitment to scientific posts.

(C) identify talented students and nurture their talent.

(D) provide uniformity in science teaching.

Answer: (C)

62. While counseling students, a teacher should:

(A) plan to do most of talking

(B) establish rapport with students.

(C) refrain from giving information

(D) assume complete responsibility for solving problems

Answer: (A)

63. In teaching, if noting has been learnt, nothing has been:

(A) Taught

(B) Studied

(C) Examined

(D) Observed

Answer: (A)

64. Basic requirement for success of lecture method is:

(A) use of teaching aids

(B) content delivery in a lucid language

(C) theme based interaction among participants

(D) including a large number of ideas

Answer: (B)

65. One of the most powerful factors influencing teaching effectiveness is:

(A) teacher’s gender

(B) experience of teachers

(C) location of schools

(D) teacher’s communication skills

Answer: (B)

66. The best way for providing value education is through:

(A) discussions on text of a particular religion

(B) integration of values within subject content

(C) religious discourses

(D) lectures on values

Answer: (D)

67. The purpose of continuous and comprehensive evaluation is to:

(A) evaluate scholastic and co-scholastic aspects continuously

(B) priorities term and examination

(C) evaluate mainly scholastic aspects

(D) evaluate primarily co-scholastic aspects

Answer: (A)

68. What is not required for good teaching?

(A) Direction

(B) Diagnosis

(C) Remedy

(D) Teacher’s bias

Answer: (D)

69. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?

(A) Classroom activities that encourage learning

(B) Socio-economic background of teachers

(C) Learning through experience

(D) Teacher’s knowledge

Answer: (B)

70. A good learner is one who:

(A) only memorizes

(B) is not open-minded

(C) does not think divergently

(D) thinks critically

Answer: (D)

71. Instructional aids are used by the teacher to:

(A) adhere to educational policies

(B) utilise school’s resources

(C) clarify the concepts

(D) ensure discipline

Answer: (C)

72. CLASS stands for:

(A) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools

(B) Computer Literates and Students in Schools

(C) Computer Literacy and Students in Schools

(D) Center of Literacy and Studies in Schools

Answer: (C)

73. The first National Policy on Education following independence was formulated in:

(A) 1948

(B) 1958

(C) 1968

(D) 1978

Answer: (C)

74. Classroom environment should not have:

(A) interactivity

(B) activity

(C) autocracy

(D) brainstorming

Answer: (C)

75. “Spare the rod and spoil the child” gives the message that:

(A) punishment the class should be banned

(B) corporal punishment is not acceptable

(C) undesirable behaviour must be punished

(D) positive discipline should be encouraged

Answer: (C)

76. What is the other name of Yashpal Committee Report?

(A) Learning with Burden

(B) Learning without Burden

(C) Learning with Grace

(D) Learning with Progress

Answer: (B)

77. Choose full form of NCERT:

(A) National Coordinator of Educational Resources and Tools

(B) National Council of Educational Research and Training

(C) National Centre for Educational Research and Training

(D) New Centre of Educational Resources and Tools

Answer: (B)

78. ‘Fill in the blanks’ with alternatives is which type of question?

(A) Open-ended question

(B) Objective type question

(C) Short answer question

(D) Subjective type question

Answer: (A)

79. Classroom management is ineffective when it is:

(A) Autocratic

(B) Democratic

(C) Co-operative

(D) Participatory

Answer: (A)

80. The idea of basic education was proposed by:

(A) Dr. Zakir Hussian

(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(C) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (C)

PART-B

Section-V : (i) Science

81. The effective resistance of the following combination from A to B is :

(A) 2 Ω

(B) 4 Ω

(C) 5 Ω

(D) 8 Ω

Answer: (C)

82. Light year is a unit of:

(A) Time

(B) Distance

(C) Density

(D) Pressure

Answer: (B)

83. Ice floats in water in a cylinder and the water level is at level A. When the ice melts the water level:

(A) will remain unchanged

(B) will go up

(C) will go down

(D) may go up or down

Answer: (A)

84. An ideal fuse wire should have:

(A) a low resistance and low melting point

(B) a high resistance and high melting point

(C) a low resistance and high melting point

(D) a high resistance and low melting point

Answer: (D)

85. Total internal reflection can take place when light travels from:

(A) Air to glass

(B) Air to water

(C) Water to glass

(D) Glass to air

Answer: (D)

86. The lightest element in our world is:

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Helium

(C) Oxygen

(D) Chlorine

Answer: (A)

87. In the upper layers of the earth, that is, in the crust, the most abundant metal is:

(A) Iron

(B) Zinc

(C) Aluminium

(D) Copper

Answer: (C)

88. The nucleus of Helium is like:

(A) An alpha particle

(B) A beta particle

(C) A gamma particle

(D) A proton

Answer: (A)

89. If a chemical reaction is accompanied by evolution of heat, it is:

(A) Exothermic reaction

(B) Endothermic reaction

(C) Reversible reaction

(D) Redox reaction

Answer: (A)

90. Pressure cooker works on the principle:

(A) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water increases.

(B) When the pressure increases the boiling point of water decreases.

(C) Pressure has no effect on boiling point.

(D) Heat and steam does not escape from the cooker

Answer: (A)

91. For reducing friction between different parts of machines the following is used:

(A) Lubricant

(B) Detergent

(C) Levers

(D) Catalyst

Answer: (A)

92. The sugar in the milk in the natural form is called:

(A) Glucose

(B) Sucrose

(C) Lactose

(D) Fructose

Answer: (C)

93. The following is not an element of the bone:

(A) Oxygen

(B) Phosphorus

(C) Uranium

(D) Calcium

Answer: (C)

94. The following treatment is suggested for a person whose kidneys are not working:

(A) Surgical removal of kidneys

(B) Radiotherapy

(C) Blood transfusion

(D) Dialysis

Answer: (D)

95. If mitochondria are removed from the cell:

(A) Nothing happens

(B) The cell cannot reproduce

(C) Leaves become white

(D) Energy metabolism of the cell is reduced

Answer: (D)

96. The foetal growth is monitored using:

(A) X-rays

(B) Microwaves

(C) Ultrasonics

(D) Ultraviolet rays

Answer: (C)

97. Viruses need the following for growth:

(A) Living host

(B) Dead host

(C) Minerals

(D) Sugars

Answer: (A)

98. The following process does not increase the amount of carbon dioxide in the air:

(A) Breathing

(B) Photosynthesis

(C) Petrol burning

(D) Decay of vegetation

Answer: (B)

99. Polio is a disease of the following type:

(A) Air-borne

(B) Water-borne

(C) Food-borne

(D) Bacteria-borne

Answer: (B)

100. The major pollutants are:

(A) Oxygen and Carbon dioxide

(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen

(C) Hydrogen and Nitrogen

(D) Carbon monoxide and Lead

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (ii) Mathematics

101. Which of the following has the largest numerical value?

(A) √10

(B) √100

(C) 1/√0.01

(D) 1/0.01

Answer: (D)

102. The value of  is:

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 1/6

(D) 1/8

Answer: (C)

103. A batsman scores 448 runs in x innings. In his next innings he is out for 62 and thereby increases his average by 2. The value of x is:

(A) 16

(B) 18

(C) 20

(D) 22

Answer: (A)

104. A’s salary is 50% above B’s. How much per cent is B’s salary below A’s?

(A) 

(B) 40%

(C) 100%

(D) 150%

Answer: (A)

105. A producer blends two varieties of tea, one costing Rs 150 per kg and the other Rs 200 per kg in the ratio of 7 : 3. He sells the blended variety at Rs 181.50 per kg. His profit per cent is:

(A) 20

(B) 15

(C) 10

(D) 8

Answer: (C)

106. A tradesman sells his goods at 10% discount on the marked price. What price should he mark on an article that costs him Rs 900 to gain 10%?

(A) Rs 1,000

(B) Rs 1,100

(C) Rs 1,150

(D) Rs 1,200

Answer: (B)

107. A sum of Rs 1,000 invested at 10% per annum compound interest amounts to Rs 1,331. The period of time is:

(A) 2 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 3½ years

(D) 4 years

Answer: (B)

108. A person buys a pen costing Rs 240 on hire purchase basis. He pays. Rs 60 cash down and the rest in 6 monthly installments of Rs 32 each. The rate of interest charged by the dealer is:

(A) 18%

(B) 20%

(C) 22%

(D) 24%

Answer: (*)

109. A plane left 30 minutes later than the scheduled time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr. from its usual speed. The usual speed of the plane is:

(A) 850 km/hr.

(B) 800 km/hr.

(C) 750 km/hr.

(D) 700 km/hr.

Answer: (C)

110. If sec θ + tan θ = m, then the value of sin θ is:

Answer: (D)

111. The value of  is:

(A) 0

(B) 1

(C) −1

(D) √2

Answer: (A)

112. From a building 60 metres high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a lamp post are 30° and 60° The difference of heights between the building and the lamp post is:

(A) 20√3 m

(B) 20/√3 m

(C) 20 m

(D) 25 m

Answer: (C)

113. The length of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5 and its perimeter is 144 cm. The area of the triangle is:

(A) 840 cm2

(B) 1080 cm2

(C) 1440 cm2

(D) 864 cm2

Answer: (D)

114. The minute hand of a clock is 12 cm long. The area of the face of the clock described by the minute hand in 35 minutes is:

(A) 210 cm2

(B) 264 cm2

(C) 280 cm2

(D) 285 cm2

Answer: (B)

115. A metallic cone having base radius 2.1 cm and height 8.4 cm is melted and moulded into a sphere. The radius of the sphere is:

(A) 2.1 cm

(B) 1.05 cm

(C) 1.5 cm

(D) 2 cm

Answer: (A)

116. Water is flowing at a rate of 15 km/hr through a pipe of diameter 14 cm into a rectangular tank which is 50 m long and 44 m wide. The time in which level of water in the tank will rise by 21 cm is :

(A) 1 hour

(B) 1½ hours

(C) 2 hour

(D) 2½ hours

Answer: (C)

117. The mode of the following series is 36:

The missing frequency is:

(A) 10

(B) 12

(C) 8

(D) 7

Answer: (A)

118. What is the probability that an ordinary year as 53 Mondays?

(A) 2/7

(B) 1/7

(C) 7/53

(D) 7/52

Answer: (B)

119. The sum of all the three-digit natural numbers which are multiples of 7 is:

(A) 70336

(B) 73306

(C) 76033

(D) 73360

Answer: (A)

120. The value of p for which the points (−5, 1) (1, p) and (4, −2) are collinear is:

(A) 2

(B) −2

(C) 1

(D) −1

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (iii) Social Science)

121. In the presence of the President and Vice President who discharges the function of President?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Chief Justice of India

(C) PM of India

(D) Advocate General

Answer: (B)

122. Which of the following institutions can expand and increase the scope of Fundamental Rights in the constitution?

(A) High Court

(B) Supreme Court

(C) National Human Rights Commission

(D) State Human Right Commission

Answer: (B)

123. How many members are there in the Election Commission?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

Answer: (C)

124. Panchayati Raj is based on the Ideology of:

(A) Democratic Decentralization

(B) People Participation in Govt.

(C) Centralization

(D) Community Development

Answer: (A)

125. The United Nations Organization was established on:

(A) 24th September, 1945

(B) 15th July, 1945

(C) 24th October, 1945

(D) 26th August, 1945

Answer: (C)

126. The last country to join SAARC was:

(A) Sri Lanka

(B) Bangladesh

(C) Maldives

(D) Afghanistan

Answer: (D)

127. Which of the following nations adopted an Open Door Policy?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(C) U.S.A.

(D) South Korea

Answer: (A)

128. The central nodal agency for implementing value support works for commercial crops is:

(A) NAFED

(B) NABARD

(C) FCI

(D) TRIFED

Answer: (A)

129. Diminishing marginal utility is the basis of:

(A) Law of Supply

(B) Law of Return

(C) Law of Demand

(D) Law of Consumption

Answer: (C)

130. Loss of interest income on funds is an example of:

(A) Explicit Cost

(B) Implicit Cost

(C) Marginal Cost

(D) Direct Cost

Answer: (B)

131. Who was the leader and inspirer of the Young Bengal Movement of the late 1820s and 1830s?

(A) Rasik Krishna Mallic

(B) Ramtaru Lahiri

(C) Henry Vivian Derozio

(D) Pearey Chand Mitra

Answer: (C)

132. The first Indian ruler who joined the subsidiary alliance was:

(A) The Nawab of Awadh

(B) The Nizam of Hyderabad

(C) Peshwa Baji Rao

(D) Jhansi ki Rani

Answer: (B)

133. The Raja Rani temple is located in:

(A) Bhubaneswar

(B) Khajuraho

(C) Kanchipuram

(D) Varanasi

Answer: (A)

134. Which one of the following rivers flows westward?

(A) Godavari

(B) Kaveri

(C) Krishna

(D) Tapti

Answer: (D)

135. The term “Fani” is associated with:

(A) Cyclone

(B) Rainfall

(C) Flood

(D) Landslide

Answer: (A)

136. The literacy rate of India in 2011 was:

(A) 72.04%

(B) 73.04%

(C) 74.04%

(D) 75.04%

Answer: (C)

137. Dualistic economy means existence of:

(A) Both industrial and agricultural sectors

(B) Both public and private sectors

(C) Both socialist and capitalist economies

(D) Both foreign and domestic investments

Answer: (A)

138. Who was the first to unfurl the first Indian National Flag, the parent and precursor of the flag of independent India?

(A) Dada Bhai Naoroji

(B) Taraknath Das

(C) Raja Mahendra Pratap

(D) Madam Bhikaji Cama

Answer: (D)

139. Operation Flood is also known as:

(A) Green Revolution

(B) White Revolution

(C) Blue Revolution

(D) Black Revolution

Answer: (B)

140. In India the Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states?

(A) 7

(B) 8

(C) 6

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

Section-V: (iv) English

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-145) : Choose the word that is nearest meaning to the underlined word:

141. Employers like diligent employees.

(A) Conscientious

(B) Obedient

(C) Meticulous

(D) Hardworking

Answer: (C)

142. The meeting was adjourned after discussion for two hours.

(A) Postponed

(B) Stopped

(C) Begun

(D) Reviewed

Answer: (A)

143. He is such sham that it is different to get along with him.

(A) pretender

(B) unnatural

(C) blunt

(D) unfair

Answer: (A)

144. Oh who despises his colleagues can never be successful.

(A) accuses

(B) ignores

(C) hates

(D) discourages

Answer: (C)

145. The school took the students of 9th class on a three days’ excursion to Goa.

(A) trip

(B) picnic

(C) visit

(D) tournament

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 146-150): In each of the following group of words, only one of them is spelt correctly. Select the one with the correct spelling.

146.

(A) megnificent

(B) magnifecent

(C) magnificant

(D) megnifecant

Answer: (*)

147.

(A) tanacious

(B) tenacious

(C) tanecious

(D) tenecious

Answer: (B)

148.

(A) consummation

(B) consumation

(C) consamation

(D) consamation

Answer: (A)

149.

(A) menifest

(B) menifast

(C) manifest

(D) manifast

Answer: (C)

150.

(A) posterity

(B) postarity

(C) posterety

(D) portarety

Answer: (A)

Directions (Q. Nos. 151-154): Choose the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word:

151. The criminal was detained by the police.

(A) protected

(B) dismissed

(C) released

(D) deterred

Answer: (C)

152. His depressing attitude was not liked by anyone.

(A) horrifying

(B) uplifting

(C) bewildering

(D) digressing

Answer: (B)

153. Feasibility of the project is under study.

(A) Unsuitability

(B) Impracticability

(C) Impropriety

(D) Applicability

Answer: (B)

154. A mammoth statue overlooked the building.

(A) effluent

(B) tiny

(C) huge

(D) narrow

Answer: (B)

Directions (Q. Nos. 155 and 156): Pick out the most appropriate word from the given alternatives and fill in the blanks to complete

155. This book is about a man who _____ his family and went to live in the Himalayas.

(A) exited

(B) deserted

(C) banished

(D) expelled

Answer: (B)

156. The villagers _____ the death of their leader by keeping all the shops closed.

(A) announced

(B) protested

(C) mourned

(D) consoled

Answer: (C)

Directions (Q. Nos. 157-160): Choose the correct answer:

157. The novel ‘Persuasion’ was written by:

(A) Charlotte Bronte

(B) Emily Bronte

(C) George Eliot

(D) Jane Austen

Answer: (D)

158. The poem ‘Ode to Nightingale’ was written by:

(A) Keats

(B) Shelley

(C) Wordsworth

(D) Bacon

Answer: (A)

159. The play ‘Desire under the Elms’ was written by:

(A) Shakespeare

(B) Bernard Shaw

(C) Eugene O’Neill

(D) Brecht

Answer: (C)

160. The Novel ‘Train to Pakistan’ was written by:

(A) Tagore

(B) R.K. Narayan

(C) Anita Desai

(D) Khushwant Singh

Answer: (D)

Section-V : (v) Hindi

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (D)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (C)

Answer: (B)

Answer: (A)

JEE Main Session 2 March 18th Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. The decay of a proton to neutron is:

(a)  Not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron mass

(b)  Always possible as it is associated only with β+ decay

(c)  Possible only inside the nucleus

(d) Not possible but neutron to proton conversion is possible

Answer: (d)

2. An object of mass m1 collides with another object of mass m2, which is at rest. After the collision, the objects move at equal speeds in opposite directions. The ratio of the masses m2: m1 is:

(a)  2 : 1

(b)  1 : 1

(c)  1 : 2

(d) 3 : 1

Answer: (d)

3. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along y-direction can have the following pair of electric field  and magnetic field components.

(a)  Ex, Bz or Ez, Bx

(b)  Ey, Bx or Ex, By

(c)  Ex, By or Ey, Bx

(d) Ey, By or Ez, Bz

Answer: (a)

4. A solid cylinder of mass m is wrapped with an inextensible light string and is placed on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting between the cylinder and the inclined plane is :

[The coefficient of static friction, μs, is 0.4]

(a)   

(b)  0

(c)  mg/5

(d) 5 mg

Answer: (c)

5. An ideal gas in a cylinder is separated by a piston in such a way that the entropy of one part is S1 and that of the other part is S2. Given that S1 > S2. If the piston is removed then the total entropy of the system will be:

(a)  S1 + S2

(b)  S1 – S2

(c)  S1 × S2

(d) S1/S2

Answer: (a)

6. The time taken for the magnetic energy to reach 25% of its maximum value, when a solenoid of resistance R, inductance L is connected to a battery, is :

(a)   

(b)    

(c)  Infinite

(d)  

Answer: (a)

7. For an adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, the fractional change in its pressure is equal to (where λ is the ratio of specific heats) :

(a)   

(b)  

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

8. The correct relation between α (ratio of collector current to emitter current) and β (ratio of collector current to base current) of a transistor is :

(a)    

(b)    

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

9. In a series LCR circuit, the inductive reactance (XL) is 10 Ω and the capacitive reactance (XC) is 4 Ω. The resistance (R) in the circuit is 6 Ω. Find the power factor of the circuit.

(a)  1/√2

(b)  √3/2

(c)  1/2

(d) 1/2√2

Answer: (a)

10. A proton and an α-particle, having kinetic energies Kp and Kα respectively, enter into a magnetic field at right angles. The ratio of the radii of the trajectory of proton to that α-particle is 2: 1. The ratio of KP: Kα is :

(a)  1 : 8

(b)  1 : 4

(c)  8 : 1

(d) 4 : 1

Answer: (d)

11. The function of time representing a simple harmonic motion with a period of π/ω is :

(a)  cos(ωt) + cos(2ωt) + cos(3ωt)

(b)   

(c)  sin2 (ωt)

(d) sin (ωt) + cos (ωt)

Answer: (b)

12. Consider a uniform wire of mass M and length L. It is bent into a semicircle. Its moment of inertia about a line perpendicular to the plane of the wire passing through the centre is :

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

13. The angular momentum of a planet of mass M moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit is The magnitude of the areal velocity of the planet is :

(a)  L/M

(b)  2L/M

(c)  L/2M

(d) 4L/M

Answer: (c)

14. The velocity – displacement graph of a particle is shown in the figure.

The acceleration – displacement graph of the same particle is represented by:

Answer: (d)

15. Three rays of light, namely red (R), green (G) and blue (B) are incident on the face PQ of a right angled prism PQR as shown in the figure.

The refractive indices of the material of the prism for red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.27, 1.42 and 1.49 respectively. The colour of the ray(s) emerging out of the face PR is:

(a)  Blue

(b)  Green

(c)  Red

(d) Blue and Green

Answer: (c)

16. Consider a sample of oxygen behaving like an ideal gas. At 300 K, the ratio of root mean square (rms) velocity to the average velocity of gas molecule would be : (Molecular weight of oxygen is 32 g/mol; R=8.3 JK1 mol1)

(a)    

(b)    

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

17. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit under the central potential field, U(r) = −C/r, where C is a positive constant. The correct radius – velocity graph of the particle’s motion is :

Answer: (a)

18. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Electric monopoles do not exist whereas magnetic monopoles exist.

(B) Magnetic field lines due to a solenoid at its ends and outside cannot be completely straight and confined.

(C) Magnetic field lines are completely confined within a toroid.

(D) Magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet are not parallel.

(E) χ = —1 is the condition for a perfect diamagnetic material, where χ is its magnetic susceptibility.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(a)  (B) and (C) only

(b)  (B) and (D) only

(c)  (C) and (E) only

(d) (A) and (B) only

Answer: (c)

19. The speed of electrons in a scanning electron microscope is 1×107 ms1. If the protons having the same speed are used instead of electrons, then the resolving power of scanning proton microscope will be changed by a factor of:

(a)  1/√1837

(b)  √1837

(c)  1837

(d) 1/1837

Answer: (c)

20. If the angular velocity of earth’s spin is increased such that the bodies at the equator start floating, the duration of the day would be approximately :

[Take g = 10 ms2, the radius of earth, R = 6400 × 103 m, Take π = 3.14]

(a)  60 minutes

(b)  does not change

(c)  84 minutes

(d) 1200 minutes

Answer: (c)

Section-B

21. Two wires of same length and thickness having specific resistances 6 Ω cm and 3 Ω cm respectively are connected in parallel. The effective resistivity is ρ Ω cm. The value of ρ, to the nearest integer, is _________.

Answer: (4)

22. A ball of mass 4 kg, moving with a velocity of 10 ms1, collides with a spring of length 8 m and force constant 100 Nm1. The length of the compressed spring is x m. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is _______

Answer: (6)

23. Consider a 72 cm long wire AB as shown in the figure. The galvanometer jockey is placed at P on AB at a distance x cm from A. The galvanometer shows zero deflection.

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ___________

Answer: (48)

24. Consider a water tank as shown in the figure. It’s cross-sectional area is 0.4 m2. The tank has an opening B near the bottom whose cross-sectional area is 1 cm2. A load of 24 kg is applied on the water at the top when the height of the water level is 40 cm above the bottom, the velocity of water coming out the opening B is v ms1. The value of v, to the nearest integer, is …………

[Take value of g to be 10 ms2]

Answer: (3)

25. The typical output characteristics curve for a transistor working in the common emitter configuration is shown in the figure.

The estimated current gain from the figure is …………..

Answer: (200)

26. The radius of a sphere is measured to be (7.50 ± 0.85) cm. Suppose the percentage error in its volume is x. The value of x, to the nearest integer x, is …………

Answer: (34)

27. The projectile motion of a particle of mass 5 g is shown in the figure.

The initial velocity of the particle is 5√2 ms1 and the air resistance is assumed to be negligible. The magnitude of the change in momentum between the points A and B is X × 102 kgms1. The value of X, to the nearest integer, is …………………..

Answer: (5)

28. An infinite number of point charges, each carrying 1 μC charge, are placed along the y-axis at y = 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m ………… The total force on a 1 C point charge, placed at the origin, is X × 103 The value of X, to the nearest integer, is ………

Answer: (12)

29. A TV transmission tower antenna is at a height of 20 m. Suppose that the receiving antenna is at.

(i) Ground level

(ii) a height of 5 m

The increase in antenna range in case (ii) relative to case (i) is n%. The value of n, to the nearest integer, is

Answer: (50)

30. A galaxy is moving away from the earth at a speed of 286 km/s. The shift in the wavelength of a redline at 630 nm is X × 1010 The value of X, to the nearest integer, is [Take the value of speed of light c, as 3 × 108 ms1]

Answer: (6)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. Consider the below-given reaction, the product ‘X’ and ‘Y’ respectively are:

Answer: (b)

2. The charges on the colloidal CdS sol. and TiO2 are, respectively

(a)  positive and negative

(b)  negative and negative

(c)  negative and positive

(d) positive and positive

Answer: (c)

3. The oxide that shows a magnetic property is:

(a)  SiO2

(b)  Na2O

(c)  Mn3O4

(d) MgO

Answer: (c)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bohr’s theory accounts for the stability and line spectrum of Li+ ion.

Statement II: Bohr’s theory was unable to explain the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  Both statement I and statement II are true

(b)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(c)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(d) Both statement I and statement II are false

Answer: (c)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Mercury                       (i) Vapour phase refining

(b) Copper                         (ii) Distillation Refining

(c) Silicon                          (iii) Electrolytic Refining

(d) Nickel                          (iv) Zone Refining

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii),(d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (d)

6. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                             List-II

(Class of Chemicals)                    (Example)

(a) Antifertility drug                     (i) Meprobamate

(b) Antibiotic                                (ii) Alitame

(c) Tranquilizer                           (iii) Norethindrone

(d) Artificial Sweetener               (iv) Salvarsan

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (d)

7. Main Products formed during a reaction of 1-methoxy naphthalene with hydroiodic acid are:

Answer: (d)

8. Consider the given reaction, percentage yield of:

(a)  A > C > B

(b)  B > C > A

(c)  C > B > A

(d) C > A > B

Answer: (c)

9. An organic compound “A” on treatment with benzene sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B is soluble in dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is:

(a)  C6H5–N–(CH3)2

(b)  C6H5–NHCH2CH3

(c)   

(d) C6H5−CH2NHCH3

Answer: (c)

10. The first ionization energy of magnesium is smaller as a compound to that of elements X and Y but higher than that of Z. The elements X, Y and Z, respectively are:

(a)  argon, lithium and sodium

(b)  chlorine, lithium and sodium

(c)  neon, sodium and chlorine

(d) argon, chlorine and sodium

Answer: (d)

11. In the following molecule:

The hybridisation of Carbon a, b and c respectively are:

(a)  sp3, sp2, sp2

(b)  sp3, sp2, sp

(c)  sp3, sp, sp

(d) sp3, sp, sp2

Answer: (a)

12. In the reaction of hypobromite with amide, the carbonyl carbon is lost as:

(a)  HCO3

(b)  CO32

(c)  CO2

(d) CO

Answer: (b)

13. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2, N2O and NO3 are in the order of

(a)  NO2 > NO3 > NO > N2O

(b)  N2O > NO2 > NO > NO3

(c)  NO3 > NO2 > NO > N2O

(d) NO > NO2 > NO3 > N2O

Answer: (c)

14. Match List-I and List-II:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Be                                (i) treatment of cancer

(b) Mg                               (ii) extraction of metals

(c) Ca                                (iii) incendiary bombs and signals

(d) Ra                                (iv) windows of X-ray tubes

                                          (v) bearings for motor engines

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(v)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (c)

15. Deficiency of vitamin K causes:

(a)  Cheilosis

(b)  Increase in blood clotting time

(c)  Increase in the fragility of RBCs

(d) Decrease in blood clotting time

Answer: (b)

16. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: C2H5OH and AgCN both can generate nucleophiles.

Statement II: KCN and AgCN both will generate nitrile nucleophiles with all reaction conditions.

Choose the most appropriate option:

(a)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(b)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(d) Both statement I and statement II are true

Answer: (b)

17. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Non-biodegradable wastes are generated by thermal power plants.

Statement II: Biodegradable detergents lead to eutrophication.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(a)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(b)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(d) Both statement I and statement II are true

Answer: (b)

18. A hard substance melts at high temperature and is an insulator in both solid and in molten state. This solid is most likely to be a/an:

(a)  Metallic solid

(b)  Covalent solid

(c)  Ionic solid

(d) Molecular solid

Answer: (b)

19. The secondary valency and the number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s) in CuSO4.5H2O, respectively, are:

(a)  6 and 4

(b)  4 and 1

(c)  5 and 1

(d) 6 and 5

Answer: (b)

20.In a basic medium, H2O2 exhibits which of the following reactions?

(A) Mn2+ → Mn4+

(B) I2 → I

(C) PbS → PbSO4

(a)  (A), (C) only

(b)  (A) only

(c)  (B) only

(d) (A), (B) only

Answer: (d)

Section-B

21. The solubility of CdSO4 in water is 8.0 × 10–4 mol L–1. Its solubility in 0.01 M H2SO4 solution is ______ × 10–6 mol L–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

(Assume that solubility is much less than 0.01 M)

Answer: (64)

22. The molar conductivities at infinite dilution of barium chloride, sulphuric acid and hydrochloric acid are 280, 860 and 426 S cm2 mol–1 The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of barium sulphate is _____ S cm2 mol–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (288)

23. A reaction has a half life of 1 min. The time required for 99.9% completion of the reaction is _____ min. (Round off to the nearest integer) [ Use ln2 = 0.69, ln10 = 2.3]

Answer: (10)

24. The equilibrium constant KC for this reaction is ______ × 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1, ln 10 = 2.3

log102 = 0.30, 1 atm = 1 bar]

[antilog (– 0.3) = 0.501]

Answer: (2)

25. Consider the below reaction where 6.1 g of benzoic acid is used to get 7.8 g of m-bromo benzoic acid.

The percentage yield of the product is _____

(Round off to the nearest integer)

[Given : Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]

Answer: (78)

26. A solute A dimerizes in water. The boiling point of a 2 molal solution of A is 100.52ºC. The percentage association of A is ______. (Round off to the nearest integer.)

[Use : Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol–1]

Boiling point of water = 100ºC]

Answer: (1)

27. The number of species below that has two lone pairs of electrons in their central atom is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer.)

SF4, BF4, CIF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6

Answer: (2)

28. 10.0 mL of Na2CO3 solution is titrated against 0.2 M HCl solution. The following litre values were obtained in 5 readings 4.8 mL, 4.9 mL, 5.0 mL, 5.0 mL and 5.0 mL. Based on these readings and the convention of titrimetric estimation the concentration of Na2CO3 solution is ____mM

Answer: (50)

29. In Tollen’s test for aldehyde, the overall number of electron(s) transferred to the Tollen’s reagent formula [Ag(NH3)2]+ per aldehyde group to form silver mirror is ________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (2)

30. A xenon compound ‘A’ upon partial hydrolysis gives XeO2F2. The number of lone pairs of electrons presents in compound A is ______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (19)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. Let the system of linear equations

4x + λy + 2z = 0

2x – y + z = 0

μx + 2y + 3z = 0, λ, μ ∈ R

Has a non-trivial solution. Then which of the following is true?

(a)   μ = 6, λ ∈ R

(b)   λ = 2, μ ∈ R

(c)   λ = 3, μ ∈ R

(d)   μ = −6, λ ∈ R

Answer: (a)

2. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park ABC. Let the angle of elevation of the top of the pole from each corner of the park be π/3. If the radius of the circumcircle of △ABC is 2, then the height of the pole is equal to

(a)   1/√3

(b)   √3

(c)   2√3

(d)   2√3/3

Answer: (c)

3. Let in a series of 2n observations, half of them are equal to a and the remaining half are equal to − Also by adding a constant b in each of these observations, the mean and standard deviation of the new set become 5 and 20, respectively. Then the value of a2 + b2 is equal to:

(a)   250

(b)   925

(c)   650

(d)   425

Answer: (4)

4. Let  where f is continuous function in [0, 3] such that  for all t ∈ [0, 1] and  for all t ∈ {1, 3]. The largest possible interval in which g(3) lies is:

(a)   [1, 3]

(b)   [−1, −1/2]

(c)   [−3/2, −1]

(d)   [1/3, 2]

Answer: (d)

5. If 15 sin4 θ + 10 cos4 θ = 6, for some θ ∈ R, then the value of 27 sec6 θ + 8 cosec6 θ is equal to:

(a)   250

(b)   500

(c)   400

(d)   350

Answer: (a)

6. Let f : R − {3} → R − {1] be defined by  Let g : R − R be given as g (x) = 2x − Then, the sum of all the values of x for which f1 (x) + g1 (x) = 13/2 is equal to

(a)   7

(b)   5

(c)   2

(d)   3

Answer: (b)

7. Let S1 be the sum of the first 2n terms of an arithmetic progression. Let S2 be the sum of the first 4n terms of the same arithmetic progression. If (S2 − S1) is 1000, then the sum of the first 6n terms of the arithmetic progression is equal to :

(a)   3000  

(b)   7000

(c)   5000

(d)   1000

Answer: (a)

8. Let S1 = x2 + y2 = 9 and S2 = (x − 2)2 + y2 = 1. Then the locus of the centre of a variable circle S which touches S1 internally and S2 externally always passes through the points:

(a)   (1/2, ± √5/2)

(b)   (2, ± 3/2)

(c)   (1, ± 2)

(d)   (0, ± √3)

Answer: (b)

9. Let the centroid of an equilateral triangle ABC be at the origin. Let one of the sides of the equilateral triangle be along the straight line x + y = 3. If R and r be the radius of circumcircle and incircle respectively of ΔABC, then (R + r) is equal to

(a)   2√2

(b)   3√2

(c)   7√2

(d)   9/√2

Answer: (d)

10. In a triangle ABC, if vector BC = 8, CA = 7, AB = 10, then the projection of the vector AB on AC is equal to:

(a)   25/4

(b)   85/14

(c)   127/20

(d)   115/16

Answer: (b)

11. Let in a Binomial distribution, consisting of 5 independent trials, probabilities of exactly 1 and 2 successes be 0.4096 and 0.2048 respectively. Then the probability of getting exactly 3 successes is equal to:

(a)   80/243

(b)   32/625

(c)   128/625

(d)   40/243

Answer: (b)

12. Let  be two non-zero vectors perpendicular to each other and  then the angle between the vectors  is equal to:

(a)   sin1(1/√3)

(b)   cos1(1/√3)

(c)   sin1(1/√6)

(d)   cos1(1/√2)

Answer: (b)

13. Let a complex number be w = 1 − √3i. Let another complex number z be such that |zw| = 1 and arg (z) − arg (w) = π/2. Then the area of the triangle with vertices origin, z and w is equal to:

(a)   1/2

(b)   4

(c)   2

(d)   1/4

Answer: (a)

14. The area bounded by the curve 4y2 = x2 (4 − x) (x − 2) is equal to:

(a)   3π/2  

(b)   π/16

(c)   π/8

(d)   3π/8

Answer: (a)

15. Define a relation R over a class of n × n real matrices A and B as “ARB if there exists a non-singular matrix P such that PAP1 = B”. Then which of the following is true?

(a)   R is reflexive, symmetric but not transitive

(b)   R is symmetric, transitive but not reflexive

(c)   R is an equivalence relation

(d)   R is reflexive, transitive but not symmetric

Answer: (c)

16. If P and Q are two statements, then which of the following compound statement is a tautology?

(a)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~Q) ⇒ P

(b)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~ Q) ⇒ ~ P

(c)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~ Q)

(d)   ((P ⇒ Q) ^ ~ Q) ⇒ Q

Answer: (b)

17. Consider a hyperbola H : x2 − 2y2 = 4. Let the tangent at a point P (4, √6) meet the x-axis at Q and latus rectum at R (x1, y1), x1 > 0. If F is a focus of H which is nearer to the point P, then the area of ΔQFR is equal to:

(a)   √6 −1

(b)   4√6 −1

(c)   4√6

(d)    

Answer: (d)

18. Let f : R → R be a function defined as

If f is continuous at x = 0, then the value of a + b is equal to

(a)   −2

(b)   −2/5

(c)   −3/2

(d)   −3

Answer: (c)

19. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation  0 < x < 2.1, with y(2) = 0. Then the value of  at x = 1 is equal to:

(a)     

(b)    

(c)    

(d)    

Answer: (d)

20. Let a tangent be drawn to the ellipse  at (3√3 cos θ, sin θ) where  Then the value of θ such that the sum of intercepts on axes made by a tangent is minimum is equal to:

(a)   π/8

(b)   π/6

(c)   π/3

(d)   π/4

Answer: (b)

Section-B

21. Let P be a plane containing the line and parallel to the line  If the point (1, −1, α) lies on the plane P, then the value of |5α| is equal to __________.

Answer: (38)

22. 

Then the value of α is equal to _________.

Answer: (160)

23. The term independent of x in the expansion of  is equal to ________.

Answer: (210)

24. Let nCr denote the binomial coefficient of xr in the expansion of (1 + x)n. If  α, β ∈ R, then α + β is equal to ________.

Answer: (*)

25. Let P (x) be a real polynomial of degree 3 which vanishes at x = − Let P(x) have local minima at x = 1, local maxima at x = −1 and  then the sum of all the coefficients of the polynomial P (x) is equal to ____________.

Answer: (8)

26. Let the mirror image of the point (1, 3, a) with respect the plane  be (−3, 5, 2). Then, the value of |a + b| is equal to________.

Answer: (1)

27. If f (x) and g (x) are two polynomials such that the polynomial P (x) = f (x3) + x g (x3) is divisible by x2 + x + 1, then P (1) is equal to _______.

Answer: (0)

28. Let I be an identity matrix of order 2 × 2 and Then the value of n ∈ N for which Pn = 5I – 8P is equal to________.

Answer: (6)

29. Let f : R → R satisfy the equation f (x + y) = f (x) . f (y) for all x, y ∈ R and f (x) ≠ 0 for any x ∈ If the function f is differentiable at x = 0 and f’ (0) = 3, then  is equal to ________.

Answer: (3)

30. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation  with y(1) = 0. If the area bounded by the line x = 1, x = eπ, y = 0 and y = y(x) is αe2π + b, then the value of 10(α + β) is equal to_________.

Answer: (4)

JEE Main Session 2 March 18th Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. In a series LCR resonance circuit, if we change the resistance only, from a lower to higher value :

(a)  The resonance frequency will increase

(b)  The quality factor will increase

(c)  The quality factor and the resonance frequency will remain constant

(d) The bandwidth of the resonance circuit will increase

Answer: (d)

2. A radioactive sample disintegrates via two independent decay processes having half-livesT1/21 and T1/22 The effective half-life, T1/2 of the nuclei is:

(a)  None of the above

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

3. In the experiment of Ohm’s law, a potential difference of 5.0 V is applied across the end of a conductor of length 10.0 cm and diameter of 5.00 mm. The measured current in the conductor is 2.00 A. The maximum permissible percentage error in the resistivity of the conductor is:

(a)  7.5

(b)  3.9

(c)  8.4

(d) 3.0

Answer: (b)

4. An AC source rated 220V, 50 Hz is connected to a resistor. The time taken by the current to change from its maximum to the rms value is:

(a)  0.25 ms

(b)  25 ms

(c)  2.5 ms

(d) 2.5 s

Answer: (c)

5. Four identical long solenoids A, B, C and D are connected to each other as shown in the figure. If the magnetic field at the centre of A is 3 T, the field at the centre of C would be: (Assume that the magnetic field is confined within the volume of the respective solenoid.)

(a)  6T

(b)  12T

(c)  1T

(d) 9T

Answer: (c)

6. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 100 MHz is travelling in a vacuum along the x-direction. At a particular point in space and time,   (where,  is unit vector along z-direction). What is  at this point ? (speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s)

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (c)

7. A particle is travelling, 4 times as fast as an electron. Assuming the ratio of the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle to that of the electron is 2:1, the mass of the particle is :

(a)  1/16 times of mass of e

(b)  1/6 times the mass of e

(c)  1/8 times the mass of e

(d) 8 times the mass of e

Answer: (c)

8. What will be the average value of energy along one degree of freedom for an ideal gas in thermal equilibrium at a temperature T? (kB is Boltzmann constant)

(a)  kBT

(b)  (2/3)kB T

(c)  (3/2) kB T

(d) (1/2) kB T

Answer: (d)

9. Your friend is having an eyesight problem. She is not able to see clearly a distant uniform window mesh and it appears to her as non-uniform and distorted. The doctor diagnosed the problem as:

(a)  Myopia and hypermetropia

(b)  Astigmatism

(c)  Myopia with astigmatism

(d) Presbyopia with astigmatism

Answer: (c)

10. The time period of a simple pendulum is given by  The measured value of the length of the pendulum is 10 cm known to a 1 mm accuracy. The time for 200 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 100 seconds using a clock of 1 s resolution. The percentage accuracy in the determination of ‘g’ using this pendulum is ‘x’. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is.

(a)  5%

(b)  4%

(c)  3%

(d) 2%

Answer: (c)

11. An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density of 3 g cm–3 is held stationary under a constant electric field 3.55 × 105 V m–1 in Millikan’s oil drop experiment. What is the number of excess electrons that the oil drop will possess? Consider g = 9.81 m/s2.

(a)  1.73 × 1010

(b)  48.8 × 1011

(c)  1.73 × 1012

(d) 17.3 × 1010

Answer: (a)

12. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The period of another satellite in a circular orbit of radius 9R is :

(a)  3 T

(b)  9 T

(c)  27 T

(d) 12 T

Answer: (c)

13. A loop of flexible wire of irregular shape carrying current is placed in an external magnetic field. Identify the effect of the field on the wire

(a)  Loop assumes a circular shape with its plane parallel to field

(b)  Shape of the loop remains unchanged

(c)  Wire gets stretched to become straight

(d) Loop assumes circular shape with its plane normal to the field

Answer: (d)

14. In Young’s double-slit arrangement, slits are separated by a gap of 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed at a distance of 0.5 m from them. The distance between the first and the third bright fringe formed when the slits are illuminated by monochromatic light of 5890 Å is:

(a)  1178 × 106 m

(b)  1178 × 109 m

(c)  5890 × 107 m

(d) 1178 × 1012 m

Answer: (a)

15. Match List – I with List – II

List – I                 

(a) 10 km height over earth’s surface

(b) 70 km height over earth’s surface

(c) 180 km height over earth’s surface

(d) 270 km height over earth’s surface

List-II

(i) Thermosphere

(ii) Mesosphere

(iii) stratosphere

(iv) Troposphere

(a)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(b)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)

(c)  (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

(d) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (b)

16. A constant power delivering machine has towed a box, which was initially at rest, along a horizontal straight line. The distance moved by the box in time ‘t’ is proportional to:

(a)  t

(b)  t3/2

(c)  t1/2

(d) t2/3

Answer: (b)

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17. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating about its axis with an angular speed ω. Two particles having mass m each are now attached at diametrically opposite points. The angular speed of the ring will become:

(a)    

(b)   

(c)  

(d)  

Answer: (a)

18. Imagine that the electron in a hydrogen atom is replaced by a muon (μ). The mass of a muon particle is 207 times that of an electron and the charge is equal to the charge of an electron. The ionization potential of this hydrogen atom will be:

(a)  27.2 eV

(b)  331.2 eV

(c)  13.6 eV

(d) 2815.2 eV

Answer: (d)

19. The P-V diagram of a diatomic ideal gas system going under cyclic process as shown in the figure. The work done during an adiabatic process CD is (use γ = 1.4):

(a)  200 J

(b)  −500 J

(c)  −400 J

(d) 400 J

Answer: ()

20. The position, velocity and acceleration of a particle moving with constant acceleration can be represented by:

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. As shown in the figure, a particle of mass 10 kg is placed at point A. When the particle is slightly displaced to its right, it starts moving and reaches point B. The speed of the particle at B is x m/s. (Take g = 10 m/s2).The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _______.

Answer: (10)

22. A parallel plate capacitor has a plate area of 100 m2 and plate separation of 10 m. The space between the plates is filled up to a thickness of 5 m with a material of dielectric constant 10. The resultant capacitance of the system is ‘x’ pF. The value of ε0 = 8.85 × 1012m1. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _______.

Answer: (161)

23. An NPN transistor operates as a common emitter amplifier with a power gain of 106. The input circuit resistance is 100 Ω and the output load resistance is 10 kΩ. The common-emitter current gain ‘β’ will be ______. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (100)

24. The voltage across the 10 Ω resistor in the given circuit is x volt.

The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is_________.

Answer: (70)

25. Two separate wires A and B are stretched by 2 mm and 4 mm respectively, when they are subjected to a force of 2 N. Assume that both the wires are made up of the same material and the radius of wire B is 4 times that of the radius of wire A. The length of the wires A and B are in the ratio of a : b, Then a/b can be expressed as 1/x where x is.

Answer: (32)

26. A bullet of mass 0.1 kg is fired on a wooden block to pierce through it, but it stops after moving a distance of 50 cm into it. If the velocity of the bullet before hitting the wood is 10 m/s and it slows down with uniform deceleration, then the magnitude of effective retarding force on the bullet is ‘x’ N. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is

Answer: (10)

27. A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity 10√ 3 m/s along the x-axis, hits another ball of mass 20 kg which is at rest. After the collision, the first ball comes to rest while the second ball disintegrates into two equal pieces. One-piece starts moving along the y-axis with a speed of 10 m/s. The second piece starts moving at an angle of 30° with respect to the x-axis. The velocity of the ball moving at 30° with x-axis is x m/s. The configuration of pieces after collision is shown in the figure below The value of x to the nearest integer is ______.

Answer: (20)

28. The circuit shown in the figure consists of a charged capacitor of capacity 3 µF and a charge of 30 µC. At time t = 0, when the key is closed, the value of current flowing through the 5M Ω resistor is ‘x’ µA. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _______.

Answer: (2)

29. A person is swimming with a speed of 10 m/s at an angle of 120° with the flow and reaches to a point directly opposite on the other side of the river. Then the speed of the flow is ‘x’ m/s. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _____.

Answer: (5)

30. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with a period of 2 second. The time taken by the particle to cover a displacement equal to half of its amplitude from the mean position is  The value of ‘a’ to the nearest integer is _____.

Answer: (6)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. The ionic radius of Na+ ion is 1.02 Å. The ionic radii (in Å) of Mg2+ and Al3+, respectively are:

(a)  0.72 and 0.54

(b)  0.68 and 0.72

(c)  1.05 and 0.99

(d) 0.85 and 0.99

Answer: (a)

2. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

(Chemicals)

List-II

(Use/Preparation/Constituent)

(a) Alcoholic potassium hydroxide (i) electrodes in batteries
(b) Pd/BaSO4 (ii) obtained by addition reaction
(c) BHC (Benzene hexachloride (iii) used for β-elimination reaction
(d) Polyacetylene (iv) Lindlar’s Catalyst

 

Choose the most appropriate match:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (d)

3. The statements that are TRUE:

(A) methane leads to both global warming and photochemical smog

(B) methane is generated from paddy fields

(C) methane is a stronger global warming gas than CO2

(D) methane is a part of reducing smog.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (B), (C), (D) only

(b)  (A), (B), (C) only

(c)  (A), (B), (D) only

(d) (A) and (B) only

Answer: (b)

4. Compound with molecular formula C3H6O can show:

(a)  Both positional isomerism and metamerism

(b)  Metamerism

(c)  Positional isomerism

(d) Functional group isomerism

Answer: (d)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(a) Ca(OCl)2 (i) Antacid
(b)   (ii) Cement
(c) CaO (iii) Bleach
(d) CaCO3 (iv) Plasters of Paris

 

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (a)

6. In a binary compound, atoms of element A form a hcp structure and those of element M occupy 2/3 of the tetrahedral voids of the hcp structure. The formula of the binary compound is:

(a)  M2A3

(b)  MA3

(c)  M4A

(d) M4A3

Answer: (d)

7. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

(Class of Drug)

List-II

(Example)

(a) Antacid (i) Novestrol
(b) Artificial Sweetener (ii) Cimetidine
(c) Antifertility (iii) Valium
(d) Tranquilizers (iv) Alitame

 

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (b)

8. Reagent, 1-naphthylamine and sulfanilic acid in acetic acid is used for the detection of:

(a)  NO

(b)  N2O

(c)  NO3

(d) NO2

Answer: (d)

9. The correct structures of trans-[NiBr2(PPh3)2] and meridional-[Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] respectively are:

Answer: (b)

10. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Chlorophyll                  (i) Ruthenium

(b) Vitamin-B12                 (ii) Platinum

(c) Anticancer drug           (iii) Cobalt

(d) Grubbs catalyt             (iv) Magnesium

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (c)

11. The number of ionisable hydrogens present in the product obtained from a reaction of phosphorus trichloride and phosphonic acid is:

(a)  3

(b)  1

(c)  0

(d) 2

Answer: (d)

12. A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two radial nodes. The orbital is:

(a)  2p

(b)  3p

(c)  2s

(d) 3s

Answer: (d)

13. Consider the above chemical reaction and identity product “A”:

Answer: (c)

14. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: During the boiling of water having a temporary hardness, Mg(HCO3)2 is converted to MgCO3.

Reason R: The solubility product of Mg(OH)2 is greater than that of MgCO3.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(a)  A is false but R is true

(b)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(c)  Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(d) A is true but R is false

Answer: (a)

15. The chemical is added to reduce the melting point of the reaction mixture during the extraction of aluminium is:

(a)  Cryolite

(b)  Calamine

(c)  Kaolite

(d) Bauxite

Answer: (a)

16. Considering the below chemical reaction, identity the product “X”:

Answer: (c)

17. Considering the below reaction, X and Y respectively are:

Answer: (d)

18. Reaction of Grignard reagent, C2H5MgBr with C8H8O followed by hydrolysis gives compound “A” which reacts instantly with Lucas reagent to give compound B, C10H13 The Compound B is:

Answer: (d)

19. A non-reducing sugar ”A” hydrolyses to give two reducing monosaccharides. Sugar A is:

(a)  Glucose

(b)  Fructose

(c)  Sucrose

(d) Galactose

Answer: (c)

20. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

(Process)

List-II

(Catalyst)

(a) Deacon’s process (i) ZSM-5
(b) Contact process (ii) CuCl2
(c) Cracking of hydrocarbons (iii) iParticles ’Ni’
(d) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils (iv) V2O5

 

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (c)

Section-B

21. 2 molal solution of a weak acid HA has a freezing point of 3.885° The degree of dissociation of this acid is _________ × 10–3. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given: Molal depression constant of water = 1.85 K kg mol–1Freezing point of pure water = 0°C]

Answer: (50)

22. The total number of unpaired electrons present in the complex K3[Cr(oxalate)3] is _______.

Answer: (3)

23. AX is a covalent diatomic molecule where A and X are second-row elements of the periodic table. Based on Molecular orbital theory, the bond order of AX is 2.5. The total number of electrons in AX is __________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (15)

24. ___________ grams of 3-Hydroxy propanal (MW = 74) must be dehydrated to produce 7.8 g of acrolein (MW = 56) (C3H4O) if the percentage yield is 64. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: Atomic masses: C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]

Answer: (16)

25. A reaction of 0.1 mole of Benzyl amine with bromomethane gave 23 g of Benzyl trimethyl ammonium bromide. The number of moles of bromomethane consumed in this reaction are n × 10–1, when n = ___________ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given: Atomic masses: C: 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0 u, Br : 80.0 u]

Answer: (3)

26. 2NO (g) + Cl2 (g) → 2 NOCl (s): This reaction was studied at – 10°C and the following data was obtained.

Run           [NO]0              [Cl2]0               r0

1                0.10                 0.10                 0.18

2                0.10                 0.20                 0.35

3                0.20                 0.20                 1.40

[NO]0 and [Cl2]0 are the initial concentrations and r0 is the initial reaction rate. The overall order of the reaction is _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (3)

27. For the reaction: 2Fe3+ (aq) + 2I (aq) → 2Fe2+ (aq) + I2(s)

The magnitude of the standard molar free energy change, ΔrGm° = – _______ kJ (Round off the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (45 kJ)

28. For the reaction: C2H6→ C2H4 + H2: The reaction enthalpy ΔrH = __________ kJ mol–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: Bond enthalpies in kJ mol–1; C – C: 347, C = C : 611; C – H : 414; H – H ; 436]

Answer: (131 kJ/mol)

29. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74, sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 M, the concentration of sodium acetate in the buffer is _________ M. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74]

Answer: (10)

30. Complete combustion of 3 g of ethane gives x × 1022 molecules of water. The value of x is ________. [Round off to the Nearest Integer].

[Use: NA = 6.023 × 1023; Atomic masses in u : C : 12.0; O : 16.0 : H : 1.0 ]

Given: 18

Answer: (18)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. If the functions are defined as f(x) = √x and  then what is the common domain of the following functions: f + g, f – g, f / g, g / f, g – f where (f ± g) (x) = f (x) ± g (x), (f / g) (x) =

(a)   0 < x ≤ 1

(b)   0 ≤ x < 1

(c)   0 ≤ x ≤ 1

(d)   0 < x < 1

Answer: (d)

2. Let α, β, γ be the roots of the equations, x3 + ax2 + bx + c = 0, (a, b, c ∈ R and a, b and a, b ≠ 0). The system of the equations (in u, v, w) given by αu + βv + γw = 0; βu + γv + αw = 0; γu + αv + βw = 0 has non-trivial solutions, then the value of a2/b is

(a)   5

(b)   1

(c)   0

(d)   3

Answer: (d)

3. If the equation a  represents a circle where a, d are real constants, then which of the following condition is correct?

(a)   |α|2 − ad ≠ 0

(b)   |α|2 − ad > 0 and a ∈ R − {0}

(c)   α = 0, a, d ∈ R+

(d)   |α|2 − ad ≥ 0 and a ∈ R

Answer: (b)

4. is equal to:

(a)   101/404

(b)   101/408

(c)   99/400

(d)   25/101

Answer: (d)

5. The number of integral values of m so that the abscissa of point of intersection of lines 3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1 is also an integer, is:

(a)   3

(b)   2

(c)   1

(d)   0

Answer: (b)

6. The solutions of the equation  (0 < x < π), are:

(a)   π/6, 5π/6

(b)   7π/12, 11π/12

(c)   5π/12, 7π/12

(d)   π/12, π/6

Answer: (b)

7. If  is differentiable at every point of the domain, then the values of a and b are respectively:

(a)   5/2, −3 / 2

(b)   −1/2, 3/2

(c)   1/2, 1/2

(d)   1/2, −3/2

Answer: (b)

8. A vector a has components 3p and 1 with respect to a rectangular Cartesian system. This system is rotated through a certain angle about the origin in the counterclockwise sense. If with respect to the new system, a has components p + 1 and √10, then a value of p is equal to:

(a)   1

(b)   −1

(c)   4/5

(d)   −5/4

Answer: (b)

9. The sum of all the 4-digit distinct numbers that can be formed with the digits 1, 2, 2 and 3 is:

(a)   26664

(b)   122664

(c)   122234

(d)   22264

Answer: (a)

10. Choose the correct statement about two circles whose equations are given below:

x2 + y2 – 10x – 10y + 41 = 0

x2 + y2 – 22x – 10y + 137 = 0

(a)   circles have no meeting point

(b)   circles have two meeting points

(c)   circles have only one meeting point

(d)   circles have the same centre

Answer: (c)

11. If α, β are natural numbers such that 100α – 199β = (100) (100) + (99) (101) + (98) (102) + …. + (1) (199), then the slope of the line passing through (α, β) and origin is:

(a)   510

(b)   550

(c)   540

(d)   530

Answer: (b)

12. The value of  is equal to:

(a)   3 + 2√3

(b)   4 + √3

(c)   2 + √3

(d)   1.5 + √3

Answer: (d)

13. The integral  is equal to:

(where c is a constant of integration)

(a)    

(b)    

(c)    

(d)    

Answer: (b)

14. The differential equations satisfied by the system of parabolas y2 = 4a (x + a) is:

(a)    

(b)    

(c)    

(d)     

Answer: (b)

15. The real-valued function  where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than equal to x, is defined for all x belonging to:

(a)   all non- integers except the interval [–1, 1]

(b)   all integers except 0, –1, 1

(c)   all reals except integers

(d)   all reals except the interval [–1, 1]

Answer: (a)

16. If  is equal to L, then the value of (6L + 1) is :

(a)   1/2

(b)   2

(c)   1/6

(d)   6

Answer: (b)

17. For all four circles M, N, O and P, the following four equations are given:

Circle M : x2 + y2 = 1

Circle N : x2 + y2 – 2x = 0

Circle O : x2 + y2 – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0

Circle P : x2 + y2 –2y = 0

If the centre of circle M is joined with the centre of the circle N, further centre of circle N is joined with the centre of the circle O, centre of circle O is joined with the centre of circle P and lastly, the centre of circle P is joined with the centre of circle M, then these lines form the sides of a:

(a)   Rectangle

(b)   Square

(c)   Parallelogram

(d)   Rhombus

Answer: (b)

18. Let (1 + x + 2x2)20 = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + …… + a40x40. Then, a1 + a3 +a5 + ….+ a37 is equal to

(a)   220(220 + 21)

(b)   219(220 + 21)

(c)   220(220 – 21)

(d)   219(220 – 21)

Answer: (d)

19. Let  and  If Tr(A) denotes the sum of all diagonal elements of the matrix A, then Tr(A) – Tr(B) has value equal to:

(a)   0

(b)   1

(c)   3

(d)   2

Answer: (d)

20. The equations of one of the straight lines which pass through the point (1, 3) and make an angle tan1 √2 with the straight line, y + 1 = 3√2x is:

(a)   5√2x + 4y − 15 + 4√2 = 0

(b)   4√2x – 5y − 5 + 4√2 = 0

(c)   4√2x + 5y − 4√2 = 0

(d)   4√2x + 5y − (15 + 4√2) = 0

Answer: (d)

Section-B

21. The number of times digit 3 will be written when listing the integers from 1 to 1000 is ______.

Answer: (300)

22. The equation of the planes parallel to the plane x – 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 which are at unit distance from the point (1, 2, 3) is ax + by + cz + d = 0. If (b – d) = K (c – a), then the positive value of K is ______.

Answer: (4)

23. Let f (x) and g (x) be two functions satisfying f (x2) + g (4 – x) = 4x3 and g (4 –x) + g(x) = 0, then the value of is__________.

Answer: (512)

24. The mean age of 25 teachers in a school is 40 years. A teacher retires at the age of 60 years and a new teacher is appointed in his place. If the mean age of the teachers in this school now is 39 years, then the age (in years) of the newly appointed teacher is ______.

Answer: (35)

25. A square ABCD has all its vertices on the curve x2y2 = 1. The midpoints of its sides also lie on the same curve. Then, the square of the area of ABCD is ______.

Answer: (80)

26. The missing value in the following figure is ______.

Answer: (4)

27. The numbers of solutions of the equation  in the interval [0, 2π] is _______.

Answer: (1)

28. Let z1, z2 be the roots of the equations z2 + az + 12 = 0 and z1, z2 form an equilateral triangle with origin. Then, the value of |a| is ______.

Answer: (6)

29. Let the plane ax + by + cz + d = 0 bisect the line joining the points (4, –3, 1) and (2, 3, –5) at the right angles. If a, b, c, d are integers, then the minimum value of (a2 + b2 + c2 +d2) is ______.

Answer: (28)

30. If  f (0) = 0 and  then the value of K is ________.

Answer: (4)

JEE Main Session 2 March 17th Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. Two identical blocks A and B each of mass m resting on the smooth horizontal floor are connected by a light spring of natural length L and spring constant K. A third block C of mass m moving with a speed v along the line joining A and B collides elastically with A. The maximum compression in the spring is

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

2. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg radius 0.5m is rolling with an initial speed of 1 ms1 goes up an inclined plane which makes an angle of 300 with the horizontal plane, without slipping. How long will the sphere take to return to the starting point A?

(a)  0.80 s

(b)  0.60 s

(c)  0.52 s

(d) 0.57 s

Answer: (d)

3. If one mole of a polyatomic gas has two vibrational modes and β is the ratio of molar specific heats for polyatomic gas β=Cp/ Cv then the value of β is :

(a)  1.35

(b)  1.02

(c)  1.25

(d) 1.2

Answer: (d)

4. Two cells of emf 2E and E with internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively are connected in series to an external resistor R (see figure). The value of R, at which the potential difference across the terminals of the first cell becomes zero is

(a)  r­1 – r2

(b)  r1 + r2

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

5. A sound wave of frequency 245 Hz travels with a speed of 300 ms1 along the positive x-axis. Each point of the medium moves to and fro through a total distance of 6 cm. What will be the mathematical expression of the travelling wave?

(a)  Y (x, t) = 0.03 [ sin 5.1x − (0.2 x 103)t]

(b)  Y (x, t) = 0.06 [ sin 5.1x − (1.5 x 103)t]

(c)  Y (x, t) = 0.06 [ sin 0.8x − (0.5 x 103)t]

(d) Y (x, t) = 0.03 [ sin 5.1x − (1.5 x 103)t]

Answer: (d)

6. A carrier signal C(t) = 25 sin (2.512 × 1010t) is amplitude modulated by a message signal m(t)= 5 sin (1.57 × 108t) and transmitted through an antenna. What will be the bandwidth of the modulated signal?

(a)  1987.5 MHz

(b)  2.01 GHz

(c)  50 MHz

(d) 8 GHz

Answer: (c)

7. Two particles A and B of equal masses are suspended from two massless springs of spring constants K1 and K2 If the maximum velocities during oscillations are equal, the ratio of the amplitude of A and B is :

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

8. Match List I with List II

List I List II
(a) Phase difference between current and voltage in a purely resistive AC circuit (i) 𝜋/2, current leads voltage
(b) Phase difference between current and voltage in a pure inductive AC circuit (ii) zero
(c) Phase difference between current and voltage in a pure capacitive AC circuit (iii) 𝜋/2, current lags voltage
(d) Phase difference between current and voltage in an LCR series circuit (iv) 

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Answer: (d)

9. A geostationary satellite is orbiting around an arbitrary planet ‘P’ at a height of 11R above the surface of ‘P’, R being the radius of ‘P’. The time period of another satellite in hours at a height of 2R from the surface of ‘P’ is _____. ‘P’ has a time period of rotation of 24 hours.

(a)  6/√2

(b)  3

(c)  6√2

(d) 5

Answer: (d)

10. The velocity of a particle is v=v0 + gt + Ft2. Its position is x = 0 at t = 0; then its displacement after time (t = 1) is :

(a) 

(b)  v0 + 2g + 3f

(c)  v0 + g + F

(d) 

Answer: (d)

11. A block of mass 1 kg attached to a spring is made to oscillate with an initial amplitude of 12 cm. After 2 minutes the amplitude decreases to 6 cm. Determine the value of the damping constant for this motion. (take ln 2 = 0.693).

(a)  3.3 × 102 kg s1

(b)  5.7 × 103 kg s−1

(c)  1.16 × 102 kg s−1

(d) 0.69 × 102 kg s−1

Answer: (c)

12. An object is located 2 km beneath the surface of the water. If the fractional compression ∆V/V is 1.36%, the ratio of hydraulic stress to the corresponding hydraulic strain will be ……..

[Given: density of water is 1000 kgm–3 and g= 9.8 ms–2]

(a)  2.26 ×109 Nm2

(b)  1.96 ×109 Nm2

(c)  1.44 ×107 Nm2

(d) 1.44 ×109 Nm2

Answer: (d)

13. Two identical photocathodes receive the light of frequencies f1 and f2 If the velocities of the photo-electrons coming out are v1 and v2 respectively, then

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

14. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of various series. Which series of hydrogen atomic spectra lie in the visible region?

(a)  Balmer series

(b)  Lyman series

(c)  Brackett series

(d) Paschen series

Answer: (a)

15. Which one of the following will be the output of the given circuit?

(a)  NAND Gate

(b)  AND Gate

(c)  XOR Gate

(d) NOR Gate

Answer: (c)

16. The four arms of a Wheatstone bridge have resistances as shown in the figure. A galvanometer of 15 resistance is connected across BD. Calculate the current through the galvanometer when a potential difference of 10 V is maintained across AC.

(a)  4.87 mA

(b)  4.87 μA

(c)  2.44 μA

(d) 2.44 mA

Answer: (a)

17. Which one is the correct option depicting the two different thermodynamic processes?

(a)  (c) and (d)

(b)  (b) and (c)

(c)  (a) only

(d) (c) and (a)

Answer: (a)

18. A hairpin-like shape as shown in the figure is made by bending a long current-carrying wire. What is the magnitude of a magnetic field at point P which lies on the centre of the semicircle?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

19. A rubber ball is released from a height of 5 m above the floor. It bounces back repeatedly, always rising to (81/100) of the height through which it falls. Find the average speed of the ball. (Take g=10 ms2)

(a)  2.50 ms1

(b)  3.50 ms1

(c)  3.0 ms1

(d) 2.0 ms1

Answer: (a)

20. What happens to the inductive reactance and the current in a purely inductive circuit if the frequency is halved?

(a)  Both, including reactance and current, will be doubled

(b)  Both, inductive reactance and current will be halved

(c)  Inductive reactance will be halved and current will be doubled

(d) Inductive reactance will be doubled and current will be halved

Answer: (c)

Section-B

21. The electric field intensity produced by the radiation coming from a 100 W bulb at a distance of 3 m is E. The electric field intensity produced by the radiation coming from 60 W at the same distance is  Where the value of x = ________

Answer: (3)

22. The image of an object placed in the air formed by a convex refracting surface is at a distance of 10 m behind the surface. The image is real and is at 2nd/3 of the distance of the object from the surface. The wavelength of light inside the surface is 2/3 times the wavelength in air, The radius of the curved surface is x/13 m. The value of ‘x’ is _____

Answer: (30)

23. A 2μF capacitor C1 is first charged to a potential difference of 10V using a battery. Then the battery is removed and the capacitor is connected to an uncharged capacitor C2 of 8 μF. The charge in C2 on equilibrium condition is ________ μC. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (16)

24. A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) =U0r4. If Bohr’s quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbital rn vary with n1/α, where α is _____

Answer: (3)

25. The electric field in a region is given by  with  The flux of this field through a rectangular surface are 0.4 m2 parallel to Y-Z plane is _______Nm2C1.

Answer: (640)

26. A body of mass 1 kg rests on a horizontal floor with which it has a coefficient of static friction 1/√3. It is desired to make the body move by applying the minimum possible force F N. The value of F will be __________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

[Take g = 10 ms2]

Answer: (5)

27. Seawater at a frequency f = 9 × 102 Hz, has permittivity ∈ = 80∈0 and resistivity ρ = 0.25 Ωm. Imagine a parallel plate capacitor is immersed in seawater and is driven by an alternating voltage source V(t) = V0 sin(2πft). Then the conduction current density becomes 10x times the displacement current density after time t= 1800. The value of x is __________.

(Given : )

Answer: (6)

28. The disc of mass M with uniform surface mass density σ is shown in the figure. The centre of mass of the quarter disc (the shaded area) is at the position  x is _____(Round off to the Nearest Integer) [a is an area as shown in the figure)

Answer: (4)

29. Suppose you have taken a dilute solution of oleic acid in such a way that its concentration becomes 0.01 cm3 of oleic acid per cm3 of the solution. Then you make a thin film of this solution (monomolecular thickness) of area 4 cm2 by considering 100 spherical drops of radius  Then the thickness of the oleic acid layer will be x × 1014 m where x is _________.

Answer: (25)

30. A boy of mass 4 kg is standing on a piece of wood having mass 5 kg. If the coefficient of friction between the wood and the floor is 0.5, the maximum force that the boy can exert on the rope so that the piece of wood does not move from its place is ________N. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

[Take g = 10 ms2]

Answer: (30)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                                         List-II

Chemical Compound                                Used as

(a) Sucralose                                              (i) Synthetic detergent

(b) Glyceryl ester of stearic acid               (ii) Artificial sweetener

(c) Sodium benzoate                                 (iii) Antiseptic

(d) Bithionol                                             (iv) Food preservative

Choose the correct match:

(a)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (b)

2. In the below reactions, enzyme A and enzyme B respectively are:

(a)  Invertase and Amylase

(b)  Amylase and Invertase

(c)  Invertase and Zymase

(d) Zymase and Invertase

Answer: (c)

3. The correct pair(s) of the ambident nucleophiles is (are):

(A) AgCN/KCN

(B) RCOOAg/RCOOK

(C) AgNO2/KNO2

(D) AgI/KI

(a)  (A) and (C) only

(b)  (B) only

(c)  (B) and (C) only

(d) (A) only

Answer: (a)

4. During which of the following processes, does entropy decrease?

(A) Freezing of water to ice at 0°C

(B) Freezing of water to ice at -10°C

(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) →2NH3(g)

(D) Adsorption of CO(g) on lead surface.

(E) Dissolution of NaCI in water

(a)  (A), (B), (C) and (D) only

(b)  (A), (C) and (E) only

(c)  (A) and (E) only

(d) (B) and (C) only

Answer: (a)

5. Match List-I with List-II:

List – I                                          List – II

(a) [Co(NH3)6] [Cr(CN)6]              (i) Linkage isomerism

(b) [Co(NH3)3 (NO2)3]                  (ii) Solvate isomerism

(c) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3              (iii) Coordination isomerism

(d) cis-[CrCl2(ox)2]3        (iv) Optical isomerism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (a)

6. The common positive oxidation states for an element with atomic number 24, are

(a)  +1 and +3

(b)  +1 to +6

(c)  +1 and +3 to +6

(d) +2 to +6

Answer: (d)

7. The set of elements that differ in a mutual relationship from those of the other sets is:

(a)  Be – Al

(b)  Li – Na

(c)  B – Si

(d) Li – Mg

Answer: (b)

8. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: 2-methyl butane on oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2-methyl butane-2-ol.

Statement II: n-alkanes can be easily oxidized to corresponding alcohols with KMnO4.

Choose the correct option:

(a)  Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(b)  Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are correct

(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

Answer: (b)

9. Amongst the following, the linear species is:

(a)  N3

(b)  Cl2O

(c)  O3

(d) NO2

Answer: (a)

10. For the coagulation of a negative sol, the species below, that has the highest flocculating power is:

(a)  SO42

(b)  Na+

(c)  Ba2+

(d) PO43

Answer: (c)

11. The functional groups that are responsible for the ion-exchange property of cation and anion exchange resins, respectively, are:

(a)  –SO3H and –COOH

(b)  –SO3H and –NH2

(c)  –NH2 and –SO3H

(d) –NH2 and –COOH

Answer: (b)

12. Choose the correct statement regarding the formation of carbocations A and B given.

(a)  Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at a faster rate

(b)  Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at a faster rate

(c)  Carbocation A is more stable and formed relatively at a slow rate

(d) Carbocation B is more stable and formed relatively at a slow rate

Answer: (b)

13. In the below reaction, the structural formula of (A), “X” and “Y” respectively are:

Answer: (b)

14. Fructose is an example of:

(a)  Heptose

(b)  Aldohexose

(c)  Pyranose

(d) Ketohexose

Answer: (d)

15. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) the incorrect reason for eutrophication?

(A) excess usage of fertilisers

(B) excess usage of detergents

(C) dense plant population in water bodies

(D) lack of nutrients in water bodies that prevent plant growth

Choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below:

(a)  (D) only

(b)  (C) only

(c)  (B) and (D) only

(d) (A) only

Answer: (a)

16. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines can be separated using:

(a)  Para-Toluene sulphonyl chloride

(b)  Chloroform and KOH

(c)  Acetyl amide

(d) Benzene sulphonic acid

Answer: (a)

17. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Haematite                    (i) Al2O3. xH2O

(b) Bauxite                        (ii) Fe2O3

(c) Magnetite                     (iii) CuCO3. Cu(OH)2

(d) Malachite                     (iv) Fe3O4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (d)

18. The set that represents the pair of neutral oxides of nitrogen is:

(a)  NO and N2O

(b)  NO and NO2

(c)  N2O and NO2

(d) N2O and N2O3

Answer: (a)

19. Nitrogen can be estimated by Kjeldahl’s method for which of the following compound?

Answer: (d)

20. One of the by-products formed during the recovery of NH3 from Solvay process is:

(a)  NaHCO3

(b)  Ca(OH)2

(c)  CaCl2

(d) NH4Cl

Answer: (c)

SECTION – B

21. The reaction 2A + B2→ 2AB is an elementary reaction. For a certain quantity of reactants, if the volume of the reaction vessel is reduced by a factor of 3, the rate of the reaction increases by a factor of ……………. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (27)

22. In the ground state of atomic Fe (Z = 26), the spin-only magnetic moment is ……………..x 101 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: √3 = 1.73, √2 = 1.41]

Answer: (49)

23. Consider the below-given reaction. The percentage yield of an amide product is ………………. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given: Atomic mass: C: 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, N : 14.0, O : 16.0 u, Cl : 35.5 u]

Answer: (77)

24. On complete reaction of FeCl3 with oxalic acid in an aqueous solution containing KOH, resulted in the formation of product A. The secondary valency of Fe in the product A is …………..(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (6)

25. Consider the reaction N2O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g). The temperature at which KC = 20.4 and KP = 600.1, is …………………. K. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Assume all gases are ideal and R = 0.0831 L bar K1 mol1]

Answer: (354)

26. A KCl solution of conductivity 0.14 S m-1 shows a resistance of 4.19 Ω in a conductivity cell. If the same cell is filled with an HCl solution, the resistance drops 1.03 Ω. The conductivity of the HCl solution is ……………….. × 102 S m1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (56)

27. A 1 molal K4Fe(CN)6 solution has a degree of dissociation of 0.4. Its boiling point is equal to that of another solution which contains 18.1 weight per cent of a nonelectrolyte solute A. The molar mass of A is …………… g/mol. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (85)

28. The number of chlorine atoms in 20 mL of chlorine gas at STP is ………1021. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume chlorine is an ideal gas at STP

R=0.083 L bar mol1 K1, NA = 6.023 × 1023]

Answer: (1)

29. KBr is doped with 105 mole per cent of SrBr2. The number of cationic vacancies in 1 g of KBr crystal is ……… 1014. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic Mass: K = 39.1 u, Br = 79.9 u, NA = 6.023 × 1023]

Answer: (5)

30 The total number of C–C sigma bond/s in mesityl oxide (C6H10O) is …… (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (5)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. If the Boolean expression (p ∧ q) ⍟ (p ⊗ q) is a tautology, then ⍟ and ⊗ are respectively given by :

(a)  ∧, →

(b)  →, →

(c)  ∨, →

(d) ∧, ∨

Answer: (b)

2. Let the tangent to the circle x2 + y2 = 25 at the point R (3, 4) meet the x-axis and y-axis at points P and Q, respectively. If r is the radius of the circle passing through the origin O and having a centre at the incentre of the triangle OPQ, then r2 is equal to:

(a)  625/72

(b)  585/66

(c)  125/72

(d) 529/64

Answer: (a)

3. Let a computer program generate only the digits 0 and 1 to form a string of binary numbers with a probability of occurrence of 0 at even places be 1/2 and probability of occurrence of 0 at the odd place be 1/3. Then the probability that ‘10’ is followed by ‘01’ is equal to :

(a)  1/6

(b)  1/18

(c)  1/9

(d) 1/3

Answer: (c)

4. The number of solutions of the equation x + 2 tan x = π/2 in the interval [0, 2π] is :

(a)  5

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d) 3

Answer: (d)

5. If the equation of the plane passing through the mirror image of a point (2, 3, 1) with respect to line  and containing the line  is ɑx + βy + γz = 24, then, then ɑ + β + γ is equal to:

(a)  21

(b)  19

(c)  18

(d) 20

Answer: (b)

6. Consider the function f : R → R defined by  Then f is

(a)  monotonic on (0, ∞) only

(b)  Not monotonic on (–∞, 0) and (0, ∞)

(c)  monotonic on (–∞, 0) only

(d) monotonic on (–∞, 0) ⋃ (0, ∞)

Answer: (b)

7. Let O be the origin. Let  x, y ∈ R, x > 0, be such that |PQ| = √20 and the vector   is perpendicular to If  z ∈ R, is coplanar with  then the value of x2 + y2 + z2 is equal to:

(a)  2

(b)  9

(c)  1

(d) 7

Answer: (b)

8. Let L be a tangent line to the parabola y2 = 4x – 20 at (6, 2). If L is also a tangent to the ellipse  then the value of b is equal to:

(a)  20

(b)  14

(c)  16

(d) 11

Answer: (b)

9. Let f : R → R be defined as f (x) = e–x sin x. If F : [0,1] R→ is a differentiable function such that  then the value of  lies in the interval

(a)  [330/360, 331/360]

(b)  [327/360, 329/360]

(c)  [331/360, 334/360]

(d) [335/360, 336/360]

Answer: (a)

10. If x, y, z are in arithmetic progression with common difference d, x ≠ 3d, and the determinant of the matrix  is zero, then the value of k2 is :

(a)  6

(b)  36

(c)  72

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

11. If the integral  where ɑ, β, γ are integers and [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, then the value of ɑ + β + γ is equal to:

(a)  20

(b)  0

(c)  25

(d) 10

Answer: (b)

12. Let y = y (x) be the solution of the differential equation cos x (3 sin x + cos x + 3) dy = (1 + y sin x (3 sin x + cos x + 3)) dx, 0 ≤ x ≤ π/2, y(0) = 0. Then, y (π/3) is equal to :

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

13. The value of the limit  is equal to:

(a)  −1/2

(b)  −1/4

(c)  0

(d) 1/4

Answer: (a)

14. If the curve y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation 2 (x2 + x5/4) dy − y (x + x1/4) dx = 2x9/4 dx, x > 0 which passes through the point  then the value of y(16) is equal to:

(a)   

(b)    

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

15. Let S1, S2 and S3 be three sets defined as S1 = {z ∈ C : |z – 1| ≤ √2}, S2 = {z ∈ C : Re ((1 – i) z) ≥ 1}, S3 = {z ∈ C : Im (z) ≤ 1}. Then the set S1 ⋂ S2 ⋂ S3

(a)  has infinitely many elements

(b)  has exactly two elements

(c)  has exactly three elements

(d) is a singleton

Answer: (a)

16. If the sides AB, BC, and CA of a triangle ABC have, 3, 5 and 6 interior points respectively, then the total number of triangles that can be constructed using these points as vertices is equal to:

(a)  360

(b)  240

(c)  333

(d) 364

Answer: (c)

17. The value of   where r is a non-zero real number and [r] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to r, is equal to:

(a)  0

(b)  r

(c)  r/2

(d) 2r

Answer: (c)

18. The value of The value of  is equal to:

(a)  1124

(b)  924

(c)  1324

(d) 1024

Answer: (b)

19. Two tangents are drawn from a point P to the circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0, such that the angle between these tangents is If the centre of the circle is denoted by C and these tangents touch the circle at points A and B, then the ratio of the areas of △PAB and △CAB is :

(a)  11 : 4

(b)  9 : 4

(c)  2 : 1

(d) 3 : 1

Answer: (b)

20. The number of solutions of the equation  and [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x, is:

(a)  0

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d) Infinite

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. Let the coefficients of third, fourth and fifth terms in the expansion of  be in the ratio 12:8:3. Then the term independent of x in the expansion is equal to ………

Answer: (4)

22. Let  such that AB = B and a + d = 2021, then the value of ad-bc is equal to …………….

Answer: (2020)

23. Let f : [–1,1] → R be defined as f (x) = ax2 + bx + c for all x ∈ [–1, 1], where a, b, c ∈ R such that f (–1) = 2, f’ (–1) = 1 and for x ∈ [–1, 1] the maximum value of f’’ (x) is 1/2. If f (x) ≤ ɑ, x ∈ [–1, 1], then the least value of ɑ is equal to …………… .

Answer: (5)

24. Let where n ∈ If (20)I10 = αI9 + βIB, for natural numbers α and β, then α – β equal to ………………… .

Answer: (1)

25. Let f : [−3, 1] → R be given as

If the area bounded by y = f(x) and x-axis is A, then the value of 6A is equal to …………… .

Answer: (41)

26. Let  be a vector in the plane containing vectors  If the vector is perpendicular to   and its projection on  then the value of  is equal to ……………… .

Answer: (486)

27. Consider a set of 3n numbers having variance 4. In this set, the mean of the first 2n numbers is 6 and the mean of the remaining n numbers is 3. A new set is constructed by adding 1 into each of the first 2n numbers and subtracting 1 from each of the remaining n numbers. If the variance of the new set is k, then 9k is equal to ………………..

Answer: (68)

28. If 1, log10(4x – 2) and  are in arithmetic progression for a real number x, then the value of the determinant  is equal to:

Answer: (2)

29. Let P be an arbitrary point having the sum of the squares of the distances from the planes x + y + z = 0, lx – nz = 0 and x – 2y + z = 0, equal to 9. If the locus of the point P is x2 + y2 +z2 = 9, then the value of l – n is equal to ………………

Answer: (0)

30. Let tan α, tan β and tan γ;  be the slopes of three-line segment OA, OB and OC, respectively, where O is the origin. If the circumcentre of ∆ABC coincides with the origin and its orthocentre lies on the y-axis, then the value of  is equal to

Answer: (144)

JEE Main Session 2 March 17th Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. The vernier scale used for measurement has a positive zero error of 0.2 mm. If while taking a measurement it was noted that ‘o’ on the vernier scale lies between 8.5 cm and 8.6 cm, vernier coincidence is 6, then the correct value of the measurement is ……………………. cm. (least count = 0.01 cm)

(a)  8.36 cm

(b)  8.56 cm

(c)  8.58 cm

(d) 8.54 cm

Answer: (d)

2. For what value of displacement do the kinetic energy and potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillation become equal?

(a)  x = A/2

(b)  x = 0

(c)  x = ±A

(d) x = ± A/√2

Answer: (d)

3. An electron of mass m and a photon have the same energy E. The ratio of the wavelength of an electron to that of the photon is : (c being the velocity of light)

(a)  (E/2m)1/2

(b)   

(c)  c(2mE)1/2

(d)  

Answer: (b)

4. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate for some time after which it decelerates at a constant rate to come to rest. If the total time elapsed is t seconds, the total distance travelled is :

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

5. A Carnot’s engine working between 400 K and 800 K has a work output of 1200 J per cycle. The amount of heat energy supplied to the engine from the source in each cycle is :

(a)  1800 J

(b)  3200 J

(c)  2400 J

(d) 1600 J

Answer: (c)

6. A mass M hangs on a massless rod of length l which rotates at a constant angular frequency. The mass M moves with the steady speed in a circular path of constant radius. Assume that the system is in a steady circular motion with constant angular velocity ω. The angular momentum of M about point A is LA which lies in the positive z-direction and the angular momentum of M about point B is LB. The correct statement for this system is:

(a)  LA and LB are both constant in magnitude and direction

(b)  LB is constant, both in magnitude and direction

(c)  LA is constant, both in magnitude and direction

(d) LB is constant in direction with varying magnitude

Answer: (c)

7. Two ideal polyatomic gases at temperatures T1 and T2 are mixed so that there is no loss of energy. If F1 and F2, m1 and m2, n1 and n2 be the degrees of freedom, masses, the number of molecules of the first and second gas respectively, the temperature of the mixture of these two gases is :

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

8. The output of the given combination gates represents :

(a)  XOR Gate

(b)  NOR Gate

(c)  NAND Gate

(d) AND Gate

Answer: (c)

9. A triangular plate is as shown. A force is  applied at point P. The torque at point P with respect to point ‘O’ and ‘Q’ are :

(a)  15 – 20√3, 15 + 20√3

(b)  15 + 20√3, 15 – 20√3

(c)  –15 + 20√3, 15 + 20√3

(d) –15–20√3, 15 – 20√3

Answer: (d)

10. A modern grand-prix racing car of mass m is travelling on a flat track in a circular arc of radius R with a speed v. If the coefficient of static friction between the tyres and the track is μs, then the magnitude of negative lift F1acting downwards on the car is : (Assume forces on the four tyres are identical and g = acceleration due to gravity)

(a)   

(b) 

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

11. The thickness at the centre of a plano-convex lens is 3 mm and the diameter is 6 cm. If the speed of light in the material of the lens is 2 × 108 mm1. The focal length of the lens kept in the air is ______.

(a)  0.30 cm

(b)  1.5 cm

(c)  15 cm

(d) 30 cm

Answer: (d)

12. If an electron is moving in the nth orbit of the hydrogen atom, then its velocity (vn) for the nth orbit is given as :

(a)  vn ∝ n

(b)    

(c)  vn ∝ n2

(d)   

Answer: (d)

13. An AC current is given by I = I1 sin ωt + I2 cos ωt. A hot wire ammeter will give a reading :

(a)    

(b)   

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (b)

14. Two identical metal wires of thermal conductivities K1 and K2 respectively are connected in series. The effective thermal conductivity of the combination is :

(a)   

(b)   

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (a)

15. A boy releases a 0.5 kg ball on the frictionless floor with the speed of 20 ms1. The ball gets deflected by an obstacle on the way. After deflection it moves with 5% of its initial kinetic energy. What is the speed of the ball now ?

(a)  14.41 ms1

(b)  1.00 ms1

(c)  19.0 ms1

(d) 4.47 ms1

Answer: (d)

16. A polyatomic ideal gas has 24 vibrational modes. What is the value of γ?

(a)  1.03

(b)  1.30

(c)  10.3

(d) 1.37

Answer: (a)

17. A current of 10 A exists in a wire of cross-sectional area of 5 mm2 with a drift velocity of 2 × 103 ms1. The number of free electrons in each cubic meter of the wire is ________

(a)  1 × 1023

(b)  2 × 106

(c)  2 × 1025

(d) 625 × 1025

Answer: (d)

18. A solenoid of 1000 turns per metre has a core with a relative permeability of 500. Insulated windings of the solenoid carry an electric current of 5 A. The magnetic flux density produced by the solenoid is: (Permeability of free space = 4 × 107 H/m)

(a)  2 × 103 πT

(b)  π/5

(c)  104πT

(d) πT

Answer: (d)

19. When two soap bubbles of radii a and b (b > a) coalesce, the radius of curvature of common surface is –

(a)   

(b)   

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (b)

20. Which level of the single ionized carbon has the same energy as the ground state energy of hydrogen atom?

(a)  8

(b)  1

(c)  6

(d) 4

Answer: (c)

Section-B

21. A parallel plate capacitor whose capacitance C is 14pF is charged by a battery to a potential difference V = 12 V between its plates. The charging battery is now disconnected and a porcelin plate with k = 7 is inserted between the plates, then the plate would oscillate back and forth between the plates, with a constant mechanical energy of ____ pJ. (Assume no friction)

Answer: (864)

22. If 2.5 × 106 N average force is exerted by a light wave on a non-reflecting surface of 30 cm2 area during 40 minutes of time span, the energy flux of light just before it falls on the surface is _______ W/cm2. (Round off to the nearest integer) (Assume complete absorption and normal incidence conditions are there)

Answer: (25)

23. The following bodies

(a) a ring

(b) a disc

(c) a solid cylinder

(d) a solid sphere

of same mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ are allowed to roll down without slipping simultaneously from the top of the inclined plane. The body which will reach first at the bottom of the inclined plane is________.

[Mark the body as per their respective numbering given in the question]

Answer: (4)

24. For VHF signal broadcasting, _______ km2 of the maximum service area will be covered by an antenna tower of height 30 m, if the receiving antenna is placed on the ground. Let the radius of the earth be 6400 km. (Round off to the nearest integer) (Take π as 3.14)

Answer: (1206)

25. Consider two identical springs each of spring constant k and negligible mass compared to the mass M as shown. Fig.1 shows one of them and Fig. 2 shows their series combination. The ratio of the time period of oscillation of the two SHM is Tb/Ta = √x, where the value of x is ______. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (2)

26. Two blocks (m = 0.5 kg and M = 4.5 kg) are arranged on a horizontal frictionless table as shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction between the two blocks is 3/7. Then the maximum horizontal force that can be applied on the larger block so that the blocks move together is _______ N. (Round off to the nearest integer) [Take g as 9.8 ms2]

Answer: (21)

27. The radius in kilometre to which the present radius of the earth (R = 6400 km) to be compressed so that the escape velocity is increased 10 times is ______.

Answer: (64)

28. The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistors is ‘s’. When they are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is ‘p’. If s = np, then the maximum value for n is ______. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (4)

29. The angular speed of the truck wheel is increased from 900 rpm to 2460 rpm in 26 seconds. The number of revolutions by the truck wheel during this time is ______.

(Assuming the acceleration to be uniform).

Answer: (728)

30. Four identical rectangular plates with length, l =2 cm and breadth, b = 3/2 cm are arranged as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance between A and C is x∈0/d. The value of x is ______. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (2)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. The INCORRECT statement(s) about heavy water is (are)

(A) Used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor

(B) Obtained as a by-product in the fertilizer industry

(C) Used for the study of the reaction mechanism

(D) Has a higher dielectric constant than water

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a)  (B) only

(b)  (B) and (D) only

(c)  (C) only

(d) (D) only

Answer: (d)

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Potassium permanganate on heating at 573 K forms potassium manganate.

Statement II: Both potassium permanganate and potassium manganate are tetrahedral and paramagnetic in nature.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate Ans from the options given below:

(a)  Both statement I and statement II are true

(b)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(c)  Statement I is true but and statement II is false

(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true

Answer: (c)

3. Which of the following is the correct structure of tyrosine?

Answer: (c)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Retardation factor (Rf) can be measured in meter/centimetre

Statement II: Rf value of a compound remains constant in all solvents.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(b)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are true

(d) Statement I is true but statement II is false

Answer: (b)

5. Mesityl oxide is a common name of:

(a)  3-Methyl cyclohexane carbaldehyde

(b)  4-Methyl pent-3-en-2-one

(c)  2,4-Dimethyl pentan-3-one

(d) 2-Methyl cyclohexanone

Answer: (b)

6. What is the spin-only magnetic moment value (BM) of a divalent metal ion with atomic number 25, in its aqueous solution?

(a)  5.92

(b)  5.26

(c)  Zero

(d) 5.0

Answer: (a)

7. A central atom in a molecule has two lone pairs of electrons and forms three single bonds. The shape of this molecule is:

(a)  Trigonal pyramidal

(b)  T-shaped

(c)  See-saw

(d) Planar triangular

Answer: (b)

8. Product “A” in the below chemical reaction is:

Answer: (d)

9. The point of intersection and sudden increase in the slope, in the diagram given below respectively, indicates:

(a)  ΔG = 0 and melting or boiling point of the metal oxide.

(b)  ΔG < 0 and decomposition of the metal oxide.

(c)  ΔG = 0 and reduction of the metal oxide.

(d) ΔG > 0 and decomposition of the metal oxide.

Answer: (a)

10. The reaction given below requires which of the following reaction conditions:

(a)  623 K, 300 atm

(b)  573 K, 300 atm

(c)  573 K, Cu, 300 atm

(d) 623 K, Cu 300 atm

Answer: (a)

11. The correct order of conductivity of ions in water is:

(a)  Cs+ > Rb+ > K+ > Na+

(b)  K+ > Na+ > Cs+ > Rb+

(c)  Rb+ > Na+ > K+ > Li+

(d) Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+

Answer: (a)

12. A colloidal system consisting of a gas dispersed in a solid is called a/an:

(a)  Aerosol

(b)  Solid Sol

(c)  Foam

(d) Gel

Answer: (b)

13. The absolute value of the electron gain enthalpy of halogen satisfies:

(a)  I > Br >Cl> F

(b)  F >Cl> Br > I

(c)  Cl> F > Br > I

(d) Cl> Br > F > I

Answer: (c)

14. Which of the following reaction is an example of ammonolysis?

(a)  C6H5CH2CN → C6H5CH2CH2NH2

(b)  C6H5COCl + C6H5NH2 → C6H5CONHC6H5

(c)  C6H5CH2Cl +NH3 → C6H5CH2NH2

(d) C6H5NH2 → C6H5NH3+Cl

Answer: (c)

15. Reducing smog is a mixture of:

(a)  Smoke, fog and N2O3

(b)  Smoke, fog and O3

(c)  Smoke, fog and SO2

(d) Smoke, fog and CH2=CH–CHO

Answer: (c)

16. Which of the following is an aromatic compound?

Answer: (a)

17. With respect to drug-enzyme interaction, identify the wrong statement.

(a)  Allosteric inhibitor competes with the enzyme’s active site

(b)  Competitive inhibitor binds to the enzyme’s active site

(c)  Non-competitive inhibitor binds to the allosteric site

(d) Allosteric inhibitor changes the enzyme’s active site

Answer: (a)

18. Hoffmann bromamide degradation of benzamide gives product A, which upon heating with CHCl3 and NaOH gives product B. The structures of A and B are:

Answer: (a)

19. The product “A” in the above reaction is:

Answer: (b)

20. Which of the following compound CANNOT act as a Lewis base?

(a)  ClF3

(b)  PCl5

(c)  NF3

(d) SF4

Answer: (b)

Section-B

21. A certain orbital has n = 4 and ml = –3. The number of radial nodes in this orbital is ____.(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (0)

22. 15 mL of an aqueous solution of Fe2+ in the acidic medium completely reacted with 20 mL of 0.03 M aqueous Cr 2O72. The molarity of the Fe2+ solution is _____× 10–2(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

 

Answer: (24)

23. The reaction of white phosphorus on boiling with alkali in an inert atmosphere resulted in the formation of product ‘A’. The reaction of 1 mol of ‘A’ with an excess of AgNO3 in an aqueous medium gives _______ mol(s) of Ag. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (8)

24. The oxygen dissolved in water exerts a partial pressure of 20 kPa in the vapour above water. The molar solubility of oxygen in water is _____ × 10–5 mol dm–3.

(Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given : Henry’s law constant = KH = 8.0 × 104 kPa for O2. Density of water with dissolved oxygen = 1.0 kg dm–3 ]

Answer: (25)

25. The standard enthalpies of formation of Al2O3 and CaO are –1675 kJ mol–1 and –635 kJ mol–1 For the reaction 3CaO + 2Al → 3Ca + Al2O3 the standard reaction enthalpy ΔrH0=______ kJ. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (230)

26. For a certain first-order reaction 32% of the reactant is left after 570s. The rate constant of this reaction is _______ × 10–3 s–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Given: log102 = 0.301, ln10 = 2.303]

Answer: (2)

27. The pressure exerted by a non-reactive gaseous mixture of 6.4 g of methane and 8.8 g of carbon dioxide in a 10 L vessel at 27°C is _____ kPa. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Assume gases are ideal, R = 8.314 J mol–1 K–1 Atomic masses: C : 12.0u, H : 1.0u, O : 16.0 u]

Answer: (150)

28. The mole fraction of a solute in a 100 molal aqueous solution is _____ × 10–2. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). [Given : Atomic masses : H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u]

Answer: (64)

29. In the above reaction, 3.9 g of benzene on nitration gives 4.92 g of nitrobenzene. The percentage yield of nitrobenzene in the above reaction is _____%. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). (Given atomic mass : C : 12.0 u, H : 1.0 u, O : 16.0 u, N : 14.0 u)

Answer: (80)

30. 0.01 moles of a weak acid HA (Ka = 2.0 × 10–6 ) is dissolved in 1.0 L of 0.1 M HCl solution. The degree of dissociation of HA is_______ × 10–5 (Round off to the Nearest Integer). Assume degree of dissociation << 1

Answer: (2)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. Which of the following is true for y(x) that satisfies the differential equation 

(a)  y(1) = 1

(b)  y(1) = e1/2 – 1

(c)  y(1) = e1/2 – e1/2

(d) y(1) = e1/2 – 1

Answer: (d)

2. The system of equations kx + y + z = 1, x + ky + z = k and x + y + zk = k2 has no solution if k is equal to

(a)  −2

(b)  −1

(c)  1

(d) 0

Answer: (a)

3. The value of  is:

(a)   

(b)    

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (c)

4. If the Boolean expression (p ⇒ q) ⇔ (q * (~ P)) is a tautology, then the Boolean expression p * (~q) is equivalent to:

(a)  p ⇒ ~ q

(b)  p ⇒ q

(c)  q ⇒ p

(d) ~q ⇒ p

Answer: (c)

5. Choose the incorrect statement about the two circles whose equations are given below:

x2 + y2 − 10x − 10y + 41 = 0 and x2 + y2 − 16x − 10y + 80 = 0

(a)  Distance between two centres is the average radii of both the circles

(b)  Circles have two intersection points

(c)  Both circles’ centres lie inside the region of one another

(d) Both circles pass through the centre of each other

Answer: (c)

6. The sum of possible values of x for  is:

(a)  −33/4

(b)  −32/4

(c)  −31/4

(d) −30/4

Answer: (b)

7. Let  If  then  is equal to:

(a)  10

(b)  13

(c)  12

(d) 8

Answer: (c)

8. The equation of the plane which contains the y-axis and passes through the point (1, 2, 3) is:

(a)  3x + z = 6

(b)  3x − z = 0

(c)  x + 3z = 10

(d) x + 3z = 0

Answer: (b)

9. If  and  then a possible value of α is:

(a)  π/6

(b)  π/2

(c)  π/3

(d) π/4

Answer: (d)

10. The line 2x − y + 1 = 0 is a tangent to the circle at the point (2, 5) and the centre of the circle lies on x − 2y = 4. Then, the radius of the circle is:

(a)  4√5

(b)  3√5

(c)  5√3

(d) 5√4

Answer: (b)

11. Team ‘A’ consists of 7 boys and n girls and Team ‘B’ has 4 boys and 6 girls. If a total of 52 single matches can be arranged between these two teams when a boy plays against a boy and a girl plays against a girl, then n is equal to

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  2

(d) 4

Answer: (d)

12. In a triangle PQR, the coordinates of the points P and Q are (−2, 4) and (4, −2) respectively. If the equation of the perpendicular bisector of PR is 2x – y + 2 = 0, then the centre of the circumcircle of the △PQR is:

(a)  (−2, −2)

(b)  (0, 2)

(c)  (−1, 0)

(d) (1, 4)

Answer: (a)

13. If cot−1 (ɑ) = cot−1 2 + cot−1 8 + cot−1 18 + cot−1 32 + …….. upto 100 terms, then ɑ is:

(a)  1.03

(b)  1.00

(c)  1.01

(d) 1.02

Answer: (c)

14. Which of the following statements is incorrect for the function g (ɑ) for ɑ ∈ R such that 

(a)  g(α) is a strictly decreasing function

(b)  g (ɑ) has an inflexion point at ɑ = −1/2

(c)  g(ɑ) is an even function

(d) g(ɑ) is a strictly increasing function

Answer: (*)

15. If the fourth term in the expansion of  is 4480, then the value of x when x ∈ N is equal to:

(a)  4

(b)  3

(c)  2

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

16. Two dice are rolled. If both dices have six faces numbered 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 and 11, then the probability that the sum of the numbers on the top faces is less than or equal to 8 is:

(a)  17/36

(b)  4/9

(c)  5/12

(d) 1/2

Answer: (a)

17. The inverse of y = 5logx is:

(a)  x = 5logy

(b)  x = ylog5

(c)  x = y1/log5

(d) x = 51/logy

Answer: (c)

18. In a school, there are three types of games to be played. Some of the students play two types of games, but none play all three games. Which Venn diagrams can justify the above statements.

(a)  P and R

(b)  P and Q

(c)  None of these

(d) Q and R

Answer: (c)

19. The area of the triangle with vertices A (z), B (iz) and C (z + iz) is:

(a)   

(b)  1

(c)  1/2

(d)  

Answer: (d)

20. The value of  where [x] denotes the greatest integer ≤ x is :

(a)  0

(b)  π/4

(c)  π/2

(d) π

Answer: (c)

Section-B

Integer Type:

21. Let there be three independent events E1, E2 and E3. The probability that only E1 occurs is ɑ, only E2 occurs is β and only E3 occurs is 𝛾. Let ‘p’ denote the probability of none of the events that occur that satisfies the equations (ɑ − 2β) p = ɑβ and (β − 3𝛾) p = 2β𝛾. All the given probabilities are assumed to lie in the interval (0, 1) Then,  is equal to _______

Answer: (6)

22. If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes 2x − 7y + 4z − 3 = 0, 3x − 5y + 4z + 11 = 0 and the point (−2, 1, 3) is ax + by + cz − 7 = 0, then the value of 2a + b + c − 7 is __________

Answer: (4)

23. If  then the value of det (A4) + det (A10 − Adj (2A))10) is equal to _______

Answer: (16)

24. The minimum distance between any two points P1 and P2 while considering point P1 on one circle and point P2 one the other circle for the given circles’ equations x2 + y2 − 10x − 10y + 41 = 0 and x2 + y2 − 24x − 10y + 160 = 0 ________

Answer: (1)

25. If (2021)3762 is divided by 17, then the remainder is______

Answer: (4)

26. If [ . ] represents the greatest integer function, then the value of  is_______

Answer: (1)

27. If  and its first derivative with respect to x is  when x = 1, where a and b are integers, then the minimum value of |a2 – b2| is_______

Answer: (481)

28. If the function  is continuous at each point in its domain and f(0) = 1/k, then k is_______

Answer: (6)

29. The maximum value of z in the following equation z = 6xy + y2, where 3x + 4y ≤ 100 and 4x + 3y ≤ 75 for x ≥ 0 and y ≥ 0 is _________

Answer: (625)

30. If  and  such that  then  is equal to_________

Answer: (2)

JEE Main Session 2 March 16th Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. A mosquito is moving with a velocity  and accelerating in uniform conditions. What will be the direction of the mosquito after 2s?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (*)

2. Statement I: A cyclist is moving on an unbanked road with a speed of 7 kmh1 and takes a sharp circular turn along a path of radius of 2m without reducing the speed. The static friction coefficient is 0.2. The cyclist will not slip and pass the curve.

(g = 9.8 m/s2)

Statement-II: If the road is banked at an angle of 45°, cyclists can cross the curve of 2m radius with the speed of 18.5 kmh1 without slipping.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(b)  Both statement I and statement II are true

(c)  Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

(d) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct

Answer: (b)

3. Calculate the time interval between 33% decay and 67%decay if half-life of a substance is 20 minutes:

(a)  40 minutes

(b)  20 minutes

(c)  60 minutes

(d) 13 minutes

Answer: (b)

4. A large block of wood of mass M = 5.99 kg is hanging from two long massless cords. A bullet of mass m = 10 g is fired into the block and gets embedded in it. The (block + bullet) then swing upwards, their centre of mass rising a vertical distance h = 9.8 cm before the (block + bullet) pendulum comes momentarily to rest at the end of its arc. The speed of the bullet just before the collision is: (take g = 9.8 ms2)

(a)  831.4 m/s

(b)  841.4 m/s

(c)  811.4 m/s

(d) 821.4 m/s

Answer: (a)

5. What will be the nature of the flow of water from a circular tap, when its flow rate increased from 0.18 L/min to 0.48 L/min? The radius of the tap and viscosity of water is 0.5 cm and 103 Pa s, respectively. (Density of water: 103 kg/m3)

(a)  Remains steady flow

(b)  Unsteady to steady flow

(c)  Steady flow to unsteady flow

(d) Remains turbulent flow

Answer: (c)

6. The refractive index of a converging lens is 1.4. What will be the focal length of this lens if it is placed in a medium of the same refractive index? Assume the radii of curvature of the faces of the lens are R1 and R2

(a)  Zero

(b) 

(c)  Infinite

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

7. For the given circuit, comment on the type of transformer used.

(a)  Step down transformer

(b)  Auxiliary transformer

(c)  Step-up transformer

(d) Autotransformer

Answer: (c)

8. Red light differs from blue light as they have:

(a)  Same frequencies and same wavelengths

(b)  Different frequencies and different wavelengths

(c)  Different frequencies and same wavelengths

(d) Same frequencies and different wavelengths

Answer: (b)

9. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron and a proton were calculated by accelerating them through the same potential of 100 V. What should nearly be the ratio of their wavelengths? (mp = 1.00727u; me = 0.00055u)

(a)  (1860)2 : 1

(b)  43 : 1

(c)  1860 : 1

(d) 41.1 : 1

Answer: (b)

10. A charge Q is moving  distance in the magnetic field Find the value of work done by

(a)  Infinite

(b)  1

(c)  −1

(d) Zero

Answer: (d)

11. Amplitude of a mass spring system, which is executing simple harmonic motion decreases with time. If mass = 500g, Decay constant = 20 g/s then how much time is required for the amplitude of the system to drop to half of its initial value?

(ln 2 = 0.693)

(a)  15.01 s

(b)  17.32 s

(c)  0.034 s

(d) 34.65 s

Answer: (d)

12. A resistor develops 500 J of thermal energy in 20s when a current of 1.5A is passed through it. If the current is increased from 1.5A to 3A, what will be the energy developed in the 20s.

(a)  500 J

(b)  1000 J

(c)  2000 J

(d) 1500 J

Answer: (c)

13. Calculate the value of mean free path (λ) for oxygen molecules at temperature 27°C and pressure 1.01 × 105 Assume the molecular diameter 0.3nm and the gas is ideal. (k = 1.38 × 1023 jK1)

(a)  102 nm

(b)  32 nm

(c)  58 nm

(d) 86 nm

Answer: (a)

14. A bimetallic strip consists of metals A and B. It is mounted rigidly as shown. The metal A has higher coefficient of expansion compared to that of metal B. When the bimetallic strip is placed in a cold bath, it will:

(a)  Not bend but shrink

(b)  Neither bend nor shrink

(c)  Bend towards the right

(d) Bend towards the left

Answer: (d)

15. The following logic gate is equivalent to:

(a)  NOR Gate

(b)  AND Gate

(c)  OR Gate

(d) NAND Gate

Answer: (a)

16. Two identical antennas mounted on identical towers are separated from each other by a distance of 45 km. What should nearly be the minimum height of the receiving antenna to receive the signals in line of sight? (Assume radius of earth is 6400 km)

(a)  19.77 m

(b)  79.1 m

(c)  158.2 m

(d) 39.55 m

Answer: (d)

17. The magnetic field in a region is given by  A square loop of side d is placed with its edges along the x and y axes. The loop is moved with a constant velocity  The emf induced in the loop is:

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (b)

18. The half-life of Au198 is 2.7 days. The activity of 1.50 mg of Au198 if its atomic weight is 198 g mol1 is (NA = 6 × 1023/mol).

(a)  252 Ci

(b)  357 Ci

(c)  240 Ci

(d) 535 Ci

Answer: (b)

19. In order to determine the Young’s Modulus of a wire of radius 0.2 cm (measured using a scale of least count = 0.001 cm) and length 1m (measured using a scale of least count = 1 mm), a weight of mass 1 kg (measured using a scale of least count = 1 g) was hanged to get the elongation of 0.5 cm (measured using a scale of least count 0.001 cm). What will be the fractional error in the value of Young’s Modulus determined by this experiment.

(a)  9%

(b)  1.4%

(c)  0.9%

(d) 0.14%

Answer: (b)

20. Find out the surface charge density at the intersection of point x = 3 m plane and x-axis in the region of uniform line charge of 8 nC/m lying along the z-axis in free space.

(a)  47.88 C/m

(b)  0.07 nC m2

(c)  0.424 nC m2

(d) 4.0 nC m2

Answer: (c)

Section-B

21. A closed organ pipe of length L and an open organ pipe contains gases of densities ρ1 and ρ2 The compressibility of gases are equal in both the pipes. Both the pipes are vibrating in their first overtone with the same frequency. The length of the open pipe  is where x is ______(Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (4)

22. A deviation of 2° is produced in the yellow ray when the prism of crown and flint glass are chromatically combined. Taking dispersive powers of crown and flint glass as 0.02 and 0.03 respectively and refractive index for yellow light for these glasses are 1.5 and 1.6 respectively. The refracting angles for crown glass prism will be _______ ° (in degree). (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (12)

23. If one wants to remove all the mass of the earth to infinity in order to break it up completely. The amount of energy that needs to be supplied will be  where x is __________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer). (M is the mass of earth, R is the radius of earth, G is the gravitational constant)

Answer: (3)

24. In a parallel plate capacitor set up, the plate area of the capacitor is 2 m2 and the plates are separated by 1 m. If the space between the plates is filled with a dielectric material of thickness 0.5 m and area 2 m2 (see fig) the capacitance of the set-up will be ________∈0. (Dielectric constant of the material = 3.2) (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (3.04)

25. For an ideal heat engine, the temperature of the source is 127ºC. In order to have 60% efficiency the temperature of the sink should be _________ºC. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (113)

26. A force  is applied on an intersection point of x = 2 plane and x-axis. The magnitude of torque of this force about a point (2, 3, 4) is _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (20)

27. The energy dissipated by a resistor is 10 ml in 1 s when an electric current of 2mA flows through it. The resistance is ________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (2500)

28. A swimmer can swim with a velocity of 12 km/h in still water. Water flowing in a river has a velocity of 6 km/h. The direction with respect to the direction of flow of river water he should swim in order to reach the point on the other bank just opposite to his starting point is ______°. (Round off to the Nearest Integer) (Find the angles in degrees)

Answer: (120)

29. A solid disc of radius ‘a’ and mass ‘m’ rolls down without slipping on an inclined plane making an angle θ with the horizontal. The acceleration of the disc will be  where b is _______ . (Round off to the Nearest Integer). (g = acceleration due to gravity; θ = angles as shown in figure)

Answer: (3)

30. A body of mass 2 kg moves under a force of  It starts from rest and was at the origin initially. After 4s, its new coordinates are (8, b, 20). The value of b is _______. (Round off to the Nearest Integer)

Answer: (12)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. Identify the reagent(s) ‘A’ and condition(s) for the reaction:

(a)  A = HCl; Anhydrous AlCl3

(b)  A = HCl, ZnCl2

(c)  A = Cl2, dark, Anhydrous AlCl3

(d) A = Cl2; UV Light

Answer: (d)

2. The INCORRECT statement regarding the structure of C60 is:

(a)  It contains 12 six-membered rings and 24 five-membered rings.

(b)  Each carbon atom forms three sigma bonds.

(c)  The five-membered rings are fused only to six-membered rings.

(d) The six-membered rings are fused to both six and five-membered rings.

Answer: (a)

3. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

Test/Reagents/Observation(s)

List-II

Species detected

(a) Lassaigne’s Test (i) Carbon
(b) Cu(II) oxide (ii) Sulphur
(c) Silver nitrate (iii) N, S, P and halogen
(d) The sodium fusion extract gives black precipitate with acetic acid & lead acetate (iv) Halogen Specifically

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(b)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (a)

4. The structure of X is:

Answer: (a)

5. Ammonolysis of alkyl halides followed by the treatment with NaOH solution can be used to prepare primary, secondary and tertiary amines. The purpose of NaOH in the reaction is:

(a)  to remove basic impurities

(b)  to activate NH3 used in the reaction

(c)  to increase the reactivity of alkyl halide

(d) to remove acidic impurities

Answer: (d)

6. Arrange the following metal complex/compounds in the increasing order of spin only magnetic moment. Presume all three, high spin systems.

(Atomic numbers Ce = 58, Gd = 64 and Eu = 63)

(1) (NH4)2[Ce(NO3)6]

(2) Gd(NO3)3

(3) Eu(NO3)3

(a)  (1) < (3) < (2)

(b)  (1) < (2) < (3)

(c)  (3) < (1) < (2)

(d) (2) < (1) < (3)

Answer: (a)

7. Identify the elements X and Y using the ionisation energy values given below:

1st                   2nd

X               195                  4563

Y               731                  1450

(a)  X = F; Y = Mg

(b)  X = Mg; Y = F

(c)  X = Na; Y = Mg

(d) X = Mg; Y = Na

Answer: (c)

8. The INCORRECT statement below regarding colloidal solutions is:

(a)  A colloidal solution shows colligative properties

(b)  An ordinary filter paper can stop the flow of colloidal particles

(c)  A colloidal solution shows the Brownian motion of colloidal particles

(d) The flocculating power of Al3+ is more than that of Na+

Answer: (b)

9. The characteristics of elements X, Y and Z with atomic numbers, respectively, 33, 53 and 83 are:

(a)  X and Z are non-metals and Y is a metalloid.

(b)  X and Y are metalloids and Z is a metal.

(c)  X, Y and Z are metals.

(d) X is a metalloid, Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal.

Answer: (d)

10. The exact volumes of 1 M NaOH solution required to neutralise 50 mL of 1 M H3PO3 solution and 100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution, respectively, are:

(a)  100 mL and 50 mL

(b)  50 mL and 50 mL

(c)  100 mL and 100 mL

(d) 100 mL and 200 mL

Answer: (d)

11. Which of the following reduction reaction CANNOT be carried out with coke?

(a)  Fe2O3 → Fe

(b)  ZnO → Zn

(c)  Al2O3 → Al

(d) Cu2O → Cu

Answer: (c)

12. An unsaturated hydrocarbon X on ozonolysis gives A. Compound A when warmed with ammoniacal silver nitrate forms a bright silver mirror along the sides of the test tube. The unsaturated hydrocarbon X is:

Answer: (c)

13. Two statements are given below:

Statement-I: Sodium hydride can be used as an oxidising agent.

Statement-II: The lone pair of electrons on nitrogen in pyridine makes it basic.

(a)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(b)  Both statement I and statement II are false

(c)  Both statement I and statement II are true

(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true

Answer: (d)

14. Which of the following polymer is used in the manufacture of wood laminates?

(a)  Melamine formaldehyde resin

(b)  Cis-poly isoprene

(c)  Phenol and formaldehyde resin

(d) Urea-formaldehyde resin

Answer: (a)

15. The correct statements about H2O2 are:

(1) used in the treatment of effluents.

(2) used as both oxidizing and reducing agents.

(3) the two hydroxyl groups lie in the same plane.

(4) miscible with water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (1), (3) and (4) only

(b)  (1), (2) and (4) only

(c)  (1), (2), (3) and (4)

(d) (2), (3) and (4) only

Answer: (b)

16. The greenhouse gas/es is (are)

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Oxygen

(3) Water vapour

(4) Methane

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  (1) and (2) only

(b)  (1), (3) and (4) only

(c)  (1) and (3) only

(d) (1) only

Answer: (b)

17. In the below reaction, the reagent “A” is:

(a)  NaBH4, H3O+

(b)  HCl, Zn-Hg

(c)  Alkaline KMnO4, H+

(d) LiAlH4

Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following is least basic?

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

19. Fex2 and Fey3 are known when x and y are:

(a)  x=Cl, Br, I and y=F, Cl, Br, I

(b)  x=F, Cl, Br, I and y=F, Cl, Br

(c)  x=F, Cl, Br, I and y=F, Cl, Br, I

(d) x=F, Cl, Br and y =F, Cl, Br, I

Answer: (b)

20. The secondary structure of protein is stabilized by:

(a)  van der Waals forces

(b)  Peptide bond

(c)  Hydrogen bonding

(d) Glycosidic bond

Answer: (c)

Section-B

21. At 25°C, 50 g of iron reacts with HCl to form FeCl2. The evolved hydrogen gas expands against a constant pressure of 1 bar. The work done by the gas during this expansion is ________________ J. (Round off to the nearest integer).

[Given: R = 8.14 J mol–1 K–1. Assume, hydrogen is an ideal gas]

[Atomic mass of Fe is 55.85 u]

Answer: (2218)

22. A 5.0 m moldm–3 aqueous solution of KCl has a conductance of 0.55 mS when measured in a cell of cell constant 1.3 cm–1. The molar conductivity of this solution is ___________ mSm2mol1. (Round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (14)

23. The number of orbitals with n = 5, m1 = +2 is ___________. (Round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (3)

24. A and B decompose via first-order kinetics with half-lives 54.0 min and 18.0 min respectively. Starting from an equimolar non-reactive mixture of A and B, the time taken for the concentration of A to become 16 times that of B is __________ min. (Round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (108)

25. [Ti(H2O)6]3+ absorbs light of wavelength 498 nm during a d–d transition. The octahedral splitting energy for the above complex is ___________ × 10–19 (Round off to the nearest integer). h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js; c = 3 × 108 ms–1.

Answer: (4)

26. Sulphurous acid (H2SO3) has Ka1 = 1.7 × 10–2 and Ka2 = 6.4 × 10–8. The pH of 0.588 M H2SO3 is _________. (Round off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (5)

27. In Duma’s method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.1840 g of an organic compound gave 30 mL of nitrogen collected at 287 K and 758 mm of Hg pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound is __________. (Round off to the nearest integer). [Given: Aqueous tension at 287 K = 14 mm of Hg]

Answer: (19)

28. Ga (atomic mass 70 u) crystallizes in a hexagonal close packed structure. The total number of voids in 0.581 g of Ga is ________ × 1021. (Round off to the nearest integer). [Given: NA = 6.023 × 1023]

Answer: (15)

29. When 35 mL of 0.15 M lead nitrate solution is mixed with 20 mL of 0.12 M chromic sulphate solution, _________ × 10–5 moles of lead sulphate precipitate out. (Round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (525)

30. At 363 K, the vapour pressure of A is 21 kPa and that of B is 18 kPa. One mole of A and 2 moles of B are mixed. Assuming that this solution is ideal, the vapour pressure of the mixture is _______ kPa. (Round off to the nearest integer).

Answer: (19)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. The least value of |z| where z is a complex number which satisfies the inequality  is equal to:

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  8

(d) √5

Answer: (b)

2. Let f : S → S where S = (0, ∞) be a twice differentiable function such that f (x + 1) = x f (x). If g : S → R be defined as g (x) = loge f(x), then the value of |g”(5) – g”(1)| is equal to:

(a)  197/144

(b)  187/144

(c)  205/144

(d) 1

Answer: (c)

3. If y = y (x) is the solution of the differential equation  with y(0) = 0, then  equal to:

(a)  loge 2

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (c)

4. If the foot of the perpendicular from point (4, 3, 8) on the line   ℓ ≠ 0 is (3, 5, 7) then the shortest distance between the line L1 and line  is equal to:

(a) 

(b)  1/√3

(c)  1/2

(d) 1/√6

Answer: (d)

5. If (x, y, z) be an arbitrary point lying on a plane P which passes through the points (42, 0, 0), (0, 42, 0) and (0, 0, 42), then the value of the expression   is equal to:

(a)  3

(b)  0

(c)  39

(d) −45

Answer: (a)

6. Consider the integral  where [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then the value of I is equal to:

(a)  45(e – 1)

(b)  45(e + 1)

(c)  9(e – 1)

(d) 9(e + 1)

Answer: (a)

7. Let A (–1, 1), B (3, 4) and C(2, 0) be given three points. A line y = mx, m > 0, intersects lines AC and BC at point P and Q respectively. Let A1 and A2 be the areas of ΔABC and ΔPQC respectively, such that A1 = 3A2, then the value of m is equal to:

(a)  4/15

(b)  1

(c)  2

(d) 3

Answer: ()

8. Let f be a real-valued function, defined on R – {–1, 1} and given by  Then in which of the following intervals, function f (x) is increasing?

(a)  (–∞,–1) ⋃ ([1/2, ∞) – {1})

(b)  (–1, 1/2]

(c)  (–∞, ∞) – {–1, 1}

(d) (–∞, 1/2] – {–1}

Answer: (a)

9. Let the lengths of intercepts on x-axis and y-axis made by the circle x2 + y2 + ax + 2ay + c = 0, (a < 0) be 2 √2 and 2 √5, respectively. Then the shortest distance from origin to a tangent to this circle which is perpendicular to the line x + 2y = 0, is equal to:

(a)  √10

(b)  √6

(c)  √11

(d) √7

Answer: (b)

10. Let A denote the event that a 6-digit integer formed by 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 without repetitions, be divisible by 3. Then the probability of event A is equal to:

(a)  4/9

(b)  9/56

(c)  3/7

(d) 11/27

Answer: (a)

11. Let α ∈ R be such that the function  is continuous at x = 0, where {x} = x – [x], [x] is the greatest integer less than or equal to x. Then:

(a)  α = π/4

(b)  No such α exists

(c)  α = 0

(d) α = π/√2

Answer: (b)

12. The maximum value of  , x ∈ R is:

(a)  √7

(b)  √5

(c)  5

(d) 3/4

Answer: (b)

13. Consider a rectangle ABCD having 5, 7, 6, 9 points in the interior of the line segments AB, CD, BC, DA respectively. Let α be the number of triangles having these points from different sides as vertices and β be the number of quadrilaterals having these points from different sides as vertices. Then (β – α) is equal to:

(a)  1890

(b)  795

(c)  717

(d) 1173

Answer: (c)

14. Let C be the locus of the mirror image of a point on the parabola y2 = 4x with respect to the line y = x. Then the equation of tangent to C at P(2, 1) is:

(a)  2x + y = 5

(b)  x + 2y = 4

(c)  x + 3y = 5

(d) x – y = 1

Answer: (d)

15. Given that the inverse trigonometric functions take principal values only. Then, the number of real values of x which satisfy  is:

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d) 0

Answer: (c)

16. Let C1 be the curve obtained by the solution of the differential equation  Let the curve C2 be the solution of  If both the curves pass through (1, 1), then the area enclosed by the curves C1 and C2 is equal to :

(a) 

(b) 

(c)  π − 1

(d) π + 1

Answer: (a)

17. Let  If  and  then the value of  is equal to:

(a)  11

(b)  15

(c)  9

(d) 13

Answer: (b)

18. Let P(x) = x2 + bx + c be a quadratic polynomial with real coefficients such that  and P(x) leaves remainder 5 when it is divided by (x – 2). Then the value of 9(b + c) is equal to :

(a)  7

(b)  11

(c)  15

(d) 9

Answer: (a)

19. If the points of intersections of the ellipse  and the circle x2 + y2 = 4b, b > 4 lie on the curve y2 = 3x2, then b is equal to :

(a)  5

(b)  6

(c)  12

(d) 10

Answer: (c)

20. Let A = {2, 3, 4, 5, ……, 30} and ‘≅’ be an equivalence relation on A×A, defined by (a, b) ⩭ (c, d), if and only if ad = bc. Then the number of ordered pairs which satisfy this equivalence relation with ordered pair (4, 3) is equal to :

(a)  7

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d) 8

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. Let  be a vector perpendicular to the vectors   and  If  then the value of  is equal to_____

Answer: (28)

22. In ΔABC, the lengths of sides AC and AB are 12 cm and 5 cm, respectively. If the area of ΔABC is 30 cm2 and R and r are respectively the radii of circumcircle and incircle of ΔABC, then the value of 2R + r (in cm) is equal to ______

Answer: (15)

23. Consider the statistics of two sets of observations as follows:

Size Mean
Observation I 10 2
Observation II N 3

If the variance of the combined set of these two observations is 17/9, then the value of n is equal to ______

Answer: (5)

24. Let   up to n-terms, where a >1. If S24(x) = 1093 and S12(2x) = 265, then value of a is equal to______

Answer: (16)

25. Let n be a positive integer. Let  If  then n is equal to ________

Answer: (6)

26. Let f : R → R and g : R → R be defined as  where a, b are non-negative real numbers. If (gof) (x) is continuous for all x ∈ R, then a + b is equal to ______

Answer: (1)

27. If the distance of the point (1, – 2, 3) from the plane x + 2y – 3z + 10 = 0 measured parallel to the line,  then the value of |m| is equal to________

Answer: (2)

28. Let 1/16, a and b be in G.P. and 1/a, 1/b, 6 be in A.P., where a, b, > 0. Then 72 (a + b) is equal to ______

Answer: (14)

29. Let  be two 2 × 1 matrices with real entries such that A = XB, where   and k ∈ If  and  then the value of k is ________

Answer: (1)

30. For real numbers α, β, γ and δ, if

where C is an arbitrary constant, then the value of 10 (α + βγ + δ) is equal to______.

Answer: (6)

JEE Main Session 2 March 16th Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. A 25 m long antenna is mounted on an antenna tower. The height of the antenna tower is 75 m. The wavelength (in meter) of the signal transmitted by this antenna would be:

(a)  200

(b)  400

(c)  100

(d) 300

Answer: (c)

2. A block of mass m slides along a floor while a force of magnitude F is applied to it at an angle θ as shown in the figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is μK. Then, the block’s acceleration ‘a’ is given by (g is the acceleration due to gravity)

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (a)

3. Four equal masses, m each is placed at the corners of a square of length (l) as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis passing through A and parallel to DB would be:

(a)  ml2

(b)  3ml2

(c)  √3ml2

(d) 2ml2

Answer: (b)

4. The stopping potential in the context of the photoelectric effect depends on the following property of incident electromagnetic radiation:

(a)  Amplitude

(b)  Phase

(c)  Frequency

(d) Intensity

Answer: (c)

5. One main scale division of a vernier callipers is ‘a’ cm and nth division of the vernier scale coincides with (n–1)th division of the main scale. The least count of the callipers in mm is:

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (b)

6. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 500 MHz is travelling in vacuum along y-direction. At a particular point in space and time,  The value of electric field at this point is: (speed of light = 3×108 ms–1) Assume x, y, z are unit vectors along  are unit vectors along x, y and z directions.

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (d)

7. The maximum and minimum distances of a comet from the Sun are 1.6 × 1012 m and 8.0 × 1010 m respectively. If the speed of the comet at the nearest point is 6 × 104 ms–1, the speed at the farthest point is :

(a)  1.5 × 103 m/s

(b)  4.5 × 103 m/s

(c)  3.0 × 103 m/s

(d) 6.0 × 103 m/s

Answer: (c)

8. A block of 200 g mass moves with a uniform speed in a horizontal circular groove, with vertical sidewalls of a radius of 20 cm. If the block takes 40 s to complete one round, the normal force by the sidewalls of the groove is:

(a)  6.28 × 103 N

(b)  0.0314 N

(c)  9.859 × 102 N

(d) 9.859 × 104 N

Answer: (d)

9. An RC circuit as shown in the figure is driven by an AC source generating a square wave. The output wave pattern monitored by CRO would look close to:

Answer: (b)

10. In thermodynamics, heat and work are:

(a)  Intensive thermodynamics state variables

(b)  Extensive thermodynamics state variables

(c)  Path functions

(d) Point functions

Answer: (c)

11. A conducting wire of length ‘l’, area of cross-section A and electric resistivity ρ is connected between the terminals of a battery. A potential difference V is developed between its ends, causing an electric current. If the length of the wire of the same material is doubled and the area of cross-section is halved, the resultant current would be:

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (d)

12. The pressure acting on a submarine is 3 × 105 Pa at a certain depth. If the depth is doubled, the percentage increase in the pressure acting on the submarine would be :(Assume that atmospheric pressure is 1 × 105 Pa, the density of water is 103 kg m–3, acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms–2)

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d) 

Answer: (a)

13. A bar magnet of length 14 cm is placed in the magnetic meridian with its north pole pointing towards the geographic north pole. A neutral point is obtained at a distance of 18 cm from the centre of the magnet. If BH = 0.4 G, the magnetic moment of the magnet is (1 G = 10–4 T)

(a)  28.80 J T1

(b)  2.880 J T1

(c)  2.880 × 103 J T1

(d) 2.880 × 102 J T1

Answer: (b)

14. The volume V of an enclosure contains a mixture of three gases, 16 g of oxygen, 28 g of nitrogen and 44 g of carbon dioxide at absolute temperature T. Consider R as a universal gas constant. The pressure of the mixture of gases is:

(a)  4RT/V

(b)  88RT/V

(c) 

(d) 3RT/V

Answer: (c)

15. A conducting bar of length L is free to slide on two parallel conducting rails as shown in the figure

Two resistors R1 and R2 are connected across the ends of the rails. There is a uniform magnetic field  pointing into the page. An external agent pulls the bar to the left at a constant speed v. The correct statement about the directions of induced currents I1 and I2 flowing through R1 and R2 respectively is :

(a)  I1 is in the clockwise direction and I2 is in the anticlockwise direction

(b)  Both I1 and I2 are in a clockwise direction

(c)  I1 is in the anticlockwise direction and I2 is in a clockwise direction

(d) Both I1 and I2 are in the anticlockwise direction

Answer: (a)

16. The velocity-displacement graph describing the motion of a bicycle is shown in the figure.

The acceleration-displacement graph of the bicycle’s motion is best described by:

Answer: (a)

17. For changing the capacitance of a given parallel plate capacitor, a dielectric material of dielectric constant K is used, which has the same area as the plates of the capacitor. The thickness of the dielectric slab is  where ‘d’ is the separation between the plates of parallel plate capacitors. The new capacitance (C’) in terms of original capacitance (C0) is given by the following relation:

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (a)

18. For an electromagnetic wave travelling in free space, the relation between average energy densities due to electric (Ue) and magnetic (Um) fields is :

(a)  Ue ≠ Um

(b)  Ue = Um

(c)  Ue > Um

(d) Ue < Um

Answer: (b)

19. Time period of a simple pendulum is T inside a lift when the lift is stationary. If the lift moves upwards with an acceleration g/2, the time period of the pendulum will be:

(a) 

(b) 

(c) 

(d)

Answer: (c)

20. The angle of deviation through a prism is minimum when

(A) Incident ray and emergent ray are symmetric to the prism

(B) The refracted ray inside the prism becomes parallel to its base

(C) Angle of incidence is equal to that of the angle of emergence

(D) When the angle of emergence is double the angle of incidence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  Only statement (D) is true

(b)  Statements (A), (B) and (C)

(c)  Statements (B) and (C) are true

(d) Only statement (A) and (B) are true

Answer: (b)

Section-B

21. A fringe width of 6 mm was produced for two slits separated by 1 mm apart. The screen is placed 10 m away. The wavelength of light used is ‘x’ nm. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is ________.

Answer: (600)

22. The value of power dissipated across the Zener diode (Vz = 15 V) connected in the circuit as shown in the figure is x × 10–1

The value of x, to the nearest integer, is _________.

Answer: (5)

23. The resistance R=V/I, where V = (50 ± 2) V and I = (20 ± 0.2) A. The percentage error in R is ‘x’ %. The value of ‘x’ to the nearest integer is _________.

Answer: (5)

24. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 250 V is applied to a series LCR circuit, in which R = 8Ω, L=24 mH and C=60 μF. The value of power dissipated at resonant conditions is ‘x’ kW. The value of x to the nearest integer is _________.

Answer: (4)

25. A ball of mass 10 kg moving with a velocity 10√3 ms–1 along the X-axis, hits another ball of mass 20 kg which is at rest. After the collision, the first ball comes to rest and the second one disintegrates into two equal pieces. One of the pieces starts moving along the Y-axis at a speed of 10 m/s. The second piece starts moving at a speed of 20 m/s at an angle θ (degree) with respect to the X-axis. The configuration of pieces after the collision is shown in the figure. The value of θ to the nearest integer is ________.

Answer: (30)

26. In the figure given, the electric current flowing through the 5 kΩ resistor is ‘x’ mA.

The value of x to the nearest integer is ________.

Answer: (3)

27. Consider a 20 kg uniform circular disk of radius 0.2 m. It is pin supported at its centre and is at rest initially. The disk is acted upon by a constant force F=20 N through a massless string wrapped around its periphery as shown in the figure.

Suppose the disk makes n number of revolutions to attain an angular speed of 50 rad s–1. The value of n, to the nearest integer is ________. [Given: In one complete revolution, the disk rotates by 6.28 rad]

Answer: (20)

28. The first three spectral lines of H-atom in the Balmer series are given λ1, λ2, λ3 considering the Bohr atomic model, the wavelengths of first and third spectral lines (λ13) are related by a factor of approximately ‘x’ × 10–1. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ________.

Answer: (15)

29. Consider a frame that is made up of two thin massless rods AB and AC as shown in the figure. A vertical force  of magnitude 100 N is applied at point A of the frame.

Suppose the force is  resolved parallel to the arms AB and AC of the frame. The magnitude of the resolved component along the arm AC is x N. The value of x, to the nearest integer, is ________. [Given: sin (35°) = 0.573, cos (35°) = 0.819, sin (110°) = 0.939, cos (110°) = −0.342]

Answer: (82)

30. In the logic circuit shown in the figure, if input A and B are 0 to 1 respectively, the output at Y would be ‘x’. The value of x is ________.

Answer: (0)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. Among the following, the aromatic compounds are:

Choose the correct answer from the following options:

(a)  (A) and (B) only

(b)  (A), (B) and (C) only

(c)  (B), (C) and (D) only

(d) (B) and (C) only

Answer: (d)

2. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: H2O2 can act as both oxidizing and reducing agent in the basic medium.

Statement II: In the hydrogen economy, energy is transmitted in the form of dihydrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Ans: from the options given below:

(a)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(b)  Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(c)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following is Lindlar catalyst?

(a)  Zinc chloride and HCl

(b)  Partially deactivated palladised charcoal

(c)  Sodium and Liquid NH3

(d) Cold dilute solution of KMnO4

Answer: (b)

4. In chromatography technique, the purification of a compound is independent of:

(a)  Length of the column or TLC plate

(b)  Mobility or flow of solvent system

(c)  Physical state of the pure compound

(d) Solubility of the compound

Answer: (c)

5. Which among the following pairs of Vitamins is stored in our body relatively for longer duration?

(a)  Ascorbic acid and Vitamin D

(b)  Thiamine and Ascorbic acid

(c)  Vitamin A and Vitamin D

(d) Thiamine and Vitamin A

Answer: (c)

6. In the below chemical reaction, intermediate “X” and reagent/condition “A” are:

Answer: (c)

7. Which of the following reaction/reactions DOES NOT involve Hoffmann bromamide degradation?

Answer: (d)

8. A group 15 element, which is a metal and forms a hydride with strongest reducing power among group 15 hydrides. The element is:

(a)  Bi

(b)  As

(c)  P

(d) S

Answer: (a)

9. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: The size of the Bk3+ ion is less than the Np3+ ion.

Reason R: The above is a consequence of the lanthanoid contraction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Ans: from the options given below:

(a)  A is false but R is true

(b)  Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c)  A is true but R is false

(d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Answer: (c)

10. The products “A” and “B” formed in the below reactions are:

Answer: (a)

11. The type of pollution that gets increased during the day time and in the presence of O3 is:

(a)  Global warming

(b)  Reducing smog

(c)  Acid rain

(d) Oxidizing smog

Answer: (d)

12. The product “P” in the below reaction is:

Answer: (d)

13. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

Industrial process

List-II

Application

(a) Haber’s Process (i) HNO3 synthesis
(b) Ostwald’s process (ii) Aluminium extraction
(c) Contact process (iii) NH3 synthesis
(d) Hall-Heroult process (iv) H2SO4 synthesis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(c)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (d)

14. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Eo value for Ce4+/Ce3+ is +1.74 V.

Statement II: Ce is more stable in Ce4+ state than Ce3+ state.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(b)  Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

(c)  Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(d) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

Answer: (d)

15. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Both CaCl2.6H2O and MgCl2.8H2O undergo dehydration on heating.

Statement II: BeO is amphoteric whereas the oxides of other elements in the same group are acidic.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct Ans: from the options given below:

(a)  Statement I is true but statement II is false

(b)  Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(c)  Statement I is false but statement II is true

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Answer: (b)

16. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Enol form acetone [CH3COCH3] exists in <0.1% quantity. However, the enol forms acetylacetone [CH3COCH2OCCH3] that exists in approximately 15% quantity.

Reason R: Enol form of acetylacetone is stabilized by intramolecular hydrogen bonding, which is not possible in enol form of acetone.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct statement:

(a)  A is true but R is false

(b)  Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A

(c)  A is false but R is true

(d) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

Answer: (b)

17. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The H–O–H bond angle in a water molecule is 104.5°

Reason R: The lone pair – lone pair repulsion of electrons is higher than the bond pair-bond pair repulsion.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  A is false but R is true

(b)  A is true but R is false

(c)  Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Answer: (c)

18. Match List – I with List – II:

List-I

Name of oxo acid

List-II

Oxidation state of ‘P’

(a) Hypophosphorous acid (i) +5
(b) Orthophosphoric acid (ii) +4
(c) Hypophosphoric acid (iii) +3
(d) Orthophosphorous acid (iv) +2
(v) +1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(v), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(v), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(c)  (a)-(v), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (c)

19. The process that involves the removal of sulphur from the ores is:

(a)  Refining

(b)  Roasting

(c)  Smelting

(d) Leaching

Answer: (b)

20. The functions of antihistamine are:

(a)  Antiallergic and Analgesic

(b)  Antacid and antiallergic

(c)  Antiallergic and antidepressant

(d) Analgesic and antacid

Answer: (b)

Section-B

21. If the equation below is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of c is__________. (Round off to the nearest integer)

2MnO4 + bC2O42 + cH+ → xMn2+ yCO2 + zH2O.

Answer: (16)

22. Complete combustion of 750 g of an organic compound provides 420 g of CO2 and 210 g of H2 The percentage composition of carbon and hydrogen in organic compounds is 15.3 and _______ respectively. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (3)

23. AB2 is 10% dissociated in water to A2+ and B. The boiling point of a 10.0 molal aqueous solution of AB2 is ____________ ° (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (106)

24. A certain element crystallizes in a bcc lattice of unit cell edge length 27Å. If the same element under the same conditions crystallises in the fcc lattice, the edge length of the unit cell in Å will be _________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Assume each lattice point has a single atom]

[Assume √3 = 1.73, √2 = 1.41]

Answer: (33)

25. The equivalents of ethylene diamine required to replace the neutral ligands from the coordination sphere of the trans-complex of CoCl3.4NH3 is __________. (Round off to the nearest Integer).

Answer: (2)

26. For the reaction A(g) ⇌ B(g) at 495 K, ΔrG° = –9.478 kJ mol–(1)

If we start the reaction in a closed container at 495 K with 22 millimoles of A, the amount of B in the equilibrium mixture is ________millimoles. (Round off to the nearest Integer).

[R = 8.314] mol–1 K–1; ln 10 = 2.303]

Answer: (20)

27. When light of wavelength 248 nm falls on a metal of threshold energy 3.0 eV, the de-Broglie wavelength of emitted electrons is ____________Å. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Use : √3 = 1.73, h = 6.63×10–34 Js

me = 9.1×10–31 kg; c = 3.0 × 108ms–1; 1eV = 1.6×10–19J]

Answer: (9)

28. A 6.50 molal solution of KOH (aq.) has a density of 1.89 g cm–3The molarity of the solution is __________ moldm–3 (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

[Atomic masses : K : 39.0 u; O: 16.0 u; H: 1.0 u]

Answer: (9)

29. Two salts A2X and MX have the same value of solubility product of 4.0 × 10–12. The ratio of their molar solubilities i.e. ________. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (50)

30. The decomposition of formic acid on gold surface follows first order kinetics. If the rate constant at 300 K is 1.0 × 10–3 s–1 and the activation energy Ea = 11.488 kJ mol–1, the rate constant at 200 K is __________ × 10–5 s–1. (Round off to the Nearest Integer).

Answer: (10)

Mathematics

1. Consider three observations a, b and c such that b = a+c. If the standard deviation of a + 2, b + 2, c + 2 is d, then which of the following is true?

(a)  b2 = a2 + c2 + 3d2

(b)  b2 = 3 (a2 + c2) − 9d2

(c)  b2 = 3 (a2 + c2) + 9d2

(d) b2 = 3 (a2 + c2 + d2)

Answer: (b)

2. Let vector  be obtained by rotating the vector  by an angle 45° about the origin in counterclockwise direction in the first quadrant. Then the area of triangle having vertices (ɑ, β), (0, β) and (0, 0) is equal to:

(a)  1

(b)  1/2

(c)  1/√2

(d) 2√2

Answer: (b)

3. If for a > 0, the feet of perpendiculars from the points A (a, –2a, 3) and B (0, 4, 5) on the plane lx + my + nz = 0 are points C (0, –a, –1) and D respectively, then the length of line segment CD is equal to :

(a)  √41

(b)  √31

(c)  √55

(d) √66

Answer: (d)

4. The range of a ∈ R for which the function  x ≠ 2nπ, n ∈ N has critical points, is:

(a)  [–4/3, 2]

(b)  [1, ∞)

(c)  (–∞,–1]

(d) (–3, 1)

Answer: (a)

5. Let the functions f: R→R and g: R →R be defined as:

and 

Then, the number of points in R where (fog)(x) is NOT differentiable is equal to:

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  3

(d) 0

Answer: (a)

6. Let a complex number z, |z| ≠ 1, satisfy  Then, the largest value of |z| is equal to ____

(a)  5

(b)  8

(c)  6

(d) 7

Answer: (d)

7. A pack of cards has one card missing. Two cards are drawn randomly and are found to be spades. The probability that the missing card is not a spade is:

(a)  3/4

(b)  52/867

(c)  39/50

(d) 22/425

Answer: (c)

8. If n is the number of irrational terms in the expansion of [31/4 + 51/8]60, then (n − 1) is divisible by

(a)  8

(b)  26

(c)  7

(d) 30

Answer: (b)

9. Let the position vectors of two points P and Q be,  respectively. Let R and S be two points such that the direction ratios of lines PR and QS are (4, –1, 2) and (–2,1,–2) respectively. Let lines PR and QS intersect at T. If the vector TA is perpendicular to both  the length of vector   is √5 units, then the modulus of a position vector of A is:

(a)  √5

(b)  √227

(c)  √171

(d) √482

Answer: (b)

10. If the three normals drawn to the parabola, y2 = 2x pass through the point (a, 0) a ≠ 0, then ‘a’ must be greater than

(a)  1

(b)  −1/2

(c)  1/2

(d) −1

Answer: (a)

11. Let  Then  is equal to :

(a)  tan1 (3/2)

(b)  π/2

(c)  cot1(3/2)

(d) tan1(3)

Answer: (b)

12. The number of roots of the equation,  in the interval [0, π] is equal to :

(a)  3

(b)  4

(c)  2

(d) 8

Answer: (3)

13. If y = y(x) is the solution of the differential equation,  then the maximum value of the function y(x) over R is equal to :

(a)  8

(b)  −15/4

(c)  1/2

(d) 1/8

Answer: (d)

14. Which of the following Boolean expression is a tautology?

(a)  (p ∧ q) ∧ (p → q)

(b)  (p ∧ q) ∨ (p ∨ q)

(c)  (p ∧ q) ∨ (p → q)

(d) (p ∧ q) → (p → q)

Answer: (d)

15. Let  Then, the system of linear equations  has:

(a)  No solution

(b)  A unique solution

(c)  Exactly two solutions

(d) Infinitely many solutions

Answer: (a)

16. If for log10sin x + log­10 cos x =−1 and  then the value of n is equal to :

(a)  16

(b)  12

(c)  20

(d) 9

Answer: (c)

17. The locus of the midpoints of the chord of the circle, x2 + y2 = 25 which is tangent to the hyperbola,  is:

(a)  (x2 + y2)2 − 16x2 + 9y2 = 0

(b)  (x2 + y2)2 − 9x2 + 144y2 = 0

(c)  (x2 + y2)2 − 9x2 − 16y2 = 0

(d) (x2 + y2)2 − 9x2 + 16y2 = 0

Answer: (d)

18. Let [x] denote the greatest integer less than or equal to x. If for n ∈ N,  then  is equal to:

(a)  1

(b)  2n1

(c)  n

(d) 2

Answer: (a)

19. Let P be a plane lx + my + nz = 0 containing the line,  If plane P divides the line segment AB joining points A (–3, –6, 1) and B (2, 4, –3) in ratio k : 1 then the value of k is equal to :

(a)  1.5

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d) 3

Answer: (b)

20. The number of elements in the set {x ∈ R : (|x| − 3) |x + 4| = 6} is equal to

(a)  2

(b)  3

(c)  1

(d) 4

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. Let f: (0, 2) → R be defined as  Then,   is equal to_______

Answer: (1)

22. The total number of 3 × 3 matrices A having entries from the set {0, 1, 2, 3} such that the sum of all the diagonal entries of AAT is 9, is equal to ____

Answer: (766)

23. Let f:R→R be a continuous function such that f (x) + f (x + 1) = 2, for all x ∈ If  then the value of I1 + 2I2 is equal to______

Answer: (16)

24. Consider an arithmetic series and a geometric series having four initial terms from the set {11, 8, 21, 16, 26, 32, 4}. If the last terms of these series are the maximum possible four-digit numbers, then the number of common terms in these two series is equal to ____

Answer: (3)

25. If the normal to the curve  at a point (a, b) is parallel to the line x + 3y = – 5, a > 1, then the value of |a + 6b| is equal to ______

Answer: (406)

26. If  then a +  b + c is equal to_______

Answer: (d)

27. Let ABCD be a square of the side of unit length. Let a circle C1 centred at A with a unit radius is drawn. Another circle C2 which touches C1 and the lines AD and AB is tangent to it, is also drawn. Let a tangent line from point C to the circle C2 meet the side AB at E. If the length of EB is ɑ + √3β, where ɑ, β are integers, then ɑ + β is equal to ______

Answer: (a)

28. Let z and w be two complex numbers such that  and Re (w) has a minimum value. Then, the minimum value of n ∈ N, for which wn is real, is equal to ____

Answer: (4)

29. Let  and  and I3 be the identity matrix of order 3. If the determinant of the matrix (P1AP − I3)2 is ɑω2, then the value of ɑ is equal to _____

Answer: (36)

30. Let the curve y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation,  If the numerical value of area bounded by the curve y = y(x) and the x-axis is   then the value of y(1) is equal to_______

Answer: (2)

JEE Main Session 1 February 26th Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

1. A tuning fork A of unknown frequency produces 5 beats/sec with a fork of known frequency 340 Hz. When fork A is filed, the beat frequency decreases to 2 beats/s. What is the frequency of fork A?

(a)  342 Hz

(b)  335 Hz

(c)  338 Hz

(d) 345 Hz

Answer: (b)

2. The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is y = αx − βx2, where α and β are constants and x and y, are respectively the horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile from the point of projection. The angle of projection θ and the maximum height attained H are respectively given by

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

3. A cord is wound around the circumference of a wheel of radius r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and the moment of inertia about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the cord at the end. The weight falls from rest. After falling through a distance ‘h’, the square of the angular velocity of the wheel will be: (there is no slipping between the wheel and the cord)

(a)   

(b)  2gh

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (d)

4. Find the peak current and resonant frequency of the following circuit (as shown in the figure)

(a)  0.2 A and 100 Hz

(b)  2 A and 50 Hz

(c)  2 A and 100 Hz

(d) 0.2 A and 50 Hz

Answer: (d)

5. The incident ray, reflected ray and the outward drawn normal are denoted by the unit vectors respectively. Then choose the correct relation for these vectors.

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

6. A radioactive sample is undergoing α decay. At any time t1, its activity is A and at another time t2, the activity is A/5. What is the average lifetime for the sample?

(a)   

(b)    

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

7. A particle executes S.H.M., the graph of velocity as a function of displacement is:

(a)  a circle

(b)  a parabola

(c)  an ellipse

(d) a helix

Answer: (c)

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8. A scooter accelerates from rest for time t1 at constant rate α1 and then retards at constant rate α2 for time t2 and comes to rest. The correct value of t1/t2 will be:

(a)   

(b)   

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (b)

9. Draw the output Y in the given combination of gates.

Answer: (a)

10. An inclined plane making an angle of 300 with the horizontal is placed in a uniform horizontal electric field  as shown in the figure. A body of mass 1 kg and charge 5 mC is allowed to slide down from rest from a height of 1 m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.2, find the time taken by the body to reach the bottom.

[g = 9.8 m/s2,  ]

(a)  2.3 s

(b)  0.46 s

(c)  1.3 s

(d) 0.92 s

Answer: (c)

11. If ‘C’ and ‘V’ represent capacitance and voltage respectively then what are the dimensions of λ where C/V = λ?

(a)  [M2L4I3T7]

(b)  [M2L3I2T6]

(c)  [M1L3I2T7]

(d) [M3L4I3T7]

Answer: (a)

12. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: For a simple microscope, the angular size of the object equals the angular size of the image.

Reason R: Magnification is achieved as the small object can be kept much closer to the eye than 25 cm and hence it subtends at a large angle.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(b)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(c)  A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a)

13. The recoil speed of a hydrogen atom after it emits a photon in going from n = 5 state to n = 1 state will be:

(a)  4.17 m/s

(b)  4.34 m/s

(c)  219 m/s

(d) 3.25 m/s

Answer: (a)

14. Two masses A and B, each of mass M are fixed together by a massless spring. A force acts on mass B as shown in the figure. If mass A starts moving away from mass B with acceleration ‘a’, then the acceleration of mass B will be:

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (b)

15. A wire of 1Ω has a length of 1 m. It is stretched till its length increases by 25%. The percentage change in resistance to the nearest integer is:

(a)  25%

(b)  12.5%

(c)  76%

(d) 56%

Answer: (d)

16. Given below are two statements:

Statement (1):- A second’s pendulum has a time period of 1 second.

Statement (2):- It takes precisely one second to move between the two extreme positions.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(a)  Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(b)  Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(c)  Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II is true

Answer: (c)

17. An aeroplane with its wings, spread 10 m, is flying at a speed of 180 km/h in a horizontal direction. The total intensity of the magnetic field at that part is 2.5 × 10–4 Wb/m2 and the angle of dip is 60°. The emf induced between the tips of the plane wings will be:

(a)  88.37 mV

(b)  62.50 mV

(c)  54.125 mV

(d) 108.25 mV

Answer: (d)

18. The length of the metallic wire is l1 when the tension in it is T1. It is l2 when the tension is T2. The original length of the wire will be:

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

19. The internal energy (U), pressure (P) and volume (V) of an ideal gas are related as U = 3PV + 4. The gas is:

(a)  polyatomic only

(b)  monoatomic only

(c)  either monoatomic or diatomic

(d) diatomic only.

Answer: (a)

20. Given below are two statements:

Statement – I: An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux of the electric field through the sphere is zero but the electric field is not zero anywhere in the sphere.

Statement – II: If R is the radius of a solid metallic sphere and Q be the total charge on it. The electric field at any point on the spherical surface of radius r (< R) is zero but the electric flux passing through this closed spherical surface of radius r is not zero.

In the light of the above statements Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a)  Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(b)  Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(c)  Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. If the highest frequency modulating a carrier is 5 kHz, then the number of AM broadcast stations accommodated in a 90 kHz bandwidth are ___________.

Answer: (9)

22. 1 mole of a rigid diatomic gas performs a work of Q/5. when heat Q is supplied to it. The molar heat capacity of the gas during this transformation is xR/8. The value of x is _________.

Answer: (25)

23. A particle executes S.H.M with amplitude ‘a’ and time period T. The displacement of the particle from the mean position when its speed is half of the maximum speed is √xa/2. The value of x is ________

Answer: (3)

24. Two stream of photons, possessing energies equal to twice and ten times the work function of metal are incident on the metal surface successively. The value of the ratio of maximum velocities of the photoelectrons emitted in the two respective cases is x : 3. The value of x is ________.

Answer: (1)

25. A point source of light S, placed at a distance 60 cm in front of the centre of the plane mirror of width 50 cm, hangs vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror at a distance 1.2 m from it (see in the figure). The distance between the extreme points where he can see the image of the light source in the mirror is ________cm

Answer: (150)

26. The Zener diode has a VZ = 30 V. The current passing through the diode for the following circuit is ______ mA.

Answer: (9)

27. In the reported figure of the earth, the value of acceleration due to gravity is the same at point A and C but it is smaller than that of its value at point B (surface of the earth). The value of OA : AB will be x : 5. The value of x is ____________.

Answer: (4)

28. 27 similar drops of mercury are maintained at 10 V each. All these spherical drops combine into a single big drop. The potential energy of the bigger drop is _____ times that of a smaller drop.

Answer: (243)

29. The volume V of a given mass of monatomic gas changes with temperature T according to the relation V = KT2/3. The work done when temperature changes by 90 K will be xR. The value of x is ____. [R = universal gas constant]

Answer: (60)

30. Time period of a simple pendulum is T. The time taken to complete 5/8 oscillations starting from mean position is   The value of α is ___________.

Answer: (7)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. 2,4-DNP test can be used to identify

(a)  aldehyde

(b)  halogens

(c)  ether

(d) amine

Answer: (a)

2. Identify A in the following chemical reaction.

Answer: (c)

3. The nature of charge on resulting colloidal particles when FeCl3 is added to excess of hot water is:

(a)  positive

(b)  neutral

(c)  sometimes positive and sometimes negative

(d) negative

Answer: (a)

4. Match List-I with List-II

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

(a)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (c)

5. In  molecule, the hybridization of carbon 1, 2, 3 and 4 respectively are:

(a)  sp2, sp, sp2, sp3

(b)  sp2, sp2, sp2, sp3

(c)  sp2, sp3, sp2, sp3

(d) sp3, sp, sp3, sp3

Answer: (a)

6. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                             List-II

(a) Sucrose                                    (i) b-D-Galactose and b-D-Glucose

(b) Lactose                                    (ii) a-D-Glucose and b-D-Fructose

(c) Maltose                                    (iii) a-d-Glucose and a-D-Glucose

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii)

(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii)

Answer: (d)

7. Which pair of oxides is acidic in nature?

(a)  N2O, BaO

(b)  CaO, SiO2

(c)  B2O3, CaO

(d) B2O3, SiO2

Answer: (d)

8. Calgon is used for water treatment. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Calgon?

(a)  Calgon contains the 2nd most abundant element by weight in the earth’s crust

(b)  It is also known as Graham’s salt.

(c)  It is a polymeric compound and is water-soluble.

(d) It does not remove Ca2+ ion by precipitation.

Answer: (a)

9. Ceric ammonium nitrate and CHCl3/alc. KOH are used for the identification of functional groups present in _________and________ respectively.

(a)  alcohol, amine

(b)  amine, alcohol

(c)  alcohol, phenol

(d) amine, phenol

Answer: (a)

10. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In TlI3, isomorphous to CsI3, the metal is present in +1 oxidation

state.

Reason R: Tl metals has fourteen f electrons in its electronic configuration.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate Answer from the options given below:

(a)  Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(b)  A is not correct but R is correct

(c)  Both A and R are correct R is NOT the correct explanation of A

(d) A is correct but R is not correct

Answer: (c)

11. Thallium shows Tl+ state due to inert pair effect. The correct order of electron gain enthalpy is

(a)  S > Se > Te > O

(b)  O > S > Se > Te

(c)  S > O > Se > Te

(d) Te > Se > S > O

Answer: (a)

12. Identify A in the given chemical reaction.

Answer: (a)

13. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Siderite                         (i) Cu

(b) Calamine                      (ii) Ca

(c) Malachite                     (iii) Fe

(d) Cryolite                       (iv) Al

                                         (v) Zn

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(v), (d)-(iii)

(b)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(c)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)

Answer: (b)

14. Identify A in the given reaction.

Answer: (b)

15. Match List-I with List-II

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Sodium Carbonate       (i) Deacon

(b) Titanium                      (ii) Caster-Kellner

(c) Chlorine                       (iii) Van-Arkel

(d) Sodium hydroxide      (iv) Solvay

Choose the correct answer from the option given below

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(b)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(c)  (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Answer: (b)

16. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                 List-II

Molecule                           (Bond order)

(a) Ne2                               (i) 1

(b) N2                                           (ii) 2

(c) F2                                 (iii) 0

(d) O2                                           (iv) 3

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(b)  (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(c)  (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (a)

17. Which of the following forms of hydrogen emits low energy b- particles?

(a)  Proton H+

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

18. Choose the correct order of the basic nature of the below given amines.

(A) Phenyl methanamine

(B) N, N-Dimethylaniline

(C) N-Methyl aniline

(D) Benzenamine

(a)  D > C > B > A

(b)  D > B > C > A

(c)  A > C > B > D

(d) A > B > C > D

Answer: (d)

19. Considering the given reaction, the major product among the following is:

Answer: (c)

20. Seliwanoff test and Xanthoproteic test are used for the identification of __________ and ___________ respectively

(a)  ketoses, proteins

(b)  proteins, ketoses

(c)  aldoses, ketoses

(d) ketoses, aldoses

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. The NaNO3 weighed out to make 50 mL of an aqueous solution containing 70.0 mg Na+ per mL is ________g. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Given: Atomic weight in g mol–1. Na: 23; N: 14; O: 16.

Answer: (13)

22. The number of stereoisomers possible for [Co(ox)2(Br)(NH3)]2 is ____________. [ox = oxalate]

Answer: (3)

23. The average S–F bond energy in kJ mol–1 of SF6 is __________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Given : The values of standard enthalpy of formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are – 1100, 275 and 80 kJ mol–1 respectively.]

Answer: (309)

24. e.m.f of the following cell at 298 K in V is x ×102.

Zn|Zn2+ (0.1 M)||Ag+(0.01 M)| Ag

The value of x is _________. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (147)

25. A ball weighing 10g is moving with a velocity of 90ms1. If the uncertainty in its velocity is 5%, then the uncertainty in its position is ________×1033 (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Given: h = 6.63×1034 J s]

Answer: (1)

26. In a mildly alkaline medium, thiosulphate ion is oxidized by to “A”. The oxidation state of sulphur in “A” is ________.

Answer: (+6)

27. When 12.2 g of benzoic acid is dissolved in 100g of water, the freezing point of solution was found to be –0.93°C (Kf (H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol1). Then the number (n) of benzoic acid molecules associated (assuming 100% association) is_____________.

Answer: (2)

28. If the activation energy of a reaction is 80.9 kJ mol–1, the fraction of molecules at 700K, having enough energy to react to form products is e–x. The value of x is ______. (Rounded off to the nearest integer)

[Use R = 8.31 JK1 mol1]

Answer: (14)

29. The pH of ammonium phosphate solution, if pka of phosphoric acid and pkb of ammonium hydroxide are 5.23 and 4.75 respectively, is_____________.

Answer: (7)

30. The number of octahedral voids per lattice site in a lattice is __________.

(Rounded off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (1)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. Let L be a line obtained from the intersection of two planes x + 2y + z = 6 and y + 2z = 4. If point P (ɑ, β, γ) is the foot of the perpendicular from (3, 2, 1) on L, then the value of 21 (ɑ + β + γ) equals:

(a)  142

(b)  68

(c)  136

(d) 102

Answer: (d)

2. The sum of the series is equal to:

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (c)

3. Let f(x) be a differentiable function at x = a with f’ (a) = 2 and f (a) = 4. Then  equals:

(a)  2a + 4

(b)  2a – 4

(c)  4 – 2a

(d) a + 4

Answer: (c)

4. Let A (1, 4) and B (1, −5) be two points. Let P be a point on the circle (x − 1)2 + (y − 1)2 = 1 such that (PA)2 + (PB)2 have maximum value, then the points P, A and B lie on:

(a)  a parabola

(b)  a straight line

(c)  a hyperbola

(d) an ellipse

Answer: (b)

5. If the locus of the mid-point of the line segment from the point (3, 2) to a point on the circle, x2 + y2 = 1 is a circle of the radius r, then r is equal to :

(a)  14

(b)  12

(c)  1

(d) 13

Answer: (b)

6. Let the slope of the tangent line to a curve at any point P (x, y) be given by  If the curve intersects the line x + 2y = 4 at x = −2, then the value of y, for which the point (3, y) lies on the curve, is:

(a)  −18/11

(b)  −18/19

(c)  −4/3

(d) 18/35

Answer: (b)

7. Let A1 be the area of the region bounded by the curves y = sinx, y = cos x and y-axis in the first quadrant. Also, let A2 be the area of the region bounded by the curves y = sinx, y = cosx, the x-axis and x = π/2 in the first quadrant. Then,

(a)  A1 = A2 and A1 + A2 = √2

(b)  A1 : A2 = 1 : 2 and A1 + A2 = 1

(c)  2A1 = A2 and A1 + A2 = 1 + √2

(d) A1 : A2 = 1 : √2 and A1 + A2 = 1

Answer: (d)

8. If 0 < a, b < 1, and tan1 a + tan1 b = π/4, then the value of  is :

(a)  loge 2

(b)  loge (e/2)

(c)  e

(d) e2 – 1

Answer: (1)

9. Let F1 (A, B, C) = (A ∧ ~B) ∨ [~C ∧ (A ∨ B)] ∨ ~A and F2 (A, B) = (A ∨ B) ∨ (B → ~A) be two logical expressions. Then:

(a)  F1 is not a tautology but F2 is a tautology

(b)  F1 is a tautology but F2 is not a tautology

(c)  F1 and F2 both area tautologies

(d) Both F1 and F2 are not tautologies

Answer: (a)

10. Consider the following system of equations:

x + 2y − 3z = a

2x + 6y − 11 z = b

x − 2y + 7z = c,

Where a, b and c are real constants. Then the system of equations:

(a)  has a unique solution when 5a = 2b + c

(b)  has an infinite number of solutions when 5a = 2b + c

(c)  has no solution for all a, b and c

(d) has a unique solution for all a, b and c

Answer: (b)

11. A seven-digit number is formed using the digit 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5. The probability, that number so formed is divisible by 2, is:

(a)  6/7

(b)  4/7

(c)  3/7

(d) 1/7

Answer: (c)

12. If vectors are collinear, then a possible unit vector parallel to the vector  is:

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (c)

13. For x > 0, if  is equal to:

(a)  1/2

(b)  −1

(c)  1

(d) 0

Answer: (a)

14. Let f : R → R be defined as  If f(x) is continuous on R, then a + b equals:

(a)  3

(b)  −1

(c)  −3

(d) 1

Answer: (b)

15. Let A = {1, 2, 3 ……. , 10} and f : A → A be defined as Then the number of possible functions g : A → A such that gof = f is:

(a)  105

(b)  10C5

(c)  55

(d) 5!

Answer: (a)

16. A natural number has prime factorization given by n = 2x3y5z, where y and z are such that y + z = 5 and y1 + z1 = 5/6, y > z. Then the number of odd divisors of n, including 1, is:

(a)  11

(b)  6x

(c)  12

(d) 6

Answer: (3)

17. Let f(x) = sin1 x and  If  then the domain of the function fog is:

(a)  (−∞, −2] ⋃ [−4/3, ∞]

(b)  (−∞,−1] ⋃ [2, ∞)

(c)  (−∞, −2] ⋃ [−1, ∞]

(d) (−∞, 2] ⋃ [−3/2, ∞)

Answer: (a)

18. If the mirror image of the point (1, 3, 5) with respect to the plane 4x – 5y + 2z = 8 is (ɑ, β, γ), then 5 (ɑ + β + γ) equals:

(a)  47

(b)  39

(c)  43

(d) 41

Answer: (a)

19. Let  be a differentiable function for all x ∈ then f(x) equals.

(a)   

(b)   

(c)    

(d)  

Answer: (a)

20. The triangle of the maximum area that can be inscribed in a given circle of radius ‘r’ is:

(a)  A right-angle triangle having two of its sides of length 2r and r.

(b)  An equilateral triangle of height 2r/3.

(c)  isosceles triangle with base equal to 2r.

(d) An equilateral triangle having each of its side of length √3r.

Answer: (d)

Section-B

21. The total number of 4-digit numbers whose greatest common divisor with 18 is 3, is _______

Answer: (1000)

22. Let ɑ and β be two real numbers such that ɑ + β = 1 and ɑ β = − Let Pn = (ɑ)n + (β)n, Pn – 1 = 11 and Pn+1 = 29 for some integer n ≥ 1. Then, the value of Pn2 is__________.

Answer: (324)

23. Let X1, X2, …. X18 be eighteen observation such that  where ɑ and β are distinct real numbers. If the standard deviation of these observations is 1, then the value of |ɑ − β| is ___________.

Answer: (3)

24. In  for m, n ≥ 1 and  then α equals ______

Answer: (1)

25. Let L be a common tangent line to the curves 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 and (2x)2 + (2y)2 = 31. Then the square of the slope of the line L is __________.

Answer: (3)

26. If the matrix  satisfies the equation  for some real numbers α and β, then β – α is equal to_______.

Answer: (4)

27. If the arithmetic mean and the geometric mean of the pth and qth terms of the sequence −16, 8, −4, 2, … satisfy the equation 4x2 − 9x + 5 = 0, then p + q is equal to ______________.

Answer: (10)

28. Let the normals at all the points on a given curve pass through a fixed point (a, b). If the curve passes through (3, −3) and (4, −2 √2), and given that a − 2√2b = 3, then (a2 + b2 + ab) is equal to______________.

Answer: (9)

29. Let z be those complex number which satisfies |z + 5| ≤ 4 and  If the maximum value of |z + 1|2 is ɑ + β√2, then the value of ɑ + β is ________.

Answer: (48)

30. Let a be an integer such that all the real roots of the polynomial 2x5 + 5x4 + 10x3 + 10x2 + 10x + 10 lie in the interval (a, a + 1). Then, |a| is equal to _______.

Answer: (2)

JEE Main Session 1 February 26th Shift 1 Question Paper with Answer Key

Physics

Section-A

1. If λ1 and λ2 are the wavelengths of the third member of Lyman and the first member of the Paschen series respectively, then the value of λ1 : λ2 is:

(a)  1 : 3

(b)  1 : 9

(c)  7 : 135

(d) 7 : 108

Answer: (c)

2. The temperature θ at the junction of two insulating sheets, having thermal resistances R1 and R2 as well as the bottom and top temperatures θ1 and θ2 (as shown in the figure) is given by:

(a)   

(b)    

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (a)

3. In Young’s double-slit experiment two slits are separated by 2 mm and the screen is placed one meter away. When light of wavelength 500 nm is used, the fringe separation will be:

(a)  0.75 mm

(b)  0.50 mm

(c)  1 mm

(d) 0.25 mm

Answer: (d)

4. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: An electron microscope can achieve better resolving power than an optical microscope.

Reason R: The de Broglie’s wavelength of the electrons emitted from an electron gun is much less than the wavelength of visible light.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  A is true but R is false.

(b)  Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(c)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (c)

5. Four identical solid spheres each of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘a’ are placed with their centres on the four corners of a square of side ‘b’. The moment of inertia of the system about one side of square where the axis of rotation is parallel to the plane of the square is:

(a)    

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (d)

6. The normal density of a material is ρ and its bulk modulus of elasticity is K. The magnitude of increase in density of material when a pressure P is applied uniformly on all sides, will be:

(a)  ρK/P

(b)  K/ρP

(c)  PK/ρ

(d) ρP/K

Answer: (d)

7. LED is constructed from Ga-As-P semiconducting material. The energy gap of this LED is 1.9 eV. Calculate the wavelength of light emitted and its colour.

[h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js and c = 3 × 108 ms–1]

(a)  654 nm and red colour

(b)  1046 nm and blue colour

(c)  1046 nm and red colour

(d) 654 nm and orange colour

Answer: (d)

8. Five equal resistances are connected in a network as shown in the figure. The net resistance between points A and B is:

(a)  3R/2

(b)  R/2

(c)  R

(d) 2R

Answer: (c)

9. Find the gravitational force of attraction between the ring and sphere as shown in the diagram, where the plane of the ring is perpendicular to the line joining the centres. If √8R is the distance between the centres of a ring (of mass ‘m’) and a sphere (of mass ‘M’) where both have equal radius ‘R’.

(a)   

(b)   

(c)   

(d)  

Answer: (b)

10. Assume that a tunnel is dug along a chord of the earth, at a perpendicular distance (R/2) from the earth’s centre, where ‘R’ is the radius of the Earth. The wall of the tunnel is frictionless. If a particle is released in this tunnel, it will execute a simple harmonic motion with a time period:

(a)    

(b)    

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (a)

11. Find the electric field E at point P (as shown in the figure) on the perpendicular bisector of a uniformly charged thin wire of length L carrying a charge Q. The distance of the point P from the centre of the rod is 

(a)   

(b)    

(c)  

(d)  

Answer: (a)

12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Body ‘P’ having mass M moving with speed ‘u’ has head-on collision elastically with another body ‘Q’ having mass ‘m’ initially at rest. If m<<M, body ‘Q’ will have a maximum speed equal to ‘2u’ after collision.

Reason R: During elastic collision, the momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  A is correct but R is not correct.

(b)  Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(c)  A is not correct but R is correct.

(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Answer: (d)

13. A short straight object of height 100 cm lies before the central axis of a spherical mirror whose focal length has absolute value |f| = 40 cm. The image of the object produced by the mirror is of height 25 cm and has the same orientation as the object. One may conclude from the information:

(a)  Image is real, same side of concave mirror.

(b)  Image is virtual, opposite side of convex mirror.

(c)  Image is virtual, opposite side of concave mirror.

(d) Image is real, same side of convex mirror.

Answer: (b)

14. A particle is moving with uniform speed along the circumference of a circle of radius R under the action of a central fictitious force F which is inversely proportional to R3. Its time period of revolution will be given by:

(a)  T ∝ R5/2

(b)  T ∝ R2

(c)  T ∝R4/3

(d) T ∝ R3/2

Answer: (b)

15. A large number of water drops, each of radius r, combine to have a drop of radius R. If the surface tension is T and mechanical equivalent of heat is J, the rise in heat energy per unit volume will be:

(a)  2T/rJ

(b)  3T/rJ

(c)  

(d)  

Answer: (d)

16. A planet revolving in elliptical orbit has:

(A) a constant velocity of revolution.

(B) has the least velocity when it is nearest to the sun.

(C) its areal velocity is directly proportional to its velocity.

(D) areal velocity is inversely proportional to its velocity.

(E) to follow a trajectory such that the areal velocity is constant.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(a)  A only

(b)  E only

(c)  D only

(d) C only

Answer: (a)

17. An alternating current is given by the equation i = i1 sinωt + i2 cosωt. The rms current will be:

(a)    

(b)    

(c)   

(d)   

Answer: (b)

18. Consider the combination of 2 capacitors C1 and C2, with C2 > C1, when connected in parallel, the equivalent capacitance is 15/4 times the equivalent capacitance of the same connected in series. Calculate the ratio of capacitors, C2/C1.

(a)  15/11

(b)  29/15

(c)  15/4

(d) 111/80

Answer: (*)

19. If two similar springs each of spring constant K1 are joined in series, the new spring constant and time period would be changed by a factor:

(a)  1/2, √2

(b)  1/4, 2√2

(c)  1/2, 2√2

(d) 1/4, √2

Answer: (a)

20. In a typical combustion engine the work done by a gas molecule is given by  where x is the displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature. If α and β are constants, dimensions of α will be:

(a)  [M0 L T0]

(b)  [M2 L T–2]

(c)  [M L T–2]

(d) [M L T–1]

Answer: (a)

Section-B

21. The mass per unit length of a uniform wire is 0.135 g/cm. A transverse wave of the form y = –0.21sin(x + 30t) is produced in it, where x is in meter and t is in second. Then, the expected value of tension in the wire is x × 10–2 Value of x is __________. (Round-off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (1215)

22. A radiation is emitted by a 1000 W bulb, and it generates an electric field and magnetic field at P, placed at a distance of 2 m. The efficiency of the bulb is 1.25%. The value of the peak electric field at P is x × 10–1 V/m. Value of x is __________. (Rounded-off to the nearest integer)

Answer: (137)

23. The circuit contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 Ω and with infinite reverse resistance. If the battery voltage is 6 V, the current through the 120 Ω resistance is _________ mA.

Answer: (20)

24. As shown in the figure, a block of mass √3 kg is kept on a horizontal rough surface of coefficient of friction 1/3√3. The critical force to be applied on the vertical surface as shown at an angle 600 with horizontal such that it does not move will be 3x. The value of x will be _______ (upto two decimal places).

[g = 10 m/s2 ]

Answer: (3.33)

25. In a series LCR resonant circuit, the quality factor is measured as 100. If the inductance is increased by two fold and resistance is decreased by two fold, then the quality factor after this change will be __________. (up to two decimal places).

Answer: (282.84)

26. In an electrical circuit, a battery is connected to pass 20 C of charge through it in a certain given time. The potential difference between two plates of the battery is maintained at 15 V. The work done by the battery is __________ J.

Answer: (300 J)

27. A container is divided into two chambers by a partition. The volume of the first chamber is 4.5 litre and the second chamber is 5.5 litre. The first chamber contains 3.0 mole of gas at pressure 2.0 atm and the second chamber contain 4.0 mole of identical gas at pressure 3.0 atm. After the partition is removed and the mixture attains equilibrium, then, the common equilibrium pressure existing in the mixture is x × 10–1 Value of x is _______.

Answer: (26)

28. A boy pushes a box of mass 2 kg with a force  on a frictionless surface. If the box was initially at rest, then __________m is displacement along the x-axis after 10 s.

Answer: (500)

29. The maximum and minimum amplitude of an amplitude-modulated wave is 16 V and 8 V respectively. The modulation index for this amplitude modulated wave is x × 10–2. The value of x is ________.

Answer: (33)

30. A person standing on a spring balance inside a stationary lift measures 60 kg. The weight of that person if the lift descends with uniform downward acceleration of 1.8 m/s2 will be ___________ N. [g =10m/s2]

Answer: (492)

Chemistry

Section-A

1. B reacts with Hydroxyl amine but does not give Tollens test. Identify A and B.

(a)  1,1-Dichlorobutane and 2-Butanone

(b)  2,2- Dichlorobutane and Butan-2-one

(c)  2,2- Dichlorobutane and Butanal

(d) 1,1- Dichlorobutane and Butanal

Answer: (b)

2. Match List-I with List-II.

List –I                               List-II

 (Ore)                                (Element Present)

(a) Kernite                         (i) Tin

(b) Cassiterite                    (ii) Boron

(c) Calamine                      (iii) Fluorine

(d) Cryolite                       (iv) Zinc

(a)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)

(b)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (iii)

(c)  (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

(d) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iv)

Answer: (b)

3. For the given reaction:

Answer: (d)

4. The orbital having two radial as well as two angular nodes is

(a)  5d

(b)  4f

(c)  3p

(d) 4d

Answer: (a)

5. Given below are two statement:

Statement I: o-Nitrophenol is steam volatile due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding

Statement II: o-Nitrophenol has high melting point due to hydrogen bonding.

(a)  Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(b)  Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(c)  Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Answer: (d)

6. An amine on reaction with benzenesulfonyl chloride produces a compound insoluble in alkaline solution. This amine can be prepared by ammonolysis of ethyl chloride. The correct structure of amine is:

(a)  CH3CH2NH−CH2CH3

(b)  CH3CH2CH2NHCH3

(c) 

(d) CH3CH2NH2

Answer: (a)

7. For the given reaction: What is A?

Answer: (c)

8. Statement about heavy water are given below

(A) Heavy water is used in exchange reactions for the study of reaction mechanisms

(B) Heavy water is prepared by exhaustive electrolysis of water

(C) Heavy water has higher boiling point than ordinary water

(D) Viscosity of H2O is greater than D2O

(a)  A and B only

(b)  A, B and C only

(c)  A and D only

(d) A and C only

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following is ‘a’ FALSE statement?

(a)  Carius tube used in the estimation of sulphur in an organic compound (i) and (iv) are isotopes

(b)  Kjeldahl’s method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound (ii) and (iii) are isotopes

(c)  Phosphoric acid produced on oxidation of phosphorus present in an organic compound is precipitated as Mg2P2O7 by adding magnesia mixture

(d) Carius method is used for the estimation of nitrogen in an organic compound

Answer: (d)

10. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A mixture of chloroform and aniline can be separated by simple distillation

Statement II: When separating aniline from a mixture of aniline and water by steam distillation aniline boils below its boiling point

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  Statement I is true, statement II is false

(b)  Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(c)  Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

Answer: (b)

11. Which of the following vitamin is helpful in delaying the blood clotting?

(a)  Vitamin B

(b)  Vitamin C

(c)  Vitamin K

(d) Vitamin E

Answer: (c)

12. The presence of ozone in troposphere:

(a)  Generates photochemical smog

(b)  Protects us from the UV radiation

(c)  Protects us from the X-ray radiation

(d) Protects us from greenhouse effect

Answer: (b)

13. On treating a compound with warm dil. H2SO4, gas X is evolved which turns K2Cr2O7 paper acidified with dil. H2SO4 to a green compound Y. X and Y respectively are:

(a)  X = SO2, Y = Cr2 (SO4)3

(b)  X = SO2, Y = Cr2O3

(c)  X = SO3, Y = Cr2O3

(d) X = SO3, Y = Cr2 (SO4)3

Answer: (a)

14. Find A, B and C in the following reaction:

NH3 + A + CO2 → (NH4)2CO3

(NH4)2CO3 + H2O + B → NH4HCO3

NH4HCO3 + NaCl → NH4Cl + C

(a)  A – H2O; B – CO2; C – NaHCO3

(b)  A – H2O; B – O2; C – Na2CO3

(c)  A – O2; B – CO2; C – Na2CO3

(d) A – H2O; B – O2; C – NaHCO3

Answer: (a)

15. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Dipole-dipole interactions are the only non-covalent interactions, resulting in hydrogen bond formation

Reason R: Fluorine is the most electronegative element and hydrogen bonds in HF are symmetrical

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a)  A is false but R is true

(b)  Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(c)  A is true but R is false

(d) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

Answer: (c)

16. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I                                                         List-II

Electronic configuration of elements        ∆iH in kJ mol1

(a) 1s22s2                                                   (i) 801

(b) 1s22s22p4                                                      (ii) 899

(c) 1s22s22p3                                              (iii) 1314

(d) 1s22s22p1                                              (iv) 1402

(a)  (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

(b)  (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii)

(c)  (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)

(d) (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)

Answer: (a)

17. Which one of the following lanthanoids does not form MO2?

[M is lanthanoid metal]

(a)  Nd

(b)  Yb

(c)  Dy

(d) Pr

Answer: (b)

18. Identify the major products A and B respectively in the following reaction of phenol:

Answer: (b)

19. The structure of Neoprene is:

Answer: (b)

20. Compound A used as a strong oxidizing agent is amphoteric in nature. It is the part of lead storage batteries. Compound A is:

(a)  Pb3O4

(b)  PbO2

(c)  PbSO4

(d) PbO

Answer: (b)

Section-B

21. 224 mL of SO2(g) at 298 K and 1 atm is passed through 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH solution. The non-volatile solute produced is dissolved in 36 g of water. The lowering of vapour pressure of solution (assuming the solution is dilute) (P(H2O)= 24 mm of Hg) is 10–2 x mm of Hg, the value of x is _____

Answer: (0.18)

22. Consider the following reaction

MnO4 + 8H+ + 5e → Mn+2 + 4H2O, E° = 1.51 V.

The quantity of electricity required in Faraday to reduce five moles of MnO4 is_______.

Answer: (25)

23. 12 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of platinum metal. The value of oxygen adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent at 1 atm and 300 K in L is _______.

[R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1]

Answer: (2)

24. The number of significant figures in 50000.020 × 10–3 is _______.

Answer: (7)

25. Number of bridging CO ligands in [Mn2(CO)10] is _____.

Answer: (0)

26. For a chemical reaction A +B ⇌ C + D (ΔrHψ = 80 kJ mol–1) the entropy change ΔrSψ depends on the temperature T (in K) as ΔrSψ = 2T (J K–1 mol–1). Minimum temperature at which it will become spontaneous is ________K.

Answer: (200)

27. An exothermic reaction X → Y has an activation energy 30 kJ mol–1. If energy change ΔE during the reaction is –20 kJ, then the activation energy for the reverse reaction in kJ is ______.

Answer: (50)

28. A certain gas obeys P(Vm – b) = RT. The value of  The value of x is ______.

Answer: (1)

29. A homogeneous ideal gaseous reaction AB2(g) ⇌ A(g) + 2B(g) is carried out in a 25 liter flask at 27° The initial amount of AB2 was 1 mole and the equilibrium pressure was 1.9 atm. The value of Kp is x × 10–2. The value of x is ______. [R = 0.08206 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1]

Answer: (74)

30. Dichromate ion is treated with base, the oxidation number of Cr in the product formed is:

Answer: (6)

Mathematics

Section-A

1. The number of seven-digit integers with the sum of the digits equal to 10 and formed by using the digits 1, 2 and 3 only is:

(a)  77

(b)  42

(c)  35

(d) 82

Answer: (a)

2. The maximum value of the term independent of ‘t’ in the expansion of  where x ∈ (0, 1) is :

(a)   

(b)    

(c)    

(d)   

Answer: (d)

3. The value of  where [x] is the greatest integer ≤ x, is :

(a)  10(e – 1)

(b)  100e

(c)  100(1 – e)

(d) 100(1 + e)

Answer: (a)

4. The rate of growth of bacteria in a culture is proportional to the number of bacteria present and the bacteria count is 1000 at initial time t = 0. The number of bacteria has increased by 20% in 2 hours. If the population of bacteria is 2000 after  then  is equal to :

(a)  4

(b)  2

(c)  16

(d) 8

Answer: (a)

5. If  are perpendicular, then  is equal to:

(a)   

(b)   

(c) 

(d)  

Answer: (c)

6. In an increasing geometric series, the sum of the second and the sixth term is 25/2 and the product of the third and fifth term is 25. Then, the sum of 4th, 6th and 8th terms is equal to :

(a)  35

(b)  30

(c)  26

(d) 32

Answer: (a)

7. Consider the three planes

P1 : 3x + 15y + 21z = 9,

P2 : x – 3y – z = 5, and

P3 : 2x + 10 y + 14z = 5

Then, which one of the following is true ?

(a)  P1 and P3 are parallel.

(b)  P2 and P3 are parallel.

(c)  P1 and P2 are parallel.

(d) P1, P2 and P3 all are parallel.

Answer: (a)

8. The sum of the infinite series  is equal to :

(a)  9/4

(b)  15/4

(c)  13/4

(d) 11/4

Answer: (c)

9. The value of  is:

(a)  −2

(b)  (a + 1) (a + 2) (a + 3)

(c)  0

(d) (a + 2) (a + 3) (a + 4)

Answer: (1)

10. If  0 < x < 1, then the value of  is :

(a)    

(b)   

(c)  1 – y2

(d) 

Answer: (b)

11. Let A be a symmetric matrix of order 2 with integer entries. If the sum of the diagonal elements of A2 is 1, then the possible number of such matrices is :

(a)  6

(b)  1

(c)  4

(d) 12

Answer: (c)

12. The intersection of three lines x – y = 0 and x + 2y = 3 and 2x + y = 6 is a:

(a)  Equilateral triangle

(b)  Right angled triangle

(c)  Isosceles triangle

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

13. The maximum slope of the curve  occurs at the point:

(a)  (2, 9)

(b)  (2, 2)

(c)  (3, 21/2)

(d) (0, 0)

Answer: (b)

14. Let f be any function defined on R and let it satisfy the condition:

|f (x) − f (y)| ≤ |(x − y)2|, ∀ x, y ∈ R. If f (0) = 1, then :

(a)  f(x) < 0, ∀ x ∈ R

(b)  f(x) can take any value in R

(c)  f(x) = 0, ∀ x ∈ R

(d) f(x) > 0, ∀ x ∈ R

Answer: (d)

15. The value of  is:

(a)  2π

(b)  4π

(c)  π/2

(d) π/4

Answer: (d)

16. The value of  is:

(a)  3/4

(b)  2/√3

(c)  4/3

(d) 2/3

Answer: (c)

17. A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting 7 heads is equal to the probability of getting 9 heads, then the probability of getting 2 heads is:

(a)  15/212

(b)  15/213

(c)  15/214

(d) 15/28

Answer: (b)

18. If (1, 5, 35), (7, 5, 5), (1, λ, 7) and (2 λ, 1, 2) are coplanar, then the sum of all possible values of λ is:

(a)  −44/5

(b)  39/5

(c)  −39/5

(d) 44/5

Answer: (d)

19. Let R = {P, Q) |P and Q are at the same distance from the origin} be a relation, then the equivalence class of (1, –1) is the set :

(a)  S = {(x, y)|x2 + y2 = 1}

(b)  S = {(x, y)|x2 + y2 = 4}

(c)  S = {(x, y)|x2 + y2 = √2}

(d) S = {(x, y)|x2 + y2 = 2}

Answer: (d)

20. In the circle given below, let OA = 1 unit, OB = 13 unit and PQ perpendicular to OB. Then, the area of the triangle PQB (in square units) is :

(a)  26√3

(b)  24√2

(c)  24√3

(d) 26√2

Answer: (b)

Section-B

21. The area bounded by the lines y = |x − 1| − 2 is ______.

Answer: (4)

22. The number of integral values of ‘k’ for which the equation 3 sin x + 4 cos x = k + 1 has a solution, k ∈ R is ______.

Answer: (11)

23. Let m, n ∈ N and gcd (2, n) = 1. If  then n + m is equal to ______.

Answer: (45)

24. If y = y(x) is the solution of the equation  y(0) = 0; then  is equal to ________.

Answer: (1)

25. The number of solutions of the equation log4 (x − 1) = log2 (x −3) is ______.

Answer: (1)

26. If √3 (cos2 x) = (√3 − 1) cos x + 1 the number of solutions of the given equation when x ∈ [0, π/2] is _______.

Answer: (1)

27. Let (λ, 2, 1) be a point on the plane which passes through the point (4, –2, 2). If the plane is perpendicular to the line joining the points (–2, –21, 29) and (–1, –16, 23), then  is equal to______.

Answer: (8)

28. The difference between degree and order of a differential equation that represents the family of curves given by  is _______.

Answer: (2)

29. The sum of 162th power of the roots of the equation x3 − 2x2 + 2x − 1 = 0 is _________.

Answer: (3)

30. The value of the integral is ______.

Answer: (2)

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