JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2017 With Answer Key

JIPMER Medical Entrance Examination-2017


1. Two 20 g flatworms climb over a very thin wall, 10 cm high. One of the worm is 20 cm long, the other is wider and only 10 cm long. Which of the following statement is correct regarding them?

(a)  20 cm worm has done more work against gravity

(b)  10 cm worm has done more work against gravity

(c)  Both worms have done equal work against gravity

(d)  Ratio of work done by both the worms is 4 : 5

Answer: (b)

2. A rocket is intended to leave the Earth’s gravitational field. The fuel in tis main engine is a little less than the amount that is necessary and an auxiliary engine, (only capable of operating for a short time) has to be used as well. When is it best to switch on the auxiliary engine?

(a)  at take-off

(b)  when the rocket has nearly stopped with respect to the Earth.

(c)  It doesn’t matter.

(d)  Can’t say

Answer: (a)

3. The turns of a solenoid, designed to provide a given magnetic flux density along its axis, are wound to fill the space between two concentric cylinders of fixed radii. How should the diameter d of the wire used be chosen so as to minimize the heat dissipated in the windings?

(a)  Wire should be multiple of 5d

(b)  Wire should be multiple of d/3

(c)  Wire is independent of d

(d)  Can’t say

Answer: (c)

4. A cylindrical tube of uniform cross-sectional area A is fitted with two air tight frictionless pistons. The pistons are connected to each other by a metallic wire. Initially, the pressure of the gas is p0 and temperature is {0, atmospheric pressure is also p0. Now, the temperature of the gas is increased to 2I0, the tension of wire will be

(a)  2ρ0A

(b)  ρ0A

(c)  ρ0A/2

(d)  4ρ0A

Answer: (b)

5. A particle of mass m is executing oscillation about the origin on X-axis. Its potential energy is V(x) = K|x|3. Where K is a positive constant. If the amplitude of oscillation is a, then its time period T is proportional to

(a)  1/√a

(b)  a

(c)  √a

(d)  a3/2

Answer: (a)

6. A body is projected vertically upwards. The times corresponding to height h while ascending and while descending are t­1 and t2, respectively.

Then, the velocity of projection will be (take g as acceleration due to gravity)





Answer: (b)

7. A long straight wire is carrying current I in +z direction. The x – y plane contains a closed circular loop carrying current I2 and not encircling the straight wire. The force on the loop will be

(a)  μ0l1l0/2π

(b)  μ0l1l0/4π

(c)  zero

(d)  depends on the distance of the centre of the loop from the wire

Answer: (d)

8. When the radioactive isotope 88Ra226 decays in a series by emission of three alpha (α) and a beta (β) particle, the isotope X which remains undecay is

(a)  83X214

(b)  84X218

(c)  84X220

(d)  87X223

Answer: (a)

9. A solid cylinder is attached to a horizontal massless spring as shown in figure. If the cylinder rolls without slipping, the time period of oscillation of the cylinder is





Answer: (c)

10. N lamps each of resistance r, are fed by a machine of resistance R. If light emitted by any lamp is proportional to the square of the heat produced, prove that the most efficient way of arranging them is to place them in parallel arcs, each containing n lamps, where n is the integer nearest to



(c)  (NRr)3/2

(d)  (NRr)1/2

Answer: (b)

11. Radioactive decay will occur as follows

If a certain mass of radon (Rn = 220) is allowed to decay in a certain container; then after 5 minutes the element with the greater mass will be

(a)  radon

(b)  polonium

(c)  lead

(d)  bismuth

Answer: (c)

12. A stream of a liquid of density ρ flowing horizontally with speed v rushes out of a tube of radius r and hits a vertical wall nearly normally. Assuming that the liquid does not rebound from the wall, the force exerted on the wall by the impact of the liquid is given by

(a)  πrρv

(b)  πrρv2

(c)  πr2ρv

(d)  πr2ρv2

Answer: (d)

13. The x and y coordinates of a particle moving in a plane are given by x(t) = a cos (pt) and y(t) = b sin (pt) where a, b (<a) and pare positive constants of appropriate dimensions and t is time. Then, which of the following is not true?

(a)  The path  of the particle is an ellipse.

(b)  Velocity and acceleration of the particle are perpendicular to each other at  t = π/2ρ

(c)  Acceleration of the particle is always directed towards a fixed point.

(d)  Distance travelled by the particle in time interval between t = 0 and t = π/2P is a

Answer: (d)

14. White light is used to illuminate two slits in Young’s double slit experiment. The separation between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d (>>b) from the slits. At a point on the screen directly in front of one of the slits, which wavelengths are missing?





Answer: (c)

15. A skier starts from rest at point A and slides down the hill without turning or breaking. The friction coefficient is μ. When he stops at point B, his horizontal displacement is S. What is the height difference between points A and B?

(The velocity of the skier is small so that the additional pressure on the snow due to the curvature can be neglected. Neglect also the friction of air and the dependence of μ on the velocity of the skier.)

(a)  h = μS

(b)  h = μ/S

(c)  h = 2μS

(d)  h = μS2

Answer: (a)

16. A bicycle wheel rolls without slipping on a horizontal floor. Which one of the following is true about the motion of points on the rim of the wheel, relative to the axis at the wheel’s centre?

(a)  Points near the top move faster than points near the bottom

(b)  Points near the  bottom move faster than points near the top

(c)  All points on the rim move with the same speed

(d)  All points have the velocity vectors that are pointing in the radial direction towards the centre of the wheel

Answer: (a)

17. The planets with radii R1 and R2 have densities ρ1, ρ2 Their atmospheric pressures are p1 and p2 respectively. Therefore, the ratio of masses of their atmosphere, neglecting variation of g within the limits of atmosphere is

(a)  ρ1R2p1/ ρ2R1p2

(b)  p1R2ρ2/pP2R1ρ1

(c)  p1R1ρ1/p2R2ρ2

(d)  p1R1ρ2/p2R2ρ1

Answer: (d)

18. A thin symmetrical double convex lens of refractive index μ2 = 1.5 is placed between a medium of refractive index μ1 = 1.4 to the left and another medium of refractive index μ3 = 1.6 to the right. Then, the system behaves as

(a)  a convex lens

(b)  a concave lens

(c)  a glass plate

(d)  a convexo concave lens

Answer: (c)

19. A wide hose pipe is held horizontally by a fireman. It delivers water through a nozzle at one litre per second. On increasing the pressure, this increases to two litres per second. The fireman has now to

(a)  push forward twice as hard

(b)  push forward four times as hard

(c)  push backward four times as hard

(d)  push backward twice as hard.

Answer: (b)

20. The wavelength λ of a photon and the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron have the same value. Find the ratio of energy of photon to the kinetic energy of electron in terms of mass m, speed of light c and planck constant.





Answer: (d)

21. A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total charge of 1.11 × 1010 C distributed non-uniformly on its circumference producing on its circumference on electric field E, everywhere in space.

The value of line integral   (l = 0 being centre of ring) in volts is

(a)  +2

(b)  −1

(c)  −2

(d)  Zero

Answer: (a)

22. The upper half of an inclined p lane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half rough. A block starting from rest at the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction between the block and the lower half of the plane is given  by

(a)  μ = 2 tanθ

(b)  μ = tanθ

(c)  μ = 2 /(tanθ)

(d)  μ = 1/ tanθ

Answer: (a)

23. Two masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected by a massless spring as shown in figure. A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown is figure the 10 kg mass has acceleration of 12 m/s2. The value of acceleration of 20 kg mass is

(a)  4 m/s2

(b)  10 m/s2

(c)  20 m/s2

(d)  30 m/s2

Answer: (a)

24. A cylinder rolls up an inclined plane, reaches some height and then rolls down (without slipping throughout these motions). The directions of the frictional force acting on the cylinder are

(a)  up the incline while ascending and down the incline while descending.

(b)  up the inline while ascending as well as descending.

(c)  down the incline while ascending and up the incline while descending.

(d)  down the incline while ascending as well as descending.

Answer: (b)

25. A liquid is allowed into a tube of truncated cone shape. Identify the correct statement from the following.

(a)  The speed is high at the wider end and low at the narrow end.

(b)  The speed is low at the wider end and high at the narrow end.

(c)  The speed is same at both ends in an streamline flow.

(d)  The liquid flows with uniform velocity in the tube.

Answer: (b)

26. Two soap bubble coalesce. It is noticed that, whilst joined together, the radii of the two bubbles are a and b where a > b. Then the radius of curvature of interface between the two bubbles will be

(a)  a – b

(b)  a + b

(c)  ab/(a – b)

(d)  ab / (a + b)

Answer: (c)

27. The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by x = a sin2 ω The motion of the particle corresponds to

(a)  simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/π

(b)  simple harmonic motion of frequency 3ω/2π

(c)  non simple harmonic motion

(d)  simple harmonic motion of frequency ω/2π

Answer: (c)

28. Mercury boils at 367° However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure temperature upto 500°C. This is done by

(a)  maintaining vacuum aboves mercury column in the stem of the thermometer

(b)  filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column.

(c)  filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column.

(d)  filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury column.

Answer: (b)

29. Two identical glass spheres filled with air are connected by a horizontal glass tube. The glass tube contains a pellet of mercury at its mid-points. Air in one sphere is at 0°C and the other is at 20° If both the vessels are heated through 10°C, then neglecting the expansions of the bulbs and the tube

(a)  the mercury pellet gets displaced towards the sphere at lower temperature.

(b)  the mercury pellet gets displaced towards the sphere at higher temperature.

(c)  the mercury pellet does not get displaced at all

(d)  the temperature rise causes the pellet to expand without any displacement.

Answer: (c)

30. A nucleus  has mass represented by m(A, Z). If mp and mn denote the mass of proton and neutron respectively and BE the binding energy (in MeV) then,

(a)  BE = [m(A, Z) – Zmp – (A – Z)mn]C2

(b)  BE = [Zmp + (A – Z)mn – m(A, Z)]C2

(c)  BE = [Zmp + Amn – m(A, Z)] C2

(d)  BE = m(A, Z) – Zmp – (A – Z) mN

Answer: (b)

31. A graph between pressure P(along y-axis) and absolute temperature, T(along x-axis) for equal moles of two gases has been drawn. Given that volume of second gas is more than volume of first gas. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)  Slope of gas 1 is less than gas 2

(b)  Slope of gas 1 is more than gas 2

(c)  Both have some slopes

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

32. A piece of blue glass heated to a high temperature and a piece of red glass at room temperature are taken inside a dimly-lit room. Then,

(a)  the blue piece will look blue and the red piece will look red as usual.

(b)  the red piece will look brighter red and the blue piece will look ordinary blue.

(c)  the blue will look brighter as compared to the red piece.

(d)  both the pieces will look equal red.

Answer: (c)

33. A certain charge Q is divided into two parts q and Q – q. How the charge Q and q must be related so that when q and (Q – q) is placed at a certain distance apart experience maximum electrostatic repulsion?

(a)  Q = 2q

(b)  Q = 3q

(c)  Q = 4q

(d)  Q = 4q + c

Answer: (a)

34. A charged particle ‘q’ is shot with speed v towards another fixed charged particle Q. It approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed 2v, the closest distance of approach would be

(a)  r

(b)  2r

(c)  r/2

(d)  r/4

Answer: (d)

35. A long block A of mass M is at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. A small block B of mass M/2 is placed on A at one end and projected along A with some velocity v. The coefficient of friction between the block is μ. Then, the accelerations of blocks A and B before reaching a common velocity will be respectively

(a)  μg/2, (towards right), μg/2(towards left)

(b)  μg(towards right), μg(towards left)

(c)  μg/2(towards right), μg(towards left)

(d)  μg(toward right), μg/2(towards left)

Answer: (c)

36. A beam of light composed of red and green rays is incident obliquely at a point on the face of a rectangular glass slab. When coming out on the opposite parallel face, the red and green rays emerge from

(a)  two points propagating in two different non-parallel directions.

(b)  two points propagating in two different parallel directions.

(c)  one point propagating in two different directions.

(d)  one point propagating in the same direction.

Answer: (b)

37. The plane face of a plano convex lens is silvered. If μ be the refractive index and R, the radius of curvature of curved surface, then system will behave like a concave mirror of curvature

(a)  μR

(b)  R2/ μ

(c)  R / (μ – 1)

(d)  [(μ + 1)/( μ – 1)]R

Answer: (c)

38. The maximum numbers of possible interference maxima for slit separation equal to twice the wavelength in Young’s double slit experiment is

(a)  infinite

(b)  five

(c)  three

(d)  zero

Answer: (b)

39. An isotropic point source of light is suspended h metre vertically above the centre of circular table of radius r metre. Then, the ratio of illumenances at the centre to that at the edge of the table is





Answer: (c)

40. In the given figure, what is the magnetic field induction at point O.





Answer: (c)

41. p-V plots for two gases during adiabatic process as shown in figure plots 1 and 2 should correspond respectively to

(a)  He and O2

(b)  O2 and He

(c)  He and Ar

(d)  O2 and N2

Answer: (b)

42. The half-life period of a radioactive element X is same as the mean life of another radioactive element Y. Initially, both of them have the same numbers of atoms then,

(a)  X and Y have the same decay rate initially.

(b)  X and Y decay at the same rate always

(c)  Y will decay at a faster rate than X

(d)  X will decay at a faster rate than Y

Answer: (c)

43. A source emits electromagnetic waves of wavelength 3m. One beam reaches the observer directly and other after reflection from a water surface, travelling 1.5m extra distance and with intensity reduced to 1/4 as compared to intensity due to the direct beam alone. The resultant intensity will be

(a)  (1/4) fold

(b)  (3/4) fold

(c)  (5/4) fold

(d)  (9/4) fold

Answer: (d)

44. The following circuit represents

(a)  OR gate

(b)  XOR gate

(c)  AND gate

(d)  NAND gate

Answer: (b)

45. Two identical conducting balls A and B have positive charges q1 and q2 But q1 ≠ q2/ The balls are brought together so that they touch each other and then kept in their original positions. The force between them is

(a)  less than that before the balls touched

(b)  greater than that before the balls touched

(c)  same as that before the balls touched

(d)  zero

Answer: (b)

46. A positively charged ball hangs from a silk thread. We put a positive test charges q0 at a point and measure F/q0, then it can be predicted that the electric field strength E

(a)  > F/q0

(b)  = F/q

(c)  < F/q0

(d)  cannot be estimated

Answer: (a)

47. Capacitor C1 of capacitance 1 μF and capacitor C2 of capacitance 2 μF are separately charged fully by a common battery. The two capacitors are then separately allowed to discharged through equal resistors at time t = 0

(a)  the current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t = 0

(b)  the currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but non-zero

(c)  the currents in the two discharging circuits at t = 0

(d)  Capacitor C1 loses 40% of its initial charge sooner than C2 loses 40% of initial charge.

Answer: (b)

48. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field acting along the same direction in a certain region. If an electron is projected along the direction of the fields with a certain velocity, then

(a)  it will turn towards left of direction of motion.

(b)  it will turn towards right of direction of motion.

(c)  its velocity will increase.

(d)  its velocity will decrease.

Answer: (d)

49. To reduce the range of voltmeter, its resistance need to be reduced. A voltmeter has resistance R0 and range V. Which of the following resistances when connected in parallel will convert it into a voltmeter of range V/n?

(a)  nR0

(b)  (n + 1)R0

(c)  (n – 1)R

(d)  None of these

Answer: (d)

50. A uniform rod of length l is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis through B. The rod begins rotating from rest from its unstable equilibrium position. When, it has turned through an angle θ, its angular velocity ω is given by





Answer: (a)

51. A stick of length L and mass M lies on a frictionless horizontal surface on which it is free to move in any way. A ball of mass m moving with speed V collides elastically with the stick as shown in fig below. If after the collision, the ball comes to rest, then what should be the mass of the ball?

(a)  m = 2M

(b)  m = M

(c)  m = M/2

(d)  m = M/4

Answer: (d)

52. The mass of a proton is 1847 times that of an electron. A electron and a proton are injected into a uniform electric field at right angle to the direction of the filed with the same initial K.E.

(a)  the electron trajectory will be less curved than the proton trajectory.

(b)  both the trajectories will be straight.

(c)  the proton trajectory will be less curved than the electron trajectory.

(d)  both the trajectories will be equally curved.

Answer: (d)

53. Two condensers, one of capacity C and the other of capacity C/2, are connected to a V-volt battery, as shown.

The work done in charging fully both the condensers is

(a)  CV2




Answer: (c)

54. A capacitor of capacitance 5μF is connected as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5Ω. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates is

(a)  80 μC

(b)  40 μC

(c)  20 μC

(d)  10 μC

Answer: (d)

55. A photo cell is illuminated by a small bright source placed 1m away. When the same source of light is placed 2m away, the electrons emitted by photo cathode

(a)  carry one quarter of their previous energy

(b)  carry one quarter of their previous momenta

(c)  are half as numerous

(d)  are one quarter as numerous

Answer: (d)

56. ABC is right angled triangular plane of uniform thickness. The sides are such that AB > BC as shown in figure. I1, I2, I3 are momenta of inertia about AB, BC and AC, respectively. Then which of the following relations is correct?

(a)  l1 = l2 = l3

(b)  l2 > l1 > l3

(c)  l3 < l2 < l1

(d)  l3 > l1 > l2

Answer: (b)

57. An ice-berg of density 900 kgm3 is floating in water of density 1000 kgm3. The percentage of volume of ice-berg outside the water is

(a)  20%

(b)  35%

(c)  10%

(d)  11%

Answer: (c)

58. The potential of an atom is given by V = V0 loge(r/r0) where r0 is a constant and r is the radius of the orbit. Assuming Bohr’s model to be applicable, which variation of rn with n is possible (n being principal quantum number)?

(a)  rn ∝ n

(b)  rn ∝ 1/n

(c)  rn ∝ n2

(d)  rn ∝ 1/n2

Answer: (a)

59. The temperature of source and sink of a heat engine are 127°C and 27°C, respectively. An inventor claims its efficiency to be 26%, then

(a)  it is impossible

(b)  it is possible with high probability        

(c)  it is possible with low probability

(d)  Data are insufficient

Answer: (a)

60. You are given resistance wire of length 50 cm and a battery of negligible resistance. In which of the following cases is largest amount of heat generated?

(a)  When the wire is connected to the battery directly

(b)  When the wire is divided into two parts and both the parts are connected to the battery in parallel.

(c)  When the wire is divided into four parts and all the four parts are connected to the battery in parallel.

(d)  When only half of the wire is connected to the battery.

Answer: (c)


61. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP, therefore

(a)  Vm > 22.4 L

(b)  Vm­ < 22.4 L

(c)  Vm = 22.4 L

(d)  Vm = 44.8 L

Answer: (b)

62. Among the following set of quantum numbers, the impossible set is

(a)  n : 3; l : 2; m : 3; s : −1/2

(b)  n : 4; l : 0; m : 0; s : 1/2

(c)  n : 5; l : 3; m : 0; s : −1/2

(d)  n : 3; l : 2; m : −2; s : 1/2

Answer: (a)


In the above reaction, end product ‘C’ is

(a)  salicylaldehyde

(b)  salicylic acid

(c)  phenyl acetate

(d)  aspirin

Answer: (d)

64. The normality of 10% (w/v) of acetic acid is

(a)  1 N

(b)  1.3 N

(c)  1.7 N

(d)  1.9 N

Answer: (c)

65. Which of the following is least soluble in water?

(a)  C2H6

(b)  CH3OH

(c)  CH3NH2

(d)  C6H5OH

Answer: (a)

66. The compound (A) is

(a)  C2H5Cl

(b)  C2H5ONa

(c)  CH2N2

(d)  CH3ONa

Answer: (b)


The product (P) is





Answer: (a)

68. 1-butyne on oxidation with hot alkaline KMnO­4 would yield. Which of the following as end product?



(c)  CH3CH2COOH + CO2 + H2O


Answer: (c)

69. A cubic unit cell of a metal with molar mass of 63.55 g mol1 has an edge length of 362 pm. Its density is 8.92 g cm3. The type of unit cell is

(a)  primitive

(b)  face centred

(c)  end centred

(d)  body centred

Answer: (b)

70. Which of the following is the major product in the reaction of HOBr with propene?

(a)  2-bromo, 1-propanol

(b)  3-bromo, 1-propanol

(c)  2-bromo, 2-propanol

(d)  1-bromo, 2-propanol

Answer: (d)

71. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name?

(a)  3, 4-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride

(b)  1-chloro-1-oxo-2, 3-dimethyl pentane

(c)  2-ethyl-3-methyl butanoyl chloride

(d)  2, 3-dimethyl pentanoyl chloride

Answer: (d)

72. Consider the following solutions,

A = 0.1 glucose, B = 0.05 M NaCl,

C = 0.05 M BaCl2, D = 0.1 M AlCl­3

Which of the following pairs is isotonic?

(a)  A and B

(b)  A and D

(c)  A and C

(d)  B and C

Answer: (a)

73. Which of the following compound is not coloured?

(a)  Na2CuCl

(b)  Na2Cd ∙ Cl4

(c)  FeSO4

(d)  Vl3

Answer: (b)

74. Which of the following oxide is most acidic?

(a)  As2O3

(b)  P2O5

(c)  Sb2O3

(d)  Bi2O3

Answer: (b)

75. When CO2 is bubbled through a solution of barium peroxide in water then

(a)  carbonic acid is formed

(b)  O2 is released

(c)  H2O2 is formed

(d)  no reaction occurs

Answer: (c)

76. The correct increasing order of ionic radii of the following Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ is

(a)  Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+

(b)  Ce3+ < Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+

(c)  Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+

(d)  Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+ < Yb3+

Answer: (a)

77. The shape of gaseous SnCl2 is

(a)  tetrahedral

(b)  linear

(c)  angular

(d)  T-shape

Answer: (c)

78. Which of the following aqueous solution should have highest boiling point?

(a)  1.0 M NaOH

(b)  1.0 M Na2SO4

(c)  1.0 M NH4NO3

(d)  1.0 MKNO3

Answer: (b)

79. When a lead storage battery is discharged;

(a)  SO2 is evolved

(b)  lead sulphate is consumed

(c)  lead is formed

(d)  sulphuric acid is consumed

Answer: (d)

80. Combustion of glucose takes place according to the equation,

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, ∆H = −72 k-cal

The energy required for combustion of 1.6 g of glucose is

(a)  0.064 k-cal

(b)  0.64 k-cal

(c)  6.4 k-cal

(d)  64 k-cal

Answer: (b)

81. When the heat of reaction at constant pressure is −5 × 103 cal and entropy change is 7.4 cal deg1 at 25°C, the reaction is predicted as

(a)  reversible

(b)  spontaneous

(c)  non-spontaneous

(d)  irreversible

Answer: (b)

82. Which of the following is not expected to show paramagnetism?

(a)  [Ni(H2O)]2+

(b)  Ni(CO)4

(c)  [Ni(NH3)4]2+

(d)  [Co(NH3)6]2+

Answer: (b)

83. In which of the following compounds, sulphur show maximum oxidation number?

(a)  H2SO4

(b)  SO3

(c)  H2S2O7

(d)  All have same oxidation number for sulphur

Answer: (d)

84. For the chemical reaction, 2O3 ⇌ 3O2

The reaction proceed as follows

O3 ⇌ O2 + O (fast)

O + O3 → 2O2 (slow)

The rate law expression will be

(a)  r = k’[O3]2

(b)  r = k’[O3]2[O2]1

(c)  r = k’[O3][O2]

(d)  Unpredictable

Answer: (b)

85. Which of the following is the correct order of stability for the given superoxides?

(a)  KO2 > RbO2 < CsO2

(b)  CsO2 < RbO2 < KO2

(c)  RbO2 < CsO2 < KO2

(d)  KO2 < CsO2 < RbO2

Answer: (a)

86. Among the following compounds, which will produce POCl3 with PCl5.

(a)  Only O2

(b)  O2 and CO2

(c)  CO2, O2 and P4O10

(d)  SO2, H2­O, H2SO4 and P4O10

Answer: (d)

87. In the following graph.

The slope of line AB gives the information of





Answer: (c)

88. Among the following compounds, which compound is polar as well as exhibit sp2-hyrbidization by the central atom

(a)  H2CO3

(b)  SiF4

(c)  BF3

(d)  HClO3

Answer: (a)

89. Which one among the following is added to soap to impart antiseptic property?

(a)  Sodium lauryl sulphate

(b)  Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonates

(c)  Rosin

(d)  Bithional

Answer: (d)

90. How many Faradays are required to reduce 1 mol of 

(a)  3

(b)  5

(c)  6

(d)  4

Answer: (c)

91. The energy released when 6 moles of octane is burnt in air will be [Given, ∆Hf for CO2(g), H2O(g) and C8H8(l), respectively are −490, −240 and +160 J/mol]

(a)  −37.4 kJ

(b)  −20 kJ

(c)  −6.2 kJ

(d)  −35.5 kJ

Answer: (d)

92. When I is oxidized by  in alkaline medium, I converts into


(b)  I2


(d)  IO

Answer: (a)

93. The value of reaction quotient (Q), for the following cell

Zn(s) |Zn2+(0.01 M)| | Ag+ (1.25 M) | Ag (s) is

(a)  156

(b)  125         

(c)  1.25 × 102

(d)  6.4 × 103

Answer: (d)

94. When 750 mL of 0.5 M HCl is mixed with 250 mL of 2M NaOH solution, the value of pH will be

(a)  pH = 7

(b)  pH > 7

(c)  pH < 7

(d)  pH = 0

Answer: (b)

95. The most stable carbonium ion among the following is





Answer: (c)

96. Which of the following is not applicable to the phenomenon of adsorption?

(a)  ∆H > 0

(b)  ∆G < 0

(c)  ∆S < 0

(d)  ∆H < 0

Answer: (d)

97. In cyamide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidizing and reducing agents are respectively.

(a)  O2 and CO2

(b)  O2 and Zn dust

(c)  HNO3 and Zn dust

(d)  HNO3 and CO

Answer: (b)

98. The product of acid hydrolysis of (P) and (Q) can be distinguished by

(a)  Lucas reagent

(b)  2, 4-DNP

(c)  Fehling’s solution

(d)  NaHSO3

Answer: (c)

99. Clemmensen reaction of ketone is carried out in the presence of

(a)  LiAlH4

(b)  Zn-Hg with HCl

(c)  glycol with KOH

(d)  H2 with Pt as catalyst

Answer: (b)

100. The standard reduction potential for Zn2+/Zn, Ni2+/Ni and Fe2+/Fe are −76, −0.23 and −0.44 V, respectively.

The reaction X + Y2+ → X2+ + Y will be spontaneous when

(a)  X = Ni, Y = Fe

(b)  X = Ni, Y = Zn

(c)  X = Fe, Y = Zn

(d)  X = Zn, Y = Ni

Answer: (d)

101. Cannizzaro reaction is not shown by



(c)  CH3CHO

(d)  HCHO

Answer: (c)

102. The main product formed in the following reaction is





Answer: (a)

103. The correct order of basic strength of the following are

(a)  I > II > III > IV

(b)  IV > II > III > I

(c)  III > IV > II > I

(d)  III > II > IV > I

Answer: (d)

104. In the reaction,

In the given reaction (B) is





Answer: (a)

105. Polymer formation from monomers starts by

(a)  condensation reaction between monomers

(b)  coordination reaction between monomers

(c)  conversion of one monomer into other monomer

(d)  hydrolysis of monomers

Answer: (a)

106. Match the type of series given in Column I with the wavelength range given in Column II and choose the correct option.

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 4; D – 3

(b)  A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

(c)  A – 3; B – 1; C – 2; D – 4

(d)  A – 4; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1

Answer: (a)

107. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism?

(a)  Pentamminenitrocobalt (III) iodide

(b)  Tris-(ethylenediamine) cobalt (III) bromide

(c)  Trans-dicyanobis (ethylenediamine)

(d)  Diamminedinitroplatisum (II)

Answer: (b)

108. The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and l, are as follows

(I) n = 4, l = 1

(II) n = 4, l = 0

(III) n = 3, l = 2

(IV) n = 3, l = 1

If we arrange them in order of increasing energy, i.e. from lowest to highest, the correct order is

(a)  IV < II < III < I

(b)  II < IV < I < III

(c)  I < III < II < IV

(d)  III < I < IV < II

Answer: (a)

109. On hydrolysis of starch, we finally get

(a)  glucose

(b)  fructose

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  sucrose

Answer: (a)

110. Which of the following sodium compound/compound(s) are formed when an organic compound containing both nitrogen and sulphur is fused with sodium?

(a)  Cyanide and sulphide

(b)  Thiocyanate

(c)  Sulphite and cyanide

(d)  Nitrate and sulphide

Answer: (b)

111. Which of the following region is coldest?

(a)  Stratosphere

(b)  Troposphere

(c)  Mesosphere

(d)  Thermosphere

Answer: (c)

112. A solid AB has NaCl structure. If the radius of cation A+ is 170 pm, then the maximum possible radius of the anion B is

(a)  397.4 pm

(b)  347.9 pm

(c)  210.9 pm

(d)  410.6 pm

Answer: (d)

113. A first order reaction is 50% completed in 1.26 × 1014 How much time would it takes for 100% completion?

(a)  1.26 × 1015 s

(b)  2.52 × 1014 s

(c)  2.52 × 1028 s

(d)  Infinite

Answer: (d)

114. Flux is used to

(a)  remove all type of impurities

(b)  reduce metal oxide

(c)  remove carbonate and sulphate

(d)  remove silica and undesirable metal oxides

Answer: (d)

115. Sulphur reacts with chlorine in 1 : 2 ratio and forms X. Hydrolysis of X gives a sulphur compound Y. The hybridization of central atom in the anion Y is

(a)  sp3

(b)  sp2

(c)  sp3d

(d)  sp

Answer: (a)

116. Aqueous 10% NaHCO3 solution is used as a reagent for identifying ‘A’. Which of the following compounds yield ‘A’ on hydrolysis?

(a)  CH3COOC2H5

(b)  C2H5 – COO – C2H5

(c)  CH3CHO

(d)  CH3CH2OH

Answer: (a)

117. Which of the following fibres is made of polyamides?

(a)  Dacron

(b)  Orion

(c)  Nylon

(d)  Rayon

Answer: (c)

118. Consider the following reaction,

X is

(a)  benzoic acid

(b)  salicylic acid

(c)  phenol

(d)  aniline

Answer: (d)

119. The volume of water to be added to 100 cm3 of 0.5 N H2SO4 to get decinormal concentration is

(a)  100 cm3

(b)  450 cm3

(c)  500 cm3

(d)  400 cm3

Answer: (d)

120. In which of the following the oxidation number of oxygen has been arranged in increasing order?

(a)  BaO2 < KO2 < O3 < OF2

(b)  OF2 < KO2 < BaO2 < O3

(c)  BaO2 < O3 < OF2 < KO2

(d)  KO2 < OF2 < O3 < BaO2

Answer: (a)


121. One of the breeding techniques useful to eliminate harmful recessive genes by selection is

(a)  artificial insemination

(b)  outbreeding

(c)  inbreeding

(d)  MOET

Answer: (c)

122. Herbicide that blocks electron transport from PS-II to PS-I by inhibiting electron flow between plastoquinone → cytochrome is

(a)  DCMU

(b)  Paraquat

(c)  DCPIP

(d)  None of these

Answer: (a)

123. Statement I Microtubules are formed only in animals cells.

Statement II Microtubules are made up of a protein called myosin.

Choose the correct option

(a)  Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(b)  Statement II is correct and statement I is incorrect.

(c)  Both statements are correct.

(d)  Both statements are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

124. Some functions of nutrient element are given below

(I) Important constituent of proteins involved in ETS.

(II) Activator of catalase.

(III) Important constituent of cytochrome..

(IV) Essential for chlorophyll synthesis.

The concerned nutrient is

(a)  Cu

(b)  Fe

(c)  Ca

(d)  Mo

Answer: (b)

125. Torsion of visceral mass is seen in animals belonging to class

(a)  Cephalopoda

(b)  Scaphopoda

(c)  Amphineura

(d)  Gastropoda

Answer: (d)

126. A plant is provided with ideal conditions for photosynthesis and supplied with isotope 14 CO2. When the products of the process are analyzed carefully, what would be the nature of products?

(a)  Glucose and oxygen are labelled

(b)  Oxygen is labelled, but glucose is normal

(c)  Glucose and oxygen are normal

(d)  Glucose is labelled, but oxygen is normal

Answer: (d)

127. Match the following columns,

(a)  A – 4; B – 1; C – 3; D – 2

(b)  A – 5; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

(c)  A – 5; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2

(d)  A – 2; B – 5; C – 3; D – 1

Answer: (c)

128. Pick the hormone which is not secreted by human placenta.

(a)  hCG

(b)  hPL

(c)  Prolactin

(d)  Oestrogen

Answer: (c)

129. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle requires.

(a)  1 ATP and 2NADPH2

(b)  2 ATP and 2NADPH2

(c)  3ATP and 2NADH2

(d)  2ATP and 1NADPH2

Answer: (c)

130. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is

(a)  sigmoid

(b)  hyperbolic

(c)  linear

(d)  hypobolic

Answer: (a)

131. A hormone, secreted by the endocrinal cells of duodenal mucosa which influences the release of pancreatic juice is

(a)  relaxin

(b)  cholecystokinin

(c)  secretin

(d)  progesterone

Answer: (b)

132. Cotyledons and testa are edible parts of

(a)  ground nut and pomegranate

(b)  walnut and tamarind

(c)  french bean and coconut

(d)  cashew nut and litchi

Answer: (a)

133. Intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood clotting are interlinked at the activation steps of which of the following factors?

(a)  Factor IX

(b)  Factor IV

(c)  Factor X

(d)  Factor XIII-a

Answer: (c)

134. Match the storage products listed under column I with the organism given under column II, choose the appropriate option from the given options

(a)  A – 3; B – 4; C – 1; D – 5

(b)  A – 4; B – 3; C – 5; D – 2

(c)  A – 5; B – 4; C – 1; D – 3

(d)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 4; D – 3

Answer: (c)

135. With respect to angiosperms, identify the incorrect pair from the following

(a)  antipodal-2n

(b)  vegetative all of male gametophyte – n

(c)  primary endosperm nucleus – 3n

(d)  cell of nucellus of ovule – 2n

Answer: (a)

136. The globular head of myosin contains

(a)  calcium ions in large quantities

(b)  troponin

(c)  ATPase enzyme

(d)  ATP

Answer: (c)

137. Parbhani Kranti, a variety of bhindi (lady finger) is resistant to

(a)  bacterial blight

(b)  yellow mosaic virus

(c)  black rot

(d)  leaf curl

Answer: (b)

138. Gastrula is the embryonic stage in which

(a)  cleavage occurs

(b)  blastocoels forms

(c)  germinal layers form

(d)  villi form

Answer: (c)

139. Dense regular connective tissue is present in

(a)  ligament and tendons

(b)  joint capsule and Wharton’s Jelly

(c)  periosteum and endosteum

(d)  pericardium and heart valves

Answer: (a)

140. Minisatellites or VNTR’s are used in

(a)  DNA fingerprinting

(b)  Polymerase Chain Reaction, (PCR)

(c)  gene therapy

(d)  gene mapping

Answer: (a)

141. Note the following features and choose the ones applicable to Wuchereria bancrofti.

(I) Coelozoic parasite

(II) Histozoic parasite

(III) Monogenetic parasite

(IV) Digenetic parasite

(V) Monomorphic, acoelomate parasite

(VI) Dimorphic, pseudocoelomate paraiste

(a)  II, III, V

(b)  II, III, VI

(c)  II, IV, VI

(d)  I, III, VI

Answer: (c)

142. hnRNA undergoes two additional process. Out of them in one process an unusual nucleotide (methyl GPT) is added to the 5’ end of What would you called this?

(a)  Tailing

(b)  Splicing

(c)  Termination

(d)  Capping

Answer: (d)

143. Which type of immunoglobin is/are abundantly found in foetus?

(a)  IgE

(b)  IgG

(c)  IgM

(d)  IgD

Answer: (b)

144. IUCN stands for

(a)  Indian Union for Conservation of Nature

(b)  International Union for Conservation of Nature

(c)  International Union for Chemical Nomenclature

(d)  International Union for Conservation for Nutrients

Answer: (b)

145. The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called as

(a)  luteal phase and last for about 6 days

(b)  follicular phase lasting for about 6 days

(c)  luteal phase and last for about 13 days

(d)  follicular phase and last for about 13 days

Answer: (c)

146. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)  Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine

(b)  Sporogenous tissue is haploid

(c)  Endothelium produces the microspores

(d)  Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen

Answer: (d)

147. Variation in gene frequencies within population can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This is reffered to as

(a)  genetic flow

(b)  genetic drift

(c)  random mating

(d)  genetic load

Answer: (b)

148. The first stable product of fixation of atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plant is


(b)  ammonia


(d)  glutamate

Answer: (b)

149. If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group marry and have sufficiently large number of children, these children could be classified as ‘A’ blood group. ‘AB blood group ‘B’ blood group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio.

Modern technique of protein electrophoresis reveals presence of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in ‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is an example of

(a)  codominance

(b)  incomplete dominance

(c)  partial dominance

(d)  complete dominance

Answer: (a)

150. Which of the following DNA sequences qualifies to be designated as a palindrome?

(a)  5’-GACCAG-3’ in one strand

(b)  3’-GACCAG-5’ in one strand

(c)  5’-GACGAG-3’, 3’-CIGGIC-5’

(d)  5’-AGCGCT-3’, 3’-TCGCGA-5’

Answer: (d)

151. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a)  Vitamin-B­12 : Pernicious anaemia

(b)  Vitamin-B6 : Loss of appetite

(c)  Vitamin-B1 : Beri-beri

(d)  Vitamin-B2: Pellagra

Answer: (d)

152. Humoral immunity is mediated by

(a)  R-cells

(b)  T-cells

(c)  NK-cells

(d)  plasma cells

Answer: (d)

153. In the lac operon model, lactose molecules function as

(a)  inducers, which bind with the operator gene

(b)  repressors, which bind with the operator gene

(c)  inducers, which bind with the repressor protein

(d)  corepressors, which bind with repressor protein

Answer: (c)

154. Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins?

(a)  Zeatin

(b)  Ethylene

(c)  ABA

(d)  IAA

Answer: (c)

155. The ornithine cycle removes two waste products from the blood in liver. These products are

(a)  CO2 and urea

(b)  ammonia and urea

(c)  CO2 and ammonia

(d)  ammonia and uric acid

Answer: (b)

156. Macromolecule chitin is

(a)  nitrogen containing polysaccharide

(b)  phosphorous containing polysaccharide

(c)  sulphur containing polysaccharide

(d)  simple polysaccharide

Answer: (a)

157. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to the endocrine system?

(a)  Adenohypophysis is under diriect neural regulation of the hypothalamus

(b)  Organs in the body like gastro-intestinal tract, heart, kidney and liver do not produce any hormones

(c)  Non-nutrient chemical produced by the body in trace amount that act as inter-cellular messanger are known as hormones

(d)  Releasing and inhibitory hormones are produced by the pituitary gland

Answer: (c)

158. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life.

(I) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably an aerobes.

(II) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen of the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

(a)  II is correct, but I is false

(b)  Both I and II are correct

(c)  Both I and II are false

(d)  I is correct, but II is false

Answer: (b)

159. Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the identification and classification of plants and animals. It is used in the preparation of

(a)  monographs

(b)  flora

(c)  Both (a) and (b)

(d)  None of these

Answer: (b)

160. Match the following columns.

(a)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 4; D – 1

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(c)  A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

(d)  A – 1; B – 4; C – 2; D – 3

Answer: (a)

161. Phellogen and phellem respectively denote

(a)  cork and cork cambium

(b)  cork cambium and cork

(c)  secondary cortex and cork

(d)  cork and secondary cortex

Answer: (b)

162. Which one of the following combinations is incorrect?

(a)  Rio convention : Air pollution

(b)  Kyoto protocol : Climate change

(c)  Montreal protocol : Ozone depletion

(d)  Ramsar convention : Wetland conservation

Answer: (a)

163. ‘Organ of Jacobson’ helps in

(a)  touch

(b)  vision

(c)  smell

(d)  hearing

Answer: (c)

164. Which one correctly describe reproduction and life cycle of fern?

(a)  Spore → Gamete → Prothallus → Sporophyte

(b)  Gamete → Spore → Prothallus → Plant

(c)  Prothallus → Sporophyte → Gamete → Fern

(d)  Sporangia → Spore → Prothallus → Sporophyte → Plant

Answer: (d)

165. Monoclonal antibodies and polyclonal antibodies are produced by

(a)  T-memory cells

(b)  NK-cells

(c)  plasma cells of B-lymphocytes

(d)  memory cells of B-lymphocytes

Answer: (c)

166. All monerons

(a)  contain DNA and RNA

(b)  demonstrate a long circular strand of DNA, not formed enclosed in a nuclear membrane

(c)  are bacteria

(d)  All of the above

Answer: (d)

167. Match the following columns

(a)  A – 1; B – 2; C – 3

(b)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 1

(c)  A – 3; B – 2; C – 1

(d)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 3

Answer: (a)

168. The chromosome in which centromere is situated close to one end are

(a)  metacentric

(b)  acrocentric

(c)  telocentric

(d)  sub-metacentric

Answer: (b)

169. Sliding filament theory can be best explained as

(a)  when myofilaments slide pass each other actin filaments shorten while myosin filament donot shorten

(b)  actin myosin filament shorten and slide pass each other

(c)  actin and myosin filaments do not shorten, but rather slide pass each other

(d)  when myofilament slide pass each other myosin filament shorten while actin filament do not shorten

Answer: (b)

170. Select the correct combination of statements regarding Myasthenia gravis

(I) It is an auto immune disorder.

(II) It causes insufficient acetylecholine binding that effects muscular contraction.

(III) Antibodies are developed against acetylcholine.

(IV) Antibodies are developed against acetylcholine receptors.

(V) It causes drooping of eyelids.

(a)  I, III, IV, VI

(b)  I, III, V, II

(c)  I, II, IV, VI

(d)  II, III, IV, V

Answer: (c)

171. Study the following statements and select the option with correct statements.

(I) Pulvinus leaf base is present in some leguminous plants.

(II) In Eichhornia  the petioles expand, becomes green and synthesise food.

(III) Opposite phyllotaxy is seen in guava.

(a)  I and II

(b)  I and III

(c)  II and III

(d)  I, II and III

Answer: (b)

172. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called

(a)  GIFT

(b)  ZIFT

(c)  ICSI

(d)  ET

Answer: (c)

173. Appearance of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an example of

(a)  adaptive radiation

(b)  transduction

(c)  pre-existing variation

(d)  divergent evolution in the population

Answer: (c)

174. Post mitotic gap phase is characterized by all, except

(a)  synthesis of RNA and nucleotides

(b)  no change in DNA content

(c)  synthesis of histone proteins

(d)  growth phase of the cell

Answer: (c)

175. Munch hypothesis is based on

(a)  translocation of food due to Turgor Pressure (TP) gradient and imbibitions force

(b)  translocation of food due to Turgor Pressure (TP) gradient

(c)  translocation of food due to imbition force

(d)  None of the above

Answer: (b)

176. Match the following columns

Column I                                   Column II

(A) Molecular oxygen                (1) α-ketoglutaric acid

(B) Electron acceptor                 (2) Hydrogen acceptor

(C) Pyruvate dehydrogenase      (3) Cytochrome-C

(D) Decarboxylation                    (4) Acetyle Co-A

(a)  A – 2; B – 3; C – 4; D – 1

(b)  A – 3; B – 4; C – 2; D – 1

(c)  A – 2; B – 1; C – 3; D – 4

(d)  A – 4; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2

Answer: (a)

177. Roquefort cheese is ripended by using a

(a)  type of yeast

(b)  fungus

(c)  bacterium

(d)  cyanobacteria

Answer: (b)

178. Identify the wrong combination

(a)  Dryopteris : Rhizome

(b)  Cycas : Corralloid roots

(c)  Volvox : Colonial form

(d)  Marchantia : Pseudoelaters

Answer: (d)

179. Foramen ovale

(a)  connects the two atria in the foetal heart.

(b)  is a condition in which the heart valves do not completely close

(c)  is a shallow depression in the inter ventricular septum

(d)  is a connection between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta in the foetus

Answer: (a)

180. Which one of the following graphs correctly describes disruptive selection? When studying fitness level associated with body size?





Answer: (d)


Directions (Q. Nos. 181-183) Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word in the sentence

181. Decay is an immutable factor of human life.

(a)  important

(b)  unique

(c)  unchangeable

(d)  awful

Answer: (c)

182. It was an ignominious defeat for the team.

(a)  shameful

(b)  admirable

(c)  unaccountable

(d)  worthy

Answer: (a)

183. His conjecture was better than mine.

(a)  guess

(b)  fact

(c)  surprise

(d)  doubt

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 184-186) Fill in the blank.

184. Freedom and equality are the …………… rights of every human.

(a)  inalienable

(b)  inscrutable

(c)  incalculable

(d)  incredible

Answer: (d)

185. Pradeep’s face spoke …………. for the happiness he was feeling.

(a)  elegantly

(b)  tons

(c)  volumes

(d)  much

Answer: (c)

186. His speech was disappointing : it ……………. all the major issues.

(a)  projected

(b)  revealed

(c)  skirted

(d)  analyzed

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 187-189) Choose the word which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the following sentence.

187. Hydra is biologically believed to be

(a)  undying

(b)  perishable

(c)  ancient

(d)  eternal

Answer: (b)

188. The Gupta rulers advocated all cultural activities and thus Gupta period was called the golden era in Indian History.

(a)  fostered

(b)  enriched

(c)  opposed

(d)  spurned

Answer: (c)

189. This is a barbarous

(a)  bad

(b)  good

(c)  civilised

(d)  exemplary

Answer: (c)

190. Though novice in art shows great promise.

(a)  tyro

(b)  inexperienced

(c)  veteran

(d)  green horn

Answer: (c)

191. If 15th August 2011 was Tuesday, then what day of the week was it on 17th September, 2011?

(a)  Thursday

(b)  Friday

(c)  Saturday

(d)  Sunday

Answer: (d)

192. In the following question five figures are given. Out of them, find the three figures that can be joined to form a square.

(a)  1

(b)  2

(c)  4

(d)  5

Answer: (a)

193. In a certain code language, ‘DOME’ is written as ‘8943’ and ‘MEAL’ is written as ‘4321’. What group of letters can be formed for the code ‘38249’?

(a)  EOADM

(b)  MEDOA

(c)  EDAMO

(d)  EMDAO

Answer: (d)

194. Replace the question mark (?) in the series given below with the correct option.

4, 5, 7, 11, 19, 35, ?

(a)  67

(b)  76

(c)  55

(d)  45

Answer: (b)

195. Complete the series by replacing ‘?’ mark.

G4T, J9R, M20P, P43N, S90L, ?

(a)  S90L

(b)  V185J

(c)  M20P

(d)  P43N

Answer: (d)

196. Neeraj starts walking towards South. After walking 15 m, he turns towards North. After walking 20 m, he turn towards East and walks 10 m. He then turns towards South and walks 5 m. How far is he from his original position and in which direction?

(a)  10 m, East

(b)  10 m, South-East

(c)  10 m, West

(d)  10 m, North-East

Answer: (b)

197. Shikha is mother-in-law of Ekta who is sister-in-law of Ankit. Pankaj is father of Sanjay, the only brother of Ankit. How is Shikha related to Ankit?

(a)  Mother-in-law

(b)  Aunt

(c)  Wife

(d)  Mother

Answer: (c)

198. In a row of forty children, P is thirteenth from the left end and Q is ninth from the right end. How many children are there between P and R, if R is fourth to the left of Q?

(a)  12

(b)  13

(c)  14

(d)  15

Answer: (a)

199. From the given four positions of a single dice, find the colour at the face opposite to the face having red colour.

(a)  Yellow

(b)  Pink

(c)  Green

(d)  Black

Answer: (a)

200. Choose the answer figure which completes the problem figure matrix.

Answer: (c)

JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2013 With Answer Key


Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year-2013


1. A car of mass 1000 kg moves on a circular track of radius 40 m. If the coefficient of friction is 1.28. The maximum velocity with which the car can be moved, is

(a)   22.4 m/s

(b)   112 m/s


(d)   1000 m/s

Ans: (a)

2. The escape velocity for the earth is 11.2 km/s. The mass of another planet 100 times mass of earth and its radius is 4 times radius of the earth. The escape velocity for the planet is

(a)   280 km/s

(b)   56.0 km/s

(c)   112 km/s

(d)   56 km/s

Ans: (b)

3. Light ravels faster in air than that in glass. This is accordance with

(a)   wave theory of light

(b)   corpuscular theory of light

(c)   neither (a) nor (b)

(d)   Both (a) and (b)

Ans: (a)

4. The speed of air flow on the upper and lower surface of a wing of an aeroplane are υ1 If A is the cross section area of the wing and ρ is the density of air, then the upward life is





Ans: (c)

5. A body is thrown with a velocity of 8.8 m/s making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. It will hit the ground after a time

(a)   1.5s

(b)   1s

(c)   3s

(d)   2s

Ans: (b)

6. A radioactive element 90X238 decays into 83Y222. The number of β-particles emitted are

(a)   1

(b)   2

(c)   4

(d)   6

Ans: (a)

7. Minimum excitation potential of Bohr’s first orbit in hydrogen atom is

(a)   3.6 V

(b)   10.2 V

(c)   13.6 V

(d)   3.4 V

Ans: (b)

8. A gas expands 0.25 m3 at constant pressure 103 N/m2, the work done is

(a)   250 N

(b)   250 W

(c)   250 J

(d)   2.5 erg

Ans: (c)

9. The work done in increasing the size of soap film for 10 cm × 6 m to 10 cm × 11cm is 3 × 10−4 The surface tension of the film is

(a)   1.0 × 102 N/m

(b)   6.0 × 102 N/m

(c)   3.0 × 102 N/m

(d)   1.5 × 102 N/m

Ans: (c)

10. A parallel plate condenser is filled with two dielectrics as shown in figure. Area of each pate is A m2 and the separation is d metre. The dielectric constants are K1 and K2 respectively. Its capacitance in farad will be 





Ans: (b)

11. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 30 cm from the convex lens of focal length 20 cm. On the other side of the lens, at what distance from the lens a convex mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm be placed in order to have an upright image of the object coincident with it

(a)   30 cm

(b)   60 cm

(c)   50 cm

(d)   12 cm

Ans: (c)

12. A battery of emf 10 V and internal resistance of 0.5 ohm is connected across a variable resistance R. The maximum value of R is given by

(a)   0.5Ω

(b)   1.00Ω

(c)   2.0Ω

(d)   0.25Ω

Ans: (a)

13. For a gas  This gas is made up of molecules which are

(a)   mono atomic

(b)   poly atomic

(c)   mixture of diatomic and poly atomic molecules

(d)   diatomic

Ans: (a)

14. A point source of light is placed 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3. The minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-off all light coming out of water is

(a)   6 m

(b)   3 m

(c)   4 m

(d)   2 m

Ans: (a)

15. A moving body of mass m and velocity 3 km/h collides with a rest body of mass 2 m and stick to it. Now the combined mass starts to move. What will be the combined velocity?

(a)   2 km/h

(b)   1 km/h

(c)   2 km/h

(d)   3 km/h

Ans: (b)

16. A transverse wave is represented by the equation

For what value of λ is the particle velocity equal to two times the wave velocity





Ans: (a)

17. Ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atom on the ground state rarely excited by monochromatic radiation of photon 12.1 eV. The special line mitted by a hydrogen atom according to Bohr’s theory will be

(a)   one

(b)   two

(c)   three

(d)   four

Ans: (c)

18. The internal resistance of a primary cell is 4Ω. It generates a current of 0.2 A in an external resistance of 21Ω. The rate at which chemical energy to consumed in providing current is

(a)   1 J/s

(b)   5 J/s

(c)   0.42 J/s

(d)   0.8 J/s

Ans: (a)

19. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case





Ans: (c)

20. Two rigid bodies A and B rotate with rotational kinetic energies EA and EB respectively. The moments of inertia of A and B about the axis of rotation are IA and IB respectively.

If  and EA = 100 = EB, the ratio of angular momentum (LA) of A to the angular momentum (LB) of B is

(a)   25

(b)   5/4

(c)   5

(d)   1/4

Ans: (c)

21. The working principle of a ball point pen is

(a)   Bernoulli’s theorem

(b)   surface tension

(c)   gravity

(d)   viscosity

Ans: (b)

22. Progressive waves are represented by the equation

y1 = a sin(ωt – x)

and      y2 = b cos (ωt – x)

The phase difference between waves is

(a)   0°

(b)   45°

(c)   90°

(d)   180°

Ans: (c)

23. Two simple pendulums of length 0.5 m and 20 m respectively are given small linear displacement in one direction at the same time. They will gain be in the phase when the pendulum of shorter length has completed x oscillations, where k is

(a)   1

(b)   3

(c)   2

(d)   5

Ans: (c)

24. A balloon contains 500 m3 of helium at 27℃ and 1 atmosphere pressure. The volume of the helium at −3℃ temperature and 0.5 atmosphere pressure will be

(a)   1000 m3

(b)   900 m3

(c)   700 m3

(d)   500 m3

Ans: (b)

25. 220 V, 50 Hz, AC source is connected to an inductance of 0.2 H and a resistance of 20 Ω in series. What is the current in the circuit?

(a)   3.33 A

(b)   33.3 A

(c)   5 A

(d)   10 A

Ans: (a)

26. In 0.2 s, the current in a coil increases from 2.0 A to 3.0 A. If inductance of coil is 60 mH, then induced current in external resistance of 3 Ω will be

(a)   1 A

(b)   0.5 A

(c)   0.2 A

(d)   0.1 A

Ans: (d)

27. Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are

(a)   5I and I

(b)   5I and 3I

(c)   9I and I

(d)   9I and 3I

Ans: (c)

28. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter should have

(a)   low resistance in series with its coil

(b)   low resistance in parallel with its coil

(c)   high resistance in series with its coil

(d)   high resistance in parallel with its coil

Ans: (c)

29. The equivalent resistance across A and B is

(a)   2 Ω

(b)   3 Ω

(c)   4 Ω

(d)   5 Ω

Ans: (c)

30. A black body has a wavelength of λ at temperature 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000 K will be





Ans: (a)

31. At room temperature, copper has free electron density of 8.4 × 1028 m−3. The electron drift velocity in a copper conductor of cross-sectional area of 10−6 m2 and carrying a current of 5.4 A, will be

(a)   4 ms1

(b)   0.4 ms1

(c)   4 cm ms1

(d)   0.4 mm s1

Ans: (d)

32. A uniform wire of resistance R and length L is cut into four equal parts, each of length L/4 which are then connected in parallel combination. The effective resistance of the combination will be

(a)   R

(b)   4 R

(c)   R/4

(d)   R/16

Ans: (d)

33. The half-life of radio isotope is 4 h. If initial mass of the isotope was 200 g, then mass remaining after 24 h will be

(a)   1.042 g

(b)   2.084 g

(c)   3.125 g

(d)   4.167 g

Ans: (c)

34. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

(a)   OR

(b)   NOR

(c)   AND

(d)   NAND

Ans: (c)

35. The work function for metals A, B and C are respectively 1.92 eV, 2.0 eV and 5eV. According to Einstein’s equation the metals which will emit photo, electrons for a radiation of wavelength 4100 Å is/are

(a)   none

(b)   A only

(c)   A and B only

(d)   All the three metals

Ans: (c)

36. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity υ1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity υ and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is





Ans: (b)

37. A 5 amp fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 W in circuit. The resistance of the fuse wire is

(a)   0.2 Ω

(b)   5 Ω

(c)   0.4 Ω

(d)   0.04 Ω

Ans: (d)

38. A force F is given F = at + bt2, where, t is time. What are the dimensions of a and b?





Ans: (d)

39. Two equal negative charges –q are fixed at the point (0, α) and (0, −α) on the y-axis. A positive charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. The charge will

(a)   execute SHM about the origin

(b)   move to the origin and remain at rest

(c)   move to infinity

(d)   execute oscillatory but not SHM

Ans: (d)

40. An ice-cube of density 900 kg/m3. The percentage of volume of ice-cube outside the water is

(a)   20%

(b)   35%

(c)   10%

(d)   25%

Ans: (c)



The above reaction is known as

(a)   aromatisation

(b)   pyrolysis

(c)   isomerisation

(d)   oxidation

Ans: (c)

2. Number of hydrogen-bonded water molecules associated in CuSO4 ∙ 5H2O is

(a)   one

(b)   two

(c)   three

(d)   All the live

Ans: (a)

3. Which of the following species do not show disproportionation on reaction?





Ans: (a)

4. Which one of the following acts as nucleophile?





Ans: (a)

5. During estimation of nitrogen in the organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia evolved from 0.5 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL of 1M H2SO4. Find out the percentage of nitrogen in the compound.

(a)   14%

(b)   28%

(c)   56%

(d)   68%

Ans: (c)

6. Which of the following compounds have highest melting point?

(a)   Only I

(b)   Only II

(c)   I and II

(d)   II and III

Ans: (b)

7. Identify the major product ‘X’ obtained in the following reaction.





Ans: (a)

8. Addition of water of alkynes occurs in acidic medium and in the presence Hg2+ ions as a catalyst. Which of the following products will be formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under these conditions?

(a)   CH3CH2CH2CHO

(b)   CH3CH2COCH3

(c)   CH3CH2COOH + CO2

(d)   CH3COOH + HCHO

Ans: (b)

9. The correct order of increasing acidic strength is

(a)   phenol < ethanol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid

(b)   ethanol < phenol < chloroacetic acid < acetic acid

(c)   ethanol < phenol < acetic acid < chloroacetic acid

(d)   chloroacetic acid < acetic acid < phenol < ethanol

Ans: (c)

10. KF has ccp structure. How many F ions and octahedral voids are there in this unit cell respectively

(a)   4 and 4

(b)   4 and 8

(c)   8 and 4

(d)   6 and 6

Ans: (a)

11. The osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm at 37℃. How much glucose would be used for injection that is at the same osmotic pressure as blood?

(a)   22.17 gL1

(b)   58.14 gL1

(c)   61.26 gL1

(d)   75.43 gL1

Ans: (b)

12. At equilibrium, the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile liquid solvent is

(a)   less than the rate of crystallisation

(b)   greater than the rate of crystallisation

(c)   equal to the rate of crystallisation

(d)   zero

Ans: (c)

13. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind a single metal ion. Which of the following is not a chelating agent?

(a)   Thiosulphato

(b)   Glycinato

(c)   Oxalato

(d)   Ethane-1, 2-diamine

Ans: (a)

14. On addition of small amount of KMnO4 to conc. H2SO4, a green oily compound is obtained which is highly explosive in nature. Identify the compound from the following.

(a)   Mn2O7

(b)   MnO2

(c)   MnSO4

(d)   Mn2O3

Ans: (a)

15. The magnetic nature of elements depends on the presence of unpaired electrons. Identify the configuration of transition element, which shows highest magnetic moment.

(a)   3d7

(b)   3d5

(c)   3d8

(d)   3d2

Ans: (b)

16. Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ – pπ bonding?

(a)   Carbon

(b)   Nitrogen

(c)   Phosphorus

(d)   Boron

Ans: (c)

17. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case o iodide slat, violet fumes come out. This is because.

(a)   H2SO4 reduces HI to I2

(b)   HI is of violet colour

(c)   HI gets oxidized to I2

(d)   HI changes to HIO3

Ans: (c)

18. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?

(a)   HF

(b)   HCl

(c)   HBr

(d)   HI

Ans: (a)

19. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell?

(a)   It does not participate in the cell reaction.

(b)   It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.

(c)   It provides surface for conduction of electrons.

(d)   It provides surface for redox reaction

Ans: (d)

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a)   Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.

(b)   Ecell and ∆rG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.

(c)   Ecell in the intensive property while ∆rG of cell reaction is an extensive properly.

(d)   Ecell is an extensive property while ∆rG of cell reaction is an intensive property.

Ans: (c)

21. Which of the following curves is in accordance with Freundlich adsorption isotherm?





Ans: (c)

22. A number of elements available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are

(a)   Al and Fe

(b)   Al and Cu

(c)   Fe and Cu

(d)   Cu and Ag

Ans: (a)

23. The element which forms oxides in all oxidation states +1 to +5 is

(a)   nitrogen

(b)   phosphorus

(c)   arsenic

(d)   antimony

Ans: (a)

24. Which of the following is the increasing order of enthalpy of vaporization?

(a)   NH3, PH3, AsH3

(b)   AsH3, PH3, NH3

(c)   NH3, AsH3, PH3

(d)   PH3, AsH3, NH3

Ans: (d)

25. When Br2 is treated with aqueous solutions of NaF, NaCl, NaI separately

(a)   F2, Cl2 and I2 are liberated

(b)   only F2 and Cl2 are liberated

(c)   only I2 is liberated

(d)   only Cl2 is liberated

Ans: (c)

26. In the presence of a catalyst, the heat evolved or absorbed during the reaction

(a)   increases

(b)   decreases

(c)   remains unchanged

(d)   may increase or decrease

Ans: (c)

27. The rate of gaseous reaction is given by the expression k[A][B]. If the volume of reaction vessel is suddenly reduced to 1/4th of the initial volume, the reaction rate relating to original rate will be

(a)   1/10

(b)   1/8

(c)   8

(d)   16

Ans: (d)

28. Which of the following is 3° amine?

(a)   1-methylcyclohexylamine

(b)   Triethyl amine

(c)   Tert-butylamine

(d)   N-methyl aniline

Ans: (b)

29. Which of the following enhances lathering property of soap?

(a)   Sodium carbonate

(b)   Sodium rosinate

(c)   Sodium stearate

(d)   Trisodium phosphate

Ans: (b)

30. The deficiency of vitamin C causes

(a)   scurvy

(b)   rickets

(c)   pyrrohea

(d)   pernicious anaemia

Ans: (a)

31. Excess fluoride (over 10 ppm) in drinking water can cause

(a)   harmful effect of bones and teeth

(b)   methemoglobinemia

(c)   kidney damage

(d)   laxative effect

Ans: (a)

32. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is

(a)   ∆T = 0

(b)   ∆p = 0

(c)   q = 0

(d)   W= 0

Ans: (c)

33.  Kp for this reaction is 2.47 × 10−29. At 298 K, ∆rG° for conversion of oxygen to ozone will be

(a)   100 kJ mol1

(b)   150 kJ mol1

(c)   163 kJ mol1

(d)   2303 kJ mol1

Ans: (c)

34. Which one of the following statements about C2 molecule is wrong?

(a)   The bond order of C2 is 2.

(b)   In vapour phase, C2 molecule is diamagnetic.

(c)   Double bond in C2 molecule consists of both π-bonds because of the presence of 4es in two π-molecular orbitals.

(d)   double bond in C2 molecule consists of one σ-bond and on π-bond.

Ans: (d)

35. The type of hybridization in SF6 molecule is

(a)   sp3d

(b)   dsp3

(c)   sp3d2

(d)   d2sp3

Ans: (c)

36. Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond character follows the order

(a)   LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

(b)   BCl3 < CCl4 < BeCl2 < LiCl

(c)   BeCl2 < LiCl < CCl4 < BCl3

(d)   CCl4 < BCl3 < BeCl2 < LiCl

Ans: (a)

37. Maximum number of electrons in a subshell of an atom determined by the following?

(a)   4l + 2

(b)   2n2

(c)   4l – 2

(d)   2l + 1

Ans: (a)

38. The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas per molecule in SI units at 25℃ will be

(a)   6.17 × 1021 JK1

(b)   6.17 × 1021 kJK1

(c)   6.17 × 1020 JK1

(d)   7.16 × 1020 JK1

Ans: (a)

39. pKa of acetic acid and pKb of ammonium hydroxide are 4.76 and 4.75 respectively. Calculate the pH of ammonium acetate solution.

(a)   6.02

(b)   7.005

(c)   8

(d)   5.602

Ans: (b)

40. The value of Kc for the reaction,

2A ⇋ B + C is 2 × 10−3. At a given time, if the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10−3 M. Which is true?

(a)   The reaction will be proceed in forward direction

(b)   The reaction will proceed in backward direction

(c)   The reaction will proceed in any direction

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (b)


1. Pellagra is caused by deficiency of vitamins

(a)   B5

(b)   B2

(c)   B6

(d)   B1

Ans: (a)

2. Notochord originates from

(a)   mesoderm

(b)   ectoderm

(c)   endoderm

(d)   None of these

Ans: (a)

3. Parthenogenesis is a term of

(a)   budding

(b)   asexual reproduction

(c)   sexual reproduction

(d)   regeneration

Ans: (c)

4. Bartholin’s gland is found in

(a)   penis

(b)   stomach

(c)   liver

(d)   vagina

Ans: (d)

5. Which one of the following statements best characterize the testis?

(a)   The seminiferous epithelium contains only proliferative cells

(b)   Functional compartmentalization of the seminiferous epithelium depends on tight junctions

(c)   The interstitial tissue contains few capillaries

(d)   The seminiferous epithelium contains numerous capillaries

Ans: (b)

6. Drugs that cause malformation in developing embryo during pregnancy are called

(a)   teratogens

(b)   nicotine

(c)   tranquillisers

(d)   alcoholic beverages

Ans: (a)

7. Which set is similar?

(a)   Corpus luteum          -Graafian follicles

(b)   Sebum                       -Sweat

(c)   Vitamin-B7               -Niacin

(d)   Bundle of His            -Pacemaker

Ans: (a)

8. Which one out of (a) to (d) given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic amino acid?





Ans: (d)

9. Given below is a schematic break-up of the phases/stages of cell cycle. Which one of the following is the correct indication of the stage/phase in the cell cycle?

(a)   C-karyokinesis

(b)   S-synthetic phase

(c)   A-cytokinesis

(d)   B-metaphase

Ans: (b)

10. Which one of the following structural formula of two organic compounds is correctly identified along with its related function?

(a)   B-uracil –a component of DNA

(b)   A-triglyceride – major source of energy

(c)   A-lecithin – a component of cell membrane

(d)   B-adenine – nucleotide that makes up nucleic

Ans: (c)

11. Which is substitution of mitochondria in coli?

(a)   Golgi body

(b)   Mesosome

(c)   Ribosome

(d)   Glyoxysomes

Ans: (b)

12. Animal cell differ from plant cell in possessing

(a)   vacuoles

(b)   centrosomes

(c)   pastids

(d)   mitochondria

Ans: (b)

13. Which of the following organelles does not contain RNA?

(a)   Plasmalemma

(b)   Ribosome

(c)   Chromosome

(d)   Nucleolus

Ans: (a)

14. Dutrochet has given the concept about cell in

(a)   1834

(b)   1814

(c)   1822

(d)   1824

Ans: (d)

15. The scientific name of gharial is

(a)   Naja bungarus

(b)   Gavialis gangeticus

(c)   Hemidactylus flavivridis

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (b)

16. Which of the given option is correct regarding the statements?

Statement I  Cephalochordata bears notochord all along the body throughout life.

Statement II Urochordate bears vertebral column only in tail region throughout the life.

(a)   I wrong, II correct

(b)   I correct, II wrong

(c)   Both I and II are wrong

(d)   Both are correct

Ans: (b)

17. In which of the following haemocyanin pigment is found?

(a)   Lower invertebrates

(b)   Echinodermata

(c)   Insecta

(d)   Annelida

Ans: (a)

18. Which of the following cells in earthworm play a role similar to liver in vertebrates?

(a)   Amoebocytes

(b)   Mucocytes

(c)   Chloragogen cells

(d)   Epidermal cells

Ans: (c)

19. Match the following and select the correct option.

(a)   A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1, E-4

(b)   A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-4

(c)   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5

(d)   A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, E-5

Ans: (a)

20. Chondrichthyes is characterized by

(a)   placoid scale

(b)   placoid scale and ventral mouth

(c)   ventral mouth

(d)   ctenoid scale and ventral mouth

Ans: (b)

21. Ichthylogy is study of

(a)   aves

(b)   amphibians

(c)   reptiles

(d)   fishes

Ans: (d)

22. What will happen if ligaments are torn?

(a)   Bone will become unfixed

(b)   Bone will become fixed

(c)   Bone less movable at joint and pain

(d)   Bone will move freely at joint and no pain

Ans: (c)

23. Achondroplasia is a disease related with the defect in the formation of

(a)   membrane

(b)   mucosa

(c)   bone

(d)   cartilage

Ans: (d)

24. Yellow bone marrow is found specially in the medullary cavity

(a)   long  bones

(b)   spongy bones

(c)   short bones

(d)   All of the above

Ans: (a)

25. Match the items of column I with column II and choose the correct option from the code given below.

(a)   A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

(b)   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c)   A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

(d)   A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

Ans: (b)

26. Space in the jaw bone unoccupied by teeth is called

(a)   dentine

(b)   diastema

(c)   enamel

(d)   crown

Ans: (b)

27. Identify the correct set, which shows the name of the enzyme from where it is secreted and substrate upon which it acts.

(a)   Ptyalin – Intestine – Maltose

(b)   Ptyalin – Pancreas – Lipid

(c)   Pepsin – Stomach wall – Caesin

(d)   Chymotrypsin – Salivary gland – Lactose

Ans: (c)

28. Endemic goiter is a state of

(a)   normal thyroid function

(b)   moderate thyroid function

(c)   increased thyroid function

(d)   decreased thyroid function

Ans: (d)

29. Hormone responsible for the secretion of milk after parturition is

(a)   ACTH

(b)   LH

(c)   ICSH

(d)   Prolactin

Ans: (d)

30. What is another name for the wind pipe?

(a)   Trachea

(b)   Larynx

(c)   Oesophagus

(d)   Lungs

Ans: (a)

31. Soil salinity is measured by

(a)   Porometer

(b)   Calorimeter

(c)   Conductivity meter

(d)   Potometer

Ans: (c)

32. Predation and parasitism are which type of interactions.

(a)   (+, +)

(b)   (+, 0)

(c)   (−, −)

(d)   (+, −)

Ans: (d)

33. The ultimate source of energy for living being is

(a)   sunlight

(b)   ATP

(c)   fats

(d)   carbohydrates

Ans: (a)

34. Which of the following species are restricted to an area?

(a)   Sympatric species

(b)   Sibling species

(c)   Allopatric species

(d)   Endemic species

Ans: (d)

35. Select the incorrect statement.

(a)   Stellar’s sea cow and passenger pigeon got extinct due to over exploitation by men

(b)   The mitotic convention on biological diversity was held in 1992

(c)   Species diversity increase as we move away from the equator towards the poles

(d)   Lantana and Eichhornia are invasive weed species in India

Ans: (c)

36. The effect of cigarette smoking and radon in combination on lungs is

(a)   fatal

(b)   synergistic

(c)   mutualistic

(d)   antagonistic

Ans: (b)

37. The thermostable enzymes, Taq and pfu, isolated from thermophilic bacteria are

(a)   RNA polymerases

(b)   DNA ligases

(c)   DNA polymerases

(d)   restriction endonucleases

Ans: (c)

38. Biolistic technique is used in

(a)   gene transfer process

(b)   tissue culture process

(c)   hybridisation process

(d)   germplasm conservation process

Ans: (a)

39. The largest gene in man is

(a)   insulin gene

(b)   tumour suppressor gene

(c)   beta globin gene of haemoglobin

(d)   dystrophin

Ans: (d)

40. Herbicide resistant gene in plant is

(a)   Mt

(b)   Gt

(c)   Ct

(d)   Bt

Ans: (d)


1. In photosynthesis carbon dioxide is converted to carbohydrates. It is a …… process.

(a)   reductive

(b)   oxidative

(c)   catabolic and exergonic

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (d)

2. Which of the following is not an auxin?

(a)   IAA

(b)   IBA

(c)   Zeatin

(d)   NAA

Ans: (c)

3. Which of the following properties is shown by cytokinins?

(a)   Delay leaf senescence

(b)   Cause leaf abscission

(c)   Promote seed dormancy

(d)   Promote stomatal closing

Ans: (a)

4. Which of the following characteristics is are exhibited by C4-plants?

I. Kranz anatomy.

II. The first product of photosynthesis is oxaloacetic acid.

III. Both PEP carboxylates and ribulose biphosphate carboxylate act as carboxylating enzymes.

The correct option is

(a)   I and III, but not II

(b)   I and II, but not III

(c)   II and III, but not I

(d)   II and III

Ans: (d)

5. Which of the following plant keeps it stomata open during night and closed during the day?

(a)   Orchid

(b)   Cactus

(c)   Tea

(d)   Wheat

Ans: (b)

6. Genetic dwarfism can be overcome by

(a)   gibberellin

(b)   ethyelen

(c)   auxin

(d)   ABA

Ans: (a)

7. Hormone inducing fruit ripening is

(a)   cytokinin

(b)   ethylene

(c)   abscissic acid

(d)   gibberellic acid

Ans: (b)

8. The year 1900 AD is highly significant for geneticists due to

(a)   discovery of genes

(b)   principle of linkage

(c)   chromosome theory of heredity

(d)   rediscovery of Mendelism

Ans: (d)

9. F­1-generation means

(a)   first filial generation

(b)   first seed generation

(c)   first flowering generation

(d)   first fertile generation

Ans: (a)

10. Skin colour is controlled by

(a)   single gene

(b)   3 pair of genes

(c)   2 pairs of genes

(d)   2 pairs of genes with an intragene

Ans: (b)

11. Which of the following cross will produce terminal flower in garden pea?

(a)   AA × Aa

(b)   AA × aa

(c)   Aa × Aa

(d)   Aa × AA

Ans: (c)

12. Which one of the following pairs of plants are not seed producers?

(a)   Funaria and Ficus

(b)   Fern and Funaria

(c)   Funaria and Pinus

(d)   Ficus and Chlamydomonas

Ans: (b)

13. Which one of the following is heterosporous?

(a)   Equisetum

(b)   Dryopteris

(c)   Salvinia

(d)   Adiantum

Ans: (c)

14. Cycas revolute is popularly known as

(a)   sago palm

(b)   royal palm

(c)   data palm

(d)   sea palm

Ans: (a)

15. Match the following with correct combination.

(a)   A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4, E-2

(b)   A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4

(c)   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-2

(d)   A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2, C-3

Ans: (d)

16. Bacterial endotoxin is

(a)   a toxic protein that stays inside the bacterial cell

(b)   a toxic protein that is excreted into the medium

(c)   lipopolysaccharide located on the surface of the bacteria

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (c)

17. Endosperm of gymnosperms is

(a)   haploid

(b)   tetraploid

(c)   diploid

(d)   None of these

Ans: (a)

18. First vascular plant is

(a)   thallophyta

(b)   pteridophyta

(c)   bryophyta

(d)   spermatophyta

Ans: (b)

19. Diatomaceous earth is obtained from

(a)   Bacillarophyceae

(b)   Xanthophyceae

(c)   Rhodophyceae

(d)   Chrysophyceae

Ans: (a)

20. Which of the following is an epidermal cell containing chloroplast?

(a)   Stomata

(b)   Hydathode

(c)   Guard cell

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

21. The structures present in the roots to absorb water and minerals is

(a)   epidermal extensions

(b)   hypodermis

(c)   endodermis

(d)   epidermal appendages

Ans: (a)

22. Lady finger belongs to family

(a)   Malvaceae

(b)   Cucurbitaceae

(c)   Brassicaceae

(d)   Liliaceae

Ans: (a)

23. The interxylary phloem is found in the stem of

(a)   Cucurbita

(b)   Salvia

(c)   Calotropis

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

24. Wound healing is due to

(a)   ventral meristem

(b)   secondary meristem

(c)   primary meristem

(d)   All of these

Ans: (b)

25. Angular collenchymas occurs in

(a)   Salvia

(b)   Helianthus

(c)   Althaea

(d)   Cucurbita

Ans: (d)

26. In pteridophytes, phloem is without

(a)   bast fibers

(b)   sieve tubes

(c)   companion cells

(d)   sieve cells

Ans: (c)

27. Match the following entities of column I with their respective orders of column II and choose the correct combination form the option.

(a)   A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(b)   A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

(c)   A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(d)   A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Ans: (a)

28. Agar-agar is produce by

(a)   fungi

(b)   algae

(c)   bacteria

(d)   blue-green algae

Ans: (b)

29. In DNA, when AGCT occurs, their association is as per which of the following pair

(a)   A-G, C-T

(b)   A-T, G-C

(c)   A-C, G-T, A-C, E-T

(d)   All of these

Ans: (b)

30. A segment of DNA has 120 adenine and 120 cytosine bases. The total number of nucleotides present in the segment is

(a)   60

(b)   240

(c)   120

(d)   480

Ans: (d)

31. Lactose is composed of

(a)   glucose + glucose

(b)   glucose + galactose

(c)   glucose + fructose

(d)   fructose + galactose

Ans: (b)

32. Meiosis is best observed in dividing

(a)   Cell of lateral meristem

(b)   Cells of apical meristem

(c)   microsporocytes

(d)   microspores and anther wall

Ans: (c)

33. Study the following statements and select the correct option.

I. Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.

II. Hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.

III. In aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, pollination is by water.

IV. The primary endosperm nucleus is triploid.

(a)   I, II, and IV are correct, but III is incorrect

(b)   I and II are correct, but III and IV are incorrect

(c)   I and IV are correct, but II and III are incorrect

(d)   I, III and IV are correct, but I is incorrect

Ans: (a)

34. Masses of pollen grains, i.e., pollinia is found in

(a)   Graminease

(b)   Solanaceae

(c)   Orchidaceae

(d)   Malvaceae

Ans: (c)

35. Morphine, which is used as an analgesic is obtained from

(a)   Taxus brevifolia

(b)   Berberis nilghiriensis

(c)   Cinchona officinalis

(d)   Papaver somniferum

Ans: (d)

36. Pebrine is a disease of

(a)   fish

(b)   honey bee

(c)   silk worm

(d)   lac insect

Ans: (c)

37. Factor govering the earth surface is

(a)   topographic

(b)   edaphic

(c)   temperature

(d)   bioitc

Ans: (a)

38. The direction of energy flow is

(a)   Producers → Herbivores → Decomposers → Omnivores

(b)   Producers → Carnivore → Herbivores → Decomposes

(c)   Decomposers → Carnivores → Herbivores → Producers

(d)   Producers → Herbivores → Carnivores → Decomposers

Ans: (d)

39. If the Bengal tiger become extinct

(a)   hyenas and wolves will become scarce

(b)   its gene pool will be lost forever

(c)   the wild areas will be safe far man and domestic

(d)   the population of beautiful animals like deers will get stabilised

Ans: (b)

40. Biological treatment of water pollution is done with the help of

(a)   fungi

(b)   lichen

(c)   phytoplanktons

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (c)


Directions (Q. No. 1-5) In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate word. Four alternatives are suggested from each questions. Choose the correct alternative out of the four.

1. The little girl ……. for the light switch in the dark.

(a)   groped

(b)   grappled

(c)   gripped

(d)   groveled

Ans: (a)

2. The summit meeting provided him the much……shot in the arm.

(a)   required

(b)   desired

(c)   needed

(d)   urgent

Ans: (c)

3. We must……..the tickets for the movie in advance.

(a)   draw

(b)   buy

(c)   remove

(d)   take

Ans: (b)

4. The State Transport Corporation has ……..a loss of Rs. 5crore this year.

(a)   obtained

(b)   derived

(c)   incurred

(d)   formulated

Ans: (c)

5. …. and you know who among them is the culprit.

(a)   look

(b)   deep

(c)   sight

(d)   gaze

Ans: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-10) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, Choose the one which best express the meaning of the given word.


(a)   Advantage

(b)   Proposal

(c)   Contradict

(d)   Suggestion

Ans: (c)


(a)   Profuse

(b)   Boundless

(c)   Deep

(d)   Fathomless

Ans: (c)


(a)   Adventure

(b)   Advice

(c)   Criticism

(d)   Praise

Ans: (c)


(a)   Pioneer

(b)   Criminal

(c)   Devotee

(d)   Scholar

Ans: (b)


(a)   Continuous

(b)   Gradual

(c)   Intermittent

(d)   Spontaneous

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.


(a)   Stainless

(b)   Shining

(c)   Sterilised

(d)   Clean

Ans: (d)


(a)   Deserted

(b)   Lonely

(c)   Empty

(d)   Barren

Ans: (a)


(a)   Known

(b)   Published

(c)   Popular

(d)   Definite

Ans: (d)


(a)   Overlook

(b)   Misdirect

(c)   Neglect

(d)   Forget

Ans: (b)


(a)   Selfish

(b)   Naive

(c)   Generous

(d)   Small

Ans: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase printed in bold in sentence. Choose the alternative which best express the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

16. We have to keep our finger crossed till the final result is declared

(a)   keep praying

(b)   feel suspicious

(c)   wait expectantly

(d)   feel scared

Ans: (c)

17. The members of the group were at odds over the selection procedure.

(a)   acting foolishly

(b)   in dispute

(c)   unanimous

(d)   behaving childishly

Ans: (b)

18. The popularity of the yesteryears’ superstar is one the wane.

(a)   growing more

(b)   at its peak

(c)   growing less

(d)   at rock -bottom

Ans: (c)

19. His father advised him to the fair and square in this dealings lest he should fall into trouble.

(a)   considerate

(b)   upright

(c)   careful

(d)   polite

Ans: (b)

20. There is no love lost between the two neighbours.

(a)   close friendship

(b)   intense dislike

(c)   a love-hate relationship

(d)   cool indifference

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part at (a), (b), (c) which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, your answer (d).

21. Ravi has got many friends because he has got much money.

(a)   Enough money

(b)   A lot of money

(c)   Bags of money

(d)   No improvement

Ans: (b)

22. You must try making him to understand.

(a)   Make him understand

(b)   To making him understand

(c)   To make him understand

(d)   No improvement

Ans: (c)

23. He has cooked that meal so often he can do it with his eyes closed.

(a)   Mind blank

(b)   Eyes covered

(c)   Hands full

(d)   No improvement

Ans: (d)

24. Not a word they spoke to the unfortunate wife about it.

(a)   They had spoken

(b)   Did they speak

(c)   They will speak

(d)   No improvement

Ans: (b)

25. There is sufficient fund to meet the requirement of the entire schools in our zone.

(a)   Schools

(b)   All the schools

(c)   All of the schools

(d)   No improvement

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In the following questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

26. Word for word reproduction.

(a)   Copying

(b)   Mugging

(c)   Verbatim

(d)   Photostat

Ans: (c)

27. A person who collects coins.

(a)   Philatelist

(b)   Numismatist

(c)   Narcissist

(d)   Fatalist

Ans: (b)

28. That which is perceptible by touch

(a)   Tangible

(b)   Tenacious

(c)   Contagious

(d)   Contingent

Ans: (a)

29. One who possesses many talents.

(a)   Versatile

(b)   Gifted

(c)   Exceptional

(d)   Nubile

Ans: (a)

30. A person who studies the formation of the Earth.

(a)   Meteorologist

(b)   Anthropologist

(c)   Geologist

(d)   Seismologist

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-35) In the following questions, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts named P, Q, R and S. These parts are not given in their proper order. Rearrange these parts in their proper order and find out which of the given four combination is correct?

31. (1) In reply to a question

(P) that securing extradition

(Q) operating from the UK soil remained

(R) of anti-India elements

(S) The spokesman said

(6) New Delhi’s first priority.

(a)   PRQS

(b)   QSPR

(c)   RQSP

(d)   SPRQ

Ans: (d)

32. (1) The first component is

(P) and vocational training

(Q) so as to enable them

(R) the provision of further technical

(S) so both rural and urban youth

(6) to secure employment in industry and the services sector.

(a)   PRSQ

(b)   RPSQ

(c)   RSQP

(d)   SRPQ    

Ans: (b)

33. (1) The move to revert to a six-day week

(P) among the employees

(Q) while the leaders represented to the Chief Minister

(R) that they be taken into confidence

(S) led to an animated decision

(6) before any decision was taken.

(a)   QPSR

(b)   RSPQ

(c)   SPQR

(d)   SQPR

Ans: (c)

34. (1) It was obvious

(P) made by him

(Q) submitted at the meeting

(R) from the comments

(S) on the draft proposals

(6) that he was not satisfied with them.

(a)   PSRQ

(b)   QRSP

(c)   RPSQ

(d)   SQRP

Ans: (c)

35. (1) The Minister of state for power

(P) in conservation of electricity in industries

(Q) has written to his counterparts in State Government

(S) on bringing about improvement

(6) by introduction of energy efficient equipment.

(a)   QPSR

(b)   RPSQ

(c)   SPQR

(d)   SQPR

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 36-40) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

In this work of incessant and feverish activity, men have little time to think, much less to consider ideals and objectives. Yet how are we to act, even in the present, unless we know which way we are going and what our objectives are? It is only in the peaceful atmosphere of a university that these basic problems can be adequately considered.

It is only when the young men and women, who are in the university today and on whom the burden of life’s problems will fall tomorrow, learn to have clear objectives and standards of values that there is hope for the next generation. The past generation produced some great men but as a generation led the world repeatedly to disaster. World Wars IInd are the price that has been paid for the lack of wisdom on man’s part in this generation.

I think that there is always a close and intimate relationship between the end we aim at and the mean adopted to attain it.

Even, if the end is right, but the means are wrong, it will vitiate the end or divert us in a wrong direction. Means and ends are thus intimately and inextricably connected and cannot be separated.

That indeed has been the lesson of old taught us by many great men in the past, but unfortunately it seldom remembered.

36. People have little time to consider ideals and objectives because

(a)   they consider these ideals meaningless

(b)   they do not want to burden themselves with such ideas

(c)   they have no inclination for such things

(d)   they are excessively engaged in their routine activities

Ans: (d)

37. ‘The burden of life’s problems’ in the fourth sentence refers to

(a)   the incessant and feverish activities

(b)   the burden of family responsibilities

(c)   the onerous duties of life

(d)   the sorrows and sufferings

Ans: (c)

38. The world Wars IInd are the price that man paid due to

(a)   the absence of wisdom and sagacity

(b)   his not caring to consider the life’s problems

(c)   his ignoring the ideals and objectives of life

(d)   his excessive involvement in feverish activities.

Ans: (a)

39. According to the writer the adoption of wrong means even for the right end would

(a)   not let us attain our goal

(b)   bring us dishonour

(c)   impede our progress

(d)   deflect us from the right path

Ans: (d)

40. The word ‘vitiate’ used in the second paragraph means

(a)   negate

(b)   debase

(c)   tarnish

(d)   destroy

Ans: (b)

JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2014 With Answer Key


Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year – 2014


1. A ball is released from certain height which losses 50% of its kinetic energy on striking the ground, it will attain in height again

(a)   1/4th of initial height

(b)   1/2th of initial height

(c)   3/4th of initial height

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (b)

2. If applied torque on a system is zero, i.e., τ = 0, then for that system

(a)   ω = 0

(b)   α = 0

(c)   J = 0

(d)   F = 0

Ans: (b)

3. A steel wire of 1 m long and 1 mm2 cross section area is hanged from rigid end when weight of 1 kg is hang from it, then change in length will be

(Young’s coefficient for wire Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2)

(a)   0.5 mm

(b)   0.25 mm

(c)   0.05 mm

(d)   5 mm

Ans: (c)

4. When plate voltage in diode valve is increased from 100V to 150V. Then, plate increases from 7.5 mA to 12 mA, then dynamic plate resistance will be

(a)   10 kΩ

(b)   11 kΩ

(c)   15 kΩ

(d)   11.1 kΩ

Ans: (d)

5. If the sun rays are incidenting at 60° angle and intensity is I. If the sun rays are made incident at 30° angle, then what will be the intensity?





Ans: (b)

6. The reason of current flow in p-n junction in forward bias is

(a)   drifting of charge carriers

(b)   drifting of minority charge carriers

(c)   diffusion of charge carriers

(d)   All of the above

Ans: (c)

7. A charged particle is accelerated by a potential of 200 V. If its velocity is 8.4 × 108 m/s, then value of e/m for that particle is





Ans: (c)

8. When an open organ is dipped in water upto half of its height, then its frequency will becomes

(a)   half

(b)   double

(c)   remain same

(d)   four time

Ans: (c)

9. A sound source producing waves of frequency 300 Hz and wavelength 1 m observer is stationary, while source is going away with the velocity 30 m/s, then apparent frequency heared by the observer is

(a)   270 Hz

(b)   273 Hz

(c)   383 Hz

(d)   300 Hz

Ans: (b)

10. A particle moves towards east for 2s with velocity 15 m/s and move towards north for 8 s with velocity 5 m/s. Then, average velocity of the particle is

(a)   1 m/s

(b)   5 m/s

(c)   7 m/s

(d)   10 m/s

Ans: (b)

11. Relation between wavelength of photon and electron of same energy is





Ans: (a)

12. Match the following.

(a)   C – 2, D – 1

(b)   A – 4, B – 3

(c)   A – 3, C – 2

(d)   B – 2, A – 1

Ans: (b)

13. If we increase kinetic energy of a body 300%, then per cent increase in its momentum is

(a)   50%

(b)   300%

(c)   100%

(d)   150%

Ans: (c)

14. Change in acceleration due to gravity is same upto a height h from each other the earth surface and below depth x, then relation between x and h is (h and x < < < Re)

(a)   x = h

(b)   x = 2h

(c)   x = h/2

(d)  x = h2

Ans: (b)

15. A mass of 1 kg is suspended from spring of force constant 400 N, executing SHM total energy of the body is 2J, then maximum acceleration of the spring will be

(a) 4 m/s2

(b) 40 m/s2

(c) 200 m/s2

(d) 400 m/s2

Ans: (b)

16. Two capacitors of capacities C1 and C2 are charged upto the potential V1 and V2, then condition for not flowing the charge between on connected them in parallel is





Ans: (b)

17. Find equivalent resistance between X and Y

(a)   R

(b)   R/L

(c)   2R

(d)   5R

Ans: (a)

18. Vibrations of rope tied by two rigid ends shown by equation y = cos 2πt sin 2πx, then minimum length of the rope will be

(a)   1 m

(b)   1/2m

(c)   5 m

(d)   2 π m

Ans: (b)

19. If we change the value of R, then

(a)   voltage does not change on L

(b)   voltage does not change on LC combination

(c)   voltage does not change on C

(d)   voltage changes on LC combination

Ans: (d)

20. If V = ary, then electric field at appoint will be proportional to

(a)  r 

(b)  r−1 

(c)  r−2

(d)  r2

Ans: (d)

21. Electric field at point 20 cm away from the centre of dielectric sphere is 100 V/m, radius of sphere is 10 cm, then the value of electric filed at a distance 3 cm from the center is

(a)   100 V/m

(b)   125 V/m

(c)   120 V/m

(d)   0

Ans: (d)

22. 50 g ice at 0℃ in insulator vessel, 50 g water of 100℃ is mixed in it, then final temperature of the mixture is (neglect the heat loss)

(a)   10℃


(c)   20℃

(d)   above 20℃

Ans: (a)

23. Real power consumption in a circuit is least when it contains.

(a)   high R, low L

(b)   high R, high L

(c)   low R, high L

(d)   high R, low C

Ans: (c)

24. Linear density of a string of is 1.3 × 104 kg/m and wave equation is y = 0.021 sin)x + 30t). Find, the tension in the string where, x in metre and t in second

(a)   0.12 N

(b)   0.21 N

(c)   1.2 N

(d)   0.012 N

Ans: (a)

25. Magnetic field at point O will be





Ans: (a)

26. If prism angle α = 1°, μ = 1.54, distance between screen and prism (D) = 0.7 m, distance between prism and source a = 0.3 m, λ = 180π nm, then in Fresnal biprism find the value of β(fringe width).





Ans: (b)

27. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, relation between principal quantum number n and radius of stable orbit is





Ans: (d)

28. An observer is approaching with velocity υ towards a light source. If the velocity of light is c, then velocity of light with respect to observer will be

(a)   c – v

(b)   c

(c)   c + v


Ans: (c)

29. Magnetic field of the earth is H = 0.3 g. A magnet is vibrating 5 oscillations per min then the dippreciation required in the magnetic field of the earth of increase time period upto 10 oscillations per minute is

(a)   2.25 g

(b)   0.6 g

(c)   0.9 g

(d)   0.12 g

Ans: (a)

30. Work function of a metal is 5.2 × 1018, then its threshold wavelength will be

(a)   736.7 Å

(b)   760.7 Å

(c)   301 Å

(d)   344.4 Å

Ans: (d)

31. Remaining quantity (in%) of radioactive element after 5 half lives is

(a)   4.125%

(b)   3.125%

(c)   31.1%

(d)   42.125%

Ans: (a)

32. A engine pumps up 100 kg of water through a height of 10 m in 5s. Given that, the efficiency of engine is 60%. If g = 10 ms2, the power of this engine is

(a)   3.3 kW

(b)   0.33 kW

(c)   0.033 kW

(d)   33 kW

Ans: (a)

33. The angular amplitude of a simple pendulum is θ0. The maximum tension in its string will be





Ans: (d)

34. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively are ϕ, and ϕ2, the electric charge inside the surface will be





Ans: (d)

35. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of absolute temperature. The ratio  for the gas is

(a)   4/3

(b)   2

(c)   5/3

(d)   3/2

Ans: (d)

36. Three points charges +q, −2q and +q are placed at points (x = 0, y = a, z = 0), (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = 0, z = 0), respectively. The magnitude and direction of the electric dipole moment vector of this charge assembly are

(a)   √2q along + y direction

(b)   √2qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(c)   qa along the line joining points (x = 0, y = 0, z = 0) and (x = a, y = a, z = 0)

(d)   √2aq along + x direction

Ans: (b) 

37. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity υ. If μ is the coefficient of vlicling friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time

(a)   v/gμ

(b)   gμ/v

(c)   g/v

(d)   v/g

Ans: (a)

38. To get three images of a single object, we should have two plane mirrors at an angle of

(a)   60°

(b)   90°

(c)   120°

(d)   30°

Ans: (b)

39. A particle of mass M and charge Q moving with velocity v describes a circular path of radius R when subjected to a uniform transverse magnetic field of induction B. The work done by the field, when the particle completes one full circle, is


(b)   zero

(c)   BQ2πR

(d)   BQv2πR

Ans: (b)

40. A particle of mass 100 g is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 5 m/s. The work done by the force of gravity during the time the particle goes up is

(a)   −0.5 J

(b)   −1.25 J

(c)   1.25 J

(d)   0.5 J

Ans: (b)


1. The relative reactivities of acyl compounds towards nucleophilic substitution are in the order of

(a)   acyl chloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide

(b)   ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride

(c)   acid anhydride > amide > ester > acyl chloride

(d)   acyl chloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide

Ans: (a)

2. Clemmensen reduction of a ketone is carried out in the presence of which of the following?

(a)   Zn-Hg with HCl

(b)   LiAlH4

(c)   H2 and Pt. as catalyst

(d)   Glycol with KOH

Ans: (a)

3. In Duma’s method of estimation of nitrogen, 0.35 g of an organic compound gave 55 mL of nitrogen collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure. The percentage composition of nitrogen in the compound would be

(Aqueous tension at 300 K = 15 mm)

(a)   16.45

(b)   17.45

(c)   14.45

(d)   15.45

Ans: (a)

4. Which of the following is not correct?

(a)   Ammonia is used as refrigerant

(b)   A mixture of Ca(CN)2 and C is known as nitrolim

(c)   A mixture of Ca(H2PO4)2 and CaSO4 ∙ 2H2O is known as superphosphate of lime

(d)   Hydrolysis of NCl3 gives NH3 and HOCl

Ans: (b)

5. Which one of the following is aromatic?

(a)   Cyclopentadienyl cation

(b)   Cyclooctatetraene

(c)   Cycloheptatriene

(d)   Cycloheptatrienylcation

Ans: (d)

6. The complexes [Co(NH3)6]C [Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which type of isomerism?

(a)   Ionisation isomerism

(b)   Coordination isomerism

(c)   Geometrical isomerism

(d)   Linkage isomerism

Ans: (b)

7. A solution with negative deviation among the following is

(a)   ethanol-acetone

(b)   chlorobenzene-bromobenzene

(c)   chloroform-acetone

(d)   benzene-toluene

Ans: (c)

8. Which of the following compounds is soluble in benzene but almost insoluble in water?





Ans: (d)

9. The correct order of magnitude of bond angles among the compounds CH4, NH3 and H2O is





Ans: (b)

10. Which one of the following reactions does not form gaseous product?





Ans: (c)

11. Observe the following reaction

2A + B → C

The rate of formation of C is

2.2 × 10−3 mol L−1 min−1. What is the value of  (in mol L−1 min−1)





Ans: (c)

12. Which one of the following is employed as antithistamine?

(a)   Diphenyl hydramine

(b)   Norethndrone

(c)   Omeprazole

(d)   Chloramphenicol

Ans: (a)

13. If x is amount of adsorbate and m is amount of adsorbent, which of the following relations is not related to adsorption process?





Ans: (c)

14. Standard electrode potential of three metals X, Y and Z are −2 V, +0.5 V and −3.0 V respectively. The reducing power of these metals will be

(a)   Y > X > Z

(b)   Z > X > Y

(c)   X > Y > Z

(d)   Y > Z > X

Ans: (b)

15. Which of the following compounds has the lower melting point?

(a)    CaBr2

(b)    CaI2

(c)    CaF2

(d)    CaCl2

Ans: (b)

16. The dissociation equilibrium of a gas AB2 can be represented as

2AB2(g) ⇌ 2AB (g) + B2(g)

The degree of dissociation is ‘x’ and is small compared to 1. The expression relating the degree of dissociation (x) with equilibrium constant Kp and total pressure p is





Ans: (b)

17. A buffer solution is prepared in which the concentration of NH3 is 0.30 M and the concentration of NH4+ is 0.20 M. If the equilibrium constant, Kb for NH3 equals 1.8 × 105, what is the pH of this solution?

(log 2.7 = 0.43)

(a)   9.43

(b)   11.72

(c)   8.73

(d)   9.08

Ans: (a)

18. If a gas expands at constant temperature indicates that

(a)   kinetic energy of molecules decreases

(b)   pressure of the gas increases

(c)   kinetic energy of molecules remains as same

(d)   number of the molecules of gas increase

Ans: (c)

19. If n = 6, the correct sequence for filling of electrons will be

(a)   ns→(n – 1)d →(n – 2)f → np

(b)   ns → (n – 2) f → np → (n – 1)d

(c)   ns → np → (n – 1)d → (n – 2)f

(d)   ns → (n – 2)f → (n – 1)d → np

Ans: (d)

20. Which of the following is least likely to behave as Lewis base?

(a)    NH3

(b)    BF3

(c)    OH

(d)    H2O

Ans: (b)

21. In DNA, the complementary bases are

(a)   adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

(b)   adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil

(c)   adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine

(d)   uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine

Ans: (a)

22. Which of the following is not a resonating form of benzaldehyde?









Ans: (b)

23. Which one of the following does not undergo iodoform reaction?

(a)   Secondary butyl alcohol

(b)   Iso-propyl alcohol

(c)   Diethyl ketone

(d)   Ethyl alcohol

Ans: (c)

24. Percentage of free space in a body centre cubic unit cell is

(a)   30%

(b)   32%

(c)   34%

(d)   28%

Ans: (b)

25. For the reaction, N­2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), the equilibrium constant is K1. The equilibrium constant is K2 for the reaction, 2NO(l) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO2(g). What is K for the reaction,  





Ans: (b)

26. Acidified K2Cr2O7 solution turns green when Na2SO3 is added to it. This is due to the formation of





Ans: (d)

27. Among the following the least thermally stable is





Ans: (d)

28. Which one of the following is ‘d’-block element?

(a)   Gd

(b)   Hs

(c)   Es

(d)   Cs

Ans: (b)

29. The angular shape ozone molecule (O3) consists of

(a)   1 sigma and 2 pi bonds

(b)   2 sigma and 2 pi bonds

(c)   1 sigma and 1 pi bonds

(d)   2 sigma and 1 pi bonds

Ans: (d)

30. If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative value then which of the following gives the correct relationships for the values of ∆G° and Keq?





Ans: (c)

31. Among the following the molecule possessing highest dipole moment is





Ans: (c)

32. An electron is moving in Bohr’s fourth orbit. Its de-Broglie wave length is λ. What is the circumference of the fourth orbit?

(a)   2/ λ

(b)   2λ

(c)   4λ

(d)   4/ λ

Ans: (c)

33. The standard enthalpies of formation of A(NH3), B(CO2), C(HI) and D(SO2) are −19, −393.4, +24.94 and −296.9 kJ mol1 respectively. The increasing order of their stability is

(a)   B < D < A < C

(b)   C < A < D < B

(c)   D < B < C < A

(d)   A < C < D < B

Ans: (b)

34. Green chemistry means such reactions which

(a)   produce colour during reactions

(b)   reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals

(c)   are related to the depletion of ozone layer

(d)   study the reactions in plants

Ans: (b)

35. Which of the following compounds gives carbylamines test?

(a)   N-methyl-o-methyl aniline

(b)   N, n-dimethyl aniline

(c)   2 4-diethyl aniline

(d)   p-methyl-N-methyl benzylamine

Ans: (c)

36. Which of the following is an example for heterogeneous catalysis reaction?


(b)   Hydrolysis of aqueous sucrose solution in the presence of a aqueous mineral acid


(d)   Hydrolysis of liquid in the presence of aqueous mineral acid

Ans: (c)

37. Which of the following pair of metals is purified by van-Arkel method?

(a)   Zr and Ti

(b)   Ag and Au

(c)   Ni and Fe

(d)   Ga and ln

Ans: (a)

38. Name the type of the structure of silicate in which one oxygen atom of [SiO4]4 is shared?

(a)   Sheet silicate

(b)   Pyrosilicate

(c)   Three dimensional silicate

(d)   Linear chain silicate

Ans: (b)

39. In Fischer-Ringe’s method of separation of nobles gas mixture from air, …… is used


(b)   coconut charcol

(c)   soda lime + potash solution


Ans: (a)

40. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action?





Ans: (a)


1. The most recent and direct pre-historic ancestor is

(a)   cro-magnon

(b)   neanderthal

(c)   pre-neaderthal

(d)   None of these

Ans: (a)

2. Rh-factor can produce disease

(a)   AIDS

(b)   Tumer’s syndrome

(c)   Erythroblastosis foetalis

(d)   Sickle cell anaemia

Ans: (c)

3. Penumotoxic centre which an moderate the function of the respiratory rhythm centre is present at

(a)   pons region in brain

(b)   thalamus

(c)   spinal cord

(d)   right cerebral hemisphere

Ans: (a)

4. Which type of cells are absent in sponges?

(a)   Trophocytes

(b)   Myocytes

(c)   Archeocytes

(d)   Cnidocytes

Ans: (d)

5. Zero growth means

(a)   natality balance mortality

(b)   natallity is more than mortality

(c)   natality is less than mortlity

(d)   natality is zero

Ans: (a)

6. Which of the following hormone secretes a gastric secretion?

(a)   Entero gastrone

(b)   Gastrin

(c)   CCK-PZ

(d)   Villikinin

Ans: (b)

7. The protein α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat which of the following disease?

(a)   Cancer

(b)   Rhematoid arthritis

(c)   Emphysema

(d)   ADA deficiency disease in children

Ans: (c)

8. Darwins finches represent

(a)   morphological variations

(b)   geographical isolations

(c)   climate variations

(d)   reproductive isolation

Ans: (b)

9. Food storage in Leucosolenia occur by

(a)   ostia

(b)   osculam

(c)   thesocyte

(d)   spongocoel

Ans: (c)

10. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is known to be affected by gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination and

(a)   evolution

(b)   limiting factors

(c)   saltation

(d)   natural selection

Ans: (d)

11. Which one of the following in birds indicates their reptilian ancestry?

(a)   Scales on their hindlimbs

(b)   Four-chambered heart

(c)   Two special chambers crop and gizzards in their digestive tract 

(d)   Egg with a calcareous shell

Ans: (d)

12. Darwinsim explains all the following except

(a)   within each species, there are variations

(b)   organisms tend to produce more number of offspring that can survive

(c)   offspring with better traits that overcome competition are best suited for the environment

(d)   variations are inherited from parents to offspring through genes

Ans: (d)

13. Which of the following disorder is an outcome of irregularities in metabolism of the nitrogenous waste?

(a)   Osteoporosis

(b)   Gouty arthritis

(c)   Osteroarthritis

(d)   Rehumatoid arthritis

Ans: (b)

14. During urine formation, which of the following process create thigh osmotic pressure in the uriniferous tubule?

(a)   Active Na+ absorption, followed by absorption of Cl

(b)   Active Cl absorption, followed by absorption of Na+

(c)   Active secretion of Na+ into efferent arteriole followed by absorption of Cl into efferent renal arteriole

(d)   Active secretion of Cl and absorption of Na+ into efferent renal arteriole

Ans: (a)

15. Steroid hormones work as

(a)   they enter into target cells and binds with specific receptor and ativate4s specific genes to form protein

(b)   they binds to cell membrane

(c)   they catalyse formation of cAMP

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (b)

16. In the following diagram showing axon terminal and synapse A, B, C, D and E respectively represents

(a)   A-axon terminal, B-synaptic cleft, C-synaptic vesicles, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors

(b)   A- axon terminal, B-synaptic vesicles, C-synaptic cleft, D-receptors, E-neurotransmitters

(c)   A-synaptic cleft, B-synaptic vesicles, C-axon terminal, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors

(d)   A-synaptic vesicles, B-axon terminal, C-synaptic vesicles, D-neurotransmitters, E-receptors

(e)   A-synaptic vesicles, B-axon terminal, C-synaptic cleft, D-receptors, E-neurotransmitters

Ans: (b)

17. Adrenaline and noradrenaline are hormones that act as

(a)   energy producing agents

(b)   food storage materials

(c)   neurotransmitters

(d)   energy storing substances

Ans: (c)

18. If due to some injury the chordate tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart is partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

(a)   The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down

(b)   The ‘pace maker’ will stop working

(c)   The blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium

(d)   The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be reduced

Ans: (a)

19. The vector for T-DNA is

(a)   Thermus aquaticus

(b)   Salmonella typhimurium

(c)   Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(d)   Escherichia coli

Ans: (c)

20. Match the enzyme in column I with its function in column II and choose the correct option.

(a)   A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(b)   A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

(c)   A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(d)   A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Ans: (b)

21. In the central nervous system, myelinated fibres form the ….., while the non-myelinated fibre cells form the ……

(a)   grey matter, white matter

(b)   white matter, grey matter

(c)   ependymal cells, neurosecretory cells

(d)   neurosecretory cell, ependymal cells

Ans: (b)

22. Haemoglobin is

(a)   an oxygen carrier in human blood

(b)   a protein used as food supplement

(c)   an oxygen scavenger in root nodules

(d)   a p lant protein with high lysine content

Ans: (a)

23. Which of the following tissue is a vascular?

(a)   Cowpait bone

(b)   Skeletal muscle

(c)   Stratified squamous epithelium

(d)   Adipose tissue

Ans: (c)

24. Many elements are found in living organisms either free or in form of compounds. One of the following is negligible is living organisms

(a)   silicon

(b)   magnesium

(c)   iron

(d)   sodium

Ans: (a)

25. Which of the following represent uridylic acid?

(a)   Uracil + Ribose

(b)   Uridine + Phosphoric acid

(c)   Uracil + Phosphoric acid

(d)   Uridine + Ribose + Phosphoric acid

Ans: (d)

26. Consider the following statements with two blanks X and Y and select the option which correctly fills up these blanks

In the centre of the inter vertebrel disc, a soft area is present called ….X….. .

Which is supposed to be remnant of …. Y.. .

(a)   X-Nucleus pulposus ,         Y-Nerve cord

(b)   X-Centrum                ,         Y-Noto cord        

(c)   X-Nucleus pulposus ,         Y-Noto cord

(d)   X-Centrum                ,         Y-Nerve cord

Ans: (c)

27. Six highly chitinous plate-like teeth are found in ……. of cockroach

(a)   mandible

(b)   gizzard

(c)   mexilla

(d)   rectum

Ans: (b)

28. The statement All biological catalysts are protein is no longer valid after the discovery of

(a)   ribonuclease

(b)   ribozyme

(c)   RNAs

(d)   DNAs

Ans: (b)

29. The structure present in all adult vertebrates is

(a)   notochord

(b)   dorsal tubular nerve cord

(c)   pharyngeal gill slits

(d)   All of these

Ans: (b)

30. Which one of the following is not a vertebrate?

(a)   Sea cow

(b)   Sea lion

(c)   Sea horse

(d)   Sea hare

Ans: (d)

31. In human during fertilization a sperm firstly comes in contact with which layer of ovum

(a)   zona pellucida

(b)   vitelline membrane

(c)   jelly coat

(d)   zona radiata

Ans: (d)

32. Newly formed Biosphere Reserve of India (2013) is

(a)   Pachmarhi

(b)   Himalaya

(c)   Cold desert

(d)   Panna

Ans: (d)

33. Which statement is correct for bacterial transduction?

(a)   Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus

(b)   Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bacteria by conjugation.

(c)   Bacteria obtain DNA directly

(d)   Bacteria obtain DNA from other external source

Ans: (a)

34. Theory of pangenesis was given by

(a)   Darwin

(b)   Lamarck

(c)   Hugo de Vries

(d)   Oparin

Ans: (a)

35. Which part of animal virus is not produced in multiple copies?

(a)   Capsid

(b)   Proteins

(c)   Envelops

(d)   Ribosome

Ans: (c)

36. Viroids have

(a)   ssRNA not enclosed by protein coat

(b)   ssDNA not enclosed by protein coat

(c)   dsDNA enclosed by protein coat

(d)   dsRNA enclosed by protein coat

Ans: (a)

37. Biotic potential or potential natality means

(a)   natural increase of population under ideal/optimum conditions

(b)   potential of organism in a biome

(c)   number of organisms in a biome

(d)   species of maximum number in a population

Ans: (a)

38. The world’s highly prized wool yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is

(a)   sheep

(b)   goat

(c)   goat-sheep cross

(d)   Kashmiri sheep-Afghan sheep cross

Ans: (b)

39. Probes, used in DNA fingerprinting, are initially

(a)   single stranded RNA

(b)   mini-satellite

(c)   19base long oligonucleotide

(d)   All of the above

Ans: (b)

40. Satellite DNA is useful tool in

(a)   organ transplantation

(b)   sex determination

(c)   forensic science

(d)   genetic engineering

Ans: (c)


1. Which of the following is non-symbiotic nitrogen fixer organism?

(a)   VAM

(b)   Azotobacter

(c)   Anabaena

(d)   Rhizobium

Ans: (b)

2. Aleurone grains are rich in

(a)   fat

(b)   protein

(c)   carbohydrates

(d)   auxins

Ans: (b)

3. Match the following columns and choose the correct option.

(a)   A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2

(b)   A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3

(c)   A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

(d)   A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5

Ans: (b)

4. The rupture and fractionation do not usually occur in water column in vessel/trachieds during the ascent of sap because of

(a)   lignified thick walls

(b)   cohesion and adhesion

(c)   weak grauitational pull

(d)   transpiration pull

Ans: (b)

5. Stability of ecosystem depends upon

(a)   primary productivity

(b)   interchange between producers and consumers

(c)   number of producers

(d)   number of consumers

Ans: (b)

6. The material, which arrests cell division, is obtained from

(a)   Crocus

(b)   Colchicum

(c)   Dalbergis

(d)   Chysanthomum

Ans: (b)

7. Viscum album grown on trees. This is an example of

(a)   symbiosis

(b)   parasitism

(c)   commensalism

(d)   predation

Ans: (b)

8. Which of the following is responsible for biological nitrogen-fixation?

(a)   Nife gene

(b)   Nitrogenase

(c)   Yeast alanin tRNA synthetase

(d)   RNA synthetase

Ans: (a)

9. The respiratory quotient during cellular respiration would depend on the

(a)   nature of enzymes involved

(b)   nature of the substrate

(c)   amount of carbon dioxide released

(d)   amount of oxygen utilized

Ans: (b)

10. Which of the following supports a dense population of plankton and littoral vegetation?

(a)   Oligotrophic

(b)   Eutrophic

(c)   Lithotrophic

(d)   Agroecotrophic

Ans: (b)

11. Which of the following is not true for a species?

(a)   Members of a species can interbreed

(b)   Variations occur among members of species

(c)   Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species

(d)   Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species

Ans: (d)

12. Given below is the chemical formula of

(a)   palmitic acid

(b)   glycerol

(c)   galactose

(d)   stearic acid

Ans: (a)

13. Choose the wrong pair

(a)   Cenchrus-Savanna

(b)   Abies – Coniferous forest

(c)   Quercus – Broad leaf forest

(d)   Tectona – Temperate forest

Ans: (d)

14. Rarely among angiosperms, the pollen grains influenced the endosperm. This is called as

(a)   meta xenia

(b)   nemec phenomenon

(c)   xenia

(d)   mesogamy

Ans: (c)

15. Three floral diagrams are given here. Their respective families are assigned in the answer key. Find out the families to which these diagrams belong to

(a)   A-Liliaceae, B-Asteraceae, C-Solanaceae

(b)   A-Asteraceae, B-Solanaceae, C-BRassicaceae

(c)   A-Asteraceae, B-Solanaceae, C-Asteraceae

(d)   A-Poaceae, B-Solanaceae, C-Asteraceae

Ans: (b)

16. Tyloses an out growth from ray or axial parenchyma cell into the lumen of a vessels, which partially or completely blocks the cavity are present in

(a)   periderm

(b)   heart wood

(c)   sap wood

(d)   secondary cortex

Ans: (b)

17. Overlapping region between two ecosystem is called

(a)   biome

(b)   ecotone

(c)   niche

(d)   photic zone

Ans: (b)

18. Phage genome site on bacterial chromosome resulted in the structure

(a)   nucleic acid

(b)   heterocyst

(c)   prophage

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

19. ‘Sun basket’ is

(a)   the device to utilize sun rays directly to meet the requirement of heat energy

(b)   the sufficient amount of sunlight stored in a cell

(c)   a device of taking sunbath

(d)   All of the above

Ans: (b)

20. The dominant epistasis ratio is

(a)   9:3: 3:1

(b)   12:3:1

(c)   9:3:4

(d)   9:6:1

Ans: (b)

21. Benthic organisms are found in

(a)   surface of marine water

(b)   middle of water in sea

(c)   bottom of sea

(d)   on ground

Ans: (c)

22.  Ethylene is related with

(a)   aerobic respiration

(b)   climacteric phenomenon

(c)   anaerobic respiration

(d)   fermentation

Ans: (b)

23. Select the correct statement from the one’s given below with respect to dihybrid cross.

(a)   tightly linked gene on the same chromosome show higher recombinations

(b)   genes for apart on same chromosomes show very few recombination

(c)   genes loosely linked on the same chromosomes show similar recombination as lightly linked ones

(d)   tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show very few recombination

Ans: (d)

24. Maximum green house gases are released by

(a)   India

(b)   Britain

(c)   USA

(d)   France

Ans: (c)

25. In a cola fired power plant, electrostatic precipitators are installed to control emission of

(a)   SO2

(b)   NOx

(c)   SPM

(d)   CO

Ans: (c)

26. Tow genes R and y are located very close on the chromosome linkage map on maize plant. When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridized, then F2 segregation will show

(a)   higher number of the recombinant types

(b)   Segregation with expected 9:3:3:1 ratio

(c)   Segregation is 3:1 ratio

(d)   higher number of the parental types

Ans: (d)

27. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in

(a)   drying of the lake very soon due to algal bloom

(b)   an increased production of fish due to lot of nutrients

(c)   death of fish due to lack of oxygen

(d)   increased population of aquatic food web organisms

Ans: (c)

28. Allelic sequence variation where more than one variant allele at a locus in a human population with a frequency greater than 0.01 is referred to as

(a)   DNA polymorphism

(b)   multiple allelism

(c)   SNP

(d)   EST

Ans: (a)

29. Besides dung, the weed that can be used in biogas production is

(a)   Hydrilla

(b)   Solanum- nigrum

(c)   Eichhornia Crassipes

(d)   Parthenium hysterophorus

Ans: (c)

30. The following is the diagram of TS of anther. Identify the parts labeled as A, B and C.

(a)   A-Connective, B-Endothecium, C-Pollen grain

(b)   A-Endothecium, B-Connective, C-Pollen grain

(c)   A-Pollen grain, B-Connective, C-Endothecium

(d)   A-Endothecium, B-Pollen grain, C-Connective

Ans: (a)

31. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel

(a)   bio metallurgical technique

(b)   bio mineralization process

(c)   bio insecticidal plants

(d)   bio fertilizers

Ans: (c)


In the given diagram, parts labeled as A, B, C, D,  E and F are respectively indentified as

(a)   synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodals, filiform apparatus and egg

(b)   polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids

(c)   egg, synergids, central cell, filiform apparatus, antipodals and polar nuclei

(d)   central cell, polar nuclei filiform apparatus, antipodals, synergids and egg

Ans: (a)

33. In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which, multinucleate condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium. The perfect example for this is

(a)   appearance of a furrow in cell membrane

(b)   liquid endosperm in coconut

(c)   sexual reproduction

(d)   fertilization

Ans: (b)

34. Jacob and Monod name some enzymes as allosteric whose activity is regulated by

(a)   end product

(b)   substrate

(c)   by product

(d)   coenzyme

Ans: (a)

35. The mobile genetic element is

(a)   transposon

(b)   mutation

(c)   endonuclease

(d)   variation

Ans: (a)

36. In recombinant DNA technique, the term vector refers to

(a)   donor DNA, is identified and picked up through electrophoresis

(b)   plasmid, transfers DNA into living cell

(c)   collection of entire genome in form of plasmid

(d)   enzyme, cuts the DNA at specific sites

Ans: (b)

37. The net requirement of assimilatory power for the formation of 6 hexose molecules in maize plant is

(a)   72 ATP, 48 NADPH

(b)   90 ATP, 60 NADPH

(c)   108 ATP, 72 NADPH

(d)   180 ATP, 72 NADPH

Ans: (d)

38. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed, the performance of F1 hybrid in often superior to both of its parents. This phenomenon is called

(a)   transformation

(b)   heterosis

(c)   splicing

(d)   meta morphosis

Ans: (b)

39. Given below is a sample of portion of DNA strand given the base sequence on the opposite strand. What is so special show in it?


3’−CTTAAG … 5’

(a)   Detection mutation

(b)   Start codon at 5′ end

(c)   Palindromic sequence of base pairs

(d)   Replication completed

Ans: (c)

40. Rauwolffia serpentina is used in

(a)   curing high blood pressure

(b)   kidney failure

(c)   eye defect

(d)   diabetes

Ans: (a)


Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Choose the word/group of words which is the most nearly SAME in meaning as the word/group of words given in bold as used in the passage.


(a)   Open

(b)   Earnest

(c)   Dissolute

(d)   Upright

Ans: (d)


(a)   Animate

(b)   Urge

(c)   Stimulate

(d)   Dissuade

Ans: ()


(a)   Adequate

(b)   Dependent

(c)   Overflowing

(d)   Self-reliant

Ans: (d)


(a)   Adjust

(b)   Concentrate

(c)   Meditate

(d)   Circulate

Ans: (b)


(a)   Artificial

(b)   Shallow

(c)   Complete

(d)   Profound

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Pick out the most effective word/phrase from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

6. He knelt at his side and comforted him with ……. words.

(a)   harsh

(b)   silent

(c)   kind

(d)   cruel

Ans: (c)

7. A man who is perpetually …… which of the two things he will do first, will do neither,

(a)   confused

(b)   forced

(c)   orders

(d)   hesitating

Ans: (d)

8. We cannot ……. of life without suitable environment.

(a)   live

(b)   buy

(c)   extract

(d)   think

Ans: (d)

9. He thought the boy ……. to benefit the blacksmith.

(a)   wants

(b)   wanting

(c)   desire

(d)   harm

Ans: (a)

10. The fisherman gladly ……. up the baby and took it home.

(a)   loaded

(b)   picked

(c)   dragged

(d)   pushed

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (d) i.e., ‘No error (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

11. He is neither in (a) favour of arms race or in favour of (b)/simple nuclear disarmament. (c)/ No error (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (a)

12. Naturalization is the process by which (a)/ a immigrant becomes a citizen (b)/ of his new country. (c)/ No error (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (b)

13. A high fat diet not only increases the risks (a)/ of heart ailments (b) / however also that of other disorders. (c)/ No error (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (a)

14. When two vowel (a) / sounds occurs in direct succession, (b)/ the transition between them is often difficult to make. (c)/ No error (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (b)

15. The solutions is to avoid the impasse altogether, (a)/ by taking a (b) / slightly different route. (c) / No error (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the following sentences to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below them.

A. A classroom discussion can be initiated in order to answer this very question.

B. An electric current could not be made to traverse distilled water

C. Yet when salt and distilled water were mixed, then the solution became a liquid through which electricity could pass with ease.

D. Neither would solid salt offer free passage to electricity.

E. How could one explain this strange behavior of solution.

F. And, as the current passed through this solution, a deep seated decomposition took place.

16. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentences?

(a)   A

(b)   C

(c)   B

(d)   E

Ans: (d)

17. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

(a)   A

(b)   B

(c)   F

(d)   E

Ans: (c)

18. Which of the following will be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence?

(a)   C

(b)   A

(c)   B

(d)   E

Ans: (b)

19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?

(a)   C

(b)   D

(c)   F

(d)   A

Ans: (a)

20. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

(a)   A

(b)   D

(c)   B

(d)   C

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-25) Which of the phrases (a), (b) and (c) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as is given and no correction is required, mark (d) as the answer

21. Your doctor may explain the importance of a proper and balanced diet in the human body.

(a)   an proper and balanced

(b)   a proper or balance

(c)   a prosperous and balance

(d)   No correction required

Ans: (d)

22. English today is closer to been a world language than any other language has been in history.

(a)   is closer for been

(b)   is closer upon being

(c)   is closer to being

(d)   No correction required

Ans: (c)

23. In almost every occupation on needs simple a understanding of electricity.

(a)   needed simple an

(b)   need a simple

(c)   needs a simple

(d)   No correction required

Ans: (c)

24. When ice and water existed together on the same volume, the temperature remains constant.

(a)   exist together in

(b)   will exist together on

(c)   existed together in

(d)   No correction required

Ans: (a)

25. Scientific method as a rote item in the syllabus had little valued.

(a)   had belittled value

(b)   has little value

(c)   have little value

(d)   No correction required

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 26-30) In each sentence below three words have been printed in bold which are number (a), (b) and (c). One of these words may be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the wrongly spelt or inappropriate word. The number of that word is the answer. If all the words are correctly spelt and are appropriate the answer is (d) i.e., all correct

26. The importanse (a) given to content-oriented approach has affected the methodology (b) of this project. (c) All correct (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (a)

27. Almost all risk-taking (a) work involve (b) decision making under uncertainty. (c) All correct (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (d)

28. In developing (a) countries there is increasing (b) concern for fostering human potential. (c) All correct (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (b)

29. I want to express (a) my appreciation (b) of the help offered by my former colleages. (c) All correct (d)

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (c)

30. The research (a) reported in this valume (b) assumes importance. (c) All correct (d).

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, four words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Working under the psychometric approach, both scientists and practitioners have placed undue emphasis upon a unitary concept of intelligence as reflected in the single I.Q. They seem to have ……(31)…… too much attention of the  products of intelligent behavior rather than the processes used to acquire …..(32)……products. Such attention to product rather than to process tends to mark qualitative differences in the processes by …..(33)…. individuals interact with their environment and to …..(34)…. attention away from the possibility of qualitative changes in the nature of these processes ….(35)… the curse of cognitive development.

Haywood points out that there is no such thing as intelligence. There are in fact many intelligences. There are in fact many intelligences. Factor analysts, ….(36)…. have studied the nature of intellect by examining its apparent structure across different age groups and different segments of the population have to a great …..(37)…. discredited the unitary concept of intelligence. Even so, the structure theories of intelligence are …..(38)…. concerned with products and not with processes.

Development (Cognitive Development) approach. It ….(39)…. upon the cognitive processes used to receive, code and …..(40)…. Information.

31. (a) gives         (b) gave

       (c) forced       (d) given

Ans: (d)

32. (a) those    (b) these

      (c) that        (d) raw

Ans: (b)

33. (a) how         (b) way

     (c) speech      (d) which

Ans: (d)

34. (a) draw         (b) seek

      (c) force         (d) drag

Ans: (d)

35. (a) at            (b) plan

      (c) during      (d) follow

Ans: (c)

36. (a) who       (b) should

    (c) might        (d) will

Ans: (a)

37. (a) meaning  (b) person

      (c) extend      (d) extent

Ans: (d)

38. (a) uptill   (b) till

      (c) until    (d) still

Ans: (d)

39. (a) focus (b) focuses

      (c) jumps (d) emphasise

Ans: (b)

40. (a) pack   (b) transmits

      (c) store   (d) stocked

Ans: (c)


JIPMER Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2015 With Answer Key


Medical Entrance Exam Previous Year – 2015


1. The angle between two linear trans-membrane domains is defined by following vectors 





Ans: (b)

2. The distance x(in μm) covered by a molecule starting from point A at time t = 0 and stopping at another point B in given by the equation 

The distance between A and B (in μm) is closed to

(a)   10.7

(b)   20.7

(c)   40.7

(d)   50.7

Ans: (a)

3. A tangential force acting on the top of sphere of mass m kept on a rough horizontal place as shown in figure.


If the sphere rolls without slipping, then the acceleration with which the centre of sphere moves, is





Ans: (a)

4. The density of a rod having length l varies as ρ = c + dx, where x is the distance from the left end. The centre of mass is





Ans: (a)

5. One end of a massless spring of constant 100 N/m and natural length 0.5 m is fixed and the other end is connected to a p article of mass 0.5 kg lying on a frictionless horizontal table. The spring remains horizontal. If the mass is made to rotate at angular velocity of 2 rad/s, then elongation of spring is

(a)   0.1 m

(b)   10 cm

(c)   1 cm

(d)   0.01 cm

Ans: (c)

6. A block slides down on an incline of angle 30° with an acceleration g/4. Find the kinetic friction coefficient.





Ans: (c)

7. Two long straight wires, each carrying an electric current of 5 A, are kept parallel to each other at a separation of 2.5 cm. Find the magnitude of the magnetic force experiment by 10 cm of a wire.

(a)   4.0 × 104 N

(b)   3.5 × 106 N

(c)   2.0 × 105 N

(d)   2.0 × 109 N

Ans: (c)

8. A wire of resistance 10 Ω is bent to form a complete circle. Find its resistance between two diametrically opposite point.

(a)   5 Ω

(b)   2.5 Ω

(c)  1.25 Ω


Ans: (b)

9. Find the resistance of a hollow cylindrical conductor of length 1.0 mm and 2.0 mm respectively. The resistivity of the material is 2.0 × 10−8 Ωm.

(a)   2.1 × 103 Ω

(b)   1.3 × 104 Ω

(c)   3.2 × 104 Ω

(d)   4.6 × 102 Ω

Ans: (a)

10. Three equal charges, each having a magnitude of 2.0 × 106 C, are placed at the three corners of a right angled triangle of sides 3 cm 4 cm and 5 cm. The force (in magnitude) on the charge at the right

(a)   50 N

(b)   26 N

(c)   29 N

(d)   45.9 N

Ans: (d)

11. A diatomic gas (γ = 1.4) does 200 J of work when it is expanded isobarically. Find the heat given to the gas in the process.

(a)   500 J

(b)   700 J

(c)   600 J

(d)   900 J

Ans: (b)

12. A uniform ring of mass m and radius a is  placed directly above a uniform sphere of mass m and of equal to radius. The centre of the ring is at a distance √3a from the centre of the sphere. The gravitational force (F) exerted by the sphere on the ring is





Ans: (a)

13. A projectile is fired with a velocity u at angle θ with the ground surface. During the motion at any time it is making an angle α with the ground surface. The speed of particle at this time will be

(a)   u cos θ sec α

(b)   u cos θ ∙ tan α

(c)   u2 cos2 α sin2 α

(d)   u sin θ ∙ sin α

Ans: (a)

14. The earth receives solar radiation at a rate of 8.2 J cm2 min1. If the sun radiates as the black bodies, the temperature at the surface of the sun will be (the angle subtended by sun on the earth in suppose 0.53° and Stefan constant is σ = 5.67 × 108 Wm2 K4)

(a)   5800 K

(b)   6700 K

(c)   8000 K

(d)   7800 K

Ans: (a)

15. The rms speed (in m/s) of oxygen molecules of the gas at temperature 300 K, is

(a)   483

(b)   504

(c)   377

(d)   346

Ans: (a)

16. A horizontal tube of length l closed at both ends, contains an ideal gas of molecular weight M. The tube is rotated at a constant angular velocity ω about a vertical axis passing through an end. Assuming the temperature to be uniform and constant. If p1 and p2 denote the pressure at free and the fixed end respectively, then choose the correct relation.





Ans: (a)

17. The parts of two concentric circular arcs joined by two radial lines and carries current i. The arcs subtend an angle θ at the centre of the circle. The magnetic field at the centre O, is





Ans: (a)

18. 1 kg of water is converted into steam at the same temperature and at 1 atm (100 kPa). The density of water and steam are 1000 kgm3 and 0.6 kgm3 The latent heat of vaporization of water is 2.25 × 106 J kg1, What will be increase in energy?

(a)   3 × 105 J

(b)   4 × 106 J

(c)   2.08 × 106 J

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

19. The ammeter shown in figure consists of a 480 Ω coil connected in parallel to a 20Ω shunt. The reading of ammeter is

(a)   0.125 A

(b)   1.67 A

(c)   0.13 A

(d)   0.67 A

Ans: (a)

20. A lead ball at 30℃ is dropped from a height of 6.2 km. The ball is  heated due to the air resistance and it completely melts just before reaching the ground. The molten substance falls slowly on the ground. If the specific heat of lead = 126 Jkg−11 and melting point of lead = 130℃ and suppose that any mechanical energy lost is used to heat the ball, then the latent heat of fusion of lead is

(a)   2.4 × 104 J kg1

(b)   3.6 × 104 J kg1

(c)   7.6 × 102 J kg1

(d)   4.2 × 103 J kg1

Ans: (a)

21. A inductor (L- 20 H), a resistor (R = 100 Ω) and a battery (E = 10 V) are connected in series. After a long time, the circuit is short-circuited and then the battery is disconnected. Find the current in the circuit at 1 ms after short circuiting.

(a)   4.5 × 105 A

(b)   3.2 × 105 A

(c)   9.8 × 105 A

(d)   6.7 × 104 A

Ans: (d)

22. Two charges of +10μC and +20μC are separated by a distance 2 cm. The net potential (electric) due to the pair at the middle point of the line joining the two changes, is

(a)   27 MV

(b)   18 MV

(c)   20 MV

(d)   23 MV

Ans: (a)

23. A copper rod of length 20 cm and cross-sectional area 2 mm2 is joined with a similar aluminium rod as shown below

The resistance of pair of rods is

Al = 2.6 × 108 Ω-m and ρCu = 1.7 × 108 Ω-m)

(a)   1.0 mΩ

(b)   2.0 mΩ

(c)   3.0 mΩ

(d)   None of these

Ans: (a)

24. A particle is subjected to two simple harmonic motions along X-axis while other is along a line making angle 45° with the X-axis. The two motions are given by x = x0 sin ωt and s = s0 sin ω

The amplitude of resultant motion is





Ans: (d)

25. What is the change in the volume of 1.0 L kerosene, when it is subjected to an extra pressure of 2.0 × 105 Nm−2 from the following data? Density of kerosene = 800 kg m−3 and speed of sound in kerosene = 1330 ms−1.

(a)   0.97 cm3

(b)   0.66 cm3

(c)   0.15 cm3

(d)   0.59 cm3

Ans: (c)

26. A 4 kg block is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator through a spring having a linear mass density of 19.2 × 103 kg m3. Find the speed with respect to spring with which a wave pulse can proceed on the spring if the elevator accelerates up at the rate of 2.0 ms2. Take g = 10 ms2

(a)   30 m/s

(b)   42 m/s

(c)   46 m/s

(d)   50 m/s

Ans: (d)

27. The lower end of capillary tube is immersed in mercury. The level of mercury in the tube is found to be 2 cm below the outer level. If the same tube is immersed in water, upto what height will the water rise in the capillary?

(a)   5.9

(b)   4.9

(c)   2.9

(d)   1.9

Ans: (c)

28. Find the increase in pressure required to decrease the volume of water sample by 0.01% Bulk modulus of water  = 2.1 × 109 Nm−2.

(a)   4.3 × 104 N/m2

(b)   1.8 × 107 N/m2

(c)   2.1 × 105 N/m2

(d)   3.7 × 104 N/m2

Ans: (c)

29. Water level is maintained in a cylindrical vessel upto a fixed height H. The vessel is kept on a horizontal plane. At what weight above the bottom should a hole be made in the vessel, so that the water stream coming out of the hole strikes the horizontal p lane of the greatest distance from the vessel.





Ans: (a)

30. Figure shows spring + block + pulley system which are light. The time period of mass would be





Ans: (c)

31. A pendulum having a bob of mass m is hanging in a ship sailing along the equator form east to west. When the strip is stationary with respect to water, the tension in the string is T0. The difference between T0 and earth attraction on the  bob, is





Ans: (d)

32. A solid sphere is set into motion on a rough horizontal surface with a linear speed v in the forward direction and an angular speed v/R in the anticlockwise direction as shown in figure. Find the linear speed of the sphere when it stops rotating and 

(a)   3v/5

(b)   2v/5

(c)   4v/3

(d)   7v/3

Ans: (a)

33. Two blocks of mass m1 and m2 are connected by a spring of spring constant k. The block of mass m2 is given a sharp empulse so that it acquires a velocity v0 towards right. Find the maximum elongation that the spring will suffer.





Ans: (a)

34. A ball of mass m hits the floor with a speed v making an angle of incidence θ with the normal. The coefficient of restitution is e.

The speed of reflected ball and the angle of reflection of the ball will be





Ans: (a)

35. A particle slides on surface of a fixed smooth sphere starting from topmost point. The angle rotated by the radius through the particle,, when it leaves contact with the sphere, is





Ans: (b)

36. What is the radius of curvature of the parabola traced out by the projectile in the previous problem at a point where the particle velocity makes and angle θ/2 with the horizontal?





Ans: (a)

37. A block of mass 2 kg is pushed against rough vertical wall with a force of 40 N, coefficient of static friction being 0.5. Another horizontal force of 15 N, is applied on the block in a direction parallel to the wall. If the block will move, then its direction would be

(a)   15° with 15 N force

(b)   53° with 15 N force

(c)   45° with 15 N force

(d)   75° with 15 N force

Ans: (b)

38. A block is kept on the floor of an elevator at rest. The elevator starts descending with an acceleration of 12 m/s2. Find the displacement of the block during the first 0.2 s after the start. (Take, g = 10 m/s2)

(a)   30 cm

(b)   zero

(c)   20 cm

(d)   25 cm

Ans: (c)

39. A monkey of mass 15 kg is climbing on a rope with one end fixed to the ceiling. If it wishes to go up with an acceleration 1 m/s2, how much force should it apply to the rope if rope is 5 m long and the monkey starts from rest?

(a)   150 N

(b)   > 160 N

(c)   165 N

(d)   150 < T ≤ 160 N

Ans: (c)

40. A square loop is made y a uniform conductor wire as shown in figure?

The net magnetic field at the centre of the loop if side length of the square is a


(b) zero


(d) None of these

Ans: (b)

41. The electron of an H-atom is revolving around the nucleus in circular orbit having radius  The current  produced due to the motion of electron is





Ans: (d)

42. Two small balls, each carrying a charge q are suspended by equal insulator strings of length l m form the hook of a stand. This arrangement is carried in a satellite in space. The tension in each string will be





Ans: (b)

43. A vessel of depth t is half filled with a liquid having refractive index n1 and the other half is filled with water of having refractive index n2. The apparent depth of the vessel as viewed from top is





Ans: (c)

44. In photoelectric effect, the number of photo-electrons emitted is proportional to

(a)   velocity of incident beam

(b)   frequency of incident beam

(c)   intensity of incident beam

(d)   work function for cathode material

Ans: (c)

45. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current brings a change of 7.9 mA in the collector current. The value of α will be

(a)   0.96

(b)   0.93

(c)   0.90

(d)   0.99

Ans: (d)

46. The half-life of 198Au is 2.7 days. The average life is

(a)   4 days

(b)   3.4 days

(c)   3.9 days

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (c)

47. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron falling on the target in an X-ray tube is λ. The cut-off wavelength of the emitted X-ray is





Ans: (c)

48. If MO is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, MP and Mn are the masses of a proton and a neutron, respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is





Ans: (d)

49. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts which have their velocities in the ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of their nuclear size will be





Ans: (d)

50. The given p-V diagram shows gases during adiabatic process. Plots 1 and 2 should correspond respectively to

(a)    He and O2

(b)    O2  and He

(c)    He and Ar

(d)    O2 and N2

Ans: (a)

51. For an adiabatic expansion of a mono atomic perfect gas, the volume increases by 24%. What is the percentage decrease in pressure?

(a)   24%

(b)   40%

(c)   48%

(d)   71%

Ans: (b)

52. A body weighing 8 g when placed in one pan and 18 g when placed on the other pan of a false balance. If the beam is horizontal when both the pans are empty, then the true weight of the body is

(a)   13 g

(b)   9 g

(c)   22 g

(d)   12 g

Ans: (d)

53. A rod PQ of length l is moving with ends remaining in contact with frictionless wall and floor. If at the instant, shown the velocity of end Q is 2 m/s towards negative direction of x. The speed of end P will be





Ans: (b)

54. Universal time is based on

(a)   rotational effect of the earth about its axis

(b)   vibrations of cesium atom

(c)   orbital motion of the earth around the sun

(d)   oscillation of quartz crystal

Ans: (a)

55. A slab consists of portions of different materials of same thickness and having the conductivities K1 and K2. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is





Ans: (c)

56. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on table. Box A contains one mole of nitrogen at temperature T0, while box B contains 1 mole of helium at temperature 7/3 T0. The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature (ignore the heat capacity of boxes) then the final temperature of gases, Tf in terms of T0 is





Ans: (c)

57. The temperature of the cold junction of thermocouple is 0℃ and the temperature of hot junction is T℃. The emf is E = 16T – 0.04 T2 μ The inversion temperature Ti is

(a)   300℃

(b)   200℃

(c)   500℃

(d)   400℃

Ans: (d)

58. The galvanometer resistance is 30Ω and it is connected to 2 V battery along with a resistance 2000 Ω in series. A full scale deflection of 25 divisions is obtained. In order to reduce this deflection to 20 divisions, the resistance in series should be

(a)   2470 Ω

(b)   2320 Ω

(c)   2180 Ω

(d)   2210 Ω

Ans: (a)

59. A thin bar magnet of length 2 L is bent at the mid-point so that the angle between them  is 60°. The new length of the magnet is





Ans: (c)

60. The magnetic flux through each turn of a coil having 200 turns is given as (t2 – 2t) × 103 Wb, where t is in second. The emf induced in the coil at t = 3 s is

(a)   0.7 V

(b)   1.2 V

(c)   0.8 V

(d)   0.9 V

Ans: (c)


1. Given that the reduced temperature, 

the reduced pressure, 

the reduced volume, 

Thus, it can be said that the reduced equation of state may be given as





Ans: (d)

2. The suitable reaction steps to carry out the following transformation is





Ans: (c)


X + H2S → Z

Here, Z is

(a)   SO3

(b)   colloidal sulphur

(c)   gaseous sulphur

(d)   solid sulphur

Ans: (b)

4. For preparing 3.00 L of 1 M NaOH by mixing portions of two stock solutions (A and B) of 2.50 M NaOH and 0.40 M NaOH respectively. Find out the amount of B stock solution (in L) added.

(a)   8.57 L

(b)   2.14 L

(c)   1.28 L

(d)   7.51 L

Ans: (b)

5. Sodium sulphite is used in preserving squashes and other mildly acidic foods due to

(a)   potassium salt has preservative action

(b)   potassium metabisulphite prevents oxidation

(c)   potassium metabisulphite is not influcenced by acid

(d)   sulphur dioxide and sulphurous acid formed kill bacteria and germs

Ans: (d)

6. The Vividh Bharti Station of All India Radio, Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (Kilohertz). Calculate the wavelength (λ) of the electromagnetic radiation emitted by transmitter. Which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong to

(a)   319.4 m and X-rays

(b)   319.4 m and raiowave

(c)   219.3 m and microwave

(d)   219.3 m and radiowave

Ans: (d)

7. Which of the following soap/detergent is least, reduce space biodegradable?






Ans: (c)

8. In an atom, an electron is moving with a speed of 600 m/s with an accuracy of 0.005%. Certainty with which the position of the electron can be located is

(Given, h = 6.6 × 10−34 kg m2 s−1, mass of electron em = 9.1 × 10−31 kg)

(a)    2.15 × 103 m

(b)    2.78 × 103 m

(c)    1.92 × 103 m

(d)    3.24 × 103 m

Ans: (c)

9. Buna-N, a synthetic rubber is copolymer of





Ans: (b)

10. What would be the heat released when an aqueous solution containing 0.5 mole of HNO3 is mixed with 0.3 mole of OH?

(enthalpy of neutralization is −57.1 kJ)

(a)   28.5 kJ

(b)   17.1 kJ

(c)   45.7 kJ

(d)   1.7 kJ

Ans: (b)

11. The number average molar mass and mass average molar mass of a polymer are respectively 30,000 and 40,000. The polydispersity index (PDI) of the polymer is

(a)   −1

(b)   0

(c)   > 1

(d)   < 1

Ans: (c)

12. The charge/size ratio of a cation determines its polarizing power. Which one of the following sequences represents the increasing order of the polarizing power of the cationic species, K+, Ca2+, Mg2+, Be2+?





Ans: (a)

13. In an amino acids, the carboxyl group ionizes at and ammonium ion at  The isoelectric point of the amino acid is at pH

(a)   4.32

(b)   3.34

(c)   9.46

(d)   5.97

Ans: (d)

14. 40 g of helium in a bulb at a temperature of T K had a pressure of p atm. When the bulb was immersed in water bath at temperature 50 K more than the first one, 0.08 g of gas had to be removed to restore the original pressure.

(a)   500 K

(b)   400 K

(c)   600 K

(d)   200 K

Ans: (d)

15. What percentage of β-D(+)-glucopyranose is found at equilibrium in the aqueous solution?

(a)   64%

(b)   36%

(c)   ≈100%

(d)   ≈50%

Ans: (a)

16. Which of the following is correctly arranged in order of increasing weight?

(a)  0.0105 equivalent of  of Fe < 0.006 g atom of 

(b) 0.625 g of Fe < 0.0105 equivalent of atoms of Zn < 0.006g atom of Ag

(c) 0.625 g of  atoms of Zn < 0.006 g atom of Ag < 0.0105 equivalent of 

(d) 0.0105 equivalent of  atom of atoms of Zn < 0.625 g of Fe

Ans: (c)

17. The correct order of basic strength of the following are

(a)   I > II > IV > III

(b)   IV > III > II > I

(c)   II > III > IV > I

(d)   III > IV > II > I

Ans: (d)

18. If for a given substance, melting point is TB and freezing points is TA then correct variation of entropy by graph between entropy change and temperature is





Ans: (b)

19. When a mixture of 1-hexanol and hexanoic acid in diethyl ether is shaken with an aqueous NaHCO3 solution, then which of the following is right distribution?

(a)   In ether-Sodium hexanoate, In sodium bicarbonate solution-1hexanol

(b)   In ether-1-hexanol, In sodium bicarbonate solution-Hexanoic acid

(c)   In ether-1-hexanol, In sodium bicarbonate solution-Sodium hexanoate

(d)   In ether-Sodium hexanoate, In sodium bicarbonate solution-1hexanol

Ans: (c)

20. ∆H and ∆S for the reaction,  are 30.56 kJ mol−1 and 66.00 JK−1 mol−1 respectively. The temperature at which the free energy change for the reaction will be zero, is

(a)   3528 K

(b)   463 K

(c)   73 K

(d)   144 K

Ans: (b)


The major product P will be





Ans: (c)

22. If Ag+ + 2NH3 ⇌ Ag (NH3)2+; K1 = 1.7 × 107

Ag+ + Cl ⇌ AgCl; K2 = 5.4 × 109

Then, for AgCl + 2NH3 ⇌ [Ag(NH3)2]+ + Cl equilibrium constant will be

(a)    4.68 × 103

(b)    5.2 × 1017

(c)    0.31 × 102

(d)    3.1 × 102

Ans: (c)

23. What is product of the following sequence of reactions?





Ans: (d)

24. For the following equilibrium (omitting charges)

I. M + Cl → MCl, Keq = β1

II. MCl + Cl → MCl2, Keq = β2

III. MCl2 + Cl → MCl3, Keq = β3

IV. M + 3Cl → MCl3, Keq = K

then relationship between K, β1, β2 and β3 is





Ans: (d)

25. R―CH2―CH2―OH can be converted into RCH2CH2COOH by the following sequence of steps..





Ans: (b)

26. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and ultimately forms MnO42, MnO2, Mn2O3 and Mn2+, then the number of electrons transferred in each case respectively are

(a)   1, 3, 4, 5

(b)   3, 2, 1, 4

(c)   1, 5, 3, 7

(d)   4, 3, 2, 1

Ans: (a)

27. The product P of the given reaction is





Ans: (d)

28. In acidic medium, dichromatic ion oxidizes ferrous ion to ‘ferric ion. If the gram molecular weight of potassium dichromate is 294 g, its gram equivalent weight (in grams) is

(a)   24.5

(b)   49

(c)   125

(d)   250

Ans: (b)

29. Find out the correct stereoisomeric product for the following reaction,

(a)   d-form

(b)   I-from

(c)   meso-form

(d)   racemic mixture

Ans: (d)

30. Ferrous oxide has a cubic structure. The length of edge of the unit cell is 5 Å and the density of the oxide is 4.0 g cm−3. Then the number of Fe2+ and O2 ions present in each unit cell will be





Ans: (b)

31. In the reaction  

(a)   o-bromotoluene

(b)   m-bromotoluene

(c)   p-bromotoluene

(d)   3-bromo-2, 2, 6-trichlorotoluene

Ans: (b)


32. Which of the following arrangements correctly represents hexagonal and cubic close packed structure respectively?

(a)   ABAB …………. and ACBACB ………….

(b)   ABCABC ……….. and ABAB ………

(c)   Both have ABCABC …….. arrangement

(d)   Both have ABAB ………… arrangement

Ans: (a)

33. 0.001 mole of [Co(NH3)5(NO3)(SO4)] was passed through a cation exchanger and the acid coming out of it required 20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH for neutralization. Thus, the complex is





Ans: (a)

34. The molal freezing point depression constant for benzene (C6H6) is 4.90 K kg mol1. Selenium exists as a polymer of the type Sex. When 3.26 g of selenium is dissolved in 226g of benzene, the observed freezing point is 0.112℃ lower than that of pure benzene. The molecular formula of selenium is

(atomic mass of Se = 78.8 g mol−1)

(a)    Se8

(b)    Se6

(c)    Se4

(d)    Se2

Ans: (a)

35. In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+ , Fe(CN)6]3, [Fe(C2O4)3]3 and [FeCl6]3, mor stability is shown by





Ans: (b)

36. For an ideal binary liquid solution with  in which relation between Xx( mole fraction of X in liquid phase) and Yx (mole fraction of X in vapour phase) is correct, Xy and Yy are mole fraction of Y in liquid and vapour phase respectively





Ans: (c)

37. Point out the incorrect reaction from the following.





Ans: (b)



X, Y and Z respectively are








Ans: (a)

39. A student made the following observation in the laboratory.

I. Clean copper metal did not react with 1 molar Pb(NO3)2 solution

II. Clean lead metal dissolved in a 1 molar AgNO3 solution and crystals of Ag metal appeared

III. Clean silver metal did not react with 1 molar Cu(NO3)2 solution

The order of decrease in reducing character of three metals is

(a)   Pb, Cu, Ag

(b)   Pb, Ag, Cu

(c)   Cu, Ag, Pb

(d)   Cu, Pb, Ag

Ans: (a)

40. Choose the correct alkyne and reagents for the preparation of





Ans: (a)

41. The conductivity of 0.001028 mol L−1 acetic acid is 4.95 × 10−5 S cm−1. Find out its dissociation constant if ⋀m for acetic acid is 390.5 S cm−1 mol−1.





Ans: (b)

42. In order to prepare one litre 1N solution of KMnO4, how many grams of KMnO4 are required, if the solution to be used in acid medium for oxidation?

(a)   128 g

(b)   41.75 g

(c)   31.60 g

(d)   62.34 g

Ans: (c)

43. Which of the following represents the correct order of decreasing number of S = O bonds?





Ans: (c)

44. A hypothetical reaction, X2 + Y2 → 2 XY follows the following mechanism

X2 ⇌ X + X ….. fast

X + Y2 → XY + Y …….. slow

X+ Y → XY ……… fast

The order of the overall reaction is

(a)   2

(b)   3/2

(c)   1

(d)   0

Ans: (b)

45. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small quantity in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is

I. as a catalyst.

II. to make the fused mixture very conducting.

III. to lower the temperature of melting.

IV. to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode.

(a)   I, II

(b)   II, III

(c)   I, II, III

(d)   III, IV

Ans: (b)

46. The variation of concentration of the product P with time in the reaction, A → P is shown in following graph.

The graph between  and time will be of the type





Ans: (a)

47. Point out the correct statement.

(a)   Below 710℃, C is better reducing agent than CO

(b)   Below 710℃, CO is better reducing agent than C

(c)   Below 710℃, CO is an oxidizing agent

(d)   Below 710℃, CO2 is a reducing agent

Ans: (b)

48. Which of the following represents physical adsorption?





Ans: (d)

49. KMnO4 reacts with ferrous sulphate according to the following equation,

MnO4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H → Mn2+ + 2Fe3+ + 4H2O

Here, 10 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to

(a)   50 mL of 0.1 M

(b)   20 mL of 0.1 M

(c)   40 mL of 0.1 M

(d)   30 mL of 0.1 M

Ans: (a)

50. In an experiment, addition of 4.0 mL of 0.005 M BaCl2 to 16.0 mL of arsenious sulphide sol just causes complete coagulation in 2 h. The flocculating value of the effective ion is





Ans: (a)

51. Which of the following atomic and physical properties of hydrogen is false?

(a)   Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium; (melting point/K)

(b)   Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium; (boiling point/K)

(c)   Hydrogen < Deuterium < Tritium;  (density/gL−1)

(d)   Hydrogen > Deuterium > Tritium; (% relative abundance)

Ans: (a)

52. Eutrophication of a lake means, it

(a)   is low is nutrients

(b)   is high in nutrients

(c)   has a high temperature

(d)   has excess amount of organic matter

Ans: (b)

53. When H2O2 is added to ice cold solution of acidified potassium dichromate in ether and the contents are shaken and allowed to stand

(a)   a blue colour is obtained in ether because of formation of CrO5

(b)   a blue colour is obtained in ether because of formation of CrO3

(c)   a blue colour is obtained in ether because of formation of Cr2(SO4)3

(d)   chromyl chloride is formed

Ans: (a)

54. 500 mL of a sample of water required 19.6 mg of K2Cr2O7 for the oxidation of dissolved organic matter in it in the presence of H2SO4. The COD of water sample is

(a)   3.2 ppm

(b)   7.2 ppm

(c)   6.4 ppm

(d)   4.6 ppm

Ans: (c)


The chemical formulae of X, Y and Z are

Ans: (d)

56. For carbanion

Stability order will be

(a)   P > Q > S > R

(b)   P > R > Q > S

(c)   Q > R > S > R

(d)   S > R > Q > P

Ans: (b)

57. The aqueous solution of an unknown sodium salt gives the following reactions.

I. It decolourises a solution of iodine in potassium iodide.

II. It gives white turbidity with dil. HCl solution.

III. It gives a white precipitate with AgNO3 solution which changes colours and finally becomes black on standing.

The unknown sodium salt is

(a)   sodium thiosulphate

(b)   sodium bisulphite

(c)   sodium sulphite

(d)   sodium sulphide

Ans: (a)

58. The catenation tendency of C, Si and Ge is in the order Ge < Si < C. The bond energies (in kJ mol1) of C―C, Si―Si and Ge―Ge bonds, respectively are

(a)   348, 167, 180

(b)   348, 180, 167

(c)   167, 180, 348

(d)   180, 167, 348

Ans: (b)

59. What is correct about the following structure?

(a)   Total stereoisomers = 4

(b)   Number of chiral carbons = 1

(c)   Number of optical isomers = 2

(d)   Number of meso compounds = 2

Ans: (c)

60. Number of oxygen atoms shared per SiO44 tetrahedron in

I. two dimensional sheet structured silicates

II. cyclic silicates and

III. single strand chain silicates respectively are

(a)   3, 3, 2

(b)   3, 2, 2

(c)   4, 3, 1

(d)   4, 3, 2

Ans: (b)


1. Which of the following is the most primitive ancestor of man?

(a)   Ramapithecus

(b)   Homo habilis

(c)   Australopithecus

(d)   Homo sapiens neanderthalensis

Ans: (a)

2. Vitamin-B12 is absorbed primarily in the

(a)   stomach

(b)   duodenum

(c)   jejunum

(d)   ileum

Ans: (d)

3. The faster breathing in high fever is due to the

(a)   additional requirement of O2 for the invader germs

(b)   high temperature of the body

(c)   mental worry of a patient

(d)   loss of appetiate

Ans: (b)

4. Which of the following animals possess non-elastic lungs with elastic air sacs connected to them?

(a)   Reptiles

(b)   Birds

(c)   Amphibians

(d)   Mammals

Ans: (b)

5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a)   Trichomonas vaginalis – Leishmaniasis

(b)   Glossina palpalis – Sleeping sickness

(c)   Aedes agypti – Yellow fever

(d)   Culex pipceins – Filariasis

Ans: (a)

6. Carotid labyrinth contains

(a)   olfactory receptors

(b)   baroreceptors

(c)   chemorreceptors

(d)   phonoreceptors

Ans: (b)

7. Occupational lung disease that occurs in humans, among those given below is

(a)   dyspnea

(b)   anthracosis

(c)   atelectasis

(d)   cyanosis

Ans: (b)

8. Epiphyseal plates at the extremities of long bones help in

(a)   bone moulding

(b)   elongation of bone

(c)   bone formation

(d)   formation of Haversian canal

Ans: (b)

9. The strongest muscle in the human is

(a)   biceps

(b)   gluteus maximus

(c)   stapedius

(d)   masseter

Ans: (d)

10. Parkinsonism is related with

(a)   brain

(b)   spinal nerve

(c)   cranial nerves

(d)   All of these

Ans: (a)

11. Meniere’s disease is associated with

(a)   ear

(b)   eye

(c)   nose

(d)   throat

Ans: (a)

12. If the threshold for hearing increasing 1000 times, the hearing loss is

(a)   40 decibels

(b)   50 decibels

(c)   60 decibels

(d)   None of these

Ans: (d)

13. Gonads are derived from

(a)   ectoderm

(b)   mesoderm

(c)   endoderm

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (b)

14. The number of chromosomes in a primary spermatocyte is

(a)   same as in spermatid

(b)   same as in spermatogonium

(c)   help of that in spermatogonium

(d)   same as in secondary spermatocyte

Ans: (b)

15. The portion of the endometrium that covers the embryo and is located between the embryo and the uterine cavity is the

(a)   decidua basalis

(b)   desidua umbilicus

(c)   desidua capsularis

(d)   deciduas functionalis

Ans: (c)

16. Depo-provera refers to

(a)   injectible contraceptive

(b)   intra uterine device

(c)   implant

(d)   oral contraceptive

Ans: (a)

17. What base is responsible for hot spots for spontaneous pint mutations?

(a)   Adenine

(b)   Guanine

(c)   5-bromouracil

(d)   5-methyl cytosine

Ans: (c)

18. During which geological period of evolution did the greatest diversification of life occurred on the earth?

(a)   Permian

(b)   Jurassic

(c)   Cambrian

(d)   Ordovician

Ans: (c)

19. Specific radioactive identification of ribosomal RNA can be achieved by using C14 labelled

(a)   guanine

(b)   uracil

(c)   thymine

(d)   cytocine

Ans: (b)

20. Which of the following is the Pribnow box?

(a)   5′-TATAAT-3′

(b)   5′-TAATAT-3′

(c)   5′-AATAAT-3′

(d)   5′-ATATTA-3′

Ans: (a)

21. The genome of Caenorhabditis elegans consists of

(a)   3 billion base pairs and 30,000 genes

(b)   12 million base pairs and 6000 genes

(c)   4.7 million base pairs and 4000 genes

(d)   97 million base pairs and 18,000 genes

Ans: (b)

22. About how long ago was the earth formed?

(a)   3 billion years ago

(b)   10 billion years ago

(c)   4.6 billion years ago

(d)   20 billion years ago

Ans: (c)

23. Gas gangrene is caused by

(a)   Clostridium botulinum

(b)   Xanthomonas campestris

(c)   Pseudomonas

(d)   Clostridium perfringens

Ans: (d)

24. Who received Nobel Prize in 1951 for the development of vaccine for yellow fever?

(a)   Max Theiler

(b)   Ronald Ross

(c)   Max Delbruck

(d)   Francis Peyton Rous

Ans: (a)

25. Continuous exposer to vinyl chloride may cause cancer of the

(a)   liver

(b)   spleen

(c)   vagina

(d)   prostate gland

Ans: (a)

26. Which of the following T-cells and destroyed by HIV?

(a)   Cytotoxic T-cells

(b)   Killer T-cells

(c)   Suppressor T-cells

(d)   Helper T-cells

Ans: (d)

27. An autoimmune disease is

(a)   AIDS

(b)   haemophilia

(c)   allergy

(d)   myasthenia gravis

Ans: (d)

28. Which hormone produces calorigenic effect?

(a)   Thyroxine

(b)   FSH

(c)   Insulin

(d)   All of these

Ans: (a)

29. Which of the following act as an antigen, but do not induce antibody production?

(a)   Haustra

(b)   Histones

(c)   Haptens

(d)   None of these

Ans: (c)

30. Haldane effect refers to

(a)   more acidity in the blood

(b)   less acidity in the blood

(c)   more basicity in the blood

(d)   less basicity in the blood

Ans: (a)

31. The plant whose seeds are known to leave the longest viability period is

(a)   Carica papaya

(b)   Triticum aestivum

(c)   Zizypus mauritiana

(d)   Nelumbo nucifera

Ans: (d)

32. Jut is a

(a)   bast fibre from secondary xylem

(b)   bast fibre from primary xylem

(c)   bast fibre from secondary pholem

(d)   bast firbe from primary pholem

Ans: (c)

33. Chlorosis is produced in the leaves due to the deficiency of Fe, Mg, Mn, S or N of these essential elements, those that are exclusive constituents of chlorophyll molecule are

(a)   Fe, S

(b)   N, S

(c)   Mg, S

(d)   Mg, N

Ans: (d)

34. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.

I. Leptosporangiate development of sporangium is found in all members Pteropsida.

II. Seed habit is shown by sellaginella.

III. Gnetum leaves are monomorphic and pinnately compound.

IV. Sporic meiosis is found in Volvolx, Chalmydomonas and Ulothrix.

Choose the correct option.

(a)   I and IV

(b)   I and II

(c)   I, II and IV

(d)   All of these

Ans: (c)

35. Which of the following characteristics out of I, II and III are exhibited by C4 plants?

I. Kranz anatomy.

II. The product of photosynthesis is oxalo acetic acid.

III. Both PEP carboxylase and ribulose-bis phosphate carboxylase act as carboxylating enzyme.

Choose the correct option.

(a)   I and II, but not III

(b)   II and III, but not I

(c)   I and III, but not II

(d)   All of these

Ans: (d)

36. Match the following column I and II for organismic respiration.

(a)   A-2, B-3, C-1

(b)   A-3, B-2, C-1

(c)   A-1, B-3, C-2

(d)   A-3, B-1, C-2

Ans: (b)

37. Compare the statements I and II and choose correct option.

Statement (I) Auxin promote apical dominance by suppressing the activity of lateral  buds.

Statement (II) In moriculture, periodic pruning of shoot tips is done to make mulberry plants bushy.

Choose the correct options

(a)   I is false, but II is true

(b)   II is false, but I is true

(c)   Both I and II are true

(d)   Both I and II are false

Ans: (c)

38. The one advantage of cleistogamy is

(a)   it leads to greater genetic diversity

(b)   seed dispersal is more efficient and wide spread

(c)   seed set is not dependent on pollinators

(d)   each visit of a pollinator results in transfer of hundreds of pollen grains

Ans: (c)

39. In coconut, the liquid endosperm is formed because

(a)   karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis

(b)   karyokinesis is followed by cytokinesis

(c)   formation of liquid endosperm is not dependent upon karyokinesis and cytokinesis

(d)   None of the above

Ans: (c)

40. Keeping is view the structure of cell membrane, which one of the following statements is correct with respect to the movements of liquid and proteins from one liquid monolayer to the other (flip flop movement).

(a)   While proteins can flip flop, liquids can not

(b)   Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip flop

(c)   Both lipids and proteins can flip flop

(d)   While lipids can rarely flip flop, proteins can not

Ans: (d)

41. Ribosomes are particles about 200 Å units in diameter consisting of protein and RNA. The percentage of protein and RNA is respectively

(a)   80% and 20%

(b)   60% and 40%

(c)   50% and 50%

(d)   40% and 60%

Ans: (b)

42. Match the biological molecule listed under column I with their biological function listed under column II. Choose the answer which gives correct combination of alphabet of the two columns.

(a)   A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

(b)   A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(c)   A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

(d)   A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

Ans: (d)

43. In peal plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green. If a heterozygous yellow seeded plant is crossed with a green seeded plant, what ratio of yellow and green seeded plants could you expect in F1-generation.

(a)   9 : 1

(b)   1 : 3

(c)   3 : 1

(d)   50 : 50

Ans: (d)

44. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is a case of

(a)   frame shift mutation

(b)   transcription

(c)   transition

(d)   transversion

Ans: (c)

45. Independent assortment of gene occurs due to the orientation of chromosomes at

(a)   metaphase-I of mitosis

(b)   metaphase-I of meiosis

(c)   metaphase-II of meiosis

(d)   any phase of the cell division

Ans: (b)

46. The non-disjunction, in meiosis may result is extra copy of a chromosome in a sperm cell. During which phase the above phenomenon may occur?

(a)   Prophase-I, prophase-II

(b)   Metaphase-I, anaphase-II

(c)   Anaphase-I, anaphase-II

(d)   Anaphase-I, telophase-II

Ans: (c)

47. Which of the following is true regarding the phase lambda, a virus which infects bacteria?

(a)   In the lytic cycle, the bacterial host replicates viral DNA, passing it on to daughter cells during binary fission

(b)   In the lysogenic cycle, the bacteria host replicates viral DNA, passing it onto daughter cells during binary fission

(c)   In the lytic cycle, viral DNA is integrated into the host genome

(d)   In the lysogenic cycle, the host bacterial cell burst, releasing phases

Ans: (b)

48. The part of the bacterial chromosomes sharing homology with genome fragment transferred from the recipients to cell during emrozygote formation is known as

(a)   eugenic

(b)   exogenate

(c)   endogenate

(d)   dysgenic

Ans: (c)

49. In 1944, Avery, McCarty and MacLeod isolated substance from heat killed virulent form of bacteria and added to non-virulent form of bacteria which changed the non-virulent to virulent from this substance can be destroyed by

(a)   DNAse

(b)   protease

(c)   lipase

(d)   amylase

Ans: (a)

50. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium are groups of

(a)   bacteria containing a cytoskeleton and all membrane bound organelles

(b)   archaebacteria with peptidoglycan in their cell wall

(c)   archaebacteria that consists of protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones

(d)   most advanced type of bacteria

Ans: (c)

51. Match the following Column I with Column II.

(a)   A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

(b)   A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(c)   A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

(d)   A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Ans: (b)

52. Which of the following sequences represent a possible pathway in the production of a secretory protein?

(a)   Rough ER → Secretory vesicle → Ribosome → Golgi apparatus

(b)   Ribosome → Rough ER → Golgi apparatus → Secretory vesicle

(c)   Secretory vesicle → Golgi apparatus → Ribosomes → Rough ER

(d)   Rough ER → Ribosomes → Secretory vesicles → Golgi appratus

Ans: (d)

53. A connecting link between plant and animal kingdom is

(a)   Paramecium

(b)   Chlamydomonas

(c)   Chlorella

(d)   Euglena

Ans: (d)

54. Which of the following statements is false regarding SDS-polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis?

(a)   Proteins are separated by molecular weight

(b)   SDS is a detergent which gives charge to protein

(c)   Large protein move more slowly through gel

(d)   SDS is used to maintain the 3-dimentional structure of protein

Ans: (d)

55. If the free energy change of a reaction is greater than zero, then the reaction is

(a)   spontaneous

(b)   non-spontaneous

(c)   at equilibrium

(d)   endothermic

Ans: (b)

56. Organisms who are able to freely interbreed producing fertile off-springs and having similar blue print for making these organisms are referred to as

(a)   species

(b)   tribe

(c)   genus

(d)   sub-genus

Ans: (a)

57. The enzyme hexokinase which catalysis glucose to a glucose-6-phosphate in glycolysis is inhibited by glucose-6-phophate. This is an example of

I. Competitive inhibition

II. non-competitive inhibition

III. feedback allosteric inhibition

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a)   I and II

(b)   I and III

(c)   Only III

(d)   All of these

Ans: (c)

58. The protein products of tumour suppressor gene may

(a)   be present in non-cancerous cells

(b)   cause signal cell death

(c)   regulate the cell cycle

(d)   All of the above

Ans: (a)

59. The mitotic cell cycle is divided typically into four phases; G1, S, G2 and M. Considering a mitotic cycle time of 18 hrs; the distribution of period of time (in hrs) for each of these phases will be





Ans: (c)

60. Match the following column I with column II.

(a)   A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

(b)   A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(c)   A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

(d)   A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2

Ans: (a)

Quantitative Aptitude & English

1. When the bus reaches Shivani’s house, it faces South. After starting from Shivani’s house to the school, it turns twice to its left and once to its right. In which direction it is running now?

(a)   North

(b)   West

(c)   East

(d)   South

Ans: (c)

2. A men travels 12 km West, then 3 km towards South and then 8 km towards East. How far is he form the start?

(a)   23 km

(b)   20 km

(c)   15 km

(d)   5 km

Ans: (d)

3. From the given alternative words, select the one which can be formed using the letters of the given word EXAMINATION.

(a)   ANIMAL




Ans: (d)

4. If ANCE can b e coded as 3, 7, 29, 11, then BOIL will be code as

(a)   5, 29, 19, 27

(b)   5, 29, 19, 25

(c)   5, 31, 21, 25

(d)   5, 31, 19, 25

Ans: (d)

5. QPRS : TUVW : JIKL : ?

(a)   NMOP

(b)   NMPO

(c)   MNPO

(d)   MNOP

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. No. 6-7) Find the odd letter pair from

6. (a) Wool   (b) Feather

    (c) Hair     (d) Grass

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (d)

7. (a) Sport : Ground  (b) Cinema : Screen

    (b) Drama : Stage  (d) Rubber : Erase

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (d)

8. If + means, −, − means ×, × means ÷ and ÷ means +, then 48 × 4 ÷ 7 + 8 – 2 = ?

(a)   3

(b)   −5

(c)   35

(d)   16

Ans: (a)

9. If February 1, 2004 is Wednesday, what day is March 3, 2004?

(a)   Monday

(b)   Sunday

(c)   Saturday

(d)   Friday

Ans: (c)

10. How many triangles are there in the given figure?

(a)   5

(b)   4

(c)   3

(d)   8

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-12) Out of the four alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

11. Instigate

(a)   Initiate

(b)   Incite

(c)   Force

(d)   Cause

Ans: (b)

12. Voracious

(a)   Quick

(b)   Angry

(c)   Hungry

(d)   Wild

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. No. 13-14) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

13. Epilogue

(a)   Dialogue

(b)   Prelude

(c)   Post script

(d)   Epigram

Ans: (b)

14. Indiscreet

(a)   Reliable

(b)   Honest

(c)   Prudent

(d)   Stupid

Ans: (c)

Directions (Q. No. 15) Out of the alternatives choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.

15. The absence of law and order

(a)   Rebellion

(b)   Anarchy

(c)   Mutiny

(d)   Revolt

Ans: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos 16-18) In the following question, a sentence has divided into four parts. Arrange these parts to make the sentence meaningful.

16. In favour of English,

P : has chances of securing employment

Q : we may say that

R : in all p arts of India and in foreign countries

S : an English knowing Indian

(a)   QSPR

(b)   SPQR

(c)   SRQP

(d)   QRPS

Ans: (a)

17. The hungry man

P : and said

Q : replied in the negative

R : that he only wanted a meal

S : to his question

(a)   SQPR

(b)   QSPR

(c)   SPRQ

(d)   QPRS

Ans: (b)

18. It is

P : that people read fewer books today

Q : then they did

R : even about a decade ago

S : a matter of grave concern

(a)   PSRQ

(b)   SPRQ

(c)   PSQR

(d)   SPQR

Ans: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 19-20) Groups of four words are given. In each group, one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word.

19. (a) Parapharnelia (b) Parsimonious

      (c) Peccadilo        (d) Peadialriis

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (b)

20. (a) Tussel (b) Tunnle

(c) Tumble     (d) Trable

(a)   a

(b)   b

(c)   c

(d)   d

Ans: (c)

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