IBPS Clerk Pre. Online Examination Held on December 3, 2017 Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Clerk Pre. Online Examination Held on December 3, 2017

Part I English Language

Direction (Q. Nos. 1-6) In the given sentence, a blank is given indicating that something is missing. From the given four options (a), (b) (c) and (d), a combination of words would independently fit and one combination would not. Mark that option that does not fit as the answer. If the given combinations fit perfectly, then mark ‘All fit’ as the answer. Both the words in the correct answer combination independently must not fit in the blank.

1. Games between England and Australia enjoy a popularity sadly ………… in others parts of the world.

(A) absent     (B) dearth

(C) lacking    (D) inadequately

(a)  AD

(b)  AB

(c)  BD

(d)  CD

(e)  All fit

Answer: (d)

2. A recent survey …… that light pollution is threatening darkness almost everywhere.

(A) highlighted        (B) revealed

(C) show                 (D) unveiling

(a)  AD

(b)  AB

(c)  BC

(d)  CD

(e)  All fit

Answer: (d)

3. The mobile wallet firm Mobikwik recently announced that the users will now be ……… to pay traffic challans on its application.

(A) able         (B) willing

(C) went        (D) allowed

(a)  AD

(b)  AB

(c)  BC

(d)  CD

(e)  All fit

Answer: (c)

4. The president has consistently been ……….. to take it on a bigger role in the world owing to reasons unknown.

(A) very                  (B) hesitant

(C) uncertainty       (D) reluctant

(a)  AC

(b)  AB

(c)  BC

(d)  CD

(e)  All fit

Answer: (a)

5. The two countries will ……. in the next phase of bilateral cooperation in the field of science and technology.

(A) merged              (B) clasps

(C) work together   (D) join hands

(a)  AD

(b)  AB

(c)  BC

(d)  CD

(e)  All fit

Answer: (b)

6. Passengers should brace themselves for a fare increase as the government is likely to …….. the passengers service’ fee by 30%.

(A) raise        (B) rise        (C) hike       (D) boast

(a)  BD

(b)  AB

(c)  BC

(d)  CD

(e)  All fit

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 7-12) Read the following passage and answer the given questions.

In a world in which nearly half the population is over the age of 50, we will have to start thinking of older people differently. The first thing we will have to recognize is that our very notion of old age is faulty. In the mid-to-late 1800s, medical theory suggested that the only healthy thing for older adults to do was rest. This gave birth to the first government pensions, corporate retirement policies, dedicated old-age homes. Surviving till today is this idea that older people are ‘supposed’ to be consumers of ideas, work, products and culture, but never producers.

Today, ask anyone over the age of 60 or so if she wants to sit in a rocking chair for the rest of her life and she’ll laugh you out of the room. Yet, this outmoded norm concerning the capabilities and goals of older people persists. It remains at the core of misguided products, policies, workplace expectations. Living longer and better may mean working longer. It may mean a lifetime of learning and growth. We may see older adults in roles to which we are not accustomed: retail, manufacturing, teaching and delivering healthcare (not just receiving it). The energy we draw from our older population may grow to become one of our most valuable resources. Businesses founded by people over the age of 50 are already major sources of employment across the nation. Products designed with older people in mind must evolve. An ageing society has given rise to a new multi-trillion-dollar market of consumers who want not just to be taken care of, but also live out aspirations once considered impossible in old age. These products, services and experiences will become a source of economic growth and innovation. Infrastructure from housing to transportation must be reengineered, Workplaces will have to learn to utilize the unique skills and institutions knowledge of older workers and resist the age-old urge to age-discriminate. We as individuals will have to rethink old age, both for the sake of those older than us and for our own future selves.

7. Choose the world which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Innovation’ printed in bold as used in the passage?

(a)  Modernity

(b)  Customary

(c)  Nascency

(d)  Novation

(e)  Upstart

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following is the author referring to through the term ‘valuable resources’?

(a)  Embracing the latest technology

(b)  Economic growth

(c)  Infrastructure

(d)  Cut-throat corporate culture

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (e)

9. Which of the following is/are the impact(s) of the medical theory mentioned in the passage?

(A) We have side-lined the older population.

(B) Better treatment of age related diseases.

(C) Creation of facilities such as pensions for the elderly.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  A and C

(d)  Only C

(e)  All of these

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following is the author’s advice regarding work?

(a)  Organizations should harness the skills of older workers.

(b)  Companies should utilize the experience of workers who are not yound.

(c)  We must embrace the idea of people working even at an older age.

(d)  We must keep in mind that older workers can be entirely productive.

(e)  All the given options

Answer: (e)

11. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?

(a)  We must revamp infrastructure to meet the needs of the elderly.

(b)  The elderly population is dropping.

(c)  The concept of ‘old age’ needs to be rethought.

(d)  The traditional idea of ‘old age homes’ is outdated.

(e)  All the given options are true.

Answer: (b)

12. Which of the following represent(s) the author’s view?

(A) Society needs to recognize the needs, desires and aspirations of older people.

(B) Older people are capable producers.

(C) Corporate retirement policies are very generous at present.

(a)  A and B

(b)  Only B

(c)  B and C

(d)  Only C

(e)  All of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 13-20) The sentence has been spilt into five parts denoted by A, B, C, D and E. Part A is fixed in the sentence and is to be taken as grammatically correct. The remaining four parts B, C, D and E may or may not have either (an) inappropriate word (s) or spelling errors in it. From these four, there will be only one part without any error. Identify that part and mark it as  your answer. If the sentence is correct as it is, then mark ‘No error’ as your answer.

13. Traditionally, people have/ associated excessive sweating/ with having a higher body fat/ percentage and less sweating/ with a higher level of acrobic activity.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

14. The country is among/the emerging global players in/research and innovation, thenks/to the excellent research centres/ and a considerable talent pool.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

15. After a gap of over eighty years,/ the black bear has returned/ to the northern region of the country/ through conservation, and their/population believed to be over 500.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

16.The government is likely/ to lounch a policy on electric vehicles/ proposing benefits for manufacturers/ and putting in place the necessary/ support system by the end of this year.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

17. ‘Writer Page’ is a unique platform/where budding writers/are encouraged to hone/ their writing skills/ with the help of establishment authors.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

18. Ferrying of coal in/uncowered vehicles and rail wagons is/said to won of the key/ reasons behind high pollution/ levels along the transportation root.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

19. Thanksgiving is that/festival when families/gather together, forget/ their differences and feast/ on turkey and pumpkin pie.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

20. There needs to be/a dipper exploration of/why parents actually have/ a problem with/their children reading books based on voilence.

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) The sentence has  a blank which indicates something has been omitted. which of the following phrases given against the sentence, fits the blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully, If none of phrases fit, select ‘None of the given options’ as your answer.

21. She ……….. so badly in the last movie that she decided to withdraw from acting.

(a)  so hardly hit

(b)  got alive and kicking

(c)  got her fingers burnt

(d)  fall at life

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (c)

22. Last night the cricket match was ………. as the home team could not stand their opponents.

(a)  a throwback on

(b)  epic fall

(c)  a major let down

(d)  loss of face

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (c)

23. Since you were just discharged from the hospital, you need ………. so that you are able to recover fully.

(a)  plenty of down-time

(b)  play back required

(c)  take care of

(d)  recover from

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (a)

24. He started working from home so that he would be able ………. with his family.

(a)  for the duration

(b)  to spend more time

(c)  to in the long run

(d)  spend a penny for

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (b)

25. While I was searching the attic, I ………. some very interesting photographs.

(a)  find a way around

(b)  came across

(c)  looking forward to

(d)  came down with

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (b)

26. Simone ……… deleted Ravi’s contact number but pretended to have lost it.

(a)  an honest mistake

(b)  accidentally on purpose

(c)  at cross purpose

(d)  all intention of purpose

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (d)

27. The manager offered him a lucrative job but he ……….. .

(a)  fell for it

(b)  paid dearly for

(c)  turned it down

(d)  given it away

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (c)

28. The head of the detective department asked the officers to …….. before reaching any conclusion in the case.

(a)  thinking over

(b)  do searching of

(c)  looking for clues

(d)  explore all the avenues

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (d)

29. The teacher complained to his mother that he does not ……… the rule.

(a)  follow over

(b)  make the rounds

(c)  stick with

(d)  abide by

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

30. At the beginning of her performance on stage, she always has ……… .

(a)  butterflies in her stomach

(b)  get highly tensed

(c)  nervous brokedown

(d)  get all worked up

(e)  None of the given options

Answer: (a)

Part II Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-32) In each question, relationship between different elements is shown in the two statements. The statements are followed  by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Give answer

(a) if either conclusion I or II follows

(b) if neither conclusion I nor II follows

(c) if only conclusion II follows

(d) if both conclusions follow

(e) if only conclusion I follows

31. Statement M ≥ P ≥ F ≥ Q; R ≤ F

Conclusion I R ≤ M

Conclusion II Q < R

Answer: (e)

32. Statement G = E ≤ N < R ≥ L > T

Conclusion I T < N

Conclusion II E ≤L

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 33-37) Study the information to answer the given questions.

In a certain code,

‘lots of exams today’ is written as ‘po li sy ko’

‘today are final exams’ is written as ‘jp sy po fr’

‘are the lots ready’ is written as ‘fr dv ko mt’

‘get ready for exams’ is written as ‘sy ot gh dv’

(All the codes are two letter codes only)

33. What is the code for ‘ready today’ in the given code language?

(a)  mt po

(b)  po dv

(c)  dv fr

(d)  li ot

(e)  mt ko

Answer: (b)

34. Which of the following may represent ‘the routine exams’ in the given code language?

(a)  mt kk gh

(b)  dv op sy

(c)  mt ot sy

(d)  fr sy mt

(e)  sy ul mt

Answer: (e)

35. What is the code for ‘get’ in the given code language?

(a)  Either ‘sy’ or ‘dv’

(b)  sy

(c)  ko

(d)  Either ‘ot’ or ‘gh’

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

36. What is the code for ‘lots’ in the given code language?

(a)  po

(b)  ko

(c)  fr

(d)  li

(e)  mt

Answer: (b)

37. What is the code for ‘final’ in the given code language?

(a)  po

(b)  jp

(c)  ko

(d)  fr

(e)  sy

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 38-42) Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.

Eight people C, D, E, F, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre with equal distance between each other.

Only three people sit between E and U. Only two people sit between U and F. C sits third to the left of V. V is neither an immediate neighbour of U nor F. D sits to the immediate right of T.

38. Which of the following represents the position of D with respect to C?

(a)  Second to the right

(b)  Third to the left

(c)  Fourth to the right

(d)  Third to the right

(e)  Second to the left

Answer: (b)

39. Which of the following is true regarding S as per the given arrangement?

(a)  S sits to the immediate right of D.

(b)  None of the given options is true.

(c)  S is an immediate neighbour of F.

(d)  S sits second to the right of E.

(e)  Only three people sit between S and T.

Answer: (b)

40. Who sits second to the right of T?

(a)  F

(b)  V

(c)  E

(d)  U

(e)  C

Answer: (d)

41. How many people are sitting between V and F when counted from the right of F?

(a)  One

(b)  None

(c)  Four

(d)  three

(e)  Two

Answer: (a)

42. Who among the following are seated exactly between U and F when counted from the right of U?

(a)  C, D

(b)  C, S

(c)  E, S

(d)  E, T

(e)  S, T

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 43-45) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Sameer starts walking from Point A, He walks 15 m towards East and reaches Point B. He then takes a left turn, walks 5m and reaches Point C. From Point C he takes, a left turn. walks 6 m and reaches Point D. He takes a left turn, walks 10 m and reaches Point E. From Point E, he takes a right turn, walks 9 m and reaches point F.

43. How far and in which direction is Point A with respect to Point F?

(a)  9m towards South

(b)  9m towards North

(c)  8m towards North

(d)  5m towards North

(e)  6m towards South

Answer: (d)

44. Points B, C and Z form a straight line in such a way that B falls at a point between Points C and Z. If the distance between B and Z is double the distance between Points B and C, in which direction is Point Z with respect to Point E?

(a)  South-East

(b)  North-West

(c)  West

(d)  South-West

(e)  North-East

Answer: (a)

45. In which direction is Point F with respect to Point C?

(a)  North

(b)  East

(c)  South-West

(d)  West

(e)  South-East

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 46-50) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. All the given persons in both the rows face North. In row-1 A, B, C, D and E area seated and in row-2, L, M, N, O and P are seated. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member of row-2 is sitting right behind a member of row-1.

D sits second to the left A. A does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The one sitting behind A sits to the immediate right of P. The one sitting in front of M sits third to the right of B. Only one person sits between B and C. E sits in front of L. More than two people sit between L and N.

46. Which of the following is true regarding O?

(a)  O sits second to the left of M.

(b)  O sits behind C.

(c)  O is an immediate neighbour of L

(d)  O sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

(e)  None of the given option is true.

Answer: (a)

47. In which of the following pairs of people, are both of them sitting at extreme ends of the rows?

(a)  C, M

(b)  C, N

(c)  E, N

(d)  B, O

(e)  B, P

Answer: (c)

48. B is related to C in the same way as P is related to L based on the given seating arrangement. To who amongst the following is N related to following the same pattern?

(a)  N

(b)  The one sitting behind E

(c)  P

(d)  O

(e)  The one sitting behind D

Answer: (c)

49. How many persons are seated between E and D?

(a)  One

(b)  None

(c)  Three

(d)  Two

(e)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

50. Who amongst the following is sitting in front of O?

(a)  B

(b)  The one sitting to immediate right of A

(c)  The one sitting to immediate right of C

(d)  C

(e)  D

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 51-53) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the given questions.

D C U D B C B A C D E B U B A C

A D C A D B A E B U A D E B C E

51. How many alphabets are there in the English alphabetical series between the alphabet which is fourth from the left end and the alphabet which is third from the right end of the arrangement?

(a)  More than three

(b)  Two

(c)  One

(d)  None

(e)  Three

Answer: (c)

52. If all D’s are dropped from the given arrangement, which of the following will be eighth from the left end of the given arrangement?

(a)  U

(b)  A

(c)  E

(d)  B

(e)  C

Answer: (c)

53. How many such vowels are there in the given arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant?

(a)  Two

(b)  More than four

(c)  Three

(d)  One

(e)  Four

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 54-58) Study the following information and answer the given questions.

Each of eight people-L, M, N, O, P, Q, R and S was born in a different month viz. January, March, May, June, September, October, November and December of the same year.

S was born in one of the months before April. Only three people were born between the months in which S and Q were born. Only two people were born between L and N. L was born in one of the months before N. More than two people were born between the months in which L and Q were born. As many people were born before N as after O. P was born in one of the months having only 30 days. M has born in one of the months before R.

54. If X was born in one of the months between the months in which N and O were born, in which was X possibly born?

(a)  February

(b)  May

(c)  April

(d)  October

(e)  August

Answer: (e)

55. Who amongst the following was born in a month immediately after the month in which P was born?

(a)  M

(b)  L

(c)  R

(d)  Q

(e)  S

Answer: (c)

56. In which of the following months was M born?

(a)  March

(b)  December

(c)  January

(d)  May

(e)  November

Answer: (d)

57. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and thus form a group. Which is the one that dies not belong to that group?

(a)  L

(b)  m

(c)  R

(d)  S

(e)  O

Answer: (e)

58. How many people were born between the months is which S and O were born?

(a)  Two

(b)  Three

(c)  None

(d)  One

(e)  Four

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 59-62) Following questions are based on five words given below.

SHE   OLD   ANT   TIN   JUG

(The new words formed after performing the mentioned operations may or may not necessarily be meaningful English words)

59. If S is added before the first letter in each word, which of the following would form meaningful English words with the new arrangement?

(a)  Only SHE

(b)  ANT and JUG

(c)  Only OLD

(d)  TIN and JUG

(e)  Only TIN

Answer: (c)

60. If in each of the given words each of the consonants is changed to previous letter and each vowel is chaged to next letter in the English alphabetical series, in how many words thus formed will at least one vowel appear?

(a)  One

(b)  More than three

(c)  None

(d)  Three

(e)  Two

Answer: (a)

61. How many letters are there in the English alphabetical series between the second letter of the word which is second from the right and second letter of the word which is second from the left of the given words?

(a)  Two

(b)  Eight

(c)  Five

(d)  Six

(e)  Three

Answer: (a)

62. If second alphabet in each of the words is chaged to next alphabet in the English alphabetical order, how many words having more than one vowel will be formed?

(a)  Three

(b)  More than three

(c)  Two

(d)  One

(e)  None

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 63-65) In each question two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows.

Give answer

(a) if either conclusion I or II follows

(b) if both conclusions follows

(c) if neither conclusion I nor II follows

(d) if only conclusion II follows

(e) if only conclusion I follows

63. Statements All alerts are mails. No mail is a post. Some posts are boxes.

Conclusion I No post is an alert.

Conclusion II No box is an alert.

Answer: (e)

64. Statements All alerts are nails. No mail is a post. Some posts are boxes.

Conclusion I Atleast some boxes are nails.

Conclusion II All mails can never be boxes.

Answer: (c)

65. Statements Some sauces are jams. All jams are pickles.

Conclusion I Some jams are definitely not sauces.

Conclusion II At least some pickles are sauces.

Answer: (d)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

66. 120 kg and 150 kg of potatoes were stored in warehouse on Monday and Tuesday respectively. If ‘X’ kg of potatoes got rotten on each day and the respective ratio of number of potatoes that did not get rotten on Monday and Tuesday was 3 : 4, what is the value of X?

(a)  30

(b)  25

(c)  50

(d)  20

(e)  40

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-81) What will come in place of question marks (?) in the given questions?

67. (612 +184 – ?) ÷ (2 ÷04) = 15

(a)  50

(b)  46

(c)  42

(d)  54

(e)  49

Answer: (b)

68. 

(a)  16

(b)  8

(c)  4

(d)  0.5

(e)  2

Answer: (b)

69. (4.5)2 – (1.5)2 = ?2

(a)  9√2

(b)  9

(c)  3√2

(d)  18

(e)  4√3

Answer: (c)

70. 3432/3 * 2561/4 – ? = 122

(a)  44

(b)  56

(c)  52

(d)  42

(e)  54

Answer: (c)

71. 

(a)  3

(b)  5

(c)  8

(d)  7

(e)  6

Answer: (b)

72. 

(a)  14

(b)  15

(c)  12

(d)  26

(e)  28

Answer: (e)

73. 

(a)  25

(b)  15

(c)  10

(d)  20

(e)  45

Answer: (b)

74. 4/5th of 3/8th of ? = 112 + 5

(a)  450

(b)  390

(c)  360

(d)  420

(e)  440

Answer: (d)

75. 4 – ? ÷ 5 – 3.9 = 17.8

(a)  17.5

(b)  16.5

(c)  18.5

(d)  12.5

(e)  14.5

Answer: (c)

76. 

(a)  225

(b)  324

(c)  196

(d)  400

(e)  289

Answer: (a)

77. (18* 23 – 141) ÷5 = 2?

(a)  2

(b)  5

(c)  4

(d)  3

(e)  6

Answer: (c)

78. 

(a)  12

(b)  16

(c)  36

(d)  24

(e)  48

Answer: (d)

79. √? = 120 ÷ 48 + 29.5

(a)  900

(b)  1156

(c)  784

(d)  1024

(e)  676

Answer: (d)

80. 2/5 of (40 ÷25 + 2 ÷ 5) = ?

(a)  4/5

(b)  1/2

(c)  2/5

(d)  1/4

(e)  1/5

Answer: (a)

81. 14* 5 ÷ 8 + 7.25= ?2

(a)  6

(b)  12

(c)  8

(d)  4

(e)  2

Answer: (d)

82. Train A, 150 m long and running at 15 m/sec overtakes Train B running at 10 m/sec in a direction same as that of Train A in 72 sec (from the moment both trains meet). What is Train B’s length?

(a)  240 m

(b)  220 m

(c)  200 m

(d)  160 m

(e)  210 m

Answer: (e)

83. A vessel contains a mixture of X L milk and 25 L water in the respective ratio of 24 : 5. If 29 L mixture is taken out and 4 L water is added to it, what will be the resultant respective ratio between milk and water?

(a)  16 : 3

(b)  8 : 1

(c)  16 : 5

(d)  4 : 1

(e)  8 : 3

Answer: (e)

84. The sum of four consecutive even numbers is 236. Sum of four consecutive odd numbers is 140% more than the second highest even number. What is the average of the given four odd numbers?

(a)  32

(b)  38

(c)  34

(d)  28

(e)  36

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 85-89) What will come in place of question marks in the given number series?

85. 129 127  122  112  ?  69

(a)  105

(b)  65

(c)  115

(d)  75

(e)  95

Answer: (e)

86. 60 89  112  131  ?  161

(a)  158

(b)  148

(c)  142

(d)  152

(e)  144

Answer: (b)

87. 2 8  26  80   242  ?

(a)  718

(b)  716

(c)  728

(d)  722

(e)  724

Answer: (c)

88. 25 8   128  1024  ?  8192

(a)  4048

(b)  2024

(c)  4096

(d)  3072

(e)  2048

Answer: (c)

89. 5  6  10   17  30  ?

(a)  45

(b)  58

(c)  60

(d)  52

(e)  55

Answer: (e)

90. Marked price of article A is 40% more than its Cost Price. Profit earned when article A was sold after giving two successive discounts of 10% each is Rs 53.60. If article A is sold at 30% profit, what would be its selling price?

(a)  Rs 580

(b)  Rs 680

(c)  Rs 750

(d)  Rs 590

(e)  Rs 520

Answer: (e)

91. A and B started a business with investment of Rs 12800 and Rs 15600 respectively. 8 months after the start of the business, B left. If the total annual profit was Rs 14500, what was A’s share in profit?

(a)  Rs 8800

(b)  Rs 8000

(c)  Rs 7200

(d)  Rs 7680

(e)  Rs 9600

Answer: (b)

92. Harshal spends his monthly income on paying rent, buying groceries and investing in mutual funds in the respective ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. If the difference between the income spent on rent and that invested in mutual funds is Rs 12000, what is h is annual income?

(a)  Rs 4.8 lakh

(b)  Rs 4.0 lakh

(c)  Rs 5.4 lakh

(d)  Rs 3.6 lakh

(e)  Rs 6.0 lakh

Answer: (a)

93. Suresh invested some money for 8 years in scheme A offering simple interest at 12% p.a. The interest received from Scheme A was then invested in scheme B (which offers simple interest at 10% p.a.) for 5 years. If interest received from scheme B was Rs 4032, what was the sum invested in scheme A?

(a)  Rs 9600

(b)  Rs 7200

(c)  Rs 7600

(d)  Rs 8000

(e)  Rs 8400

Answer: (e)

94. A alone can finish a piece of work in 36 days. B is 20% more efficient than A. A alone started working and was replaced by B after 8 days. In how many days B alone can finish the remaining work?

(a)  21 1/3

(b)  19 1/3

(c)  25 2/3

(d)  20 2/3

(e)  23 1/3

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 95-99) Study the table and answer the given questions.

95. What was the respective ratio of total number of tickets sold from Location D on Tuesday and Wednesday together to number of tickets sold from Location A on Wednesday?

(a)  6 : 5

(b)  3 : 2

(c)  5: 4

(d)  2 : 1

(e)  4 : 3

Answer: (d)

96. What is the average number of tickets sold from Location C on Monday, Wednesday and Friday?

(a)  91

(b)  89

(c)  90

(d)  88

(e)  87

Answer: (c)

97. If number of tickets sold from Location E on Tuesday was 15/31 times the total number of tickets sold from locations A and B together on Tuesday, how many tickets were sold from Location E on Tuesday?

(a)  60

(b)  65

(c)  70

(d)  75

(e)  55

Answer: (d)

98. What was the difference between total number of tickets sold from Location B and D on Monday and those sold from the same locations together on Thursday?

(a)  9

(b)  12

(c)  11

(d)  14

(e)  8

Answer: (b)

99. Number of tickets sold from Location a on Monday was what percent more than those sold from Location A on Friday?

(a)  25%

(b)  22.5%

(c)  15%

(d)  12.5%

(e)  17.5%

Answer: (d)

100. If the length of the rectangle is increased by 25%, its perimeter would become 92 m. If the breadth of the original rectangle is increased by 50%, its perimeter would become 96 m. What is the breadth of the original rectangle?

(a)  14 m

(b)  12 m

(c)  16 m

(d)  20 m

(e)  18 m

Answer: (c)

IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017Question Paper With Answer Key

IBPS Specialist Officer Pre. Online Examination Held on December 20, 2017

 

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-5) Each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blanks which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

1. A rift on a gigantic ice shall has grown more ………… in the past few months than it has …………. the past five years, and the consequences could be disastrous.

(a)  rapidly; over

(b)  slowly; from

(c)  fast; in

(d)  sluggishly; under

(e)  briskly; on

Answer: (a)

2. Contrary to the usual ………… of air travel, wherein July is the lean month, this year’s air travel data presents a ………… picture.

(a)  style; similar

(b)  trend; different

(c)  pattern; poor

(d)  Statistic; solid

(e)  fad; drastic

Answer: (b)

3. The new material, when incorporated ……. windows or sunroofs, can …….. the incoming heat and light from the Sun, thereby cutting electricity costs.

(a)  at; forfeit

(b)  to; manage

(c)  in; control

(d)  for; change

(e)  of; regulate

Answer: (c)

4. Initially preferred by many as a winter …………., velvet has, over the years, assumed great versatility and can now be worn …….. the year.

(a)  dress, along

(b)  clothing, across

(c)  thread, for

(d)  fabric, throughout

(e)  suit, out

Answer: (d)

5. Recently, the local municipal corporation of the city has made the ………. of yoga mandatory in all the schools that come ………… its purview.

(a)  outcome, within

(b)  duty, on

(c)  essence, for

(d)  custom, off

(e)  practice, under

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 6-15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Education in most of the developing world is shocking. Half the children in South Asia and a third of those in Africa who complete four years of schooling cannot read  properly. In India, 60% of six-to-14-year-olds cannot read at the level of a child who has finished two years of schooling.

Most government have proposed to provide universal primary education and to promote secondary education. But even when public schools exist, they often fail to do so.

Results of the survey conducted in this respect by the World Bank depicted worrisome results. In rural Indian schools, a quarter of teachers was absent. In Africa, the teacher-absenteeism rates ranged between15-25%. Pakistan recently discovered that it had over 8000 non-existent state schools, 17% of the total, Sierra Leone spotted 6000’ ghost’ teachers, nearly a fifth the number on the State payroll.

Powerful teachers’ union are part of the problem, They often see jobs as hereditary sinecures, the State-education budget as a revenue stream to be milked and any attempt to monitor the quality of education as an intrusion. The union can be fearsome enemies, so governments leave them to run schools in the interests of teachers rather than pupils.

The failure of State education, combined with the shift in emerging economies from farmin to jobs that need at least a modicum of education, has caused a private-school boom. According to the World Bank, across the developing world, a fifth of primary-school pupils are enrolled in private schools twice, as many as 20 years ago. So many private schools are unregistered that the real figure is likely to be much higher. A census in Lagos found 12000 private schools, four times as many as on government records. Across Nigeria, 26% of primary-age children were in private schools in 2010, up from 18% in 2004. In India in 2013, 29% were, up from 19% in 2006. In Liberia and Sierra Leone, around 60% and 50% respectively of secondary schools enrollments are private.

By and large, politicians and educationalists are unenthusiastic. Governments see education as the State’s job. Teacher’s union dislike private schools because they pay less and are harder to organize in NGOs tend to be ideologically opposed to the private sector. The UN special rapporteur on education has said that ‘for-profit education should not be allowed in order to safeguard the noble cause of education.’ This attitude harms those whom educationalists claim to serve children.

The boom in private education is excellent news for them and their countries, for three reasons. First, it is bringing in money-not just from parents, but also from investors, some in search of a profit. Most private schools in the developing world are single operators that charge a few dollars a month, but chains are now emerging.

Bridge International Academies, for instamce, has 400 nursery and primary schools in Kenya and Uganda which teach in standardized classrooms that look rather like stacked shipping containers. It plans to expand into Nigeria and India. Mark Zuckenberg, Facebook’s founder. Bill Gates and the International Finance Corporation, the World Bank’s private-sector arm, are among its investors, Chains are a healthy development, because they have reputation to guard. Second, private schools are often better value for money than State ones. Measuring this is hard, since the children who go to private schools tend to be better off and therefore likely to perform better.

But a rigorous four-year study of 6000 pupils in Andhra Pradesh, in southern India, suggested that private pupils perform better in English and Hindi than public-school pupils and at a similar level in mathematics and Telugu, the local language, The private schools achieved these results at a third of the cost of the public schools. Lastly, private schools are innovative. Since, technology has great (though as yet mostly unrealized) potential in education, this could be important. Bridge gives teachers tablets linked to a central system that provides teaching materials and monitors their work. Such robo-teaching may not be ideal, but it is better than lessons without either materials or monitoring.

Critics of the private sector are right that it has problems. Quality ranges from top-notch international standard to not much more than cheap child care. But the alternative is often a public school that is worse ….. or no school at all.

6. As mentioned in the passage, the boom in education sector, brought in by the private education, is welcomed because

(A) It provides a platform for bringing in innovative practices.

(B) If focuses on education children on a large scale.

(C) It encourages investment from all stakeholders.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  Both A and C

(d)  Only C

(e)  Both B and C

Answer: (c)

7. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a)  Private schools in Africa function better as compared to those in Sierra Leone.

(b)  Keeping track of the number of mushrooming private schools is easy in the developing world.

(c)  The education sector in Liberia is  mainly dominated by public schools.

(d)  Standalone education institutions are better managed as compared to chains of schools.

(e)  None of the given statements is true.

Answer: (c)

8. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the world ‘Safeguard’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Threaten

(b)  Shield

(c)  Misfortune

(d)  Violent

(e)  Default

Answer: (a)

9. Which of the following is most nearly the opposite in meaning as the word ‘Unenthusiastic’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Illogical

(b)  Passionate

(c)  Apathetic

(d)  Kind

(e)  Distressed

Answer: (b)

10. The data with respect to the failure of public schools

(a)  depicted the real picture of the education sector in the developed world.

(b)  identified loopholes in the existing pedagogy followed by most public schools.

(c)  brought to the fore the fact that teachers must undergo constant training.

(d)  highlighted the fact that a good number of schools and teachers existed only on paper.

(e)  emphasized the point that absenteeism from school was a problem that existed only in the developing world.

Answer: (d)

11. Which of the following correctly explains the meaning of the phrase, ‘ hereditary sinecures’ as used in the passage for jobs?

(a)  These can be acquired only on the basis of merit.

(b)  These are inherited by female members of the family and passed on from generation to generation.

(c)  These are acquired with minimum effort and involve little or no work.

(d)  These are married by insecurities.

(e)  These are not at all lucrative.

Answer: (c)

12. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Milked’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Saved

(b)  Exploited

(c)  Expressed

(d)  Outsourced

(e)  Managed

Answer: (b)

13. As mentioned in the passage, teachers’ unions pose a threat to the education system because

(A) they have a strong network of student volunteers.

(B) they always think about betterment of students at the cost interests of teachers.

(C) they follow controversial methods of teaching.

(a)  Only A

(b)  Only B

(c)  Both A and B

(d)  Only C

(e)  None of the given A, B & C

Answer: (e)

14. Which of the following is most nearly the same in meaning as the word ‘Modicum’ as used in the passage?

(a)  Minimum

(b)  Strategy

(c)  Medium

(d)  Abundance

(e)  Relief

Answer: (a)

15. Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?

(a)  Exploring methods to implement education models from the western world.

(b)  Provisions for making teacher unions an integral part of the education system.

(c)  Exploring the role played by the technology to better the education sector in the developed world.

(d)  Concerns surrounding the education system in the developing world.

(e)  Critically analyzing the loopholes in the private sector.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 16-20) Rearrange the given six sentences A, B, C, D, E and F in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the given questions.

(A) Conversion of forests into agricultural land is weakening India’s monsoon.

(B) This is because forests are a source of transpiration, which adds to rainfall.

(C) It contributes to around 25% of the total precipitation in the later stages of the monsoon.

(D) The latter cannot do the same, thereby resulting in a weak monsoon.

(E) Now, transpiration is the process by which trees channel moisture from the soil into the air.

(F) However, deforestation replaces deep-rooted plants with shallow-rooted vegetation.

16. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  A

(b)  B

(c)  C

(d)  D

(e)  E

Answer: (a)

17. Which of the following should be the third sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  D

(b)  E

(c)  C

(d)  B

(e)  A

Answer: (d)

18. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  F

(c)  D

(d)  C

(e)  A

Answer: (d)

19. Which of the following should be the sixth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  F

Answer: (e)

20. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement?

(a)  B

(b)  C

(c)  D

(d)  E

(e)  F

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30) Which of the phrases (a), (b), (c) and (d) given be low should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required’, mark (e) as the answer.

21. The drought preceding winter has played spoilsport with regard to the sowing of winter crops such as wheat, pulses and oilseeds.

(a)  playing spoilsport

(b)  are  being playing spoilsports

(c)  has been spoilt

(d)  to p lay spoilsport

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

22. Evidence indicates that businesses are holding off on investment as they await clearly about this country’s future relationship with the European Union.

(a)  they wait for clarity

(b)  clearly waiting

(c)  their waiting clearly

(d)  to wait for clarity

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

23. Over the past three years, the government has been urging civil servants to open bank accounts to which they pay transferred directly.

(a)  they are paid

(b)  their paying to be

(c)  their paying can be

(d)  it has been paid

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

24. Scientists at an American University have discovered a fabric that keeps the skin 2 degrees cooler which will be good for the wearer serve to reduce energy bills.

(a)  by serving reduced

(b)  and also serve to reduce

(c)  to serve reduce

(d)  by serving a reduction

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (b)

25. Newly created a vaccine from scratch is a huge undertaking, but in the case of Ebola, several vaccines were already on the shelf, thanks to the work of the army.

(a)  Creating a new

(b)  Creation from a new

(c)  To create newly

(d)  The new creation

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

26. As per the World Giving index, India came down in the rankings from 93 in 2013 to 106 in 2014 demonstration an overall reduction in Indian philanthropy.

(a)  that reducing overall

(b)  how to reduce overall

(c)  that an overall reduction of

(d)  if there is overall a reduction

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (e)

27. The company has been testing self-driving cars on the roads of the capital for months and will soon begin offering customers request chances rides in one.

(a)  a chance request

(b)  to request chance

(c)  a chance to request

(d)  requesting a chance

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

28. They became much involved in the rescue and relief work that they refused to be evacuated.

(a)  so involved with

(b)  very involved

(c)  more involved with

(d)  too involved that

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (a)

29. The appreciate the social transformations that took place in Europe between 1815 and World War I, it is importantly considered its towns and cities evolved.

(a)  considered of importance that

(b)  to be considered importantly

(c)  important to consider how

(d)  considered how important

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (c)

30. When a country became richer, they tend to move away from the use of cash on grounds of security, convenience and cost.

(a)  When rich countries

(b)  Until rich country becomes richer

(c)  A country which is rich

(d)  As countries become richer

(e)  No correction required

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the part with the error as your answer. If there is no error, your answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any)

31. For almost three decades, central bankers/have agreed that one of the best way/ to stabilize an economy is/to aim for a specific ‘inflation target’.

(a)  For almost three decades, central bankers

(b)  have agreed that one of the best way

(c)  to stabilize an economy is

(d)  to aim for a specific ‘inflation target’

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

32. Consulting firms estimates that about $1540 billion / of the world’s IT budget of $34 trillion will be spent/ on cloud computing this year alone/ a number which is expected to grow tenfold by next year.

(a)  Consulting firms estimates that about $1540 billion

(b)  of the world’s IT budget of $34 trillion will be spent

(c)  on cloud computing this year alone

(d)  a number which is expected to grow tenfold by next year

(e)  No error

Answer: (a)

33. In this state, a mere/ 50% of the food been consumed/ is grown locally, compared/ to 81% in the other States.

(a)  In this state, a mere

(b)  50% of the food been consumed

(c)  is grown locally, compared

(d)  to 81% in the other States

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

34. After years of economic stagnation/ and questionable lending,/ bad loans at Italian banks/ have pile up.

(a)  After years of economic stagnation

(b)  and questionable lending

(c)  bad loans at Italian  banks

(d)  have pile up

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

35. The main reason for Britain’s success/ at the Olympics was/ the efficient allocation of fund toward/ equipment, facilities and training for athletes.

(a)  The main reason for Britain’s success

(b)  at the Olympics was

(c)  the efficient allocation of fund toward

(d)  equipment, facilities and training for athletes

(e)  No error

Answer: (e)

36. Over thirty years ago, Chile created/ a pension system in which workers/ had to save for their own retirement by paying/ 10% of its earning into individual accounts.

(a)  Over thirty years ago, Chile created

(b)  a pension system in which workers

(c)  had to save for their own retirement by paying

(d)  10% of its earning into individual accounts

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

37. The cement industry is one of/ the world’s most polluting industries/ and it accounts 5% of/ manmade carbon dioxide emissions each year.

(a)  The cement industry is one of

(b)  the world’s most polluting industries

(c)  and it accounts 5% of

(d)  manmade carbon dioxide emissions each year

(e)  No error

Answer: (c)

38. Under the ‘Dodd-Frank’ Act, a law aimed/ mainly at tightening the regulation of companies,/ firms in the United States had to be able/ to show how the minerals used in their products are formed.

(a)  Under the ‘Dodd-Frank’ Act, a law aimed

(b)  mainly at tightening the regulation of companies

(c)  firms in the United States had to be able

(d)  to show how the minerals used in their products are formed

(e)  No error

Answer: (d)

39. Launching a satellite into space/ remained a risky and hideously/ expensive proposition, only taken/ up by governments and a few companies.

(a)  Launching a satellite into space

(b)  remains a risky and hideously

(c)  expensive proposition, only taken

(d)  up by governments and a few companies

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

40. Under the terms of the policy,/ a payment has been triggered only/ if more than 1.39 million people/ are affected by the drought.

(a)  Under the terms of the policy

(b)  a payment has been triggered only

(c)  if more than 1.39 million people

(d)  are affected by the drought

(e)  No error

Answer: (b)

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In the given passage,, there are blanks, each of which  has been numbered. Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate word in each case.

Brazil’s Tourism Ministry is (41) a 6% increase in the number of tourists visiting the country (42) the next year, following the end of the Rio Olympics. The number is an estimate based on the (43) from the last three Olympic host cities-Athens, Beijing and London. Now that the curtain has been (44) and that the host country has taken its final bow. Brazil (45) released a glowing self-assessment of its performance based (46) the survey results from its international visitors. Rio (47) five lakh visitors (48) the games, with 88% of foreigners saying that they intend to come back to Brazil. However, when it (49) to security, public transport, infrastructure and prices, satisfaction levels fall (50) the ‘good’ category.

41.

(a)  negotiating

(b)  announcing

(c)  predicting

(d)  generating

(e)  approving

Answer: (c)

42.

(a)  on

(b)  over

(c)  from

(d)  off

(e)  at

Answer: (c)

43.

(a)  searching

(b)  highlight

(c)  citing

(d)  findings

(e)  discoveries

Answer: (d)

44.

(a)  drawn

(b)  fallen

(c)  risen

(d)  there

(e)  picked

Answer: (b)

45.

(a)  have

(b)  had

(c)  has

(d)  were

(e)  was

Answer: (c)

46.

(a)  unto

(b)  on

(c)  for

(d)  in

(e)  off

Answer: (b)

47.

(a)  stopped

(b)  felt

(c)  resided

(d)  brought

(e)  received

Answer: (e)

48.

(a)  during

(b)  on

(c)  without

(d)  by

(e)  down

Answer: (a)

49.

(a)  goes

(b)  falls

(c)  comes

(d)  moves

(e)  leaves

Answer: (c)

50.

(a)  above

(b)  down

(c)  besides

(d)  under

(e)  out

Answer: (b)

Part II Reasoning

51. Among five people – A, B, C, D and E, each scoring different marks, only one person scored less marks than B. D scored more than B, but less than A. A did not score the highest. Who scored the second highest?

(a)  E

(b)  Cannot be determined

(c)  A

(d)  C

(e)  D

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 52-54) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

A is 14 m East of B. C is 6 m South of A. P is 4 m West of C. Point C is the midpoint of Points P and H, such that Points P, C and H form a straight line. Q is 6 m South of Point H.

52. Kunal walks 10 m towards North from Point H, takes a left turn, and walks for 4 m. How far will he be from Point C?

(a)  2 m

(b)  10 m

(c)  4 m

(d)  6 m

(e)  7 m

Answer: (b)

53. If A is 2 m to the North of L and R is 4 m West of Q, how far is Point L from Point R?

(a)  4 m

(b)  12 m

(c)  7 m

(d)  10 m

(e)  9 m

Answer: (d)

54.In which direction is B with respect to H?

(a)  North-East

(b)  South-East

(c)  North-West

(d)  North

(e)  West

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 55-59) Study the following information and answer the given questions

Nine friends- P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W and X live on nine different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lower most floor of the building is numbered one, the one above that is numbered two and so on till the topmost floor is numbered nine. T lives on an odd numbered floor below the floor numbered five. Only three people live between T and V. Only one person lives between X and V. V lives above X. Q lives on an odd numbered floor immediately below P. Q does not  live on the floor numbered five. the number of persons living between X and P is equal to the number of people living between T and S. W lives on an even numbered floor above R.

55. S is related to the floor numbered seven and R is related to the floor numbered three in a certain way, same as X is related to which of the following floor numbers?

(a)  Seven

(b)  Nine

(c)  Five

(d)  Eight

(e)  Four

Answer: (e)

56. U lives on which of the following floor numbers?

(a)  Five

(b)  Four

(c)  Nine

(d)  Three

(e)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (c)

57.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as per the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?

(a)  UP

(b)  VW

(c)  XR

(d)  PR

(e)  QS

Answer: (d)

58. How many persons live below the floor on which W lives?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  More than three

(d)  Three

(e)  None

Answer: (d)

59. Which of the following statements is true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  Only three people live between S and V.

(b)  None of the given statements is true

(c)  Q lives immediately above T.

(d)  Less than three persons live above R.

(e)  U lives on the floor numbered nine.

Answer: (e)

60. How m any such pairs of digits are there in the number 71864392 (both in forward and backward directions), each of which has as many digits between them as in the arithmetic series?

(a)  More than three

(b)  None

(c)  Three

(d)  One

(e)  Two

Answer: (a)

61. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way (based on their positions of alphabets in the English alphabetical series) and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  RQT

(b)  NPL

(c)  FHD

(d)  KMI

(e)  WYU

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 62-66) Study the following information to answer the given questions

Nine persons B, C, D, E, L, M, N, O and P are seated in a straight line facing North with equal distance between each other, but not necessarily in the same order.

As many people sit to the left of E as to the right of E. Only one person sits between E and O. L sits third to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbour of O. Neither P nor D sits at any of the extreme ends of the line. Only three persons sits between B and C. B is not an immediate neighbour of E. the number of people sitting between B and E is double as that between E and N.

62. Who sits third to the right of B?

(a)  E

(b)  O

(c)  N

(d)  L

(e)  No one as B sits at one of the extreme ends of the line

Answer: (a)

63. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  C, E

(b)  M, D

(c)  O, C

(d)  B, L

(e)  D, B

Answer: (e)

64. Which of the following is true with respect to M as per the given arrangement?

(a)  M sits second to the left of O.

(b)  M is an immediate neighbour of L

(c)  More than two people sit between D and M.

(d)  None of the given options is true

(e)  M sits at one of the extreme ends of the line.

Answer: (e)

65. Who amongst the following sit exactly between L and P?

(a)  E, N

(b)  M, O

(c)  B, N

(d)  C, O

(e)  D, E

Answer: (c)

66. In which of the given pairs of people, is odd number of people sitting between them?

(a)  E, M

(b)  B, M

(c)  L, C

(d)  L, P

(e)  P, O

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 67-71) Study the following information to answer the given questions.

Gaurav watches seven movies viz. Gladiator, Bravheart, Titanic, Inception, Chinatown, Avatar and Passion on seven different days of the same week, starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Thus on one day he watches only one movie. Gaurav watches Inception on Friday. He watches only one movie between Inception and Titanic. He watches only three movies between Titanic and Gladiator. he watches only two movies between Titanic and Chinatown. Gaurav watches Avatar immediately before the day he watches Titanic. He watches Passion on one of the days after he watches Aavatar.

67. How many movies does Gaurav watch between Braveheart and Passion?

(a)  None

(b)  Three

(c)  One

(d)  Two

(e)  Four

Answer: (d)

68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(a)  Wednesday-Avatar

(b)  Friday-Braveheart

(c)  Thursday-Titanic

(d)  Saturday-Inception

(e)  Sunday-Chinatown

Answer: (b)

69. Which of the following is true as per the given arrangement?

(a)  Gaurav watches Inception on the day immediately after the day on which he watches Braveheart.

(b)  None of the given statements are true.

(c)  Gaurav watches only two movies between Avatar and Chinatown.

(d)  Gaurav watches Passion on Wednesday.

(e)  Gaurav watches Gladiator on Sunday.

Answer: (e)

70. On which day of the week does Gaurav watch Avatar?

(a)  Saturday

(b)  Sunday

(c)  Tuesday

(d)  Wednesday

(e)  Thursday

Answer: (c)

71. Which movie does Gaurav watch on Monday?

(a)  Chinatown

(b)  Gladiator

(c)  Titanic

(d)  Braveheart

(e)  Passion

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 72-76) In these questions. relationship between different elements is shown in the statement(s) are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I is true

(b) if only conclusion II is true

(c) if either conclusion I or II is true

(d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true

(e) if both conclusions are true

72. Statements T = V ≤ R < B, T ≤ D

Conclusions I. D ≥ R       II. B ≤ T

Answer: (d)

73. Statements R < O ≥ E; Y = O > C

Conclusions I. Y > R       II. E < C

Answer: (a)

74. Statements P > R = S ≥ Q; M ≤ R

Conclusions I. M < P       II. Q ≤ M

Answer: (a)

75. Statements H < M ≥ I > N = C ≥ R

Conclusions I. C < H       II. M > R

Answer: (b)

76. Statements R < O ≥ E; Y ≥ O > C

Conclusions I. Y = E       II. Y > E

Answer: (c)

77. In a certain code language, ‘give me call’ is coded as ‘jo kl mx’ and ‘call for me’ is coded as ‘mx jo st’. How will ‘for’ be coded as in the given code language? (Note: all codes are two letter codes only)

(a)  Either ‘mx’ or ‘jo’

(b)  Either ‘jo’ or ‘kj’

(c)  kj

(d)  mx

(e)  st

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 78-82) In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions number I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Give answer

(a) if only conclusion I follows

(b) if only conclusion II follows

(c) if either conclusion I or II follows

(d) if neither conclusion I or II follows

(e) if both conclusions follow

78. Statements No horse is a goat. Some goats are deers.

Conclusions I. No horse is a deer.

II. At least some horses are deers.

 

Answer: (a)

79. Statements Some trees are branches. Some braches are roads. No road is a sky.

Conclusions I. No tree is a sky.

II. Some branches are definitely not skies.

Answer: (a)

80. Statements All plates are spoons. All spoons are glasses. Some glasses are mugs.

Conclusions I. All plates being mugs is a possibility.

II. All glasses are plates.

Answer: (d)

81. Statements All plates are spoons. All spoons are glasses. Some glasses are mugs.

Conclusions I. Some mugs are spoons.

II. No mug is a spoon.

Answer: (d)

82. Statements Some trees are branches. Some branches are roads. No road is a sky.

Conclusions I. All roads are trees.

II. All skies are branches.

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 83-85) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question.

K and M are the children of G. G is married to R. S is the sister of G. A is the only son of R. P is the son of K.

83. How is M related to P?

(a)  Father

(b)  Uncle

(c)  Aunt

(d)  Grandmother

(e)  Brother-in-law

Answer: (c)

84. How is S related to R?

(a)  Sister-in-law

(b)  Daughter-in-law

(c)  Niece

(d)  Daughter

(e)  Grandmother

Answer: (a)

85. If S does not have any sister, then how is G related to P?

(a)  Uncle

(b)  Grandfather

(c)  Father-in-law

(d)  Aunt

(e)  Grandmother

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 86-90) Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight people M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are sitting around a square table (but not necessarily in the same order) in such a way that four of them sit at the corners while four sit in the middle of each of the four sides. The ones sitting at the corners are facing the centre and the ones sitting in the middle of the sides are facing outside. (i.e. opposite to the centre)

O sits in the middle f one of the sides. Only two people sit between O and R. T sits to the immediate right of R. T and S face the same direction. N sits to the immediate left of S. P is an immediate neighbour of N. M sits third to the right of P.

86. What is the positions of P with respect to T?

(a)  Third to the left

(b)  Second to the left

(c)  Immediate left

(d)  immediate right

(e)  Second to the right

Answer: (e)

87. Which of the following pairs represents the people sitting between O and the one sitting to the immediate right of P, when counted from the left of O?

(a)  N, S

(b)  R, N

(c)  S, M

(d)  T, Q

(e)  R, T

Answer: (c)

88. How many people sit between T and M when counted from the right of T?

(a)  More than three

(b)  Two

(c)  One

(d)  Three

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

89. Which of the following statements is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(a)  None of the given statements is true.

(b)  Q is an immediate neighbour of T.

(c)  S sits at one of the corners of the table.

(d)  Only two people sit between M and Q.

(e)  R and N face opposite directions

Answer: (b)

90. Who sits third to the left of O?

(a)  R

(b)  M

(c)  P

(d)  N

(e)  S

Answer: (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 91-95) Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.

Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F G and H are seating around a circular table. Some of them are facing inside & others are facing outside. Opposite direction means if one is facing inside the centre, second one face outside the centre and Vice versa.

Three people are seating between F and D and both face opposite direction to each other. E is seating second to right of both D and F and face opposite direction as F faces. C is seating third to right of E  who is not opposite to B. G is neighbour of both E and D, and seating second to right of B, who is not a neighbour of E. G is third to left of A, who is third to right of both H and G. B face towards the centre and is seating second to left of C.

91. If all the friends are seating according to alphabetical order in anti clock wise direction, starting from A, how many friends remain at same position (excluding A)?

(a)  One

(b)  Two

(c)  Three

(d)  Four

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

92. If D interchanged his position with H and, F interchanged his position with G, who sits immediately right of H in new arrangement?

(a)  F

(b)  G

(c)  E

(d)  A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

93. Who is sitting third to the left of B?

(a)  H

(b)  C

(c)  A

(d)  F

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

94. How many persons are facing away from the centre?

(a)  H, B

(b)  C, G

(c)  F, D

(d)  E, A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

95. Who among the following pairs are facing same direction and seating opposite to each other?

(a)  H, B

(b)  B, G

(c)  F, D

(d)  E, A

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

Directions (Q. Nos. 96-100) Read the given information to answer the given questions.

Ten friends are sitting on twelve seats in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In Row 1: A, B, C, D and E are seated and all of them are facing South and in Row 2: P, Q, R, S and T are sitting and all of them are facing North. One seat is vacant in each row. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.

All of them like different colors – Red, Green, Black, Yellow, White, Blue, Brown, Purple, Pink and Grey, but not necessarily in the same order.

There are two seats between Q and the vacant seat. Q does not like White, Red and Purple. E is not an immediate neighbor of C. B likes Grey. Vacant seat of row 1 is not opposite to S and is also not at any of the extreme ends of Row-1. The one who likes Black sits opposite to the one, who sits third to the right of the seat, which is opposite to S. C is not an immediate neighbor of D. T, who likes neither White nor Blue, does not face vacant seat. D faces R. The vacant seats are not opposite to each other. Two seats are there between E and B. The one who sits third right of the seat, on which the person who likes brown is sitting. S sits third to the right of seat on which R sits and likes Yellow. the one who likes Pink faces the one who likes Yellow. The persons who like Red and Purple are adjacent to each other. The vacant seat in row 1 is not adjacent to D. Q sits at one of the extreme ends. E neither likes Pink nor faces the seat which is adjacent to the one who likes Blue. The one who likes Yellow. The persons who likes Green doesn’t face the person who likes Purple.

96. How many persons are sitting between T and the one who likes Yellow colour?

(a)  None

(b)  One

(c)  Two

(d)  Three

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

97. Which of the following faces the vacant seat of Row-2

(a)  The one who like White colour

(b)  A

(c)  D

(d)  The one who like Grey colour

(e)  Cannot be determined

Answer: (d)

98. Who is sitting at the immediate left of person who likes Purple colour?

(a)  T

(b)  The one who likes black colour

(c)  D

(d)  The one who likes Green colour

(e)  The one who likes Grey colour

Answer: (a)

99. Who amongst the following sits at the extreme end of the row?

(a)  R, Q

(b)  E, S

(c)  T, C

(d)  C, D

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

100. If Q is made to sit on vacant seat of his row, then how many persons are there between the persons who sit opposite to Q now and who sat opposite to Q previously?

(a)  Two

(b)  Three

(c)  Four

(d)  None

(e)  One

Answer: (a)

Part III Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. Nos. 101-110) Each question below is followed by two statements I and II. You are to determine whether the data given in the statement is sufficient for answering the question. You should use the data and your  knowledge of Mathematics to choose between the  possible answer.

Give answer

(a) if the statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, but the statement II alone is not sufficient.

(b) if the statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question but the statement I alone is not sufficient.

(c) if both statements I and II together are needed to answer the question

(d) if either the statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(e) if answer cannot be obtained from the statements I and II together but need even more data.

101. What is the area of the circle?

(I) Perimeter of the circle is 88 cms.

(II) Diameter of the circle is 28 cms.

Answer: (d)

102. What is the rate of interest?

(I) Simple Interest accrued on an amount of Rs25000 in two years is less than the compound interest for the same period by Rs 250.

(II) Simple Interest accrued in 10 years is equal to the principal.

Answer: (d)

103. What is the number of trees planted in the field in rows and columns?

(I) Number of columns is more than the number of rows by 4.

(II) There are five rows of trees in the field.

Answer: (e)

104. What is the speed of the current?

(I) A man can swim a distance of 9 km in  downstream

(II) While coming back upstream it takes him 3 hours to cover the same distance.

Answer: (c)

105. What is the minimum passing percentage in a test?

(I) Raman scored 25% marks in the test and Sunil scored 288 marks which is 128 more than Raman.

(II) Raman scored 64 marks less than the minimum passing marks.

Answer: (c)

106. What is the value of x2 + y + z?

(I) 4x + 3y + 5z = 60 and 2x = y, 2y = z

(II) 3x + 3y + 2z = 34 and 2x + 5y+ 6z = 72

Answer: (c)

107. Whose body weight is second highest among the five boys Arun, Vinay, Suraj, Raju and Pratap?

(I) Average weight of Arun, Suraj and Vinay is 68 kg and average weight of Raju and Pratap is 72 kg.

(II) Average weight of Arun, Suraj, Vinay and Raju is 68 kg and also Suraj is 78 kg. Raju is 68 kg and Vinay is 46 kg. All of them have different weight.

Answer: (a)

108. What is Subodh’s marks in Physics?

(I) The average marks of Subodh in History, Geography and Chemistry are 75.

(II) His average marks in History, Geography and Physics are 78.

Answer: (e)

109. What is the population of the city A?

(I) The ratio of the population of males and females in city A is 27 : 23 and the difference between their population is 100000.

(II) The population of city A is 80% of that of city B. The difference of population of city A and city B is 312500.

Answer: (a)

110. How many students did participate in elocution?

(I) The students who participate in dancing were 150% were than that who participated in elocution.

(II) 150 students participated in dancing.

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 111-115) Study the following graph carefully and answer the given question below it.

111. Expenditure of company B in 2009 and 2010 are Rs 12 lakh and Rs 14.5 lakh respectively. What was the total income of company B in 2009 and 2010 together?

(a)  Rs 39.75

(b)  Rs 37.95

(c)  Rs 38.75

(d)  Rs 38.55

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

112. Ratio of expenditure of company A and B in 2012 was 3 : 4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their incomes in 2012?

(a)  21 : 26

(b)  13 : 14

(c)  14 : 13

(d)  26 : 21

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

113. Total expenditure of company A in all the years together was 82.5 lakhs. What was the total income of the company A in all the years together?

(a)  1.23 crores

(b)  98.75 crores

(c)  99.85 crores

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

114. If the expenditure of company A and B in 2013 were equal and the total incomes of the two companies was Rs 5.7 lakh. What was the total expenditure of the two companies in 2013?

(a)  4 lakh

(b)  2 lakh

(c)  4.2 lakh

(d)  Cannot be determined

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

115. If the income of company B in 2010 and 2011 were in the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively. What was the respective ratio of expenditure of that company in these two years?

(a)  20 : 29

(b)  9 : 10

(c)  29 : 45

(d)  10 : 29

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 116-120) Study the pie-charts carefully to answer the given questions.

116. Number of girls enrolled in dancing form are what percent of total number of students enrolled in the school? (Rounded off to two digits after decimal)

(a)  12.83

(b)  14.12

(c)  11.67

(d)  10.08

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

117. How many boys are enrolled in Singing and Craft together?

(a)  750

(b)  610

(c)  485

(d)  420

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

118. What is the respective ratio of number of girls enrolled in swimming to the number of boys enrolled in Craft?

(a)  47 : 49

(b)  23 : 29

(c)  29 : 23

(d)  49 : 47

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

119. What is the total number of girls enrolled in Craft and Drawing together?

(a)  480

(b)  525

(c)  505

(d)  495

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

120. What is the appropriate percentage of boys in the school?

(a)  34%

(b)  56%

(c)  42%

(d)  50%

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 121-130) In each of the question, two equations numbered I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and

Give answer

(a) x < y        (b) x > y      (c) x ≥ y     (d) x ≤ y

(e) relationship between x and y cannot be established or x = y

121 (I) 6x2 + 5x + 1 = 0 (II) 15y2 + 8y + 1= 0

Answer: (d)

122. (I) x2 + 5x + 6 = 0 (II) 4y2 + 27y + 35= 0

Answer: (e)

123. (I) 2x2 + 5x + 3 = 0 (II) y2 + 9y + 14 = 0

Answer: (b)

124. (I) 88x2 – 19x + 1 = 0 (II) 132y2 – 23y + 1 = 0

Answer: (c)

125. (I) 6x2 – 7x + 2 = 0 (II) 20y2 – 31y + 12 = 0

Answer: (a)

126. (I) 6x2 + 23x + 20 = 0 (II) 6y2 + 31y + 35 = 0

Answer: (e)

127. (I) x2 = 81 (II) y2 – 18y + 81 = 0

Answer: (d)

128. (I) 4x2 + 20x + 21 = 0 (II) 2y2 + 17y + 35 = 0

Answer: (b)

129. (I) x2 – 14x + 48 = 0 (II) y2 + 6 = 5y

Answer: (b)

130. (I) 38x2 – 3x – 11 = 0 (II) 28y2 + 32y + 9 = 0

Answer: (c)

131. Two men P and Q start a journey from same place speed at a speed of 3 km/h and 3 1/2 km/h respectively. If they move in the same direction then, what is the distance between them after 4 hours?

(a)  3 km

(b)  2 1/2 km

(c)  2 km

(d)  3 1/2 km

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 132-135) What will come in place of question marks in the given questions?

132. 

(a)  5√5

(b)  (125)3

(c)  25

(d)  5

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

133. 

(a)  10

(b)  8

(c)  512

(d)  324

(e)  None of these

Answer: (a)

134. 

(a)  36 + 44√(7)

(b)  6

(c)  216

(d)  36

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

135. 

(a)  6320

(b)  6400

(c)  6350

(d)  6430

(e)  6490

Answer: (c)

136. 28 39 63  102  158  ?

(a)  232

(b)  242

(c)  233

(d)  244

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

137. 7 16 141  190  919  ?

(a)  1029

(b)  1019

(c)  1020

(d)  1030

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

138. 12 17 32  57  92  ?

(a)  198

(b)  195

(c)  137

(d)  205

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

139. 19 25 45  87  159  ?

(a)  254

(b)  279

(c)  284

(d)  269

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

140. 83 124 206  370  698  ?

(a)  1344

(b)  1324

(c)  1364

(d)  1334

(e)  None of these

Answer: (e)

Directions (Q. Nos. 141-147) Study the table carefully and answer the given questions.

141. What is the difference between the number of academic books published by publishing house M and P?

(a)  450

(b)  640

(c)  540

(d)  504

(e)  None of these

Answer: (c)

142. How many books were given to each distributor by publisher Q if each publisher gets equal number of books?

(a)  1806

(b)  1068

(c)  1608

(d)  1308

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

143. What is the average number of non-academic books published by publishers R and S?

(a)  18750

(b)  18850

(c)  19950

(d)  18950

(e)  19990

Answer: (c)

144. If the total number of books publishers P, Q and R is increased by 30% and the total number of books published by remaining publishers be decreased by 20%, what will be the new average of books published by all the publishers?

(a)  33418

(b)  33318

(c)  32518

(d)  33618

(e)  None of these

Answer: (b)

145. What is the total number of books distributed by publishers O and Q?

(a)  26702

(b)  27324

(c)  55026

(d)  54026

(e)  None of these

Answer: (d)

146. Meena kumara goes to a shop and buys a saree, costing Rs 5225 including sales tax of 12%. The shopkeeper gives her a discount, so that the price is decreased by an amount equivalent to sales tax. The price is decreased by (nearest value)

(a)  Rs 615

(b)  Rs 650

(c)  Rs 560

(d)  Rs 580

(e)  Rs 680

Answer: (c)

147. Phanse invests an amount of Rs 24200 at the rate of 4% per annum for 6 years to obtain a simple interest. later he invests the principal amount as well as the amount obtained as simple interest for another 4 years at the same rate of interest. What amount of simple interest will be obtain at the end of the last 4 years?

(a)  Rs 4800

(b)  Rs 4850.32

(c)  Rs 4801.28

(d)  Rs 4700

(e)  Rs 4870.32

Answer: (c)

Directions (Q. Nos. 148-149) These questions are based on the following information

There are three different cable channels namely ahead, luck and bang. In a survey, it was found that85% of viewers, respond to bang, 20% to luck and 30% of ahead. 20% of viewers respond exactly two channels and 5% to none.

148. What percentage of the viewers responded to all three?

(a)  10%

(b)  12%

(c)  14%

(d)  16%

(e)  11%

Answer: (a)

149. Assuming 20% respond to ahead and bang and 16% respond to bang and luck. What is the percentage of viewers who watch only luck?

(a)  20%

(b)  10%

(c)  16%

(d)  18%

(e)  14%

Answer: (e)

150. A milkman mixes 20 L of water with 80 L of milk. After selling one-fourth of this mixture, he adds water to replenish the quantity that he has sold. What is the current proportion of water to milk?

(a)  2 : 3

(b)  1 : 2

(c)  1 : 3

(d)  2 : 1

(e)  3 : 4

Answer: (a)

Jharkhand Subordinate Service Selection Panchayat Secretariat Examination Held on 08-10-2017 English Language Question Paper With Answer Key

Jharkhand Subordinate Service Selection Panchayat Secretariat Examination Held on 08-10-2017

English Language

1. Choose the best synonym of the given word from the options given below.

VENERATE

(A)  Denounce

(B)  Exalt

(C)  Condemn

(D)  Dishonour

Answer: (B)

2. Rewrite the sentence in Active Voice.

Suresh was awarded with the employee of the year by the management.

(A)  The management awarded Suresh with employee of the year

(B)  The management has awarded Suresh with the employee of the year

(C)  The management had awarded Suresh with the employee of the year

(D)  The management awards Suresh with the employee of the year

Answer: (A)

3. Choose the best antonym of the given word from the options given below.

APPOSITE

(A)  Suitable

(B)  Timely

(C)  Inappropriate

(D)  Relevant

Answer: (C)

4. Complete the sentence by choosing the best pronoun from the given options ……… book, which is on the table, is mine.

(A)  Those

(B)  This

(C)  These

(D)  There

Answer: (B)

5. Rewrite the sentence in Active Voice.

A big variety store was inaugurated by Kumar.

(A)  Kumar had inaugurated a big variety store

(B)  Kumar has inaugurated a big variety store

(C)  Kumar inaugurates a big variety store

(D)  Kumar inaugurated a big variety store

Answer: (D)

6. Choose the correct meaning of the given idioms and phrases from the alternatives given below.

“Keep me in the loop”

(A)  To keep someone informed

(B)  To make people feel more comfortable

(C)  To ignore someone

(D)  To take only calculated risks

Answer: (A)

7. Choose the correct option to complete the given sentence.

Rama lives far from ……

(A)  Which

(B)  That

(C)  This

(D)  Here

Answer: (D)

8. Choose the best adjective from the options to complete the sentences,

Sanjay’s house is located ……… to my uncle’s house.

(A)  Primal

(B)  Next

(C)  Earliest

(D)  Latest

Answer: (B)

9. Choose the correct form of the verb from the options given to complete the sentence.

India ……. the match, yesterday. (lose)

(A)  Lose

(B)  Have lose

(C)  Lost

(D)  Loses

Answer: (C)

10. Choose the correct adjective from the option to complete the sentence.

Chennai is one of …….. cities in the southern  part of India.

(A)  Most tinier

(B)  Most large

(C)  The largest

(D)  A large

Answer: (C)

11. Rewrite the sentence in Passive Voice.

The President of India has inaugurated the project.

(A)  The project was inaugurated by the President of India

(B)  The project had been inaugurated by the President of India

(C)  The project inaugurated by the President of India

(D)  The project has been inaugurated by the President of India

Answer: (D)

12. The following sentence is divided into four parts (P, Q, R and S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

(P) Was a prominent Indian political

(Q) Leader who campaigned

(R) Mahatma Gandhi

(S) For India’s independence

(A)  RQPS

(B)  RSPQ

(C)  RPQS

(D)  PQRS

Answer: (C)

13. Choose the correct from of the verb from the options given to complete the sentence.

I …… in Chennai for vie years

                                          (live)

(A)  Have been living

(B)  Have live

(C)  Living

(D)  Has been living

Answer: (A)

14. Choose the best antonym of the given word from the options given below.

HOSTILE

(A)  Favourable

(B)  Contrary

(C)  Hateful

(D)  Adverse

Answer: (A)

15. Choose the correct form of the verb from the options given to complete the sentence.

The Prime Minister ……… office last week.     (assume)

(A)  Assume

(B)  Assumed

(C)  Assumes

(D)  Have assumed

Answer: (B)

16. Choose the noun which is in singular form.

(A)  Boats

(B)  Funds

(C)  Goods

(D)  Spy

Answer: (D)

17. Rewrite the sentence in Passive Voice.

Sanjay bought a novel.

(A)  A novel was bought by Sanjay

(B)  A novel is bought by Sanjay

(C)  A novel had been bought by Sanjay

(D)  A novel was being bought by Sanjay

Answer: (A)

18. Choose the correct meaning of the given idioms and phrases from the alternatives given below.

“Horse of a different colour.”

(A)  An entirely different matter

(B)  An ideal situation.

(C)  The worst possible situation

(D)  To make a bad situation worse

Answer: (A)

19. Choose the best synonym of the given word from the options given

ROBUST

(A)  Impotent

(B)  Lethargic

(C)  Unstable

(D)  Tough

Answer: (D)

20. Choose the correct adverb from the options given to complete the sentence.

Subash knows me …….. than you.

(A)  Better

(B)  Best

(C)  Most

(D)  Many

Answer: (A)

21. Choose the noun which is in singular form.

(A)  Outskirts

(B)  Riches

(C)  Princess

(D)  Wishes

Answer: (C)

22. The following sentence is divided into four parts (P, Q, R and S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

(P) Non-violence is the law of

(Q) To brute force

(R) Greater than and superior

(S) The human race and is infinitely

(A)  PSRQ

(B)  SRQP

(C)  RPSQ

(D)  RSPQ

Answer: (A)

23. Choose the best synonym of the given word from the options given below.

OMNIPRESENT

(A)  Insignificant

(B)  Almighty

(C)  Pervasive

(D)  Generous

Answer: (C)

24. Choose the best antonym of the given word from the options given

AGGRESSIVE

(A)  Combative

(B)  Destructive

(C)  Barbaric

(D)  Complaisant

Answer: (D)

25. The following sentence is divided into four parts (P, Q, R and S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

(P) English is the first choice

(Q) Most other countries

(R) Of the world

(S) Of foreign language i n

(A)  SQPR

(B)  QPSR

(C)  PQRS

(D)  PSQR

Answer: (D)

26. Choose the best synonym of the given word from the options given below.

PRUDENT

(A)  Careful

(B)  Expensive

(C)  Foolish

(D)  Hasty

Answer: (A)

27. Choose the best adverb from the options given to complete the sentence.

When I see him ………, I shall speak to him.

(A)  Late

(B)  Next

(C)  Earliest

(D)  Previous

Answer: (B)

28. Choose the best antonym of the given word from t he options given below.

TANGIBLE

(A)  Touchable

(B)  Abstract

(C)  Factual

(D)  Corporeal

Answer: (B)

29. Complete the sentence by choosing the  best pronoun from the given options.

We will see to it ………

(A)  Ourselves

(B)  Yourselves

(C)  Myself

(D)  Themselves

Answer: (A)

30. Choose the noun which is in singular from.

(A)  Rivers

(B)  Earnings

(C)  Valuables

(D)  Fungus

Answer: (D)

31. Choose the correct preposition from given options to complete the sentence.

………. his illness, Babu could not finish the work in time.

(A)  Instead of

(B)  Due to

(C)  Despite

(D)  In spite of

Answer: (B)

32. Rewrite the sentence in Passive Voice.

The mechanic repairs the printer.

(A)  The printer was repaired by the mechanic

(B)  The printer is being repaired by the mechanic

(C)  The printer is repaired by the mechanic

(D)  The printer has been repaired by the mechanic

Answer: (C)

33. Choose the correct meaning of the given idioms and phrases from the alternatives given below.

“Go with the flow”

(A)  To  joke with someone

(B)  To stop working on something

(C)  To work better on a project

(D)  To be relaxed and not worry about what you should do

Answer: (D)

34. Choose the correct preposition from the given options to complete the sentence.

Which these chairs did you sit ………. ?

(A)  Of

(B)  Up

(C)  On

(D)  Out

Answer: (C)

35. Choose the correct adjective from the options to complete the sentence.

Ram said to Rajesh, “You have …….. sense.”

(A)  No

(B)  Never

(C)  Bottom

(D)  Really

Answer: (A)

36. Complete the sentence by choosing the best pronoun from the given options.

………… of the boys gets a prize.

(A)  Anybody

(B)  Among

(C)  Each

(D)  These

Answer: (C)

37. Choose the correct meaning of the given idioms and phrases from the alternatives given below.

“To be under fire”

(A)  To spoil something

(B)  To put a project on hold

(C)  To be criticized severely for something you have done

(D)  To postpone a plan

Answer: (C)

38. Rewrite the sentence in Active Voice.

The thief was caught by the Policeman.

(A)  The Policeman has caught the thief

(B)  The Policeman caught the thief

(C)  The Policeman may caught thief

(D)  The Policeman may have caught the thief

Answer: (B)

39. Choose the correct preposition from the given options to complete the sentence.

…….. the staff, Kumar red the address.

(A)  On behalf of

(B)  In order to

(C)  In course of

(D)  By way of

Answer: (A)

40. The following sentence is divided into four parts (P, Q, R and S). Rearrange it in the proper sequence in order to make a meaningful sentence.

(P) During the day, the donkey would carry

(Q) But during the night

(R) He was set free to eat the green grass in a nearby field

(S) The washerman’s bags

(A)  PQRS

(B)  PSQR

(C)  RPSQ

(D)  SQPR

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 41-45) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

    Environmental protection is gaining momentum, with India posed to p lay a greater role in the years to come. There is a great potential for a category of non-solid natural timber products which include PVS boards, MDF boards, Glass fibre reinforced plastic, wood based particle board, black boards, rubber wood, etc. MDF boards are produced from agro-based raw material and have been widely accepted as the  most effective substitute for wood globally. Initially these were manufactured on low scale, but Subwood Ltd. went ahead with technology transfer and equity participation from world leaders in Sweden.

   Using state-of-the-art technology with an investment of Rs 600 million, the plant is geared to produce 39,000  tons of Subwood MDF annually. Subwood MDF has a very wide uwasge in housing, industrial and institutional sectors. MDF industry is experiencing global boom. There exists a major demand supply gap. The demand for natural wood for building industry is estimated at a phenomenal 12 million tonnes per year. However, the product being new to the Indian market, it is going to face a tough competition from natural wood in high-income class and also the lower strata of the society.

41. On which of the following sectors should be Subwood MDF concentrate?

(A)  Institutional sector

(B)  Industrial sector

(C)  Housing sector

(D)  All of the above

Answer: (D)

42. The most promising consumer for Subwood Ltd. is the-

(A)  High income class

(B)  Middle income class

(C)  Building industry

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

43. The Subwood MDF is experiencing global boom due to ……

(A)  Its easy availability

(B)  Its wide usage in housing, industrial and institutional sectors

(C)  Its wide media exposure

(D)  Heavy discount on it

Answer: (B)

44. The problem faced by Subwood Ltd. is mainly-

(A)  Its versatility

(B)  Low acceptance by building industry

(C)  Tough competition from natural wood

(D)  High costs

Answer: (C)

45. The threat offered to the product by Subwood Ltd. is primarily the-

(A)  Natural wood

(B)  Limited usage of MDF

(C)  Agro-based raw material

(D)  Low acceptance of its  product globally

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 46-50) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

   In the early days of America, the original colonies were fairly close together on the east coast. Travel was by foot, or by horse. If goods had to be transported over land, a horse and wagon was often used. As more and more settlers arrived. transportation expanded to include a few tracks of railroad service. Travel to known areas was not very difficult. When America began to expand towards the West, it was not easy to get by with walking, riding a horse, or using a wagon. The lands in the West were unknown, and many settlers had long distance to go in order to claim land for their own. Oregon territory offered rich land for those who would travel there.

  The California Gold Rush of 1849 gave many people dreams of becoming rich, so they decided to travel there. Many families stayed behind while husbands and fathers set out alone to a make home where their families could join them later. Theodore Judah saw that people needed a faster way to travel in this new direction : West. It was his dream to unite the  East and West with the first transcontinental railroad, a train system that would reach from one side o the continent to the other. Thousands of workers came to California to help build the tracks going East from Sacramento. Many others started building West from Nebraska. In 1869, the tracks met in Promontory, Utah, Suddenly, the part of the nation that had seemed so distant were joined with our early settlement by the tracks.

46. After more and more settlers arrived, travelling to known areas was not very difficult because-

(A)  Each had horse that they can reach the destination with case

(B)  Horses and wagons were increased

(C)  Inclusion of a few tracks of railroad eased the travel

(D)  People stopped travelling

Answer: (C)

47. Why did people wish to settle in California?

(A)  To become rich

(B)  To become landlords

(C)  To start cultivation

(D)  To start locomotive companies

Answer: (A)

48. In early days how did people travel?

(A)  People travelled on foot and horse

(B)  People travelled by camel

(C)  People travelled by locomotive

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

49. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A)  When America expanded, many settlers had long distance to go in order to claim land for their own

(B)  Theodore Judah had not wished to unite the East and West

(C)  Many families with husbands and fathers set  out in California

(D)  Those who travelled to Oregon did not prosper

Answer: (A)

50. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage?

(A)  Original colonies were fairly close on the East coast, in the early days of America

(B)  America began to expand toward the East

(C)  In early days, the lands in the West were unknown

(D)  Thousands of workers came to California

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 51-55) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below :

    The weather forecast tell us what the temperature and air conditions are likely to be outside in the near future. There is a wide variety of weather, from sunny to stomry and warm to cool. It can be rainy or cloudy or windy. Listening to or watching the weather forecast can help us be prepared so we known what to wear. If weather conditions will be severe, like snow, a storm or a hurricane, getting information ahead of time can help us prepare so we can stay safe. A meteorologist is a person whose job is to forecast the weather. There are many tools available now that help the meteorologist do his/here job. A common tool for getting an accurate measurement of the temperature is a thermometer. A high temperature probably means plenty of sunshine for everyone. When the weather is rainy, a meteorologist can use a rain gauge to get numerical data about how much rain is falling outdoors. If you are lucky, you may be able to see a rainbow if the sun comes out while the last of the rain is still sprinkling from the sky. Wind brings us weather because it blows clouds from one place to another. Therefore, it is helpful to know from which direction the wind is blowing. A wind vane can provide this information so meteorologists know what is coming. Weather forecasts are not always right, but they get more accurate all the time.

51. In the passage, which of following weather conditions has been mentioned?

(A)  Stormy

(B)  Windy

(C)  Cloud

(D)  All of these

Answer: (D)

52. Based on the information provided in the passage, which of the following is a severe weather condition?

(A)  Rainy

(B)  Cloudy

(C)  Snowy

(D)  Information is not provided in the passage

Answer: (C)

53. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

(A)  A meteorologist uses thermometer to measure the temperature

(B)  Wind blows the clouds from one place of another

(C)  Weather forecasts never go wrong

(D)  Watching weather forecast help us decide what to wear

Answer: (C)

54. According to the passage, what is forecast?

(A)  Forecast tells us the happenings in the city

(B)  Forecast tells us the temperature in the future

(C)  Forecast tells us about our future

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (B)

55. Who is meteorologist?

(A)  A weather forecaster

(B)  A newscaster

(C)  A broadcaster

(D)  A reporter

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 56-60) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.

  Today, some type of animals are endangered species. This means there are very few animals of that kind left on Earth. These animals could face extinction. Extinction is when all the animals of that kind die. When a type of animal is extinct, it is gone forever. One problem for animals is that their habitat is sometimes destroyed by humans. As human populations increase, more and more space is needed for people. Building areas for people to  live pushed animals out of their natural homes. Forest and swamp habitats are the most threatened. Trees are cut down to make room for homes and businesses. Swamps are filled in so that neighbourhoods can expand. The habitat is destroyed. The animals have nowhere else to go. Without a habitat, the number of animals begins to go down.

    Humans must prevent the extinction of animals due to the loss of their habitat. We  have to become more aware of animal populations when considering building and expansion projects. Other options may not be as convenient, but the survival of the animals needs to be taken into consideration. Better planning and awareness of how human actions affect animals can make a difference. It is still possible to maintain a diverse animal population for future generations to enjoy. Another major cause of endangerment of animals is overhunting by humans. The practice of shooting animals to extinction. This is a worldwide problem. Some animals may have large enough populations so hunting will not endanger them. Others must be protected. There is still hope for animals who are already on the endangered species list. Some organizations are working hard to recreate habitats for h tem. Breeding programs are helping animal populations increase. We all have to be aware and think before we act. The things we do can affect more than just ourselves.

56. According to the passage,, what does extinction mean?

(A)  When a type of animal is extinct, it is gone forever

(B)  When a type of animal is extinct, it is not gone forever

(C)  When a type of animal is extinct, it is  likely to take another form

(D)  None of the above

Answer: (A)

57. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?

(A)  Animals habitats are destroyed by humans

(B)  Animals habitats are not used for building new houses

(C)  Awareness of how human actions affect animals can make a difference

(D)  Some animals with a large population will not extinct by hunting

Answer: (B)

58. Based on the information provided in the passage, why does a poacher kill an animal?

(A)  Considers as a sport

(B)  It is his profession

(C)  For his livelihood

(D)  Information is not provided in the passage

Answer: (A)

59. What measures have been taken to protect the endangered animals?

(A)  Recreation of habitat

(B)  Prohibition of shooting animals

(C)  Hunting has been banned

(D)  Banning the expansion of building new  houses

Answer: (A)

60. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(A)  Increase in human population causes reduction in animal’s habitats

(B)  Human do not hunt animals

(C)  Without a habitat, animals can increase their kind

(D)  No actions have been taken to prevent animal extinction

Answer: (A)

NABARD Officer Grade ‘A’ Examination Held on 5-8-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

NABARD Officer Grade ‘A’ Examination Held on 5-8-2017

Quantitative Aptitude

 

1. A respective ratio between the quantity of milk and water in jar is 5 : 1. If 6 litre of this mixture is removed and 4 litre pure milk and 2 litre water is added to this mixture the quantity of milk become 300% more than that of water in the jar. What was the original quantity of mixture in the jar (in litres) ?

(A)  11

(B)  12

(C)  13

(D)  14

(E)  15 (*) 30 Ltr.

Answer: (*)

2. 32 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days and 20 women can complete the same piece of work in 18 days. What is the respective ratio between the amount of work done by 24 men in 4 days and amount of work done by 36 women in 5 days?

(A)  1 : 2

(B)  1 : 3

(C)  2 : 3

(D)  3 : 4

(E)  1 : 4

Answer: (A)

3. A and C started a business and B joined after 4 months from the start of the business. the respective ratio between the investment of A, B and C was 3 : 7 : 4. if B share in annual profit was Rs 2000 more than that of A. What is the total amount of Profit earned?

(A)  10,000

(B)  12,000

(C)  14,000

(D)  16,000

(E)  18,000

Answer: (C)

4. 

(A)  2

(B)  3

(C)  5

(D)  6

(E)  4

Answer: (B)

5. 1884 ÷89 + 6.99+ (?)2 = 69.09

(A)  4

(B)  9

(C)  6

(D)  7

(E)  8

Answer: (D)

6. 

(A)  3000

(B)  4700

(C)  4000

(D)  3500

(E)  5600

Answer: (C)

7. 123 + (1.2)2 + (1.02)1 + (1.002)0 =?

(A)  1730

(B)  1720

(C)  1750

(D)  1700

(E)  1680

Answer: (A)

8. (3.2)2 + (9.8)2 + (8.13)2 + (4.24)2 = ?

(A)  180

(B)  190

(C)  198

(D)  206

(E)  184

Answer: (B)

9. 14 A bank offers 5% compound interest calculated on half-yearly basis. A customer deposits Rs 1600 each on 1st January and 1st July of a year. At the end of year, the amount he would have gained by way of interest is how much ?

(A)  Rs 120

(B)  Rs 121

(C)  Rs 123

(D)  Rs 122

(E)  Rs 119

Answer: (B)

Solve both eg. and answer as –

(A) x <  y

(B) x > y

(C) x = y or cannot be established

(D) x ≤ y

(E) x ≥ y

10. (I) x2 – 12x + 40 = 0

(II) y2 – 11y + 28 = 0

Answer: (C)

11. (I) x2 – 10x + 24 = 0

(II) 3y2 – 19y + 28 = 0

Answer: (E)

12. (I) 14x2 – 13x + 3 = 0

(II) 99y2 – 62y + 8 = 0

Answer: (C)

13. Jar A and Jar B both contain mixture of m ilk water. Jar A has 80 litres of mixture out of which 20% is water. The mixture in Jar B has 40% of water. The mixture from both the jars is poured in an empty jar C. The resultant respective ratio between milk and water in the Jar C is 5 : 2. What is the quantity of milk in Jar C ? (in litres)

(A)  105

(B)  120

(C)  110

(D)  100

(E)  130

Answer: (D)

14. A certain sum is divided among A, B and C in such a way that A gets Rs 220 more than 1/6th of the sum, B gets Rs 40 less than 2/5th of the sum of C gets Rs 300. What is the total sum invested ?

(A)  Rs 1200

(B)  Rs 1108

(C)  Rs 1100

(D)  Rs 1000

(E)  Rs 1300

Answer: (B)

15. A started a business. After 4 months from the start of the business, B and c joined. The respective ratio between The amounts invested by A, B and C was 6 : 11 : 12. If the C’s share in annual profit was Rs 720 more than A’s share. What was the total annual profit earned?

(A)  Rs 7,680

(B)  Rs 7,480

(C)  Rs 7,580

(D)  Rs 6,780

(E)  Rs 6,500

Answer: (A)

Directions– Study the table and answer the given question.

16. What is the difference between total number of perfume bottles sold by stores A and B together in March and total number of perfume bottles sold by stores D and E in April ?

(A)  85

(B)  79

(C)  89

(D)  87

(E)  93

Answer: (C)

17. What is the respective ratio between total number of perfume bottles sold by stores A and B together in June and total number of perfume bottle sold by stores D and E in the same month ?

(A)  17 : 13

(B)  13 : 11

(C)  15 : 13

(D)  11 : 7

(E)  17 : 11 (*) 103 : 78

Answer: (*)

18. Total number of perfume bottles sold by stores D and E in August was 16% more than the total number of perfume bottles sold by the same stores together in July. What was the total number of perfume bottles sold by stores D and E together in August?

(A)  249

(B)  277

(C)  259

(D)  261

(E)  263

Answer: (D)

19. What is the average number of perfume bottles sold by store C in April, June and July?

(A)  114

(B)  108

(C)  112

(D)  106

(E)  116

Answer: (C)

20. Number of perfume bottles sold by store E in March is what per cent less than the number of perfume bottles sold by store B in May?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E) 

Answer: (*)

NIACL Administrative Officer (Pre.) Examination Held on 22-4-2017 Quantitative Aptitude Question Paper With Answer Key

NIACL Administrative Officer (Pre.) Examination Held on 22-4-2017 Quantitative Aptitude

1. The unit’s digit of a 2-digit number (X) is 5. When 27 is subtracted from X, the digits of the 2-digit number so formed get reversed, what is the value of X?

(A)  55

(B)  35

(C)  85

(D)  65

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (C)

Direction- (Q. 2 to 6) What will come in p lace of question-mark (?) in the given number series ?

2. 7 25  61  115  ?  277

(A)  197

(B)  187

(C)  181

(D)  185

(E)  197

Answer: (B)

3. 9 14 24  41  67  ?

(A)  112

(B)  104

(C)  108

(D)  96

(E)  110

Answer: (B)

4. 18 9  9  5 ? 67.5

(A)  33

(B)  36

(C)  21

(D)  24

(E)  27

Answer: (E)

5. 15 24 35  50  71  ?

(A)  90

(B)  108

(C)  100

(D)  98

(E)  110

Answer: (C)

6. 4 5  12  39  160  ?

(A)  845

(B)  830

(C)  820

(D)  785

(E)  805

Answer: (E)

7. A retailer bought a table after getting a discount of 30% on the labelled price. He sold the table to a customer for Rs 4830and earned a profit of 50% on his cost price. What was the initial labelled price of the table?

(A)  Rs 4200

(B)  Rs 5200

(C)  Rs 4800

(D)  Rs 4500

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

8. If the diameter of a circle of area 452 4/7 cm2 is equal to the radius of another semicircle, what is the perimeter of the semicircle ? (in cm)

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (D)

9. A jar contains 80 litre mixture of milk and water in the respective ratio of 7 : 3. How much more water should be added to the mixture to get a new mixture having milk and water in the respective ratio of 8 : 5?

(A)  11 litre

(B)  5 litre

(C)  7 litre

(D)  10 litre

(E)  9 litre

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 10 to 19) What should come in place of question mark (?) in the given question?

10. 

(A)  −4

(B)  2

(C)  −3

(D)  3

(E)  5

Answer: (C)

11. 97 – 238 ÷ 14 = ? ÷ 5

(A)  580

(B)  400

(C)  500

(D)  360

(E)  450

Answer: (B)

12. 6 + 144 ÷8 ÷ 0.6 = ?

(A)  92

(B)  56

(C)  75

(D)  84

(E)  76

Answer: (B)

13. 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E) 

Answer: (C)

14. 50% of 480 + 122 = ?

(A)  337

(B)  315

(C)  384

(D)  349

(E)  351

Answer: (C)

15. √? + 62 = 60% of (52 × 2)

(A)  54

(B)  32

(C)  40

(D)  34

(E)  25

Answer: (E)

16. (17 × 10 −19 × 5) ÷ 5 = ?

(A)  24

(B)  32

(C)  18

(D)  15

(E)  12

Answer: (D)

17. 4/5 of (1.7 ÷ 5 ×5) = ?

(A)  0.722

(B)  0.987

(C)  0.842

(D)  0.973

(E)  0.952

Answer: (E)

18. 5121/3 × 122 ÷ (288 ÷5)1/2 = ?2

(A)  22

(B)  18

(C)  12

(D)  24

(E)  8

Answer: (C)

19. 

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

20. A car travelling at a Y km/hr speed, takes 30 minutes to travel X kilometer. The same car travelling at the same speed (Y km/hr) takes 45 minutes to travel X + 30 km. What is the value of X?

(A)  45

(B)  60

(C)  75

(D)  55

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (B)

21. A and B together can complete a given work in 9 days. A alone takes 24 days less than B alone takes to complete this work. How many days will B alone take to complete this work?

(A)  36

(B)  42

(C)  45

(D)  54

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (A)

22. A starts a business by investing Rs 3500. Six months after the start of business, B joins A with an investment of Rs X. If the total annual profit is Rs 7600 and A’s share of the profit is Rs 5600, what is the value of X?

(A)  4000

(B)  2750

(C)  4500

(D)  3600

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

23. The total cost of 11 chairs and 8 tables is Rs 9,450. If the cost of one chair is equal to 1/3rd of the cost of each table, ,what is the total cost of 6 chairs?

(A)  Rs 1960

(B)  Rs 1540

(C)  Rs 1580

(D)  Rs 1620

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (D)

24. From her monthly pocket money, Chinu spends 1/3rd on an amusement park. Chinu spends the remaining money in the ratio of 4 : 1 on her tuition fees and on buying books respectively. if she spends Rs 2400 on buying books, what was her monthly pocket money?

(A)  Rs 12000

(B)  Rs 18000

(C)  Rs 15000

(D)  Rs 20000

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 25 to 29) Study the table and answer the given question.

Number of pens sold by 5 stores – A, B, C, D and E on 5 days.

25. What is the respective ratio between the total number of pens sold by Store B on Monday and Wednesday together and that by store A on the same days together?

(A)  10 : 11

(B)  6 : 7

(C)  12 : 13

(D)  15 : 17

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (A)

26. Number of pens sold by store B on Monday was what per cent less than that by the same store on Friday?

(A)  15.5

(B)  12.25

(C)  18

(D)  25

(E)  18.75

Answer: (E)

27. If the number of pens sold by store D and E on Saturday was 20% less and 10% more respectively than that on Thursday, what was the total number of pens sold by stores D and E on Saturday?

(A)  310

(B)  251

(C)  242

(D)  276

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (B)

28. What is the average number of pens sold by store C on Monday, Tuesday and Thursday?

(A)  120

(B)  118

(C)  117

(D)  121

(E)  119

Answer: (E)

29. What is the difference between the total number of pens sold by stores B and E together on Tuesday and that by the same stores together on Friday?

(A)  78

(B)  64

(C)  14

(D)  88

(E)  11

Answer: (B)

30. A boat takes  to travel 75 km upstream. The boat’s speed in still water in 5 times the stream’s speed. If the speed of the stream is doubled, what distance would this boat cover downstream in 4 hours ? (in km)

(A)  84

(B)  70

(C)  64

(D)  75

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (B)

31. The simple interest earned on a certain sum (Rs P) when invested for three years @ 7% p.a. is equal to the simple interest earned when Rs P-1500 is invested for five years @ 6% p.a. What is the value of P ? (in Rs)

(A)  5000

(B)  4500

(C)  4000

(D)  3000

(E)  6000

Answer: (A)

32. The compound interest (compounded annually) on a certain sum of money for 2 years @ 20 p.c.p.a. is Rs 1496. What would be the simple interest on the same sum of money for 3 years @ 11 p.c.p.a.?

(A)  Rs 1164

(B)  Rs 1096

(C)  Rs 1122

(D)  Rs 1024

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (C)

33. Perimeter of a square, whose diagonal is 43√2 m, is equal to the perimeter of a rectangle. If the difference between length and breadth of the rectangle is 8 m, what is the area of the rectangle ? (in m2=)

(A)  1362

(B)  1787

(C)  1540

(D)  1487

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

34. 7/9th of the boys and 8/13th of the girls of a school participated in a marathon. If the number of participating students is 238, out of which 112 are girls, what is the difference between number of boys and number of girls in the school ?

(A)  20

(B)  35

(C)  40

(D)  30

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (A)

35. The average weight of A, B and C is 20 kg. Weight of A is four times of that of B, and weight of C is 21 kg less than A’s weight. What is A’s weight ? (in kg)

(A)  40

(B)  24

(C)  36

(D)  32

(E)  28

Answer: (C)

State Bank of India S.O. Examination Held on 17-6-2017 Reasoning and Data Interpretation Question Paper With Answer Key

State Bank of India S.O. Examination Held on 17-6-2017

Reasoning and Data Interpretation

1. Read the given information and answer the given question-

College D has been experiencing frequent power cuts lately.

“We are in this situation only because of College S. Due to the new rule laid out by the government, the units consumed by an area calculated while deciding power cuts and those areas using more power face frequent cuts. College S regularly lend its ground to outsiders thus consuming much more power than us” – Statement by one of the staff members of college D.

Which of the following can be inferred from the statement of the staff member of college D?

(A)  The number of students studying in both colleges S or D is more or less equal

(B)  Both colleges S and D are located in the same area

(C)  College S is not facing as many power cuts as College D

(D)  College D consumes least units of electricity in its area

(E)  College D haasa not lent its ground even once to outsiders

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 2-4) Study the following information carefully and answer the given question –

     There are ten family members A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J. There are three generations in the family. There are three married couple in the family. B is the only sister of G’s brother H. G. and J are the married couple. A is the mother of J. D is the brother of J. C is the father-in-law of G. I is the mother of B. F is the father-in-law of J. E is the son of G.

2. How is G related to D?

(A)  Brother

(B)  Brother-in-law

(C)  Cousin

(D)  Father

(E)  Husband

Answer: (B)

3. How is I related to E?

(A)  Grandfather

(B)  Sister

(C)  Grandmother

(D)  Mother

(E)  Brother

Answer: (C)

4. How is B related to E?

(A)  Aunt

(B)  Uncle

(C)  Spouse

(D)  Cousin

(E)  Niece

Answer: (A)

5. Read the given information to answer the given question-

A private sector bank of company P has been launching many new schemes on its credit cards from the past one year for its customers.

Which of the following may be an effect on its customers of the launch of new schemes by the bank ?

(1) The number of customers opting for transaction through credit card will increase.

(2) The said bank will make meager profits with t he launch of these new schemes.

(3) The internet rate offered by the bank on all its cards will decrease.

(4) Many new customers will be attracted to open an account with the said bank.

(A)  Only 1

(B)  None will be an effect

(C)  Only 1, 2 and 4

(D)  Only 2 and 3

(E)  All 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: (C)

6. Statement : P > R ≥ A = N ≤ K ≤ S

Conclusion : I. N < P

II. S ≥ A

(A)  Only conclusion I follows

(B)  Only conclusion II follows

(C)  Both conclusions I and II follow

(D)  Neither conclusion I nor II follows

(E)  Either conclusion I or II follows

Answer: (C)

Directions- (Q. 7-10) Study the following information to answer the given question –

      Six person, A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a straight line facing North, with equal distance between each other but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also likes a different colour viz. Red, blue, Pink, Yellow, White and Silver but not necessarily in the same order.

   C sits at an extreme end of the line. Only two people sit  between C and the one who likes White. A sits second to the left of the one who likes Blue. A is not an immediate neighbour of the one who likes White. As many people sit to the left of a as to the right of one who likes Silver. E is an immediate neighbour of the one who likes silver. F sits third to the right of the one who likes Pink. B sits at one of the positions to the right of F. F does not like Yellow.

7. What is the position of D with respect to B?

(A)  Second to the right

(B)  Third to the left

(C)  Fourth to the right

(D)  Second to the left

(E)  Third to the right

Answer: (B)

8. Who amongst the following likes Red colour?

(A)  A

(B)  C

(C)  D

(D)  F

(E)  E

Answer: (D)

9. Which of the following represents the immediate neighbour of the one who sits at the extreme ends of the line?

(A)  E, F

(B)  E, D

(C)  A, B

(D)  B, F

(E)  A, F

Answer: (A)

10. Which of the following is true with respect to the given arrangement?

(A)  The one who likes Pink sits to the immediate left of C

(B)  Only one persons sits between D and the one who likes Red

(C)  None of the given option is true

(D)  A likes Pink

(E)  C likes Silver

Answer: (B)

11. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, fourth, seventh and ninth letters (when counted from left to right) of the word PRESIDENT using each letter only once, which will be the third letter of the word so formed from the left end. If no such word can be formed give X as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, give Z as your answer.

(A)  Z

(B)  X

(C)  T

(D)  O

(E)  S

Answer: (A)

12. Read the following information and answer the question-

Municipal Corporation of City X has received a complaint about extending the premises of residential colony Dream Home without obtaining necessary permissions from the authorities. Select the most appropriate sequence of courses of action on behalf of Municipal Corporation of City X ?

(1) The builder of Dream Home should be given a month’s notice the rebuild a boundary within the permissible area.

(2) Follow up whether the premises are rebuild as per the norms of municipal corporation.

(3) Municipal Corporation of City X should order an enquiry to determine the authenticity of the complaint.

(4) Levy a plenty on the builder of DreamHome for extending premises without obtaining necessary permissions from the authorities.

(A)  3241

(B)  1243

(C)  2413

(D)  1324

(E)  3412

Answer: (A)

13. What should come next in place of question mark (?) in the given letter series according to the English alphabetical series?

AZ CX FV JT OR ?

(A)  UQ

(B)  SQ

(C)  UP

(D)  TP

(E)  TJ

Answer: (C)

14. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word FUMING, each of which has a many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have in the English alphabetical series?

(A)  Four

(B)  One

(C)  Two

(D)  Three

(E)  More than four

Answer: (C)

15. The position of how many digits will remain same if digits in the number 613852747 are arranged in the ascending order within the numbers from left to right?

(A)  None

(B)  Three

(C)  Two

(D)  One

(E)  More than three

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q.16-20) When a word and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

   (All the numbers are two-digit numbers)

Input : Apple 4216 Egg 34 Fan Grapes 25 91 Horse

Step 1 : Horse Apple 42 16 Egg 34 Fan Grapes 25 19

Step 2 : Horse Grapes Apple 16 Egg 34 Fan 25 19 24

Step 3 : Horse Grapes Fan Apple 16 Egg 25 19 24 43

Step 4 : Horse Grapes Fan Apple 16 Egg 19 24 43 52

Step 5 : Horse Grapes Fan Apple Egg 19 24 43 52 61

Step V  is the last step of above arrangement as the indended arrangement is obtained

As per the rules followed in the given step, find out the appropriate steps for the input.

Input : Ant 43 17 Eagle 24 Forest Gun 25 81 House.

16. Which element comes exactly between ‘17’ and ‘25’ in Step III of the given Input?

(A)  House

(B)  Gun

(C)  Eagle

(D)  18

(E)  Ant

Answer: (C)

17. If in the second step, ‘17’ interchanges its position with ‘25’ and ‘Gun’ also interchanges its position with ‘Forest’ then which element will be the second from the left end ?

(A)  House

(B)  Gun

(C)  18

(D)  Eagle

(E)  Forest

Answer: (E)

18. Which of the following combinations represent the first two and the last two elements in Step IV of the given input?

(A)  House Gun and 52 71

(B)  House Gun and 34 42

(C)  House Gun and 34 52

(D)  House Gun and 42 52

(E)  House Gun and 42 71

Answer: (D)

19. Which element in third t the left of the one which is eighth from the left in Step III of the given Input?

(A)  17

(B)  Forest

(C)  Gun

(D)  42

(E)  Eagle

Answer: (A)

20. In which step are the elements ‘Ant 17 Eagle 25’ found in the same order?

(A)  Third

(B)  Fourth

(C)  Second

(D)  Fifth

(E)  The given order of elements is not found in any step

Answer: (A)

Directions – (Q. 21-25) Study the given information carefully to answer the given question-

   Eight boxes –M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T are kept above one another in a stack. Only two boxes are kept between M and T. P is kept immediately above T. As many boxes are kept between M and S as between S and P. Only three boxes are kept between S and O. S is kept at one of the positions above O. Only one box is kept between O and R. N is kept at one of the positions below O.

21. What is the position of Box Q in the stack?

(A)  Second from the top

(B)  Fifth from the bottom

(C)  Fifth from the top

(D)  Third from the top

(E)  Third from the bottom

Answer: (C)

22. What is the position of Box S in the stack?

(A)  Second from the top

(B)  Fifth from the bottom

(C)  Fifth from the top

(D)  Third from the top

(E)  Third from the bottom

Answer: (A)

23. Which of the following is at the bottom of the stack?

(A)  N

(B)  R

(C)  M

(D)  P

(E)  Q

Answer: (B)

24. Which of the following is true with respect to the given information ?

(A)  No one sits between O and Q

(B)  No one lives above M

(C)  T sits fourth from the top

(D)  N sits second from the bottom

(E)  All the given options are true

Answer: (E)

25. Which of the following is kept between Box Q and Box N?

(A)  R

(B)  S

(C)  M

(D)  P

(E)  O

Answer: (E)

Directions – (Q. 26 and 27) Study the given information carefully and answer the given question-

    Two different sum of money, Rs ‘X’ and Rs. ‘0.8X’ are invested in two schemes A and B respectively, for 2 years and 6 years respectively. Scheme A offers compound interest @ 10% p.a., compound annually while Scheme B offers simple interest @ 7.5% p.a. The interest earned from Scheme B is Rs 1050 more than that from Scheme A.

26. Interest earned from Scheme A was what per cent less than that earned from scheme B?

(A) 

(B) 

(C) 

(D) 

(E)   

Answer: (C)

27. What would have been the difference between the interest from both schemes, if Rs ‘1.2X’ had been invested in each of the Schemes for the given periods respectively ? (In Rs)

(A)  1996

(B)  1984

(C)  2004

(D)  2022

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

Directions – (Q. 28-31) The question consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the date provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and choose the appropriate option and answered as-

(A) Only statement I is sufficient to answer the question

(B) Only statement II is sufficient to answer the question

(C) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question

(D) Either statement I or statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question

(E) Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question

28. What is the value of A?

(I) 3A + B = 2B, 3B + C = 17 and 3C + A = 23

(II) 2A – B = 12, 2B – A = 0

Answer: (D)

29. What is the respective ratio of volume of right circular cylinder A and volume of right circular cylinder B?

(I) The radius of cylinder A is 3/5th of the radius of cylinder B and the height of cylinder of A is 1.2 times the height of cylinder B.

(II) The difference between the volumes of cylinder A and cylinder B is 8736 m3.

Answer: (A)

30. What is the respective ratio of initial investments of A and B?

(I) A started a business by investing a certain amount and he invested for the whole year. B joined A after 6 months from the start of the business and invested for the rest of the year. The profit earned by A and B is in the respective ratio of 8 : 3.

(II) The initial investment of A was Rs 9,200.

Answer: (C)

31. What is A’s mother’s present age ?

(I) The respective ratio between A’s father’s present age and A’s present age is 4 : 1.

(II) The combined present age of A’s father and A is 6 years more than the combined present age of A’s mother and A. 14 years ago, A’s father’s age that time was  times A’s mother’s age that time.

Answer: (B)

Directions – (Q. 32-35) Study the graph and answer the given questions :

32. The number of cats adopted in cities B in June is what per cent less than the number of cats adopted in city B in September?

(A)   

(B)  20

(C)  22

(D)  25

(E)  18

Answer: (A)

33. If the total number of cats adopted in cities A and B together in December was 150 more than that in July, what was the total number of cats adopted in cities A and B together in December?

(A)  650

(B)  730

(C)  720

(D)  660

(E)  680

Answer: (E)

34. What is the ratio between the total number of cats adopted in June in City A and July in City B respectively?

(A)  2 : 3

(B)  3 : 4

(C)  5 : 6

(D)  Other than those given as options

(E)  14/17

Answer: (E)

35. What is the difference between the total number of cat adopted in June and August together and that sold in July and September in both the cities?

(A)  210

(B)  70

(C)  90

(D)  110

(E)  Other than those given as options

Answer: (E)

Directions – (Q. 36-39) Study the table and answer the given question.

Data regarding number of students (boys + girls) in 5 schools-P, Q, R, S, T

36. What is the average number of girls schools P, Q and T?

(A)  160

(B)  170

(C)  150

(D)  165

(E)  140

Answer: (C)

37. What is the respective ratio between the total number of boys in Schools Q and R together that of girls in same schools together?

(A)  3 : 6

(B)  5 : 4

(C)  6 : 7

(D)  7 : 8

(E)  3 : 4

Answer: (E)

38. In an exam, a total of 120 girls from School R and S together failed. If the respective ratio between number of girls who passed from Schools R and S was 5 : 3, how m any girls from Schools S failed the exam?

(A)  95

(B)  35

(C)  60

(D)  25

(E)  30

Answer: (A)

39. What is the difference between the total number of boys in School R and S together and the total number of girls in School (P and Q) together?

(A)  60

(B)  70

(C)  80

(D)  50

(E)  90

Answer: (C)

Directions – (Q. 40-45) Read the graph and answer the question-

40. What is the central angle corresponding to the distance travelled on Monday?

(A)  41.8°

(B)  50.6°

(C)  43.2°

(D)  44.5°

(E)  49°

Answer: (C)

41. If the distance travelled on Sunday (X km) was the sum of 70% and 60% of the distances travelled on Tuesday and Thursday respectively, what was the value of X?

(A)  151

(B)  137

(C)  147

(D)  142

(E)  146

Answer: (C)

42. What is the average distance travelled on Monday, Wednesday and Friday? (in km).

(A)  184

(B)  178

(C)  175

(D)  182

(E)  172

Answer: (C)

43. What is the difference between the total distance travelled on Monday and Wednesday together and the travelled on Thursday and Friday together? (in km)

(A)  40

(B)  65

(C)  10

(D)  30

(E)  25

Answer: (D)

44. What is the total distance travelled on Thursday and Friday together ? (in km)

(A)  200

(B)  250

(C)  300

(D)  350

(E)  400

Answer: (C)

45. What is the ratio between the distance travelled on Monday and distance travelled on Wednesday?

(A)  3 : 4

(B)  5 : 8

(C)  4 : 7

(D)  3 : 8

(E)  5 : 2

Answer: (D)

Directions – (Q. 46-50) Study the following information carefully to answer the given question-

    There are 5 colleges in City ‘ABC’ namely, P, Q, R, S, T. The number of students in College P is 20% of the total number of students in City ‘ABC’. The number of students in College Q is 10% less than the total number of students in College P. The number of students in College R is 50% more than the total number of students in College Q. The number of students in College S is three-fifth of the total number of students in College P. The number of female students in College T is 414, which is one-third of the total number of students in College T.

   The respective ratio between male students and female students in city ‘ABC’ is 5 : 4.

46. What is the average number of students in College P, Q and R?

(A)  1230

(B)  1150

(C)  1120

(D)  1240

(E)  1170

Answer: (E)

47. What is the number of female students in city ABC?

(A)  2800

(B)  2500

(C)  2400

(D)  3000

(E)  2900     

Answer: (C)

48. What is the difference between the total number of students in College R and total number of students in college T?

(A)  150

(B)  216

(C)  170

(D)  180

(E)  168

Answer: (B)

49. Out of the total number of male students in City ‘ABC’ , 1/12 study in College S. What is the number of females studying in college S?

(A)  398

(B)  400

(C)  499

(D)  500

(E)  600

Answer: (A)

50. In College P, 30% of the total students study in Science Stream and the remaining study in Commerce Stream. What is the number of students studying in Commerce Stream?

(A)  724

(B)  756

(C)  748

(D)  750

(E)  759

Answer: (B)

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Secunderabad Group ‘D’ Examination Held on 01-12-2013 Question Paper With Answer Key in Hindi

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB), सॉल्‍वड पेपर, 01-12-2013

ग्रुप-डी भर्ती परीक्षा (सिकन्‍दराबाद)

 

1. साहित्‍य अकादमी पुरस्‍कार जीतने वाली पहली महिला कौन थी?

(a) महाश्‍वेता देवी

(b) महादेवी वर्मा

(c) अमृता प्रीतम

(d) इन्दिरा गोस्‍वामी

Answer: (c)

2. 0.0169 ÷ 0.013 का मान होगा।

(a) 0.13

(b) 0.013

(c) 1.3

(d) 13

Answer: (c)

3. बैक्‍टीरिया के विरूद्ध एण्‍टीवायोटिक किस प्रकार कार्य करता है?

(a) यह बैक्‍टीरिया को मार डालता है

(b) यह बैक्‍टीरिया को निष्क्रिय कर देता है

(c) यह बैक्‍टीरिया के लिए आवश्‍यक जैव-रासायनिक मार्गों को अवरूद्ध कर देता है

(d) (a) और (b)

Answer: (d)

4. निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा शिक्षित बेरोजगार युवाओं का एक सव-नियोजन कार्यक्रम है?

(a) प्रधानमंत्री की रोजगार योजना

(b) स्‍वर्ण जयन्‍ती सहकारी रोजगार योजना

(c) राष्‍ट्रीय सामाजिक सहायक योजना

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

5. विजय नगर साम्राज्‍य पर सबसे पहले किस राजवंश का शासन था?

(a) होयसल

(b) संगम

(c) सालुव

(d) तुलुव

Answer: (b)

6. एक व्‍यक्ति ने किसी वस्‍तु को खरीदकर इसे 10% के लाभ पर बेच दिया। यदि वह इस वस्‍तु को 20% कम मूल्‍य पर खरीदकर रू. 10 अधिक विक्रय मूल्‍य पर बेचता, तो उसे 40% लाभ प्राप्‍त होता। वस्‍तु का क्रय मूल्‍य ज्ञात करें।

(a) रू. 500

(b) रू. 480

(c) रू. 450

(d) रू. 400

Answer: (a)

7. यदि 15 लड़के 5 दिन में रू. 900 का अर्जन करते हैं, तो 20 लड़के 7 दिनों में कितना अर्जित करेंगे?

(a) रू. 1980

(b) रू. 1820

(c) रू. 1780

(d) रू. 1680

Answer: (d)

8. ………….. को ‘पारसेक’ इकाई में मापा जाता है।

(a) तारों में घनत्‍व

(b) अन्‍तरिक्ष की दूरी

(c) आकाशीय पिण्‍डों की चमक

(d) विशालकाय तारों के कक्षीय वेग

Answer: (b)

9. भारतीय संविधान को कैसा माना जाता है?

(a) एकात्‍मक

(b) संघात्‍मक

(c) संसदीय

(d) संघीय स्‍वरूप एवं एकात्‍मक भावयुक्‍त

Answer: (d)

10. एक संख्‍या का दोगुना, इसके आधे से 45 अधिक है, तो वह संख्‍या कितनी होगी?

(a) 50

(b) 45

(c) 40

(d) 30

Answer: (d)

11. सरकार के संसदीय स्‍वरूप में ……….. को वास्‍तविक शक्तियां प्राप्‍त होती हैं।

(a) राष्‍ट्रपति

(b) संसद

(c) न्‍यायपालिका

(d) प्रधानमंत्री के नेतृत्‍व में मन्त्रिपरिषद्

Answer: (d)

12. भारत में पुर्तगाली शासन की आधारशिला किसने रखी थी?

(a) वास्‍को-डि-गामा

(b) सेण्‍ट थॉमस

(c) बार्थोलोमेव डायस

(d) एल्‍फान्‍सो-डि-एल्‍बुकर्क

Answer: (d)

13. भारत के चौदहवें वित्‍त आयोग के अध्‍यक्ष कौन हैं?

(a) सुषमा नाथ

(b) विमल जालान

(c) वाई वी रेड्डी

(d) सुब्‍बाराव

Answer: (c)

14. मुल्‍लापेरियार बांध कहां स्थित है?

(a) तमिलनाडु

(b) केरल

(c) कर्नाटक

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

15. सच्‍चर समिति का सम्‍बन्‍ध किससे है?

(a) भारतीय मुसलमान समुदाय की सामाजिक, आर्थिक एवं शैक्षणिक स्थिति से

(b) भारत की अनुसूचित जातियों की समाजिक, आर्थिक एवं शैक्षणिक स्थिति से

(c) भारत की अनुसूचित जनजातियों की सामाजिक, आर्थिक एवं शैक्षणिक स्थिति से

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

16. ध्‍वनि तरंगो की आवृत्ति को ……… में व्‍यक्‍त किया जा सकता है।

(a) सेकण्‍ड

(b) चक्र

(c) चक्र प्रति सेकण्‍ड

(d) मीटर प्रति सेकण्‍ड

Answer: (c)

17. नमी में खुला छोड़ देने पर इसमें घुल जाने वाले पदार्थ को क्‍या कहते हैं?

(a) आर्द्रताग्राही

(b) उत्‍फुल्‍ल

(c) प्रस्‍वेद्य

(d) प्रतिदीप्‍त

Answer: (a)

18. हैरी पॉटर श्रृंखला की सातवीं एवं अन्तिम पुस्‍तक का नाम क्‍या है?

(a) हैरी पॉटर एण्‍ड द हॉफ ब्‍लड प्रिन्‍स

(b) हैरी पॉटर एण्‍ड द गोब्‍लेट ऑफ फॉयर

(c) हैरी पॉटर एण्‍ड द डेथली हैलोज

(d) हैरी पॉटर एण्‍ड द फिलॉसोफर्स स्‍टोन

Answer: (c)

19. बैरोमीटर पठन में होने वाली अचानक गिरावट क्‍या दर्शाती है?

(a) वर्षा

(b) आंधी

(c) गर्म मौसम

(d) अधिक ठण्‍ड

Answer: (b)

20. भारत के किस राज्‍य में सुयालकुची वस्‍त्र उद्यान स्थित है?

(a) कर्नाटक

(b) जम्‍मू एवं कश्‍मीर

(c) असोम

(d) मेघालय

Answer: (c)

21. चांदबीबी ने कहां शासन किया था?

(a) अहमदनगर

(b) बीजापुर

(c) गोण्‍डवाना

(d) वारंगल

Answer: (a)

22. जोगबनी-विराटनगर एवं जयनगर-बिजलपुरा-बड़दीबस लाइनें भारत को जोड़ती है।

(a) बांग्‍लादेश से

(b) नेपाल से

(c) म्‍यांमार से

(d) पाकिस्‍तान से

Answer: (b)

23. किसी पिण्‍ड के विरामवस्‍था में रहने पर, इसमें क्‍या निहित हो सकता है?

(a) गति

(b) वेग

(c) संवेग

(d) ऊर्जा

Answer: (d)

24. ए आई सी टी ई (AICTE) का विस्‍तृत रूप क्‍या है?

(a) ऑल इण्डिया काउन्सिल फॉर टेक्निकल एजुकेशन

(b) ऑल इण्डिया सेण्‍टर फॉर टेक्निकल एजुकेशन

(c) ऑल इण्डिया सेण्‍टर फॉर ट्रेनिंग एण्‍ड एजुकेशन

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

25. सबसे पहले किस भारतीय खिलाड़ी ने टेस्‍ट क्रिकेट में लगातार तीन विकेट लिए थे?

(a) कपिल देव

(b) अनिल कुम्‍बले

(c) रवि शास्‍त्री

(d) हरभजन सिंह

Answer: (d)

26. बैक्‍टीरिया के द्वारा नाइट्रोजन को नाइट्रोजन यौगिक में परिवर्तित करने की प्रक्रिया क्‍या कहलाती है?

(a) नाइट्रोजनीकरण

(b) नाइट्रोजन स्थिरीकरण

(c) निषेचन

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

27. निम्‍न प्रश्‍न में प्रश्‍नचिन्‍ह (?) के स्‍थान पर क्‍या आएगा?

10, 14, 25, 55, 140, ?

(a) 386

(b) 388

(c) 398

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

28. तीन अंकों की सबसे बड़ी वर्ग संख्‍या ज्ञात कजिए।

(a) 981

(b) 971

(c) 964

(d) 961

Answer: (d)

29. 500 मी की एक दौड़ में A और B की गति का अनुपात 3:4 है। 140 मी आगे रहने पर A कितनी दूरी से दौड़ जीत पाएगा?

(a) 10 मी

(b) 20 मी

(c) 30 मी

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

30. निम्‍न प्रश्‍न में प्रश्‍नचिन्‍ह (?) के स्‍थान पर क्‍या आएगा?

PON, RQP, TSR, VUT, ?, ?

(a) WUY, YXZ

(b) UWV, ZXY

(c) UVW, ZYX

(d) XWV, ZYX

Answer: (d)

31. ……… के लिए ‘स्‍वाधार’ भारत सरकार की एक परियोजना है।

(a) एकता पहचान संख्‍या

(b) युवाओं के लिए स्‍व-नियोजन योजना

(c) कठिन परिस्थितियों में रहने वाली महिलाओं

(d) वृद्धवस्‍था पेंशन

Answer: (c)

32. धर्म, नस्‍ल, जाति, लिंग अथवा जन्‍म स्‍थान के आधार पर भेदभाव को ………. में निषेध बताया गया है।

(a) अनुच्‍छेद 14

(b) अनुच्‍छेद 15

(c) अनुच्‍छेद 16

(d) अनुच्‍छेद 17

Answer: (b)

33. ………… का फौजदार नियुक्‍त होने के पश्‍चात् हैदर अली ने अपनी स्थिति को सुदृढ़ किया था।

(a) आर्कोट

(b) डिंडिगुल

(c) बुडीकोट

(d) देवनहल्‍ली

Answer: (b)

34. किसी भी व्‍यक्ति की आंखें काली, भूरी अथवा नील रंग की हो सकती हैं, जो इसके ………… में उपस्थित रंजक के ऊपर निर्भर करता है।

(a) पुतली

(b) आइरिश

(c) कॉर्निया

(d) कायरॉयड

Answer: (b)

35. विषाणु की क्‍या विशेषताएं होती हैं?

(a) यह केवल मृत जन्‍तुओं में प्रवर्द्धित होता है

(b) यह केवल अपने परपोषी में पवर्द्धित होता है

(c) इसमें क्‍लोरोफिल नहीं होता है

(d) यह वसा निर्मित होता है

Answer: (c)

36. निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सी शर्त भारतीय नागरिकता प्राप्‍त करने के लिए आवश्‍यक नहीं है?

(a) जन्‍म

(b) धनोपार्जन

(c) उत्‍तराधिकार

(d) स्‍वभाविकीकरण

Answer: (b)

37. किस सालाना चक्रवृद्धि ब्‍याज की दर से रू. 10000 की धनराशि तीन वर्षों में रू. 13310 हो जाएगी?

(a) 8%

(b) 10%

(c) 12%

(d) 15%

Answer: (b)

38. कबीर किसके शिष्‍य थे?

(a) रामानुज

(b) रामानन्‍द

(c) शंकराचार्य

(d) चैतन्‍य

Answer: (b)

39. निम्‍न प्रश्‍न में प्रश्‍नचिन्‍ह (?) के स्‍थान पर क्‍या आएगा?

CE, FI, JL, MP, QS, ?, ?

(a) TV, WY

(b) TV, XY

(c) TW, XZ

(d) TV, XZ

Answer: (c)

40. वल्‍लभभाई पटेल को ‘सरदार’ की संज्ञा किसने दी?

(a) जे एल नेहरू

(b) एम के गांधी

(c) मौलाना आजाद

(d) सरोजिनी नायडू

Answer: (b)

41. वित्‍तीय घाटा क्‍या है?

(a) निर्यात और आयात मूल्‍यों के बीच का अन्‍तर

(b) कुल आय घटाव बाहरी ऋण के बीच का अन्‍तर

(c) सरकार की कुल आय और कुल व्‍यय के बीच का अन्‍तर

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

42. ‘प्रवासी भारतीय दिवस 2013’ का आयोजन कहां दिया गया था?

(a) जयपुर

(b) गांधीनगर

(c) नई दिल्‍ली

(d) कोच्चि

Answer: (d)

43. एक स्‍वीमिंग पूल की लम्‍बाई 20 मी., चौड़ाई 15 मी और गहराई 3 मी है, तो रू. 25 प्रति वर्ग मी की दर से इसके फर्श एवं दीवारों की मरम्‍मत करने में कितना खर्च आएगा?

(a) रू. 17250

(b) रू. 15720

(c) रू. 12750

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

44. पशुओं की ग्रीष्‍मकालीन निद्रा के तथ्‍य को क्‍या कहते हैं?

(a) हाइबरनेशन

(b) ऐस्‍टीवेशन

(c) साल्‍वेशन

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

45. हड़प्‍पा सभ्‍यता की पहली खगोलीय वेधशाला इनमें से किस प्राचीन स्‍थल पर पाई गई है?

(a) रोपड़

(b) दाइमाबाद

(c) धौलावीरा

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

46. महाराष्‍ट्र निवासी, प्रसिद्ध समाज सुधारक गोपाल हरी देशमुख ……… के नाम से भी विख्‍यात हैं।

(a) लोकमान्‍य

(b) आत्‍मबन्‍धु

(c) लोकप्रिय

(d) लोकहितवादी

Answer: (d)

47. 25 किमी/घण्‍टा की गति से चलती हुई 270 मी लम्‍बी एक रेलगाड़ी, विपरीत दिशा में 2 किमी/घण्‍टा की गति से आते हुए एक आदमी को कितनी देर में पार कर जाएगी?

(a) 20 सेकण्‍ड

(b) 30 सेकण्‍ड

(c) 36 सेकण्‍ड

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

48. राष्‍ट्रसंघ के पहले महासचिव कौन थे?

(a) ट्रिग्‍वे लाई

(b) डैंग हैम्‍मर्सक्‍जोल्‍ड

(c) यू थॉट

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

49. संयुक्‍त नौसैनिक अभ्‍यास स्‍लीनेक्‍स किया जाता है।

(a) भारत एवं मालदीव के मध्‍य

(b) भारत एवं श्रीलंका के मध्‍य

(c) भारत एवं सिंगापुर के मध्‍य

(d) भारत एवं दक्षिण कोरिया के मध्‍य

Answer: (b)

50. अलमाट्टी बांध कहां है?

(a) हिमाचल प्रदेश

(b) उत्‍तराखण्‍ड

(c) कर्नाटक

(d) तमिलनाडु

Answer: (c)

51. निम्‍न प्रश्‍न में प्रश्‍नचिन्‍ह (?) के स्‍थान पर क्‍या आएगा?

336, 224, 168, 140, 126, ?

(a) 119

(b) 118

(c) 116

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

52. निम्‍नलिखित में से, किस राज्‍य में, तीस्‍ता ऊर्जा जल विद्युत परियोजना को स्‍थापित करने का प्रस्‍ताव है?

(a) अरूणाचल प्रदेश

(b) पश्चिम बंग

(c) मेघालय

(d) सिक्किम

Answer: (d)

53. ‘इण्‍होमिटेबल स्पिरिट’ पुस्‍तक के लेखक कौन हैं?

(a) झुम्‍पा लहरी

(b) खुशवन्‍त सिंह

(c) राजमोहन गांधी

(d) डॉ. ए पी जे अब्‍दुल कलाम

Answer: (d)

54. किसके द्वारा जापानी इन्‍सेफेलिटिस फैलता है?

(a) प्रदूषित जल से

(b) वायु से

(c) कुत्‍ते के काटने से

(d) मच्‍छर से

Answer: (d)

55. किस स्थिति में, चिकनी मिट्टी में, सघट्यता का गुण दृष्टिगोचर होता है?

(a) इसमें सही मात्रा में पानी को मिलाने से

(b) इसे अत्‍याधिक गर्म करने से

(c) इसे गूंथने के पश्‍चात कमरे के तापक्रम पर सुखाने से

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

56. दो अंकों की एक संख्‍या के अंकों का योग 9 है। इसमें से 27 घटा देने से संख्‍या के अंक आपस में बदल जाते हैं, तो वह संख्‍या कितनी है?

(a) 72

(b) 63

(c) 45

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

57. किस कारणवश उत्‍तरी ध्रुव प्रदेश में छ: महीने के लम्‍बे दिन और दक्षिणी ध्रुव प्रदेश में छ: महीने की लम्‍बी रातें होती हैं?

(a) पृथ्‍वी के परिक्रमण के कारण

(b) पृथ्‍वी के अपने कक्षीय-तल की ओर झुके होने के कारण

(c) पृथ्‍वी के घूमने के कारण

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

58. इनमें से किसके बारे में ‘नरमदलीय’ पद का प्रयोग नहीं किया जा सकता है?

(a) गोपालकृष्‍ण गोखले

(b) दादाभाई नौरोजी

(c) फिरोजशाह मेहता

(d) विपिनचन्‍द्र पाल

Answer: (d)

59. किस स्‍थान पर सितम्‍बर, 2013 में G-20 शिखर वार्ता का आयोजन किया गया था?

(a) सेण्‍ट पीर्ट्सबर्ग

(b) सेण्‍ट हेलेना

(c) ब्रुसेल्‍स

(d) न्‍यूयॉर्क

Answer: (a)

60. एक नर्सरी के 5000 पौधों में से 5% गुलाब के और 1% गेंदा के पौधे हैं, तो बाकी पौधों की संख्‍या कितनी है?

(a) 4750

(b) 4700

(c) 4250

(d) 4200

Answer: (b)

61. ब्रिटिश शासन के अन्‍तर्गत गरीबी और अर्थव्‍यवस्‍था पर दादाभाई नौरोजी ने किस पुस्‍तक को लिखा था?

(a) इण्डियन इकोनॉमी अण्‍डर ब्रिटिश राज

(b) ब्रिटिश रूल एण्‍ड ड्रेन ऑफ वेल्‍थ

(c) पॉवर्टी एण्‍ड अन ब्रिटिश रूल इन इण्डिया

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

62. वह कौन सी न्‍यूनतम संख्‍या है, जिसे 806452 में घटाने से यह पूर्ण वर्ग बन जाएगी?

(a) 46

(b) 47

(c) 48

(d) 50

Answer: (c)

63. निम्‍नलिखित में से किस विशेषता और उसके स्रोत का गलत मिलान किया गया है?

(a) न्‍यायिक पुनरीक्षण-ब्रिटिश प्रणाली

(b) समवर्ती सूची-ऑस्‍ट्रेलियाई संविधान

(c) निदेशात्‍मक सिद्धान्‍त-आयरिश संविधान

(d) मौलिक अधिकार-यू एस का संविधान

Answer: (a)

64. किसके शासनकाल में सांची स्‍तूप का निर्माण हुआ?

(a) अशोक

(b) हर्षवर्द्धन

(c) कनिष्‍क

(d) समुद्रगुप्‍त

Answer: (a)

65. भारत के जुड़े फेलिक्‍स किस खेल के प्रसिद्ध खिलाड़ी हैं?

(a) फुटबॉल

(b) हॉकी

(c) तैराकी

(d) बैडमिण्‍टन

Answer: (b)

66. संयुक्‍त राष्‍ट्रसंघ (193वां) नवीनतम सदस्‍य बनने वाले देश का नाम क्‍या है?

(a) एरीटेरिया

(b) दक्षिण सूडान गणराज्‍य

(c) बोसनिया एवं हरजेगोविना

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

67. पुलिकट स्थित किले का निर्माण किसने करवाया था?

(a) पुर्तगालियों ने

(b) अंग्रेजों ने

(c) फ्रांसीसियों ने

(d) हॉलैण्‍डवासियों ने

Answer: (d)

68. हमारे दूधिया आकाशगंगा का मार्ग कैसा है?

(a) दीर्घवृत्‍ताकार

(b) वृत्‍ताकार

(c) कुण्‍डलित

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

69. बिरसा मुण्‍डा स्‍टेडियम कहां स्थित है?

(a) जमशेदपुर

(b) बिलासपुर

(c) रायपुर

(d) रांची

Answer: (d)

70. DBMS का विस्‍तृत रूप क्‍या है?

(a) डाटाबेस मेण्‍टेनेन्‍स सिस्‍टम

(b) डाटाबेस मैनेजमेण्‍ट सिस्‍टम

(c) डिजीटल बेस मैनेजमेण्‍ट सिस्‍टम

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

71. रक्‍त का लाल रंग किसके कारण होता है?

(a) प्‍लाज्‍मा

(b) हीमोग्‍लोबिन

(c) RBC

(d) WBC

Answer: (b)

72. अलबरूनी किसके साथ भारत आया था?

(a) तैमूर

(b) बाबर

(c) अलेक्‍जेण्‍डर

(d) महमूद गजनवी

Answer: (d)

73. 50 लड़कियों के एक छात्रावास में 40 दिनों की खाद्य सामग्री है, छात्रावास में 30 और लड़कियों के शामिल हो जाने पर यह खाद्य सामग्री कितने दिनों के लिए पर्याप्‍त होगी?

(a) 35

(b) 30

(c) 25

(d) 20

Answer: (c)

74. भूमध्‍य सागर को लाल सागर से जोड़ने वाली नहर का नाम क्‍या है?

(a) कॉरिन्थियल नहर

(b) ग्राण्‍ड नहर

(c) पनामा नहर

(d) स्‍वेज नहर

Answer: (d)

75. नागार्जुन अभिलेख से किसके बारे में जानकारियां मिलती हैं?

(a) जैन धर्म

(b) बौद्ध धर्म

(c) ब्राह्मणवाद

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

76. निम्‍नलिखित में से किस खनिज में ऑक्‍सीजन की उपस्थिति नहीं होती है?

(a) सिलिकेट में

(b) कार्बोनेट में

(c) पाइराइट में

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

77. …….. में ‘कल्‍याणकारी राज्‍य’ की संकल्‍पना का वर्णन किया गया है।

(a) प्रस्‍तावना

(b) मौलिक अधिकार

(c) निदेशात्‍मक सिद्धान्‍त

(d) मौलि‍क कर्त्‍तव्‍य

Answer: (c)

78. यदि एक पिण्‍ड को जमीन से एक निश्चित ऊँचाई से गिराया जाए, तो जब यह जमीन से आधी ऊँचाई पर होगी तो इसमें

(a) केवल गतिज ऊर्जा होगी

(b) केवल स्‍थैतिक ऊर्जा होगी

(c) (a) और (b) दोनों

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

79. खाना बनाते समय किस विटामिन के नष्‍ट होने की सम्‍भावना रहती है?

(a) विटामिन A

(b) विटामिन B6

(c) विटामिन C

(d) विटामिन K

Answer: (c)

80. निम्‍नलिखित में से किस नाम/पद का सम्‍बन्‍ध विश्‍व व्‍यापार संगठन (WHO) से नहीं है?

(a) सेवा (SEWA)

(b) यू एन सी टी ए डी (UNCTAD)

(c) गैट (GATT)

(d) गेट्स (GATS)

Answer: (a)

81. हम्‍पी किस नदी के किनारे स्थित है?

(a) कृष्‍णा

(b) कावेरी

(c) तुंगभद्रा

(d) गोदावरी

Answer: (c)

82. राम को उत्‍तीर्ण होने के लिए 40% अंक चाहिए। यदि उसे 185 अंक मिलते हैं और वह 15 अंकों से अनुत्‍तीर्ण हो जाता है, तो परीक्षा का अधिकतम अंक क्‍या था?

(a) 400

(b) 450

(c) 500

(d) 800

Answer: (c)

83. XXवें राष्‍ट्रमण्‍डल खेलों का आयोजन कहां किया जाएगा?

(a) कैनबरा

(b) ग्‍लासगो

(c) अबुजा

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (b)

84. निम्‍नलिखित में से किस पद का सम्‍बन्‍ध बैंकिग वित्‍त के साथ नहीं है?

(a) साख समर्पित (Credit Wrap)

(b) विसरण (Diffusion)

(c) ई एम आई (EMI)

(d) परिपक्‍वता तक रोक (Held to Maturity)

Answer: (b)

85. किसकी विद्यमानता के कारण चींटी अपने चारों ओर की वस्‍तुओं को देख सकती है?

(a) सामान्‍य नेत्र

(b) सिर के ऊपर स्थित आंख के कारण

(c) पूर्ण विकसित नेत्र के कारण

(d) संयुक्‍त नेत्रों के कारण

Answer: (b)

86. निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा वह एकमात्र सांप है, जो अपना घोंसला बनाता है?

(a) वाइपर

(b) करैत

(c) अजगर

(d) नागराज (किंग कोबरा)

Answer: (d)

87. अन्‍तरिक्ष प्रक्षेपण सुविधा से परिपूर्ण बैकोनुर अन्‍तरिक्ष केन्‍द्र कहां स्थित है?

(a) रूस

(b) कजाकिस्‍तान

(c) किर्गिस्‍तान

(d) उजबेकिस्‍तान

Answer: (b)

88. ‘एच यू एफ (HUF)’ पद का अर्थ क्‍या है?

(a) हिन्‍दू अनडिवाइडेड फैमिली

(b) हिन्‍दू यूनीफाइड फैमिली

(c) हाईली अरबनाईज्‍ड फैमिली

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

89. विश्‍व पर्यावरण दिवस कब मनाया जाता है?

(a) 8 मार्च

(b) 22 अप्रैल

(c) 5 जून

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

90. निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सी बीमारी पागल कुत्‍ते के काटने से होती है?

(a) हाइड्रोसिप्‍टीसिमिया

(b) हाइड्रोसिफेट्स

(c) हाइड्रोफोबिया

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

91. निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा भौतिक परिवर्तन नहीं है?

(a) पानी में ऑक्‍सीजन का विलयन

(b) पानी में कार्बन डाइऑक्‍साइड का विलयन

(c) पानी में लवण का विलयन

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

92. श्‍याम रू. 1200 क्रय मूल्‍य के एक जोड़ी जूते को किस विक्रय मूल्‍य पर बेचे, ताकि 16% की छूट देने के उपरान्‍त भी उसे 12% का लाभ प्राप्‍त हो सके?

(a) रू. 1344

(b) रू. 1434

(c) रू. 1550

(d) रू. 1600

Answer: (a)

93. निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा जोड़ा गलत है?

(a) निजामशाही-अहमदनगर

(b) आदिलशाही-बीजापुर

(c) बरीदशाही-बिरार

(d) कुतुबशाही-गोलकुण्‍डा

Answer: (c)

94. एक मछुआरा जलधारा के विरूद्ध 20 मिनट में 2 किमी तक नाव से जा सकता है और 15 मिनट में वापस आ सकता है, तो जलधारा की गति कितनी है?

(a) 1 किमी/घण्‍टा

(b) 2 किमी/घण्‍टा

(c) 3 किमी/घण्‍टा

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (a)

95. निम्‍नलिखित में से ग्‍यारहवीं पंचवर्षीय योजना की कालावधि कौन सी है?

(a) वर्ष 2006-2011

(b) वर्ष 2007-2012

(c) वर्ष 2005-2010

(d) वर्ष 2008-2013

Answer: (b)

96. एक घन का पृष्‍ठ क्षेत्रफल 150 मी2 (वर्ग मी) है, तो इसका आयतन क्‍या होगा?

(a) 1125 घन मी

(b) 225 घन मी

(c) 125 घन मी

(d) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

97. निम्‍नलिखित में से किस प्रक्रिया से हवा में निलम्बित कणमय पदार्थों में वृद्धि नहीं होती है?

(a) वातानुकूलित यन्‍त्र का प्रयोग

(b) ईंधन का दहन

(c) कागज उद्योग

(d) कोयले का दहन

Answer: (a)

98. निम्‍नलिखित में कौन सा एक एन्‍जाइम है?

(a) ग्‍लूकेगॉन

(b) इन्‍सुलिन

(c) सोमेट्रोपिन

(d) ट्रिप्सिन

Answer: (d)

99. यदि MATTER का कूट TAMRET है, तो BEYOND का कूट क्‍या होगा?

(a) EBOYDN

(b) DNOYEB

(c) YEBDNO

(d) उपरोक्‍त में से कोई नहीं

Answer: (c)

100. भारत में विधवा पुनर्विवाह के कानून को सुदृढ़ता प्रदान करने वाले पहले व्‍यक्ति कौन थे?

(a) पण्डित रमाबाई

(b) ईश्‍वरचन्‍द्र विद्यासागर

(c) महर्षि कर्वे

(d) राजा राममोहन राय

Answer: (b)

Railway Recruitment Board (RRB) Ranchi Group ‘D’ Examination Held on 08-12-2013 Question Paper With Answer Key

रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड (RRB), सॉल्‍वड पेपर, 08-12-2013

ग्रुप-डी भर्ती परीक्षा (रांची)

 

1. मच्‍छर से फैलने वाले मलेरियाई परजीवी की खोज किसने की थी?

(a) रोनाल्‍ड रोस

(b) एलेक्‍जेण्‍डर फ्लेमिंग

(c) जोसफ लिस्‍टर

(d) लूई पाश्‍चर

Answer: (a)

2. निद्रा रोग का कारण है।

(a) मच्‍छर

(b) चूहे

(c) सी-सी मक्‍खी

(d) ड्रैगन छिपकली

Answer: (c)

3. एनाकोण्‍डा एक किस्‍म है।

(a) हाथी की

(b) सर्प की

(c) मछली की

(d) विशाल छिपकली की

Answer: (b)

4. ‘इकोलॉजी’ अध्‍ययन है।

(a) वायुमण्‍डल का

(b) ध्‍वनि का

(c) जलवायु का

(d) पर्यावरण का

Answer: (d)

5. क्‍लोरोफ्लोरो कार्बन पर्यावरण के लिए हानिप्रद हैं, क्‍योंकि

(a) वे पराबैंगनी विकिरण अवशोषित करते हैं

(b) वे दमा और कर्क रोग जैसी बीमारियों का कारण हैं

(c) वे वायु प्रदूषित करते हैं

(d) वे ओजोन परत का अवक्षय करते हैं

Answer: (d)

6. निम्‍न में से क्‍या एक ज्‍वालामुखी नहीं है?

(a) माउण्‍ट फूजीयामा

(b) माउण्‍ट एटना

(c) क्राकोतोआ

(d) कंचनजंगा

Answer: (d)

7. यलोस्‍टोन राष्‍ट्रीय उद्यान स्थित है।

(a) भारत में

(b) यू एस ए में

(c) ऑस्‍ट्रेलिया में

(d) ब्राजील में

Answer: (b)

8. विश्‍व की सबसे गहरी झील है।

(a) लेक बैकाल

(b) लेक विक्‍टोरिया

(c) लेक ओेंटारियो

(d) लेक टंगन्यिका

Answer: (a)

9. निम्‍नलिखित में से किसकी कमी मधुमेह का कारण है?

(a) पित्‍त

(b) एस्‍ट्रॉजन

(c) इन्‍सुलिन

(d) चीनी

Answer: (c)

10. मच्‍छर, घरेलू मक्‍खी, कीट और बिच्‍छू ये सभी उदाहरण हैं।

(a) मृदुकवची

(b) पक्षी

(c) सन्धिपाद

(d) परजीवी

Answer: (c)

11. मानव शरीर में सबसे बड़ी हड्डी है।

(a) टिबिया

(b) फीमर

(c) फिबूला

(d) लल्‍ना

Answer: (b)

12. मानव शरीर में सबसे बड़ी कोशिकाएं हैं।

(a) एपिथेलियल कोशिका

(b) अन्‍तराली कोशिका

(c) स्‍टेम कोशिका

(d) तन्त्रिका कोशिका

Answer: (d)

13. मानव शरीर में सबसे छोटी हड्डी स्थित होती है।

(a) नाक

(b) अंगूठा

(c) कान

(d) घुटना

Answer: (c)

14. मानव शरीर में सबसे बड़ा अवयव है।

(a) पेट

(b) बड़ी आंत

(c) त्‍वचा

(d) मस्तिष्‍क

Answer: (c)

15. ओह्मापी का उपयोग …….. मापने के लिए किया जाता है।

(a) प्रतिरोध

(b) विभवान्‍तर

(c) धारा

(d) चुम्‍बकीय क्षेत्र

Answer: (a)

16. सतत् तापमान में गैस के प्रदत्‍त द्रव्‍यमान के दाब और आयतन के बीच सम्‍बन्‍ध प्रतिपादित किया जाता है।

(a) चार्ल्‍स के नियम द्वारा

(b) बॉयल के नियम द्वारा

(c) आवोगाद्रो की संख्‍या द्वारा

(d) ऊर्जा संरक्षण नियम द्वारा

Answer: (b)

17. किसी वस्‍तु के द्रव्‍यमान का उसके वेग से गुणा करना कहलाता है।

(a) कोणीय वेग

(b) संवेग

(c) कोणांक (आयाम)

(d) घनत्‍व

Answer: (b)

18. हाइड्रोजन का आविष्‍कार किया।

(a) लेवोजियर ने

(b) जोसफ प्रिस्‍टले ने

(c) एडवर्ड जेनर ने

(d) हेनरी केवेन्डिश ने

Answer: (d)

19. आम ……… के प्रयोग से कृत्रिम रूप से पकाए जाते हैं।

(a) मेथेन

(b) एथेन

(c) प्रोपेन

(d) एसिटाइलिन

Answer: (d)

20. आर्सेनिक विषाक्‍तता का प्रमुख स्रोत है।

(a) वायु प्रदूषण

(b) भूमिगत जल

(c) रासायनिक उर्वरक

(d) तम्‍बाकू

Answer: (c)

21. विकिलीक्‍स के संस्‍थापक हैं।

(a) एडवर्ड स्‍नोडेन

(b) चेल्सिया मेनिंग

(c) जूलियन असांजे

(d) विक्‍टर क्रेमलिन

Answer: (c)

22. हूागो शावेज, जिनकी मृत्‍यु 2013 में हुई, राष्‍ट्रपति थे।

(a) वेनेजुएला के

(b) कोलम्बिया के

(c) क्‍यूबा के

(d) निकरागुआ के

Answer: (a)

23. अंगकोरवाट मन्दिर संकुल स्थित है।

(a) वियतनाम में

(b) थाइलैण्‍ड में

(c) कम्‍बोडिया में

(d) इण्‍डोनेशिया में

Answer: (c)

24. कावेरी नदी के जल विभाजन को लेकर कावेरी जल विवाद तमिलनाडु और ……… के बीच है।

(a) केरल

(b) कर्नाटक

(c) आन्‍ध्र प्रदेश

(d) महाराष्‍ट्र

Answer: (b)

25. अविश्‍वास प्रस्‍ताव के सम्‍बन्‍ध में निम्‍नलिखित में से कौन सा कथन सत्‍य है?

(a) यह विपक्ष और सत्‍ता पार्टी दोनों द्वारा लाया जा सकता है

(b) यह उपस्थित और मत देने वाले न्‍यूनतम 2/3 सदस्‍यों द्वारा पारित होना चाहिए

(c) यह मंत्री परिषद् के विरूद्ध लायाजा सकता है, नहीं कि किसी व्‍यक्तिगत मंत्री के विरूद्ध

(d) यह लोकसभा और राज्‍यसभा दोनों में लाया जा सकता है

Answer: (c)

26. राष्‍ट्रपति द्वारा राज्‍यसभा के लिए कितने सदस्‍य नामित किए जा सकते हैं?

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

Answer: (d)

27. राष्‍ट्रपति द्वारा आंग्‍ल-भारतीय समुदाय के अधिकतम दो सदस्‍य नामित किए जा सकते हैं?

(a) लोकसभा के लिए

(b) राज्‍यसभा के लिए

(c) मन्त्रिपरिषद् के लिए

(d) योजना आयोग के लिए

Answer: (a)

28. हड़प्‍पा सभ्‍यता का केन्‍द्र स्‍थल किस क्षेत्र के निकट स्थित है?

(a) गंगा नदी

(b) यमुना नदी

(c) सिन्‍धु नदी

(d) सतलज नदी

Answer: (c)

29. चन्‍द्रगुप्‍त मौर्य के दरबार में मेगस्‍थनीज ……… का राजदूत था।

(a) एलेक्‍जेण्‍डर

(b) जूलियस सीजर

(c) ऑगस्‍टस

(d) सेल्‍युकस

Answer: (d)

30. अशोक ………… के युद्ध के पश्‍चात् बौद्ध धर्म में परिवर्तित हो गया।

(a) मगध

(b) अंग

(c) कलिंग

(d) हस्तिनापुर

Answer: (c)